General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is b-c-a.

Key Points

• Bharhut (2^nd century BCE): It represents the earliest phase of Buddhist art in India, with its relief sculptures being relatively simple and narrative in nature. The themes revolve around the Jataka tales and early Buddhist motifs.
• Sanchi Stupa-1 (1^st century BCE): Located in Madhya Pradesh, the Sanchi Stupa showcases more advanced artistic techniques, with intricate carvings, toranas (gateways), and a more evolved style of Buddhist representation.
• Mathura (1^st-2^nd century CE): The Mathura school of art is known for creating Buddha and Bodhisattva sculptures in human form, transitioning from symbolic representation to anthropomorphic depictions.
• The chronological sequence of the development of Buddhist sculptures starts with Bharhut, followed by Sanchi Stupa-1, and ends with Mathura, reflecting a clear evolution in artistic styles and techniques.
• This progression demonstrates the shift from symbolic to anthropomorphic representation of Buddha in Indian art, marking the stylistic evolution of Buddhist sculpture over centuries.

Additional Information

• Bharhut:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, Bharhut is one of the earliest examples of Buddhist art and architecture.
• The Bharhut stupa features narrative reliefs depicting Jataka tales and early Buddhist symbols like the Bodhi tree, footprints, and wheels.
• The art here is relatively simple, with less emphasis on intricate detailing compared to later styles.
• Sanchi Stupa-1:
• The Great Stupa at Sanchi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the most significant monuments of Indian Buddhist architecture.
• The intricately carved toranas (gateways) and railings depict scenes from the life of Buddha, Jataka tales, and Buddhist symbols.
• The Sanchi sculptures show a transition toward more detailed and refined artistry compared to Bharhut.
• Mathura:
• The Mathura school of art developed during the Kushana period and is known for its anthropomorphic depictions of Buddha and Bodhisattvas.
• This style represents a clear shift from symbolic to human representation, with figures characterized by intricate detailing and a spiritual expression.
• Mathura art also influenced other Buddhist art forms, including the Gandhara school of art.

The correct answer is Lord Kallazhagar arrives on a golden horse.

Key Points

• The Chithirai Festival is one of the most famous festivals of Tamil Nadu, celebrated annually in Madurai during the Tamil month of Chithirai (April-May).
• The festival reenacts the celestial wedding of Goddess Meenakshi (an avatar of Parvati) and Lord Sundareswarar (an avatar of Shiva).
• A significant highlight of the festival is the arrival of Lord Kallazhagar (an avatar of Vishnu) to the Vaigai River on a golden horse to bless the wedding of his sister Meenakshi.
• Lord Kallazhagar's journey from his temple in Alagar Kovil to Madurai is celebrated with great fervor and devotion, drawing thousands of devotees.
• The event symbolizes the unity of the Shaivite (followers of Shiva) and Vaishnavite (followers of Vishnu) traditions in Tamil culture.

Additional Information

• Major Festivals
• Pongal: A four-day harvest festival giving thanks to the Sun God, featuring traditional cooking, cattle worship, and the famous Jallikattu bull sport in Madurai.
• Puthandu (Tamil New Year): Celebrated in mid-April (Chittirai month) with traditional customs and feasts.
• Thaipusam: Devotees carry milk pots to temples for Lord Murugan (Kartikeya).
• Karthigai Deepam: A ten-day festival marked by new clothes, gifts, and temple celebrations, with large lamps lit.
• Diwali (Deepavali): The festival of lights, celebrated with lamps, sweets, and family gatherings.

The correct answer is Bandish.

Key Points

• A Bandish is a fixed, melodic composition in Hindustani classical music, often set to a specific raga and taal.
• It serves as the foundation for improvisation and is typically performed in a specific rhythmic cycle, such as Teentaal or Ektaal.
• Bandish is composed of two main parts: the Sthayi (the initial part) and the Antara (the second part), which explore the raga's characteristics.
• It is usually written in a specific language, such as Hindi, Urdu, Braj Bhasha, or Sanskrit, and often has devotional or romantic themes.
• Bandishes are an integral part of the Gharana system, with each Gharana having its unique repertoire of compositions.

