General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is It will halve.

Key Points

• The relationship between current (I), voltage (V), and resistance (R) is given by Ohm's Law: I = V/R.
• If the resistance of a conductor is doubled and the potential difference (voltage) remains constant, the current flowing through it is inversely proportional to the resistance.
• Doubling the resistance causes the current to be halved because current decreases as resistance increases when voltage remains unchanged.
• This phenomenon can be mathematically expressed as:
• Initial current: I = V/R
• After doubling resistance: I' = V/(2R)
• Result: I' = I/2
• Thus, the current through the conductor will reduce to half of its original value.

Additional Information

• Understanding Resistance and Current
• Resistance is a measure of how much a material opposes the flow of electric current.
• Current is the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor and is measured in amperes (A).
• Ohm's Law, a fundamental principle in electrical engineering, governs the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance.

The correct answer is 60 days.

Key Points

• Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS), the timeline for default bail in minor offences has been capped at 60 days.
• This period is aligned with the procedural reforms introduced in the BNSS to streamline criminal justice delivery and ensure timely disposal of cases.
• Minor offences are typically classified as offences punishable with imprisonment of up to three years.
• The BNSS aims to modernize and simplify procedural laws, replacing the traditional Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) with updated provisions.
• The emphasis on default bail timelines ensures the protection of individual rights and prevents unnecessary detention.

Additional

• BNS (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita): Replaces the IPC; focuses on defining criminal offenses, introducing new crimes (like organized crime), and updating punishments, including for repeat offenders and offenses against women/children.
• BNSS (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita): Replaces the CrPC; covers the procedural aspects of investigation and trial, streamlining processes, ensuring time limits for stages, and incorporating technology like video recording.
• BSA (Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam): Replaces the Indian Evidence Act; deals with rules of evidence, including digital evidence, DNA, and modern forensic methods.

The correct answer is RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana).

Key Points

• The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) was launched in 2007 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare to incentivize states to increase their investment in agriculture and allied sectors.
• The scheme focuses on promoting crop diversification through cluster-based planning, enabling farmers to adopt high-value and market-driven crops.
• RKVY supports projects that promote sustainable agriculture practices, including better crop management and diversification to enhance farmers' income.
• Under RKVY, funds are allocated to states based on their agricultural performance and the level of investment made in the sector.
• The scheme has been restructured into RKVY-RAFTAAR (Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied sector Rejuvenation) to focus more on pre- and post-harvest infrastructure, value addition, and innovation.

Additional Information

• PM-AASHA (Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan)
• Launched in 2018, PM-AASHA aims to ensure remunerative prices to farmers for their produce.
• The scheme has three components: Price Support Scheme (PSS), Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS), and Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPSS).
• Its primary objective is to strengthen procurement mechanisms and provide price assurance for crops.
• SMAM (Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization)
• Launched in 2014, SMAM aims to promote the mechanization of agricultural activities to reduce drudgery and enhance productivity.
• The scheme focuses on providing subsidies to farmers for purchasing farm machinery and implements.
• It aims to increase the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers and regions with low mechanization levels.
• AIF (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund)
• The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund, launched in 2020, is a medium to long-term debt financing facility for agricultural infrastructure projects.
• The fund provides support to farmers, primary agricultural credit societies (PACS), startups, and agri-entrepreneurs for building post-harvest infrastructure like cold storage, warehouses, and collection centers.
• It aims to improve the overall agricultural value chain and reduce post-harvest losses.

The correct answer is Option 1: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• PM2.5 particles are more harmful than PM10 because they are smaller and can penetrate deeper into the respiratory system, reaching the lungs and even entering the bloodstream.
• PM2.5 refers to particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller, whereas PM10 refers to particles with a diameter of 10 micrometers or smaller.
• Due to their smaller size, PM2.5 particles remain suspended in the air for longer durations and are more likely to be inhaled by humans.
• Exposure to PM2.5 is associated with severe health risks, including respiratory diseases, cardiovascular issues, and even premature death, as these particles can directly impact vital organs by traveling through the bloodstream.
• The Air Quality Index (AQI) considers PM2.5 as a critical pollutant due to its severe health implications, making it a significant parameter in assessing air quality.

