SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 121–140 of 7100Page 7 of 100
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 121

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following industry pairs is correctly grouped as heavy industries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sewing machines and Paint brushes

  2. BOption (b)

    Shipbuilding and Automobile

  3. COption (c)

    Electric bulbs and Fuse wires

  4. DOption (d)

    Watches and Paint brushes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shipbuilding and Automobile

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shipbuilding and Automobile.

Key Points

  • Heavy industries are characterized by the production of large-scale goods or machinery requiring significant capital investment, energy, and raw materials.
  • Shipbuilding and Automobile industries are correctly classified as heavy industries due to their large-scale operations, heavy machinery usage, and production of durable goods.
  • Shipbuilding involves the construction of ships and other sea vessels, requiring extensive infrastructure, labor, and advanced engineering techniques.
  • The automobile industry focuses on manufacturing vehicles, which involves complex processes such as designing, assembling, and testing heavy machinery and components.
  • Both industries significantly contribute to the economic development and infrastructure of a nation, providing employment opportunities and driving technological advancements.

Additional Information

  • Major Industry Sectors in India
  • Primary Sector (Extraction & Agriculture)
  • Agriculture & Allied: Food processing, dairy, fishing, forestry, horticulture.
  • Mining & Minerals: Coal, iron ore, steel, cement, oil & gas.
  • Secondary Sector (Manufacturing & Construction)
  • Manufacturing: Automotive, textiles, electronics, pharmaceuticals, chemicals, engineering goods.
  • Construction: Real estate, infrastructure (roads, ports).
  • Tertiary Sector (Services)
  • IT & BPM: Software services, IT outsourcing, tech consulting.
  • Financial Services: Banking, insurance, FinTech, NBFCs.
  • Healthcare & Education: Hospitals, medical devices, training.
  • FMCG: Fast-moving consumer goods (food, personal care).
  • Telecom & Media: Mobile networks, digital content.
  • Tourism & Hospitality: Hotels, travel, aviation.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 122

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The President is elected by an electoral college, while the Governor is _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Directly elected

  2. BOption (b)

    Appointed by the President

  3. COption (c)

    Nominated by Supreme Court

  4. DOption (d)

    Chosen by State Assembly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Appointed by the President

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Appointed by the President.

Key Points

  • The Governor of a state in India is appointed by the President of India under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Governor acts as the nominal head of the state, while the real executive powers lie with the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
  • The Governor serves a term of 5 years, but they hold office at the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed earlier.
  • The appointment process ensures that the Governor is a representative of the central government in the state and maintains coordination between the center and state.
  • The role of the Governor includes duties such as granting assent to bills, appointing the Chief Minister, and overseeing the formation of the state government after elections.

Additional Information

  • Key Appointments by the President: 
  • Prime Minister (PM) & Council of Ministers: Appoints the PM (usually leader of the majority in Lok Sabha) and other ministers on the PM's advice.
  • Judiciary: Chief Justice of India, Supreme Court Judges, and High Court Judges (on consultation).
  • Election Commission: Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.
  • Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): Chairman and Members.
  • Attorney General of India: The government's chief legal advisor.
  • Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG): Guardian of public finances.
  • Governors: Appointed for each state.
  • Administrators: For Union Territories.
  • National Commissions: Chairpersons & members for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Minorities, etc.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 123

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Western Ghats are a recognized biodiversity hotspot. Which of the following is currently considered the most significant threat to its endemic species, beyond general habitat loss?

  1. AOption (a)

    Infrastructure development projects (e.g., roads, dams, mining).

  2. BOption (b)

    Introduction of invasive alien species.

  3. COption (c)

    Forest fires due to climate change.

  4. DOption (d)

    Human-wildlife conflict due to encroachment.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Introduction of invasive alien species.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Introduction of invasive alien species.

Key Points

  • Invasive alien species disrupt ecosystems by outcompeting native species, altering habitat structure, and sometimes causing extinctions.
  • The Western Ghats are home to numerous endemic species that are highly vulnerable to invasive species like Lantana camara, Chromolaena odorata, and Parthenium hysterophorus.
  • Invasive plants and animals often modify the soil chemistry and nutrient cycles, making it harder for native flora and fauna to thrive.
  • Species such as the African Giant Snail and Tilapia fish have been introduced, impacting indigenous species and ecosystems in the Western Ghats.
  • Research indicates that invasive alien species are considered one of the most significant threats to biodiversity globally, and the Western Ghats are no exception.