Additional Information

• Kriti
• A Kriti is a structured composition in Carnatic classical music, not Hindustani music.
• It consists of three main sections: Pallavi (opening), Anupallavi (middle section), and Charanam (ending).
• Kritis often emphasize devotional themes and are composed in South Indian languages like Tamil, Telugu, or Kannada.
• Famous Carnatic composers like Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Syama Sastri are known for their kritis.
• Gamaka
• Gamaka refers to the ornamentation or embellishment of notes in Indian classical music.
• It involves techniques such as oscillation, slides, and bends to bring out the essence of a raga.
• Gamaka is not a composition but a stylistic element used during performance.
• It varies in execution between Hindustani and Carnatic music styles.
• Rasa
• Rasa refers to the aesthetic or emotional experience evoked in the listener by a musical performance.
• Indian classical music often aims to evoke specific rasas, such as joy (Hasya), sorrow (Karuna), or peace (Shanta).
• It is a broader concept rooted in Indian aesthetics and applies to various art forms, including dance and drama.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is Correct: In Judo, the red-and-white belt (Kōhaku obi) is worn by judokas holding the ranks of Sixth Dan (6^th), Seventh Dan (7^th), and Eighth Dan (8^th).
• Statement 2 is Correct: According to the International Judo Federation (IJF) competition rules, when two competition areas are adjacent, a shared safety zone of at least 3 metres must be maintained between them to ensure the safety of the competitors.
• The safety zone provides adequate space for athletes who may move beyond the contest area during a bout, reducing the risk of injuries.
• Hence, both statements are correct.

Additional Information

• The competition area (contest area) in Judo is generally square and is surrounded by a designated safety zone.
• Judokas holding the Ninth Dan (9^th) and Tenth Dan (10^th) traditionally wear a solid red belt.
• The belt system in Judo reflects a practitioner's technical skill, experience, and contribution to the sport.

Important Points

• Red-and-White Belt: 6^th Dan to 8^th Dan.
• Red Belt: 9^th Dan and 10^th Dan.
• Shared Safety Zone: Minimum 3 metres between adjoining competition areas.
• Governing Body: International Judo Federation (IJF).
• Exam Tip: Remember that the red-and-white belt is awarded to 6^th–8^th Dan judokas, while a 3-metre shared safety zone is mandatory between adjoining competition areas.
• Correct Answer: Both 1 and 2.

The correct answer is Gulveer Singh.

Key Points

• Gulveer Singh broke the 30-year-old Asian Games men's 5,000m meet record during the National Open Athletics Championships in 2024.
• He clocked an impressive time, surpassing all previous records set in the Asian Games men's 5,000m event.
• Gulveer Singh is recognized as one of India's emerging long-distance runners, gaining accolades for his performance in national and international events.
• The record-breaking achievement highlights India's growing prominence in athletics, especially in long-distance running.
• His performance has placed him among the ranks of elite Indian athletes contributing to the nation's success in global athletics.

Additional Information

• Bahadur Singh:
• Bahadur Singh is a renowned former Indian shot putter who represented India in multiple international events, including the Olympics.
• He held national records in shot put for several years and was a pivotal figure in Indian athletics during his active years.
• While he excelled in field events, he is not associated with long-distance running or the 5,000m event.
• Neeraj Chopra:
• Neeraj Chopra is India's iconic javelin thrower, known for winning gold medals at the Olympics and Asian Games.
• He became the first Indian to win an Olympic gold medal in athletics during the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• Although he is highly celebrated in throwing events, he does not compete in the 5,000m race.
• Hima Das:
• Hima Das is an Indian sprinter popularly known as the "Dhing Express" for her achievements in short-distance running.
• She specializes in 400m and 200m events and has won numerous medals in international competitions.
• Her expertise lies in sprinting, not long-distance events like the 5,000m race.
• Asian Games Men's 5,000m Event:
• The Asian Games men's 5,000m is a long-distance track event that tests endurance, strategy, and speed.
• It has historically seen records set by athletes from various nations, showcasing their athletic prowess.
• Breaking a 30-year-old record signifies immense skill, dedication, and training, marking the athlete's place in history.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• BRICS Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) cooperation is established on the foundation of mutual benefit, public-good-driven innovation, and sustainable development.
• The cooperation framework is designed to address common challenges faced by BRICS nations, such as energy security, healthcare, and climate change, while promoting inclusive growth.
• It is not solely governed through annual Heads of State Summits but includes several ministerial meetings, working groups, and collaborative initiatives to ensure effective coordination and implementation.
• BRICS STI cooperation emphasizes joint research projects, knowledge sharing, and capacity building among member nations: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• This initiative fosters collaboration in areas like technology transfer, innovation policy exchange, and the development of advanced technologies.

