General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• Demographic statistics like birth and death rates depend heavily on accurate reporting from households to maintain the reliability of population data.
• Birth and death registration in India is governed by the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, which mandates recording these events.
• Despite the legal requirement, the implementation of birth and death registration varies widely across regions due to factors like literacy levels, infrastructure, and accessibility.
• The claim in the reason (R) that registration is "always accurately followed in all parts of India" is incorrect. Challenges such as lack of awareness, geographical inaccessibility, and resource constraints often result in underreporting or delayed registration.
• Thus, while the assertion (A) is correct, the reason (R) is false, as it does not accurately explain the situation of registration compliance in India.

Additional Information

• Importance of Birth and Death Registration
• Accurate registration is crucial for demographic analysis, policy-making, and resource allocation at both national and state levels.
• Birth certificates serve as proof of age, identity, and nationality, which are essential for accessing various benefits and rights.
• Death registration helps track mortality rates, causes of death, and contributes to public health planning.
• Efforts are being made to improve registration rates in India through awareness campaigns and the digitization of records.

The correct answer is Option 1: Gokul Chandra Das – Folk Music.

Key Points

• Gokul Chandra Das is a renowned artist in the field of Folk Music, recognized for his significant contributions to preserving and promoting traditional folk music in India.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri for his outstanding contribution to Folk Music, a category under Arts.
• The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors in India, given in various fields such as art, literature, social work, and public affairs.
• The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in India, conferred to individuals for distinguished contributions in various fields.
• The recognition of individuals like Gokul Chandra Das highlights the importance of preserving and celebrating India’s rich cultural heritage.

Additional Information

• Dinesh Saini – Environment
• Dinesh Saini is not listed among the Padma awardees under the category of Environment.
• The Environment category in Padma Awards recognizes individuals for their work in environmental conservation, climate change mitigation, and ecological preservation.
• Farooq Ahmad Mir – Literature
• Farooq Ahmad Mir is not associated with receiving the Padma Award in the field of Literature.
• The Literature category in Padma Awards celebrates contributions to Indian literature, creative writing, and linguistic studies.
• Geeta Devi – Agriculture
• Geeta Devi is not listed among Padma awardees in the field of Agriculture.
• Agriculture-related Padma Awards are given to individuals who have contributed to advancements in farming techniques, sustainable agriculture, and rural development.
• Padma Awards Overview
• The Padma Awards are classified into three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri, in decreasing order of prestige.
• These awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day in India.
• Fields covered include art, literature, science, sports, social work, public affairs, and more.
• The awards aim to recognize individuals from diverse backgrounds who have made exceptional contributions to society.

The correct answer is Autonomous high-speed landing under tough cross-range & wind.

Key Points

• ISRO's RLV-LEX3 mission on June 23, 2024, successfully demonstrated autonomous high-speed landing capabilities, a critical step in reusable launch vehicle technology development.
• The landing operation was conducted under challenging conditions, including tough cross-range and wind scenarios, showcasing the robustness of the vehicle's autonomous systems.
• This achievement marks a significant step forward in ISRO's plans to develop reusable space technology, which aims to reduce the cost of satellite launches and make space access more economical.
• The mission tested advanced technologies like precision navigation, guidance, and control systems, essential for enabling autonomous landing of spacecraft.
• The RLV (Reusable Launch Vehicle) program is part of ISRO's efforts to create a sustainable and cost-effective space ecosystem through reusable technologies.

Additional Information

• Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology
• Reusable launch vehicles are designed to be recovered and reused for multiple missions, significantly reducing the cost of satellite launches.
• The RLV program is a pioneering effort by ISRO to develop technologies such as autonomous landing, precision navigation, and reusability for space systems.
• These technologies are crucial for creating a sustainable and economically viable space exploration framework.

The correct answer is One gene affects multiple traits.