Additional Information

  • Western Ghats Biodiversity Hotspot:
  • The Western Ghats is one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity in the world.
  • It is home to numerous endemic species, including plants, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
  • Efforts to conserve this biodiversity include biosphere reserves, sanctuaries, and national parks.
  • Key threats include habitat loss, climate change, invasive alien species, and human activities.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 124

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

NISAR's orbit regime is?

  1. AOption (a)

    GTO

  2. BOption (b)

    GEO

  3. COption (c)

    Polar sun-sync

  4. DOption (d)

    LEEO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Polar sun-sync

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Polar sun-synchronous orbit.

Key Points

  • NISAR is a collaborative Earth observation satellite jointly developed by NASA and ISRO.
  • The satellite will operate in a polar sun-synchronous orbit, which allows it to cover the entire Earth while maintaining consistent lighting conditions.
  • A sun-synchronous orbit passes over the same region at the same local solar time, making it ideal for imaging applications like environmental monitoring, disaster management, and agricultural assessments.
  • The orbit's altitude is approximately 747 kilometers above Earth, ensuring optimal radar imaging capabilities.
  • NISAR aims to provide high-resolution data for measuring changes in Earth’s surface, such as ice sheet collapses, land subsidence, and vegetation patterns.

Additional Information

  • Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO):
  • A GTO is an elliptical orbit used to transfer satellites from low Earth orbit to geostationary orbit.
  • This orbit is commonly used for communication satellites that need to maintain a fixed position relative to Earth.
  • However, NISAR does not use this orbit because it requires global coverage, which a geostationary satellite cannot provide.
  • Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO):
  • Satellites in GEO orbit at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km and match Earth's rotation to stay over a fixed point.
  • GEO is ideal for communication, weather monitoring, and broadcasting satellites.
  • NISAR, designed for Earth observation, requires frequent revisits to different regions, making GEO unsuitable.
  • Low Earth Equatorial Orbit (LEEO):
  • LEEO is a type of low Earth orbit where satellites travel close to the equator.
  • It is commonly used for regional observation and communication satellites.
  • NISAR needs to monitor global phenomena, making polar sun-synchronous orbit a better choice.
  • Polar Sun-Synchronous Orbit:
  • This orbit combines polar coverage with consistent lighting conditions, making it suitable for imaging and remote sensing satellites like NISAR.
  • It enables monitoring of the entire Earth’s surface, including polar regions, over time.
  • Such orbits are used extensively in environmental studies, disaster monitoring, and climate research.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 125

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

**Consider the following

Statements:

**

  1. The Governor can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
  2. The President has no such power regarding the Lok Sabha. Which of the above is/are correct?
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1: Only 1.

Key Points

  • The Governor of a state has the constitutional authority to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly under Article 174(2)(b) of the Indian Constitution, usually on the advice of the Chief Minister or in certain circumstances like a no-confidence motion.
  • The President of India, on the other hand, has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85(2)(b) of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is an executive action of the Governor and is generally done to pave the way for fresh elections.
  • The President's power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
  • Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, as the Governor has the power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.

Additional Information

  • Governor's Role and Powers:
  • The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and acts on the advice of the state's Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.
  • The Governor can summon, prorogue, or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly under Article 174 of the Constitution.
  • In extraordinary circumstances (e.g., no-confidence motion passed), the Governor can dissolve the assembly without the advice of the Chief Minister, but this is subject to judicial review.
  • President's Power to Dissolve Lok Sabha:
  • The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution.
  • This power is exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
  • The dissolution of the Lok Sabha paves the way for general elections in the country.
  • Difference Between Dissolution and Prorogation:
  • Dissolution: Refers to the complete termination of the current House of Parliament or State Legislative Assembly. It necessitates fresh elections.
  • Prorogation: Refers to the termination of a session of the House without dissolving it. It simply ends the proceedings for the session.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 126

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with Ashokan pillar sites?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lauriya Nandangarh - Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Sarnath - Gujarat

  3. COption (c)

    Sanchi - Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Amaravati - Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lauriya Nandangarh - Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lauriya Nandangarh - Bihar.