Additional Information

• Particulate Matter (PM)
• It is a mix of tiny solid particles and liquid droplets in the air, like dust, soot, smoke, and pollen.Types & Sizes
• PM10 (Coarse Particles): 2.5 to 10 micrometers in diameter; larger particles from dust, pollen, mold.
• PM2.5 (Fine Particles): Less than 2.5 micrometers; smaller, more dangerous particles from combustion, industry, vehicles (e.g., soot, smoke).
• Sources
• Natural: Wildfires, dust storms, sea spray, volcanoes.
• Anthropogenic (Human-Made): Vehicle exhaust, industrial emissions, power plants, construction, wood burning, agriculture.

The correct answer is Corbett.

Key Points

• Jim Corbett National Park, located in Uttarakhand, is one of the most renowned tiger reserves in India and was the first to come under Project Tiger in 1973.
• In 2024, Corbett National Park reported a significant increase in its tiger population, surpassing 150 tigers, showcasing the success of conservation efforts.
• This increase is attributed to effective anti-poaching measures, habitat restoration, and community awareness programs implemented by the park authorities.
• The park spans an area of approximately 520 square kilometers and offers a diverse habitat including grasslands, riverine belts, marshy depressions, and hills, making it ideal for tiger conservation.
• Corbett is a popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts and researchers and is globally recognized for its rich biodiversity and as a critical tiger habitat.

Additional Information

• Ranthambore National Park
• Located in Rajasthan, Ranthambore is another famous tiger reserve in India and is known for its historical Ranthambore Fort inside the park.
• The park is spread over an area of 1,334 square kilometers and is home to a significant tiger population.
• It is known for providing one of the best opportunities to spot tigers in the wild and has been a focus area for wildlife photography and tourism.
• Nagarhole National Park
• Also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park, it is located in Karnataka and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• The park is known for its dense forest cover and a healthy population of tigers, leopards, and elephants.
• Nagarhole has been a significant contributor to tiger conservation under Project Tiger and is also known for its stunning landscape and rich biodiversity.
• Satpura National Park
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, Satpura National Park is part of the Satpura Tiger Reserve and is known for its rugged terrain, sandstone peaks, and deep ravines.
• Though not as famous as Corbett or Ranthambore, it provides a serene habitat for tigers and other wildlife species.
• The park is unique for offering walking safaris, allowing visitors to explore its diverse flora and fauna on foot.

The correct answer is Valid.

Key Points

• The Doctrine of Severability refers to the ability of the judiciary to separate the valid portions of a law from the invalid or unconstitutional ones.
• It is enshrined in Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, which ensures that any law inconsistent with or violating Fundamental Rights is void to the extent of its inconsistency.
• Under this doctrine, only the unconstitutional or invalid parts of a legislation are struck down, while the valid parts remain enforceable.
• The doctrine ensures that the entire law is not invalidated but retains the valid and constitutional provisions.
• This principle is applied to protect the legislative intent and preserve the valid portions of the law wherever possible, ensuring a balance between judicial review and legislative sovereignty.

Additional Information

• Repealed:
• When a law is repealed, it is formally revoked or annulled, either partially or fully, by legislative authority.
• Repealing a law completely removes its legal enforceability and existence.
• This is different from severability, where only the unconstitutional parts are struck down, and the rest of the law remains intact.
• Inconsistent:
• The term "inconsistent" refers to provisions in a law that conflict with or violate the Constitution, particularly Fundamental Rights.
• As per Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are declared void to the extent of their inconsistency.
• However, inconsistent provisions are not retained under the Doctrine of Severability; only valid ones are upheld.
• Unconstitutional:
• Any law, policy, or action that contravenes the provisions of the Constitution is deemed unconstitutional.
• Unconstitutional laws are struck down by courts during judicial review. The Doctrine of Severability ensures that only unconstitutional parts of a law are invalidated, preserving the valid portions.