Additional Information

• Statement 2: It is governed only through annual Heads of State Summits
• This statement is incorrect as BRICS STI cooperation is not limited to annual Heads of State Summits.
• The framework involves various mechanisms, including ministerial-level meetings, expert-level working groups, and joint initiatives in STI fields.
• Moreover, the BRICS STI Steering Committee plays a significant role in formulating strategies and monitoring progress.
• About BRICS STI Cooperation
• The initiative was launched to enhance collaboration between BRICS nations in science, technology, and innovation to solve global and regional challenges.
• Key focus areas include energy, climate change, water resources, biotechnology, and information and communication technologies (ICTs).
• The BRICS Young Scientist Forum (YSF) is an integral part of this cooperation, aiming to foster the exchange of knowledge among young researchers.
• BRICS STI Framework Program promotes joint multilateral research and development (R&D) projects in priority areas of mutual interest.

The correct answer is Dec 2023.

Key Points

• The inaugural Khelo India Para Games were held from December 2 to December 6, 2023, in New Delhi, India.
• The event was organized to promote inclusivity and provide a platform for para-athletes to showcase their talent.
• Seven sporting disciplines were featured, highlighting the government’s commitment to promoting sports among persons with disabilities (PwDs).
• The event took place at three venues in New Delhi, including Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium and others.
• The Khelo India initiative aims to promote grassroots sports and encourage young athletes to participate in national and international events.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Initiative:
• The Khelo India program is a flagship initiative by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, aimed at promoting sports and fitness among youth.
• It includes various events like the Khelo India Youth Games, Khelo India University Games, and Khelo India Para Games.
• The initiative also provides financial assistance to athletes, infrastructure development, and training programs to nurture sports talent in the country.

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• Assertion (A): Last Man in Tower by Aravind Adiga primarily explores the moral and ethical dilemmas faced by residents during rapid urban development and real estate pressures in Mumbai.
• This novel highlights the conflicting aspirations of residents in a cooperative housing society when confronted with a lucrative buyout offer from a real estate developer.
• The characters in the story grapple with their conscience, values, and the implications of urbanization on their lives and relationships.
• Reason (R): The novel does not focus on the historical evolution of Mumbai's architecture or its colonial past. Instead, it centers on contemporary issues related to urbanization and societal changes.
• Hence, while the assertion (A) is true, the reason (R) is false as it does not accurately explain the assertion.

Additional Information

• Main Theme of the Novel:
• Last Man in Tower is a social and moral commentary on the effects of rapid urbanization and real estate development in modern India.
• The novel sheds light on the human cost of progress, such as strained relationships, greed, and the erosion of communal values in the face of economic temptations.
• It portrays the tension between traditional values and modern aspirations in a rapidly changing urban landscape.

The correct answer is Stalagmite - Formed by dripping water from cave ceiling.

Key Points

• Stalagmites are mineral formations that rise from the floor of caves, formed due to the deposition of minerals from dripping water.
• They are created when water containing dissolved calcium carbonate or other minerals drips from the cave ceiling, leaving deposits on the cave floor.
• The process involves evaporation of water and deposition of minerals over time, leading to upward growth of the stalagmite.
• Stalagmites typically grow in a conical shape, but their appearance can vary depending on environmental conditions and mineral concentration.
• The formation is a slow process, often taking thousands of years to develop significant size.

Additional Information

• Stalactites
• Stalactites are mineral formations that hang from the ceiling of caves, formed by dripping water rich in calcium carbonate or other minerals.
• Water drips down from the ceiling, leaving behind small deposits of minerals that accumulate over time.
• The growth direction of stalactites is downward and they often appear like icicles.
• Stalactites and stalagmites can sometimes join together to form a column or pillar.
• Pillars
• Pillars, also known as columns, are formed when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow until they meet and connect.
• This process can take hundreds of thousands of years depending on the rate of mineral deposition.
• Pillars symbolize the unification of upward (stalagmite) and downward (stalactite) mineral formation.
• General Cave Formations
• Cave formations, also known as speleothems, are created by the deposition of minerals from water.
• The most common minerals involved are calcium carbonate, forming structures like stalactites, stalagmites, and pillars.
• The process of mineral deposition is influenced by factors such as water flow rate, mineral concentration, temperature, and humidity within the cave.
• Cave formations are important for understanding geological processes and the history of Earth's climate.