Key Points

  • Lauriya Nandangarh in Bihar is home to one of the Ashokan pillars, which is inscribed with edicts of Emperor Ashoka.
  • The pillar at Lauriya Nandangarh is made of polished sandstone and has inscriptions that reflect the policies of Dhamma, promoting ethical governance and compassion.
  • The site is significant as it represents Ashoka’s efforts to spread Buddhist principles and moral values across his empire.
  • The Lauriya Nandangarh pillar is an example of Ashoka's architectural contributions, showcasing advanced craftsmanship and his commitment to disseminating his edicts.
  • It is located in the West Champaran district of Bihar and is a major archaeological site of historical importance.

Additional Information

  • Sarnath - Gujarat
  • This pairing is incorrect as Sarnath is located in Uttar Pradesh, not Gujarat.
  • Sarnath is the site where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon after attaining enlightenment, known as the Dharmachakra Pravartan.
  • The Ashokan pillar at Sarnath is famous for its lion capital, which has been adopted as the National Emblem of India.
  • The inscriptions on the pillar highlight Ashoka's vision of Dhamma and his call for ethical conduct and non-violence.
  • Sanchi - Odisha
  • The pairing is incorrect as Sanchi is located in Madhya Pradesh, not Odisha.
  • Sanchi is known for its stupas and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site representing the rich Buddhist heritage of India.
  • Although there are inscriptions and architectural elements associated with Ashoka, there is no Ashokan pillar at Sanchi.
  • The site is historically significant for its connection to Ashoka’s promotion of Buddhism.
  • Amaravati - Madhya Pradesh
  • This pairing is incorrect as Amaravati is located in Andhra Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh.
  • Amaravati is known for its ancient Buddhist stupa and sculptures, but it does not host an Ashokan pillar.
  • The site represents a key center of Buddhist art and culture during ancient times.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 127

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The word Kum in Nyokum festival symbolizes:

  1. AOption (a)

    Silence

  2. BOption (b)

    Purity

  3. COption (c)

    Collectiveness

  4. DOption (d)

    Sacrifice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Collectiveness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Collectiveness.

Key Points

  • The Nyokum festival is celebrated by the Nyishi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, India, to promote communal harmony and togetherness.
  • The word "Kum" in Nyokum symbolizes collectiveness, reflecting the festival's emphasis on unity and community gathering.
  • This festival involves rituals and prayers for prosperity, happiness, and the well-being of all living beings.
  • Nyokum is typically celebrated in February, marking a blend of traditional culture, spirituality, and agricultural significance.
  • It highlights the Nyishi people's bond with nature, as they pray to the deities and nature spirits for blessings and abundance in their lives.

Additional Information

  • Major Festivals by Tribe/Region:
  • Monpa:
  • Losar: Tibetan New Year celebrated with purification, rituals, and apricot blossom festivals in Tawang/West Kameng.
  • Torgya: A powerful Buddhist festival at Tawang Monastery with sacred mask dances (Sha-na Cham).
  • Apatani:
  • Dree: A major agricultural festival for bumper crops and prosperity, held in July.
  • Myoko: A long festival reinforcing fertility and community bonds.
  • Adi (Minyong/Padam):
  • Solung: A colourful seven-day harvest festival with rice beer, feasts, and traditional dances.
  • Idu Mishmi:
  • Reh: A festival for prosperity, featuring shamanistic chants and invocations.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 128

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Fill in the blanks: A raga that contains six notes is classified under the ____ jaati.

  1. AOption (a)

    Audav

  2. BOption (b)

    Sampoorna

  3. COption (c)

    Shadav

  4. DOption (d)

    Tishra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shadav

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shadav.

Key Points

  • A raga that contains six notes is classified under the Shadav jaati.
  • In Shadav ragas, the scale consists of six notes, which can be in the ascending (Arohana), descending (Avarohana), or both sequences.
  • The Shadav classification is part of the Indian classical music system, which organizes ragas based on the number of notes used.
  • Shadav ragas are known for their unique melodic expressions and are often used to evoke specific emotions and moods.
  • Examples of Shadav ragas include Malkauns, Durga, and Bhupali.