The correct answer is A is false, but R is true.

Key Points

• Assertion (A): Aluminium smelting is the most important metallurgical industry in India. - This statement is false because while aluminium smelting is a significant industry, iron and steel production is considered the most important metallurgical industry in India due to its extensive applications in infrastructure, construction, transportation, and manufacturing.
• Reason (R): Aluminium is used in the manufacture of aircraft, wires, and utensils. - This statement is true as aluminium is widely utilized in various industries due to its lightweight, corrosion resistance, and high conductivity.
• Aluminium smelting involves extracting aluminium from bauxite ore through electrolysis, and India is one of the leading producers of aluminium.
• Aluminium's applications include its use in the aviation industry (aircraft bodies), electrical industry (wires and cables), and household utensils, making it a versatile material.
• Despite its importance, aluminium smelting ranks below iron and steel in terms of economic contribution and industrial significance in India.

Additional Information

• Iron and Steel Industry:
• It is regarded as the backbone of industrial development in India and is considered the most important metallurgical industry.
• Iron and steel are used extensively in construction, transportation, machinery manufacturing, and numerous other industries.
• India is one of the largest producers of crude steel globally, with major steel plants located in Bhilai, Rourkela, Durgapur, and Jamshedpur.
• The significance of iron and steel lies in their contribution to GDP, employment generation, and infrastructure development.
• Aluminium Smelting:
• India has abundant reserves of bauxite, the ore from which aluminium is extracted.
• Aluminium smelting is critical for producing lightweight materials used in the aerospace, automotive, and electrical industries.
• Major aluminium-producing companies in India include Hindalco Industries and the National Aluminium Company (NALCO).
• Other Metallurgical Industries:
• India also has significant copper smelting industries, which contribute to the electrical and electronic sectors.
• Lead and zinc are other metallurgical sectors that play crucial roles in batteries, galvanization, and industrial applications.
• Bauxite and Aluminium:
• Bauxite is the principal ore for aluminium, and India ranks among the top producers globally.
• Aluminium is highly valued for its lightweight, durability, and corrosion resistance, making it indispensable for modern industries.

The correct answer is Option 1: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D.

Key Points

• Rauf: This is a traditional folk dance of Kashmir performed during Eid celebrations and spring-wedding festivities. It showcases community bonding and joy.
• Karma: Associated with Bhadra Ekadashi agrarian rituals, this dance is popular among tribal communities in central and eastern India, particularly during the harvest season.
• Tamasha: A traditional night-long folk-theatre performed during the Shimga (Holi) season, originating from Maharashtra, blending dance, music, and drama.
• Jhumar: This is a vibrant dance from eastern India, particularly Jharkhand, associated with post-monsoon tea-garden recreations.
• The correct pairing of the dances with their social or religious contexts is essential for understanding their cultural significance.

Additional Information

• Rauf (Dance):
• Performed by women in Kashmir, Rauf is a traditional dance form that symbolizes joy and celebration during festive occasions like Eid.
• The dancers form two rows and perform rhythmic movements to traditional Kashmiri folk music.
• Karma (Dance):
• This dance is deeply connected to nature and is performed during the worship of the Karma tree on Bhadra Ekadashi.
• It is popular among tribal communities like the Gonds, Oraons, and Santhals in states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
• Tamasha (Dance):
• Tamasha is a form of folk theatre originating in Maharashtra, which involves a blend of dance, music, and dramatic storytelling.
• It is traditionally performed during the Shimga festival and is known for its entertaining and satirical content.
• Jhumar (Dance):
• Jhumar is a folk dance of Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal, performed during the autumn season in tea gardens or after the harvest.
• The dance is characterized by graceful hand movements and rhythmic footwork, accompanied by traditional folk songs.

The correct answer is Troposphere - weather.