Key Points

• Pleiotropy refers to a situation where a single gene affects multiple phenotypic traits.
• This occurs because the gene encodes a product (such as a protein) that is involved in multiple biological processes.
• Examples of pleiotropy include the gene responsible for sickle-cell anemia, which affects red blood cell shape and provides resistance to malaria.
• Pleiotropic effects can be observed in both normal physiological processes and genetic disorders.
• Pleiotropy is a fundamental concept in genetics and demonstrates how genes can have far-reaching effects on an organism's phenotype.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Multiple genes affect one trait
• This describes a phenomenon known as polygenic inheritance, where a trait is governed by two or more genes.
• Examples include human height, skin color, and eye color, which result from the combined effect of several genes.
• Polygenic traits often show continuous variation, unlike pleiotropic traits, which are influenced by a single gene.
• Option 3: Gene mutation in one allele
• This refers to a mutation in one copy of a gene (allele) that can affect its function.
• Such mutations can lead to genetic disorders if the mutated allele is dominant or if the condition is recessive and both alleles are affected.
• While this is a distinct genetic concept, it does not describe pleiotropy.
• Option 4: Gene duplication
• Gene duplication is an evolutionary process where a segment of DNA containing a gene is copied, resulting in multiple copies of that gene in the genome.
• This can lead to the evolution of new gene functions or increased gene dosage but is unrelated to pleiotropy.
• Explanation of Pleiotropy:
• Pleiotropy is critical for understanding the complexity of genetic interactions and how single genes can have multiple impacts on an organism's physiology and development.
• It is also significant in studying diseases with pleiotropic effects, such as Marfan syndrome, where a single gene mutation affects the connective tissue throughout the body.

The correct answer is Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils can only make recommendations within 14 days.

Key Points

• Under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
• Once the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, but the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject it.
• The Rajya Sabha must return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha with or without recommendations within a period of 14 days. If not returned within this period, the Bill is deemed passed by both Houses of Parliament.
• In the case of State Legislatures with bicameralism, the Legislative Council can only make recommendations to the Legislative Assembly on Money Bills and must return the Bill within 14 days.
• The powers of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Councils on Money Bills are limited to recommendations, and the final decision rests with the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assembly, respectively.

Additional Information

• A Money Bill deals exclusively with matters listed in Article 110(1) of the Constitution, such as taxation, borrowing, expenditure, and matters incidental to these.
• The distinction between Money Bills and other financial Bills is significant because it limits the role of the Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils in the legislative process.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assembly is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

The correct answer is Property of inertia.

Key Points

• Inertia is the property of matter that causes it to resist changes in its state of motion or rest unless acted upon by an external force.
• It is a fundamental concept of classical mechanics, based on Newton's First Law of Motion, which states that "an object at rest remains at rest, and an object in motion continues in motion with the same speed and direction unless acted upon by an external force."
• The difficulty in starting the motion of a heavy box is due to its inertia of rest, which resists any change from a stationary state.
• Similarly, the difficulty in stopping the box once it is moving is due to its inertia of motion, which resists any change in its current velocity.
• The larger the mass of an object, the greater its inertia, which is why heavier objects are harder to start or stop in motion.

Additional Information

• Concept of Power:
• Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred over time.
• The formula for power is given as P = W/t, where P is power, W is work, and t is the time taken.
• It is measured in Watts (W) in the SI system.
• Power is not directly related to the resistance to motion or stopping, and hence it is not the correct answer.
• Conservation of Energy:
• This principle states that energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only change from one form to another.
• The total energy in an isolated system remains constant over time.
• While conservation of energy is a fundamental concept in physics, it does not directly explain the difficulty in starting or stopping the motion of a heavy object.
• Action-Reaction Principle:
• Based on Newton's Third Law of Motion, this principle states that "for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
• It explains how forces act in pairs, such as when you push against a wall and the wall pushes back with an equal and opposite force.
• Although this principle is crucial in understanding motion, it does not account for the resistance to changes in motion, which is the domain of inertia.