The correct answer is It boosts India's navigation system by offering precise position and timing data.

Key Points

• NVS-02 is part of the NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) satellite system, designed to enhance India's regional navigation capabilities.
• The satellite was launched aboard the GSLV-F15 rocket by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It primarily strengthens India's indigenous satellite-based navigation system by providing accurate positional and timing data.
• The satellite ensures improved accuracy for navigation services across India and a region extending up to 1,500 km beyond Indian borders.
• NVS-02 is equipped with advanced rubidium atomic clocks for precise timekeeping, a critical component for navigation systems.

Additional Information

• India's NavIC System
• NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is India's independent regional navigation satellite system developed by ISRO.
• It provides accurate position information services to users in India and the surrounding region.
• NavIC is comparable to global navigation systems like GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (EU), and BeiDou (China).
• It has applications in terrestrial, aerial, and marine navigation, disaster management, vehicle tracking, and more.

The correct answer is Option 3: A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• Assertion (A): Population growth can be measured in absolute numbers and percentage change per year.
• This statement is correct as population growth is commonly assessed using both absolute numbers (total increase in population) and percentage change (growth rate relative to the total population).
• Absolute numbers give the actual increase in population size, while percentage change provides a standardized measure to compare growth rates across regions or time periods.
• Reason (R): Measuring growth only in absolute numbers provides detailed insights into population trends over time.
• This statement is incorrect because measuring growth only in absolute numbers does not provide a complete or detailed picture of population trends. For example, it does not account for variations in population size or growth rates across regions or timeframes.
• Therefore, while the assertion is true, the reason does not correctly explain it, making Option 3 the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Population Growth Measurement
• Population growth can be influenced by factors such as birth rate, death rate, immigration, and emigration.
• Absolute numbers are useful for understanding the total increase in population size but do not account for population distribution or density.
• Percentage change provides a relative measure, enabling comparison across regions or time periods.

The correct answer is Option 1) 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• K. Sanjay Murthy took office as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in November 2024, succeeding Girish Chandra Murmu.
• The CAG is a constitutional authority and is appointed by the President of India as per Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments and public sector organizations to ensure accountability.
• The term of the CAG is six years, or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The CAG is ineligible for further office under the Government of India or any State Government after ceasing to hold office.
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect because the term is six years (not five).

Additional Information

• Role of the CAG:
• The CAG audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
• The CAG reports are laid before the Parliament and state legislatures, ensuring transparency and accountability in public finances.
• The CAG plays a key role in ensuring financial discipline and adherence to financial rules and regulations.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the CAG as an independent authority.
• The CAG is considered the guardian of the public purse and serves as a critical institution for democracy.

The correct answer is Protein modification.

Key Points

• The Golgi apparatus is an essential organelle in eukaryotic cells responsible for processing and modifying proteins received from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
• It functions by adding carbohydrates, lipids, or other molecules to proteins, forming glycoproteins and lipoproteins.
• Proteins are sorted, packaged, and directed to their specific destinations, such as lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion outside the cell.
• The Golgi consists of cisternae (flattened membrane-bound sacs) arranged in a stack, with the cis-face receiving proteins and the trans-face dispatching them.
• It also plays a role in the synthesis of polysaccharides used in the cell wall of plants and extracellular matrix components in animal cells.

Additional Information

• ATP Production:
• ATP production primarily occurs in the mitochondria through cellular respiration, not the Golgi apparatus.
• Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse of the cell" and produce ATP via oxidative phosphorylation during the electron transport chain.
• ATP serves as the main energy currency for cellular processes, including muscle contraction, active transport, and biosynthesis.
• Lipid Synthesis:
• Lipid synthesis occurs predominantly in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER), not the Golgi apparatus.
• The SER is responsible for synthesizing phospholipids, cholesterol, and steroid hormones essential for cellular membranes and signaling molecules.
• DNA Replication:
• DNA replication occurs in the nucleus during the S-phase of the cell cycle, not the Golgi apparatus.
• It involves unwinding the DNA double helix and synthesizing a complementary strand using enzymes like DNA polymerase.

The correct answer is Three-fourths majority.