Additional Information

  • Audav:
  • An Audav raga contains five notes in its scale.
  • It is also referred to as a pentatonic scale in Indian classical music.
  • Both the Arohana (ascending scale) and Avarohana (descending scale) in an Audav raga consist of five swaras (notes).
  • Examples of Audav ragas include Bhupali and Mohanam.
  • Sampoorna:
  • A Sampoorna raga contains all seven notes (sapta swaras) in both the ascending (Arohana) and descending (Avarohana) scales.
  • The word "Sampoorna" means complete, referring to the completeness of the scale.
  • Sampoorna ragas are considered versatile and are widely used in Indian classical music.
  • An example of a Sampoorna raga is Bilahari.
  • Tishra:
  • The term "Tishra" is used in the context of rhythm (tala) in Indian classical music rather than in the classification of ragas.
  • It refers to a rhythmic cycle with three beats or a subdivision of three counts in a tala.
  • Tishra is often utilized in compositions to create unique rhythmic patterns.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 129

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about cricket dismissals is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hitting the ball twice deliberately results in dismissal.

  2. BOption (b)

    Retired Out' requires only umpire approval.

  3. COption (c)

    Obstructing the Field' can occur accidentally.

  4. DOption (d)

    Retired Out' happens automatically without any approval.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hitting the ball twice deliberately results in dismissal.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hitting the ball twice deliberately results in dismissal..

Key Points

  • Hitting the ball twice deliberately is considered an illegal action in cricket and results in dismissal under the laws of the game.
  • This dismissal is covered under Law 34 of the MCC Laws of Cricket, which prohibits a batter from intentionally striking the ball twice unless it is done to defend their wicket.
  • Such an action is judged by the umpire, who determines whether the batter deliberately hit the ball twice.
  • The first strike is considered legitimate (e.g., hitting the ball with the bat), but the second strike intended to gain runs or mislead the fielding team constitutes a breach.
  • This rule upholds the integrity of fair play in cricket and ensures that the batter does not use unfair methods to gain an advantage.

Additional Information

  • Retired Out:
  • A player retiring out does not need umpire approval; it is the batter's voluntary decision.
  • Unlike "retired hurt," where a player leaves due to injury with an option to return, "retired out" is final and does not allow re-entry into the game.
  • This form of dismissal is uncommon and usually occurs in practice matches or under special circumstances.
  • Obstructing the Field:
  • According to Law 37 of the MCC Laws of Cricket, "Obstructing the Field" occurs when a batter deliberately interferes with a fielder attempting to field or catch the ball.
  • This dismissal is not accidental; it requires clear intent by the batter to obstruct the fielding side.
  • Examples include using the bat or body to stop the ball while a fielder is attempting to effect a run-out or catch.
  • Accidental interference, such as running in the path of a fielder without intent, does not constitute this dismissal.
  • Cricket Dismissals:
  • There are several ways a batter can be dismissed in cricket, including bowled, caught, leg before wicket (LBW), stumped, and run-out.
  • Other less common dismissals include obstructing the field, retired out, hitting the ball twice, and timed out.
  • Each type of dismissal has specific rules outlined by the MCC Laws of Cricket and is subject to umpire judgment.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 130

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who scored 10 goals for India in their 24-1 victory over the USA to secure a second consecutive Olympic gold medal in hockey?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhyan Chand

  2. BOption (b)

    Roop Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Balbir Singh Sr.

  4. DOption (d)

    Leslie Claudius

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Roop Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Roop Singh.

Key Points

  • Roop Singh was an Indian field hockey player who played a crucial role in India’s historic Olympic victories in the 1930s.
  • In the 1932 Summer Olympics held in Los Angeles, India defeated the USA with a record-breaking score of 24-1 in hockey.
  • Roop Singh scored an incredible 10 goals in this match, showcasing his exceptional skill and earning a place in hockey history.
  • He was the younger brother of Dhyan Chand, often referred to as the “Wizard of Hockey,” and together they formed a legendary duo in Indian hockey.
  • Roop Singh’s contribution to the game is celebrated as one of the finest performances in Olympic hockey history.

Additional Information

  • Dhyan Chand:
  • Dhyan Chand, often referred to as the “Wizard of Hockey,” is widely regarded as one of the greatest hockey players of all time.
  • He represented India in the Olympics three times (1928, 1932, and 1936) and was instrumental in securing gold medals for the country in all these events.
  • Dhyan Chand scored multiple goals across these tournaments, earning global fame for his extraordinary dribbling skills and precision.
  • He received the Padma Bhushan, India’s third-highest civilian award, in 1956 for his contribution to sports.
  • Balbir Singh Sr.:
  • Balbir Singh Sr. was another legendary hockey player who represented India in the Olympics in later years (1948, 1952, and 1956).
  • He played a key role in securing three consecutive Olympic gold medals for India.
  • Balbir Singh Sr. is remembered for scoring five goals in the 1952 Olympic final against the Netherlands, setting a record for the highest number of goals in an Olympic final match.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri in recognition of his contributions to Indian hockey.
  • Leslie Claudius:
  • Leslie Claudius was an Indian hockey player who won three Olympic gold medals (1948, 1952, and 1956) and one silver medal (1960) during his illustrious career.
  • He was known for his defensive skills and played a key role as a half-back in the Indian hockey team.
  • Leslie Claudius holds the distinction of being one of the most decorated Olympians in hockey.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri for his contributions to the sport of hockey.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 131