The correct answer is Criminal Substantive Law.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023, is aimed at consolidating and amending laws related to Criminal Substantive Law in India.
• BNS is designed as a replacement for the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which was drafted during British colonial rule in India.
• The primary objective of the BNS is to modernize and reform criminal laws to align with the changing socio-economic and technological landscape of the country.
• It seeks to simplify criminal laws, ensure speedy justice, and address contemporary challenges such as cybercrime and organized crime.
• The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita Bill, 2023, was introduced in Parliament in August 2023 as part of a broader initiative to overhaul colonial-era legal frameworks, including the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and the Indian Evidence Act.

Additional Information

• Civil Procedure Law
• Civil Procedure Law governs the procedures and practices in civil courts, such as filing lawsuits, conducting trials, and enforcing judgments.
• The primary legislation governing this branch in India is the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), 1908.
• Civil laws deal with private disputes between individuals or organizations, such as property disputes, contracts, or family matters.
• Evidence Law
• The law of evidence deals with the rules and principles that determine what evidence is admissible in courts.
• The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is the governing framework for evidence-related matters in Indian courts.
• It specifies the type and manner of evidence that can be presented in civil or criminal cases, including oral, documentary, and circumstantial evidence.
• Contract Law
• Contract law governs agreements between parties that are enforceable by law.
• The primary legislation in India is the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which outlines the essentials of a valid contract, including offer, acceptance, consideration, and capacity to contract.
• It also covers specific contracts such as indemnity, guarantee, bailment, agency, and partnership agreements.

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• The National Green Hydrogen Mission was approved by the Indian government in January 2023 with the aim of making India a global hub for green hydrogen production and export.
• The mission primarily focuses on reducing dependency on fossil fuels by promoting green hydrogen, a clean and sustainable energy source derived from renewable energy sources like solar and wind power.
• Through this mission, India aims to produce 5 million metric tonnes of green hydrogen annually by 2030, reducing carbon emissions and aiding the country's energy transition.
• The mission is led by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• The mission also seeks to attract investments, create employment opportunities, and position India as a leader in the global green hydrogen economy.

Additional Information

• Key Focus of the National Green Hydrogen Mission:
• Promotes the use of green hydrogen in industries such as steel, chemicals, and transportation to reduce carbon footprints.
• Encourages research and development (R&D) to advance green hydrogen technologies and infrastructure.
• Aims to reduce import dependency on fossil fuels, supporting India's energy security.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC):
• This ministry is responsible for implementing policies and programs related to the conservation of the environment, forests, and climate change mitigation.
• It oversees various environmental clearance processes, biodiversity conservation efforts, and initiatives to combat climate change.
• Although it plays a significant role in environmental sustainability, it is not directly involved in implementing the National Green Hydrogen Mission.

The correct answer is Fisherfolk.

Key Points

• Koli dance is a traditional folk dance performed by the Koli community, primarily comprising fisherfolk in Maharashtra, India.
• The dance represents the culture, lifestyle, and livelihood of the fishing community, symbolizing their connection with the sea and fishing activities.
• Koli dance is characterized by synchronized movements, vibrant costumes, and rhythmic music that depict the daily lives of fisherfolk, including fishing techniques and boat rowing.
• The dance is performed during community celebrations, festivals, and special occasions to express joy and unity.
• The Koli community has a rich cultural heritage, and their dance is an important representation of their identity and traditions.

Additional Information

• Popular Folk Dances of Maharashtra:
• Lavani: A dynamic dance with powerful rhythms, often performed by women in nine-yard sarees, narrating stories of love, society, and politics.
• Tamasha: A traditional folk theatre with dance, music, and drama, known for its entertainment and social commentary.
• Koli Dance: A lively dance of the Koli fishing community, reflecting their daily life and traditions.
• Lezim: An energetic dance performed with small cymbals (lezim), popular in processions and celebrations.
• Powada: A ballad form narrating the heroic tales of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
• Dindi & Kala: Devotional dances performed during religious festivals, often honoring Lord Vithoba.
• Gondhal: A ritualistic dance performed for deities like Goddess Renuka.
• Dhangari Gaja: A dance performed solely by men, originating from the Dhangar (shepherd) community.