Key Points

• Article 279A of the Indian Constitution establishes the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, responsible for making recommendations to the Union and State governments on key GST issues.
• Decisions of the GST Council require a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
• The voting weightage is split between the Union Government and State Governments—one-third of the total votes are allocated to the Union Government, and two-thirds to the State Governments.
• A quorum of at least 50% of the total members of the GST Council is required to conduct a meeting, ensuring sufficient representation for decision-making.
• The GST Council’s decisions are pivotal in determining tax rates, exemptions, thresholds, and other GST-related matters, fostering cooperative federalism in India.

Additional Information

• Simple majority
• A simple majority refers to a decision being passed if more than 50% of the members present and voting approve it.
• Many parliamentary decisions in India, such as passing ordinary bills, require a simple majority.
• However, the GST Council requires a higher threshold to ensure wider consensus among members.
• Two-thirds majority
• A two-thirds majority is required for certain critical decisions, such as constitutional amendments (under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution).
• This majority ensures a larger agreement among members for significant changes to the legal framework.
• However, GST Council decisions require an even higher threshold of three-fourths majority.
• GST Council 
• The GST Council is a constitutional body formed under Article 279A to create a unified tax structure for India.
• It comprises the Union Finance Minister as the Chairperson, the Union Minister of State for Revenue, and representatives from all states and union territories.
• It plays a crucial role in promoting cooperative federalism by ensuring participation from both the central and state governments in tax-related decisions.

The correct answer is Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.

Key Points

• Article 255 of the Indian Constitution states that the absence of prior recommendation or sanction required by the Constitution does not invalidate a law if it has received the assent of the President or the Governor.
• The provision ensures that minor procedural lapses do not obstruct the legislative process, provided the bill has been duly assented to.
• For example, even if a recommendation from the President or Governor is not obtained at the time of introducing a bill, the law remains valid if subsequent assent is granted.
• This article upholds the principle of legislative supremacy by ensuring that procedural errors do not nullify valid legislative acts.
• It applies to both state and central legislation, ensuring uniformity in the treatment of procedural lapses related to assent.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Articles (Part VI, Chapter II)
• Article 153: Establishes the office of the Governor for each state (one person can be Governor for two or more states).
• Article 154: Vests the executive power of the state in the Governor.
• Article 155: Appointment by the President (warrant under hand and seal).
• Article 156: Term of office (holds office during President's pleasure).
• Article 157: Qualifications for appointment (Citizen of India, 35 years old).
• Article 163: Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor (except in discretionary matters).
• Article 164: Other provisions as to Ministers (appointment, responsibility to the Assembly).

The correct answer is Frequency.

Key Points

• When light transitions from one medium to another, its frequency remains constant because frequency is determined by the source of the light and does not change during refraction.
• The speed of light changes depending on the refractive index of the medium, resulting in a change in wavelength to maintain the constant frequency.
• Frequency is the number of oscillations or cycles per second of a wave and is measured in Hertz (Hz).
• According to the equation v = f × λ (where v is the speed, f is the frequency, and λ is the wavelength), frequency must remain unchanged during refraction to preserve energy conservation.
• Since the frequency is directly linked to the energy of photons, maintaining constant frequency ensures that the energy of light remains unchanged during its transition between different media.

Additional Information

• Wavelength:
• The wavelength of light changes when it enters a different medium because its speed changes.
• As per the formula λ = v / f, a decrease in speed due to a higher refractive index leads to a shorter wavelength.
• This is why light bends when transitioning from air to a denser medium (e.g., glass or water).
• Speed:
• Light travels at different speeds depending on the refractive index of the medium.
• In air or vacuum, light travels at its maximum speed (approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s), but in denser media, the speed decreases.
• The relationship between speed and refractive index is given by v = c / n, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum and n is the refractive index.
• Amplitude:
• The amplitude of light represents the intensity or brightness of the wave.
• While amplitude can change due to absorption or scattering in the medium, it is unrelated to the refractive properties of the medium.
• Amplitude affects how bright or dim the light appears, but does not influence its frequency or wavelength.
• Concept of Refraction:
• Refraction occurs when light changes direction upon entering a medium with a different refractive index.
• The refractive index is a measure of how much the medium slows down light compared to a vacuum.
• The change in speed and wavelength during refraction leads to bending of light, as described by Snell's Law: n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂.