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What initiative was launched in 2021 under India's BRICS Presidency to boost cross-border startup collaboration and innovation?

  1. AOption (a)

    BRICS Innovation Pact

  2. BOption (b)

    BRICS Startup Forum

  3. COption (c)

    BRICS SME Exchange

  4. DOption (d)

    BRICS Economic Dialogue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BRICS Startup Forum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BRICS Startup Forum.

Key Points

  • The BRICS Startup Forum was launched in 2021 under India's BRICS Presidency to foster collaboration among startups from BRICS nations.
  • This initiative aims to promote cross-border innovation, knowledge sharing, and funding access for startups within the BRICS economies (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
  • The forum serves as a platform for startups, investors, and ecosystem enablers to network and explore partnerships across diverse sectors.
  • The BRICS Startup Forum aligns with India's vision of fostering entrepreneurship and innovation as a means to drive economic growth and development.
  • The initiative complements existing BRICS mechanisms, such as the New Development Bank, to enhance economic cooperation and sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • BRICS Innovation Pact:
  • Although no formal initiative called the "BRICS Innovation Pact" exists, innovation is a core theme under BRICS cooperation.
  • BRICS nations have collaborated on several innovation-related initiatives, including technology transfer, R&D partnerships, and skill development programs.
  • BRICS SME Exchange:
  • This refers to a conceptual framework aimed at improving cooperation between small and medium enterprises (SMEs) across BRICS countries.
  • The objective is to provide SMEs with opportunities for market access, funding, and knowledge sharing.
  • BRICS Economic Dialogue:
  • The BRICS Economic Dialogue is a platform that facilitates discussions on economic policies, trade, and investment opportunities among BRICS nations.
  • It aims to strengthen economic ties and address global economic challenges through collective action.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 132

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which statements about The Neeraj Chopra Story: The Man Who Made History are correct?

  1. It details Neeraj's training, mindset, and challenges.

  2. It was written by his former Olympian coach.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1 is correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 (Only 1 is correct).

Key Points

  • The book The Neeraj Chopra Story: The Man Who Made History focuses on detailing the journey of Neeraj Chopra, India’s first-ever Olympic gold medalist in athletics.
  • It highlights Neeraj's training, mindset, and the challenges he faced while making his historic achievements in javelin throwing.
  • The book also describes Neeraj’s discipline, perseverance, and the hard work that went into achieving his Olympic feat.
  • This biography serves as an inspiration for young athletes and aspiring sportspeople in India and across the globe.
  • The book was not written by his former Olympian coach; this information is inaccurate.

Additional Information

  • Golden Throw: The Neeraj Chopra Story: An epic tale of resilience and dedication, aimed at young readers and sports fans.
  • Neeraj Chopra: A Complete Biography: Explores his journey from a small town to Olympic gold, intended to motivate youth.
  • Neeraj Chopra: India's Golden Javelin: Another biography focusing on his Olympic success.
  • Neeraj Chopra: Attitude is Everything by Ankit Chauhan: An e-book exploring his mindset and journey.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 133

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Natural levees are most commonly associated with which of the following environments?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arid deserts

  2. BOption (b)

    Floodplains of large rivers

  3. COption (c)

    Glacial valleys

  4. DOption (d)

    Coastal lagoons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Floodplains of large rivers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Floodplains of large rivers.

Key Points

  • Natural levees are elevated ridges formed along the banks of large rivers due to the deposition of sediments during flooding events.
  • They are most commonly associated with floodplains of large rivers, where rivers periodically overflow and deposit heavier sediments close to their banks.
  • The formation of natural levees helps reduce subsequent flooding as they act as natural barriers to river overflow.
  • Such levees are prominent features in lowland river systems such as the Mississippi River in the USA and the Ganges River in India.
  • Natural levees play a crucial role in shaping the landscape and agricultural practices in floodplain regions, as they create a distinct elevated area suitable for cultivation and settlement.