The correct answer is World Economic Forum.

Key Points

• The Global Energy Transition Index is released by the World Economic Forum (WEF), a Swiss-based international organization committed to improving the state of the world.
• This index assesses the energy systems of countries based on factors like environmental sustainability, energy security, and affordability, focusing on their readiness for energy transition.
• The index uses a unique framework called the Energy Transition Readiness Framework, considering both current performance and enabling conditions for energy transition.
• It ranks countries based on their ability to adopt clean energy technologies, reduce carbon emissions, and ensure reliable access to energy.
• The WEF works closely with governments, businesses, and other stakeholders to provide actionable insights for achieving sustainable energy transitions globally.

Additional Information

• IRENA (International Renewable Energy Agency)
• IRENA is an intergovernmental organization that supports countries in their transition to sustainable energy.
• It primarily focuses on promoting renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydroelectric power.
• Its reports and initiatives emphasize renewable energy deployment, innovation, and policy frameworks worldwide.
• While IRENA plays a key role in global energy discussions, it does not release the Global Energy Transition Index.
• IEA (International Energy Agency)
• IEA is an autonomous agency established in the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
• It focuses on energy security, economic development, and environmental sustainability across member countries.
• IEA releases reports like the World Energy Outlook and Energy Technology Perspectives.
• UNDP (United Nations Development Programme)
• UNDP is a global development network under the United Nations, focusing on sustainable development, poverty alleviation, and climate change.
• Its energy-related work often involves improving energy access and promoting clean energy solutions in developing countries.

The correct answer is Toothpaste.

Key Points

• Consumer goods industries produce goods that are directly consumed by customers, meaning they do not require further processing.
• Toothpaste is a prime example of a consumer goods product as it is manufactured for direct use by individuals for personal hygiene.
• It falls under the category of FMCG (Fast-Moving Consumer Goods), which are frequently purchased, low-cost items such as toiletries, beverages, and packaged food products.
• Consumer goods industries focus on manufacturing products that cater to everyday needs, including items like toothpaste, soap, cosmetics, and food products.
• Products from consumer goods industries are typically mass-produced to meet the demand of a large consumer base and distributed through retail outlets or e-commerce platforms.

Additional Information

• Iron and steel:
• The iron and steel industry is classified as a heavy industry as it deals with large-scale production of materials used in infrastructure, construction, and manufacturing.
• It provides raw materials for industries like automobile manufacturing, shipbuilding, and machinery production.
• Steel is not a consumer product but an intermediate good, which requires further processing to create consumer or industrial goods.
• Aluminium smelting:
• Aluminium smelting is an industrial process that involves the extraction of aluminium from its ore, bauxite, using electrolytic reduction.
• This industry is classified as a basic or heavy industry because aluminium is an intermediate product used in manufacturing sectors such as transportation, construction, and packaging.
• It does not directly produce goods for consumer use but supports other industries by providing raw materials.
• Copper smelting:
• Copper smelting involves the extraction of copper metal from its ores through heating and chemical processes.
• It is a heavy or basic industry, as the copper produced is used in electrical wiring, plumbing, and industrial machinery.
• Like aluminium and steel, copper is an intermediate product and not directly consumed by individuals.

The correct answer is Taxation of Goods and Services.

Key Points

• Article 246A of the Indian Constitution was introduced through the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, which enabled the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
• It grants concurrent powers to both the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws with respect to GST.
• Under this article, the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on inter-state trade or commerce of goods and services, while both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on intra-state transactions.
• GST subsumes multiple indirect taxes such as VAT, Service Tax, Excise Duty, and others, simplifying India's indirect taxation system.
• The introduction of Article 246A aimed to promote a unified market, enhance ease of doing business, and eliminate the cascading effects of taxes.