The correct answer is Forensic science and digital technology.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (Indian Evidence Act) aims to modernize evidence laws by incorporating advancements in forensic science and digital technology.
• The amendments address the increasing reliance on digital evidence, such as electronic records, emails, social media posts, and CCTV footage, in legal proceedings.
• Forensic science advancements, including DNA profiling, fingerprint analysis, and other scientific methods, are being integrated to ensure the reliability and accuracy of evidence.
• The Act seeks to align Indian legal practices with global standards by focusing on scientific evidence and digital tools to improve the justice delivery system.
• The government aims to combat cybercrime, fraud, and other crimes effectively through the use of advanced forensic and digital technologies.

Additional Information 

• The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam focuses on modernizing legal evidence practices by adopting scientific and technological advancements.
• It aims to strengthen the credibility of legal evidence by integrating forensic science and digital technology into the Indian judicial system.
• This modernization is crucial for addressing contemporary challenges like cybercrime, fraud, and the growing reliance on digital data.

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is indeed a civilian award designed to honor individuals for their contributions in the field of science.
• It is a prestigious recognition aimed at promoting scientific research, innovation, and excellence in India.
• The award is conferred by the Government of India and is not directly associated with the Ministry of Culture.
• The Ministry of Science and Technology is typically the administering authority for science-related awards in India.
• Hence, while the assertion (A) about the nature of the award is correct, the reason (R) attributing it to the Ministry of Culture is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Science and Technology
• The Ministry of Science and Technology is responsible for promoting scientific research and innovation in India.
• It administers various awards and recognitions to encourage excellence in science and technology.
• These awards aim to foster a culture of innovation and research among scientists and researchers.

The correct answer is Politics, Economy, Health, Education.

Key Points

• The Global Gender Gap Report, published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), measures gender-based disparities in four key areas: Politics, Economy, Health, and Education.
• It uses a comprehensive framework to evaluate countries on how effectively they are closing gender gaps across these four dimensions.
• The report assigns a Gender Gap Index score between 0 (complete inequality) and 1 (complete equality) for each country.
• In the political domain, factors such as the percentage of women in parliamentary and ministerial positions are considered.
• In the economic domain, the report assesses metrics like workforce participation, wage equality, and leadership roles.
• The health dimension examines life expectancy and the gender gap in survival rates, while education focuses on literacy rates and access to education at all levels.

Additional Information

• World Economic Forum (WEF) releases several major annual reports, including: 
• Global Risks Report: Identifies and analyzes the most critical global risks, drawing from expert surveys.
• Future of Jobs Report: Explores how technology and socio-economic shifts are reshaping jobs and required skills.
• Global Gender Gap Report: Benchmarks progress on gender equality in four key areas (Economic Participation, Education, Health, Politics).
• Top 10 Emerging Technologies: Spotlights technologies with the potential to positively impact society.
• Global Cybersecurity Outlook: Examines cybersecurity trends affecting economies and societies.
• Global Competitiveness Report: Assesses national competitiveness.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Thang-Ta is a traditional martial art dance form originating from Manipur, a northeastern state of India.
• It is an integral part of the Manipuri martial arts system known as Huyen Langlon, which combines armed and unarmed combat techniques.
• The term Thang-Ta is derived from the Manipuri words "Thang" (sword) and "Ta" (spear), symbolizing the weapons used in this martial art.
• This martial art was historically practiced by the Meitei warriors for self-defense and warfare.
• Thang-Ta also has a spiritual dimension and is performed as a dance-drama to depict the valor and heroism of Manipuri warriors.
• The art form has evolved into a cultural performance and is now showcased at various festivals and events to preserve its traditional heritage.

Additional Information

• Assam
• Assam is known for its classical dance form called Sattriya, which was introduced by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev.
• Sattriya is a blend of dance, drama, and music and is performed in monasteries called "Satras."
• The state is also famous for Bihu dance, a joyous folk dance performed during the Bihu festival.
• Nagaland
• Nagaland is renowned for its rich tribal culture, and the Naga warrior dances are an important tradition.
• The dances reflect the bravery and unity of different Naga tribes, often performed during festivals like Hornbill Festival.
• The tribes of Nagaland use vibrant costumes and rhythmic steps to celebrate their heritage.
• Tripura
• Tripura is home to the famous tribal dance called Hojagiri, performed by the Reang community.
• Hojagiri involves intricate balancing acts and is performed by women, showcasing their skill and grace.
• The dance is an integral part of Tripura's culture and is performed during the Hojagiri Festival.