Additional Information

  • Arid Deserts
  • Arid deserts are characterized by low precipitation, extreme temperatures, and sparse vegetation.
  • These regions are dominated by aeolian (wind-driven) processes, such as the formation of sand dunes and erosion, rather than fluvial processes.
  • Natural levees are not typically found in arid deserts due to the lack of consistent water flow and sediment deposition.
  • Glacial Valleys
  • Glacial valleys are U-shaped valleys carved by the movement of glaciers over time.
  • These areas are dominated by glacial processes, including the deposition of moraines and other glacial sediments.
  • Natural levees are not associated with glacial valleys, as they are formed by rivers, not glaciers.
  • Coastal Lagoons
  • Coastal lagoons are shallow water bodies separated from the ocean by a barrier, such as sandbars or barrier islands.
  • They are influenced by tidal and wave action, rather than riverine processes, which are responsible for the formation of natural levees.
  • These environments are more associated with marine and estuarine ecosystems.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 134

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about the 2023 Intercontinental Cup final is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The final was held in Guwahati where India defeated Lebanon.

  2. BOption (b)

    The final was held in Bhubaneswar where India defeated Lebanon.

  3. COption (c)

    The final was held in Imphal where India defeated Lebanon.

  4. DOption (d)

    The final was held in Ahmedabad where India defeated Lebanon.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The final was held in Bhubaneswar where India defeated Lebanon.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The final was held in Bhubaneswar where India defeated Lebanon..

Key Points

  • The 2023 Intercontinental Cup final was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
  • India defeated Lebanon 2-0 in the final, securing their third Intercontinental Cup title.
  • The match was held at the Kalinga Stadium, which has become a prominent venue for hosting international sports events.
  • Sunil Chhetri, India’s captain, played a crucial role throughout the tournament, demonstrating outstanding leadership and performance.
  • This victory marked a significant achievement for the Indian football team under the guidance of coach Igor Stimac.

Additional Information

  • Main Theme: 2023 Intercontinental Cup
  • The Intercontinental Cup is a football tournament organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF).
  • The competition serves as preparation for India’s senior men’s national team ahead of major international tournaments.
  • Teams from Asia, Africa, and other regions participate in the tournament.
  • The 2023 edition saw India, Lebanon, Vanuatu, and Mongolia competing in the tournament.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 135

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which recipient of the Padma Shri in 2025 is the first recognized artist in the traditional Tanglia weaving form of Gujarat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lavjibhai Parmar

  2. BOption (b)

    Shyam Bihari Agrawal

  3. COption (c)

    Gokul Chandra Das

  4. DOption (d)

    Farooq Ahmad Mir

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lavjibhai Parmar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lavjibhai Parmar.

Key Points

  • Lavjibhai Parmar is the first recognized artist in the traditional Tanglia weaving form of Gujarat.
  • The Tanglia weaving technique involves creating intricate patterns using beads and threads, a craft unique to the Surendranagar district in Gujarat.
  • He was honored with the prestigious Padma Shri in 2025 for his remarkable contribution to preserving and promoting this dying art form.
  • Lavjibhai's innovative approach has brought Tanglia weaving to national and international attention, ensuring its survival and relevance in modern times.
  • His work has been instrumental in empowering local artisans and preserving India’s rich cultural heritage.

Additional Information

  • Shyam Bihari Agrawal
  • An industrialist and philanthropist from Chhattisgarh, Shyam Bihari Agrawal has contributed significantly to social development through his charitable initiatives.
  • He has been recognized for his efforts in education, healthcare, and rural development in central India.
  • However, his work is unrelated to the Tanglia weaving tradition of Gujarat.
  • Gokul Chandra Das
  • Gokul Chandra Das is a prominent artist known for his mastery of traditional Assam silk weaving techniques, including Muga and Eri silk.
  • His work highlights the unique textile heritage of Assam, which is different from Gujarat’s Tanglia weaving.
  • Farooq Ahmad Mir
  • Farooq Ahmad Mir is a noted craftsman from Jammu and Kashmir, specializing in Pashmina shawl weaving.
  • His contributions have been pivotal in sustaining the traditional Pashmina craft of the region, which is distinct from Tanglia weaving.
  • Tanglia Weaving
  • Tanglia weaving is a traditional craft that integrates beadwork into handwoven textiles, creating beautiful geometric patterns.
  • It is a labor-intensive process, requiring exceptional skill and precision.
  • This art form primarily supports the livelihood of the Vankar community in Gujarat.
  • Efforts by artisans like Lavjibhai Parmar have revived this craft, showcasing its potential in modern fashion and home decor markets.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 136

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is/are characteristic features of wind-eroded landforms in desert regions?