Additional Information

• Property Rights (Option 1):
• Property rights in India are addressed under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution, which states that no person shall be deprived of their property except by the authority of law.
• Initially, property rights were a fundamental right under Article 31, but it was abolished by the 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and made a legal right under Article 300A.
• This provision ensures that private property cannot be taken away without due process of law or proper compensation.
• Emergency Provisions (Option 3):
• Emergency provisions are detailed under Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) of the Indian Constitution.
• These provisions enable the government to assume greater control during times of crisis and include three types of emergencies: National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency/President’s Rule (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360).
• These provisions are invoked to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India during extraordinary situations.
• Criminal Law (Option 4):
• Criminal law in India is primarily governed by the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, and various special laws.
• The Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on criminal law under the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
• Criminal law ensures the maintenance of public order, punishment for offenses, and the protection of citizens’ rights.

The correct answer is Sarsai Nawar Wetland, Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Sarsai Nawar Wetland, located in Uttar Pradesh, is one of the wetlands recognized under the Ramsar Convention as a Ramsar Site.
• This wetland is renowned for hosting the largest population of Sarus Cranes in India, which are also the world's tallest flying birds.
• The Sarsai Nawar Wetland was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2019 for its ecological importance and contribution to biodiversity conservation.
• It serves as an important habitat for various bird species, including migratory birds, and plays a critical role in maintaining the ecological balance of the region.
• The wetland is also crucial for the local community, providing livelihood opportunities such as fishing and agriculture.

Additional Information

• Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan:
• Keoladeo National Park, also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a Ramsar Site.
• It is a man-made wetland and is one of the richest bird areas in the world, serving as a wintering ground for thousands of migratory birds, including the endangered Siberian crane.
• The park is known for its role in providing ecological support and is an important site for avian biodiversity.
• Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary, Gujarat:
• Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary, located in Gujarat, is one of the largest wetlands in India and is a Ramsar Site.
• The sanctuary is home to a variety of migratory and resident bird species, including flamingos, pelicans, and herons.
• It also serves as an important stopover for migratory birds traveling along the Central Asian Flyway.
• Harike Wetland, Punjab:
• Harike Wetland, situated at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers, is the largest wetland in northern India and is designated as a Ramsar Site.
• The wetland supports a diverse range of flora and fauna, including several threatened and endangered species.
• It is an important ecological zone and acts as a critical habitat for migratory birds and aquatic species.
• Ramsar Convention:
• The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, aimed at the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
• It recognizes wetlands as ecosystems that are critical for biodiversity conservation and for the wellbeing of human communities.
• As of October 2023, there are over 2,500 Ramsar Sites worldwide, including more than 75 in India.

The correct answer is 21%.

Key Points

• The Earth's atmosphere contains approximately 21% oxygen, which is essential for the survival of most living organisms.
• Oxygen is the second most abundant gas in the atmosphere, after nitrogen, which makes up around 78% of the atmosphere.
• The high concentration of oxygen is maintained by processes like photosynthesis, where plants release oxygen as a byproduct.
• This oxygen concentration has remained relatively stable over millions of years, supporting life on Earth.
• Oxygen plays a critical role in cellular respiration, which is the process by which living organisms generate energy.

Additional Information

• Atmospheric Composition:
• The Earth's atmosphere is composed of approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.93% argon, and 0.04% carbon dioxide, along with trace amounts of other gases.
• These gases are essential for maintaining the Earth's climate, supporting life, and enabling processes like photosynthesis and respiration.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Supreme Court can transfer cases from one High Court to another – Article 139A of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases involving the same or substantially the same question of law from one High Court to another to ensure uniformity in decisions.
• This provision is aimed at eliminating conflicting judgments by different High Courts on the same legal matter, thereby ensuring consistency in the interpretation of laws across the country.
• Statement 2: Article 139A was introduced by the 42^nd Amendment – The 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 added Article 139A to the Indian Constitution. This amendment is often referred to as the "mini-Constitution" due to the extensive changes it introduced.
• Article 139A allows the Supreme Court to withdraw cases from one or more High Courts if it feels that these cases involve a substantial question of law of general importance.
• Both statements are correct, as Article 139A was indeed introduced by the 42^nd Amendment, and it authorizes the Supreme Court to transfer cases between High Courts.