1.Formation of mushroom-shaped rocks with a slender base and broad upper cap

2.Development of flat-topped residual hills resembling table surfaces

3.Emergence of rock remnants standing as isolated pedestals

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 all are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3 all are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 all are correct.

Key Points

  • Mushroom-shaped rocks, also known as pedestal rocks, are formed due to wind abrasion, where the lower portion erodes more quickly due to the concentration of sand particles near the ground. This creates a slender base and a broad cap.
  • Flat-topped residual hills, resembling table surfaces, are called mesas. These are formed due to differential erosion in desert regions, leaving behind such flat-topped landforms.
  • Rock remnants standing as isolated pedestals, or inselbergs, are created due to the erosional activities of wind, which remove the surrounding softer material, leaving harder rock remnants.
  • Wind erosion is a predominant geomorphic process in desert regions and creates unique landforms such as yardangs, dunes, and deflation hollows.
  • These features are characteristic of arid and semi-arid desert landscapes where wind plays a significant role in shaping the topography.

Additional Information

  • Wind Erosion and Desert Landforms
  • Wind erosion occurs primarily in arid regions due to the lack of vegetation cover and the abundance of loose, fine-grained particles that can be transported by wind.
  • Common processes include deflation (removal of loose particles), abrasion (grinding of rock surfaces by windborne particles), and attrition (collision between particles).
  • Desert landforms shaped by wind include dunes, yardangs, ventifacts, and blowouts.
  • Pedestal Rocks or Mushroom-shaped Rocks
  • These are formed due to differential erosion by wind, where the softer material at the base erodes faster than the harder upper layers.
  • Such landforms are commonly found in arid zones and are indicative of wind abrasion near the surface.
  • Mesas and Buttes
  • Mesas are flat-topped hills with steep sides, formed due to erosion of sedimentary rock layers.
  • Buttes are similar to mesas but smaller in size and are often remnants of larger mesas.
  • Both are features of arid landscapes and result from the differential erosion of rock layers.
  • Inselbergs
  • Inselbergs are isolated rock outcrops that rise abruptly from the surrounding plains.
  • They are formed due to the prolonged erosion of softer surrounding material, leaving behind hard rock masses.
  • Examples include Uluru in Australia and Sugarloaf Mountain in Brazil.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 137

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

When did India successfully complete the SpaDeX docking operation?

  1. AOption (a)

    30th December 2024

  2. BOption (b)

    1st January 2025

  3. COption (c)

    16th January 2025

  4. DOption (d)

    26th January 2025

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16th January 2025

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 16th January 2025.

Key Points

  • India successfully completed the SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) operation on 16th January 2025.
  • The SpaDeX mission is a significant milestone in India’s space exploration capabilities, aimed at demonstrating autonomous docking technology in space.
  • This operation was conducted by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), marking a major step forward in India’s ability to support in-orbit servicing and assembly of satellites.
  • The successful completion of SpaDeX boosts India’s position in the global space industry and enhances the country’s self-reliance in advanced space technologies.
  • The docking experiment is crucial for future missions, such as the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme (Gaganyaan), and for enabling space station development initiatives.

Additional Information

  • Significance of SpaDeX:
  • SpaDeX enables the demonstration of autonomous docking in orbit, a technology essential for long-term space exploration and maintenance of satellites.
  • It lays the groundwork for future missions involving refueling, repair, and assembly of spacecraft in orbit.
  • The mission is aligned with ISRO’s broader goals under the Gaganyaan programme and the development of indigenous space station capabilities.
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Question 138

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which river valley is associated with coal deposits in the North-Eastern Plateau?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tapti Valley

  2. BOption (b)

    Ganga Valley

  3. COption (c)

    Brahmaputra Valley

  4. DOption (d)

    Damodar Valley

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Damodar Valley

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Damodar Valley.