Additional Information

• 42^nd Amendment of 1976:
• Known as the "mini-Constitution," this amendment brought significant changes to the Indian Constitution.
• It added several articles, including Article 139A, and amended many existing provisions to strengthen the central government's powers.
• Key changes included the addition of the Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) and the insertion of the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble.
• Supreme Court’s Powers under Article 139A:
• The Supreme Court has the authority to transfer cases between High Courts or withdraw cases from High Courts to itself if substantial questions of law are involved.
• This provision ensures uniformity in the interpretation of laws across different jurisdictions in India.
• Judicial Transfers under Article 139A:
• This article is critical for maintaining judicial discipline and consistency in legal interpretations by higher judiciary bodies.
• Such transfers are often considered in cases involving constitutional interpretation or significant questions of national importance.
• Role of High Courts:
• High Courts are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in India, but their decisions may differ based on regional contexts.
• Article 139A ensures that conflicting decisions on similar issues are avoided by centralizing the matter in the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is The last harvest representing survival and love.

Key Points

• The Mim Kut festival is a significant cultural event celebrated by the Mizo tribe in Northeast India, particularly in Mizoram.
• The term "Mim" refers to maize, which is the central crop associated with the festival and symbolizes the last harvest of the year.
• The festival highlights the themes of survival and love, as it is a time to express gratitude for the harvest and remember loved ones who have passed away.
• Traditional practices such as offering maize, bread, and other local delicacies to spirits and ancestors are central to the celebrations.
• The Mim Kut festival is also marked by vibrant cultural performances, traditional dances, and community feasts that showcase the unity and cultural heritage of the Mizo people.

Additional Information​

• Major Festivals by State
• Assam:
• Bihu: Three festivals (Rongali, Kati, Bhogali) marking seasons, New Year, and harvest with dancing, feasting, and bonfires.
• Ambubachi Mela: Major Hindu fair at Kamakhya Temple in June.
• Jonbeel Mela: A unique barter trade festival.
• Nagaland:
• Hornbill Festival: A 10-day-long celebration of Naga tribes' culture in December.
• Aoling Festival: Konyak tribe's spring festival.
• Moatsu Mong: Ao tribe's post-sowing festival.
• Arunachal Pradesh:
• Ziro Festival of Music: An acclaimed outdoor music festival.
• Losar: Tibetan Buddhist New Year in Tawang.
• Dree Festival: Apatani tribe's agricultural festival.
• Mopin: Galo tribe's harvest festival.
• Meghalaya:
• Wangala: Garo tribe's "100 Drums" harvest festival.
• Nongkrem Dance Festival: Khasi harvest festival.

The correct answer is 14.

Key Points

• The Kharchi Puja is an important festival celebrated in Tripura, India, dedicated to the worship of 14 deities.
• The word "Kharchi" is derived from two Tripuri words: "Khar" (sin) and "chi" (cleaning), symbolizing the purification of sins and the worship of the deities.
• The 14 deities represent the guardians of Tripura, each deity being associated with specific aspects of nature, culture, and governance.
• The festival is celebrated annually in the month of July in the temple of 14 gods located in Old Agartala.
• Kharchi Puja is marked by elaborate rituals, offerings, cultural performances, and prayers that emphasize the harmony between humans and nature.
• The deities are worshipped for their blessings and protection, and the festival is a major cultural and religious highlight of Tripura.

Additional Information

• Major Festivals
• Garia Puja: A vibrant tribal festival for health and harvest, honoring the bamboo deity Baba Garia, with rituals, music, and dance.
• Kharchi Puja: A significant religious festival at Puran Haveli, worshipping 14 deities for purification and well-being, known for its unique rituals and folk performances.
• Ker Puja: A secretive but crucial festival dedicated to the guardian deity of the royal family, ensuring the state's protection.
• Durga Puja & Diwali: Celebrated with great fervor, especially at the Tripura Sundari Temple (Matabari).