Key Points

  • The Damodar Valley, spread across Jharkhand and West Bengal, is one of India’s most significant coal-bearing regions.
  • This valley is home to the Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, and Giridih coalfields, which are among the richest coal reserves in the country.
  • Coal deposits in the Damodar Valley are primarily bituminous coal, which is highly sought after for its use in power generation and steel production.
  • The Damodar River is often referred to as the "River of Sorrows" due to frequent flooding in the past, but it plays a pivotal role in supporting the coal mining industries in the region.
  • The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC), established in 1948, manages the development of resources in the region, including coal mining and power generation.

Additional Information

  • Tapti Valley:
  • The Tapti River flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
  • It is known for its fertile plains supporting the cultivation of cotton and other crops.
  • However, the Tapti Valley is not associated with significant coal deposits.
  • Ganga Valley:
  • The Ganga River Basin is known for its extensive agricultural activities and fertile lands.
  • It is one of the most densely populated regions in India and serves as a lifeline for millions.
  • Despite its economic and cultural importance, the Ganga Valley is not a prominent region for coal mining or deposits.
  • Brahmaputra Valley:
  • The Brahmaputra Valley is located in Assam and is known for its tea plantations, oil fields, and natural gas reserves.
  • It is also home to rich biodiversity and is prone to annual flooding.
  • Coal deposits in this valley are not significant compared to the Damodar Valley.
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Question 139

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Fill in the blanks: The Parliament can create a new All-India Service by a resolution in the _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajya Sabha

  2. BOption (b)

    Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    State Assemblies

  4. DOption (d)

    GST Council

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rajya Sabha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

  • Under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can create a new All-India Service by passing a resolution in the Rajya Sabha.
  • The resolution must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha.
  • After the Rajya Sabha passes the resolution, the Parliament enacts legislation to officially create the new All-India Service.
  • All-India Services include the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFS), among others.
  • These services are unique as they are recruited and trained centrally but serve both the central and state governments, ensuring uniformity in administrative practices across the nation.

Additional Information

  • Lok Sabha
  • The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is the lower house of the Indian Parliament.
  • It plays a crucial role in the legislative process, particularly in financial matters, as money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
  • State Assemblies
  • State Assemblies, or Vidhan Sabhas, are the legislative bodies of individual states in India.
  • They are responsible for making laws on state subjects as listed in the State List of the Constitution.
  • GST Council
  • The GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A, responsible for making decisions related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
  • It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes representatives from all states and union territories.
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Question 140

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): India is actively developing a Third Launch Pad (TLP) at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR).

Reason (R): The Third Launch Pad is specifically designed to significantly boost India's space launch frequency and accommodate larger, next-generation launch vehicles like NGLV.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Third Launch Pad (TLP): The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is actively working on the development of a Third Launch Pad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR), located at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
  • Purpose of TLP: The TLP is being designed to enhance India's space exploration capabilities by accommodating heavier and next-generation launch vehicles, such as the NGLV (Next-Generation Launch Vehicle).
  • Increased Launch Frequency: The TLP will allow ISRO to increase the frequency of satellite launches, thereby contributing to India’s growing presence in the global space sector.
  • Support for Advanced Missions: The new launch pad will also support advanced missions like human spaceflights under the Gaganyaan program and interplanetary missions.
  • Strategic Importance: This development aligns with India’s long-term strategic goals of becoming a global leader in space exploration and satellite launches, contributing to economic growth and technological advancements.

Additional Information

  • Next-Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV):
  • NGLV is being developed by ISRO as a cost-effective, three-stage rocket designed for a variety of missions, including commercial satellite launches, deep-space exploration, and human spaceflight missions.
  • The vehicle will use advanced technology, including semi-cryogenic engines, to achieve higher payload capacities and efficiency.
  • Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR):
  • SDSC-SHAR, located in Sriharikota, serves as ISRO’s primary launch site for all satellite and space missions.
  • It is equipped with two active launch pads currently, which are used for PSLV, GSLV, and other launch vehicles.
  • Gaganyaan Mission:
  • The Gaganyaan program is India’s maiden human spaceflight mission, aiming to send Indian astronauts (Gagannauts) into low Earth orbit.
  • The Third Launch Pad will play a critical role in supporting future human spaceflights under this program.
  • Space Exploration in India:
  • India’s space program has evolved significantly, with notable achievements such as the Chandrayaan missions, Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan), and the Chandrayaan-3 Moon landing.
  • The development of infrastructure like the TLP will further enable ISRO to expand its capabilities and collaborate on international space projects.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.