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

• Mughal architecture is renowned for blending Persian, Islamic, Turkish, and Indian styles, resulting in a unique and harmonious Indo-Islamic architectural aesthetic.
• It emphasized symmetry, grandeur, and the use of geometrical designs, which were heavily influenced by Persian and Central Asian traditions.
• Red sandstone and white marble were the most commonly used materials, as seen in iconic structures like the Red Fort (sandstone) and the Taj Mahal (white marble).
• Some of the most famous Mughal architectural marvels include the Humayun’s Tomb, Taj Mahal, Jama Masjid, and Fatehpur Sikri, which showcase artistic finesse and innovation.
• Structures were often adorned with intricate carvings, floral motifs, calligraphy, and pietra dura (inlay work using precious and semi-precious stones).

Additional Information

• Mughal architecture:
• This synthesis of styles was a hallmark of the Mughal era, reflecting the rulers’ cultural inclusivity.
• The use of domes, minarets, arches, and gardens (Charbagh style) are prominent features derived from Persian and Islamic architecture.
• Indian architectural elements like chhatris (elevated dome-shaped pavilions) and jalis (intricate lattice screens) were also incorporated into Mughal structures.

The correct answer is A dribble ends when both hands touch the ball once..

Key Points

• In basketball, a dribble ends when a player uses both hands to touch the ball simultaneously or when the ball comes to rest in one or both hands.
• This rule is enforced to maintain the flow of the game and prevent unfair advantages that could arise from manipulating the ball with both hands.
• Once a dribble ends, the player cannot resume dribbling the ball; doing so constitutes a "double dribble" violation.
• After the dribble ends, the player must either pass the ball to a teammate or attempt a shot.
• The dribble is a fundamental basketball skill used to advance the ball, evade defenders, or create opportunities for passing and shooting.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Skills
• Dribbling: Bouncing the ball continuously with one hand while moving; essential for ball control and advancing.
• Passing: Moving the ball to teammates using chest, bounce, or overhead passes to create scoring chances.
• Shooting: Throwing the ball into the basket (layups, jump shots, free throws).
• Defense: Preventing the opponent from scoring through man-to-man, zone, or blocking shots.
• Rebounding: Gaining possession of missed shots.

The correct answer is Sheetal Devi and Rakesh Kumar.

Key Points

• Sheetal Devi and Rakesh Kumar won the bronze medal in the Mixed Team Compound Open Archery event during the Paris 2024 Paralympics.
• They showcased exceptional skills and teamwork, earning a podium finish for India in the prestigious global event.
• The Mixed Team Compound Open Archery event features teams composed of one male and one female archer, emphasizing coordination and precision.
• Sheetal Devi is recognized as one of India's promising para-archers, while Rakesh Kumar has been a consistent performer in international para-archery tournaments.
• Their achievement contributed to India's growing reputation in para-sports and inspired budding athletes across the nation.

Additional Information

• Harvinder Singh and Jyoti Baliyan
• Harvinder Singh is an accomplished para-archer who won a bronze medal at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics in the men's individual recurve event.
• Jyoti Baliyan is one of India’s top para-archers who has represented the country in multiple international competitions.
• Although both are celebrated athletes, they did not win the bronze medal in the Mixed Team Compound Open Archery at the Paris 2024 Paralympics.
• Sheetal Devi and Harvinder Singh
• While both Sheetal Devi and Harvinder Singh are prominent para-archers, they did not team up for the Mixed Team Compound Open event at the Paris 2024 Paralympics.
• Harvinder Singh specializes in the recurve bow category, whereas Sheetal Devi competed in the compound bow category.
• Rakesh Kumar and Vivek Chikara
• Rakesh Kumar is a renowned para-archer specializing in compound archery and has consistently performed well in international tournaments.
• Vivek Chikara is another talented para-archer; however, they did not participate as a team in the Mixed Team Compound Open Archery event at Paris 2024.