Key Points

• The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the Earth's surface up to about 8–15 km, depending on the latitude.
• All weather phenomena, such as rain, snow, storms, and clouds, occur in the troposphere because it contains most of the atmosphere’s water vapor and aerosols.
• The temperature in the troposphere decreases with altitude, which drives the vertical mixing of air masses and supports weather formation.
• It accounts for approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and is where most human activities, such as aviation, take place.
• The troposphere plays a crucial role in the Earth's climate system, influencing temperature, precipitation, and wind patterns.

Additional Information

• Thermosphere - ozone:
• The thermosphere is the fourth layer of the atmosphere, located above the mesosphere, ranging from about 80 km to 700 km above the Earth's surface.
• It is characterized by extremely high temperatures, which can reach up to 2,500 °C due to solar radiation absorption.
• However, it does not contain the ozone layer; the ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.
• Mesosphere - satellites:
• The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere, extending from about 50 km to 80 km above the Earth's surface.
• It is known for being the layer where meteors burn up upon entering the Earth's atmosphere, creating "shooting stars."
• Satellites do not orbit in the mesosphere; they are located in the thermosphere or beyond, in the exosphere.
• Stratosphere - meteors:
• The stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere, extending from about 10 km to 50 km above the Earth’s surface.
• It contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters the Sun’s UV radiation, protecting life on Earth.
• Meteors do not burn up in the stratosphere; they burn up in the mesosphere.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is correct: The Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution allows both the Centre and States to legislate on matters included in it. Examples include education, marriage, adoption, etc.
• The Concurrent List is one of the three lists under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the others being the Union List and State List.
• Legislation on the Concurrent List ensures cooperation between the Centre and States while addressing shared responsibilities.
• In case of a conflict between Union and State laws on the same subject, the Union law prevails, as provided under Article 254 of the Constitution of India.
• Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect because the Union law overrides State law in case of conflict.

Additional Information

• Union List:
• Subjects under the Union List are exclusively legislated by the Parliament.
• Examples include defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, and currency.
• It contains 97 subjects (originally) as per the Constitution of India.
• State List:
• Subjects under the State List are exclusively legislated by the State Legislatures.
• Examples include police, public health, agriculture, and local government.
• The State List originally contained 66 subjects.
• Concurrent List:
• It contains subjects where both the Centre and States can legislate.
• It originally consisted of 47 subjects, which include criminal law, education, forests, and marriage.
• In case of conflict, Union law prevails as per Article 254 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 254:
• If there is an inconsistency between laws made by the Parliament and laws made by State Legislatures on a Concurrent List subject, the law enacted by Parliament prevails.
• The only exception is if the State law has received Presidential assent, then it can prevail in that state.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Perini Shivatandavam is a warrior dance that was traditionally performed before soldiers set off for war.
• The dance form has its origins in the Kakatiya dynasty, which ruled parts of present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh during the 12^th and 13^th centuries.
• It was revived in modern times by the renowned dance guru Nataraja Ramakrishna.
• The dance is dedicated to Lord Shiva, and its performance is characterized by vigorous movements symbolizing strength and valor.
• The second statement, which associates the dance form with the Chola kings of Tamil Nadu, is incorrect as Perini Shivatandavam is specific to the Kakatiya dynasty of Telangana.

Additional Information

• Kakatiya Dynasty:
• The Kakatiya dynasty ruled the Deccan region, particularly Telangana and parts of Andhra Pradesh, during the 12^th and 13^th centuries.
• They were known for their patronage of art and architecture, including temples like the Ramappa Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Chola Dynasty:
• The Chola dynasty ruled over Tamil Nadu and parts of South India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives during the medieval period.
• They were known for their contributions to art, literature, and architecture, including the construction of the Brihadeeswarar Temple.

The correct answer is Flat arched entrance with pediment.

Key Points

• The Capuchin Church architecture is characterized by its simplicity and austerity, reflecting the principles of the Capuchin Order.
• A prominent feature is the flat arched entrance with a pediment, which aligns with the minimalist design intended to avoid excessive ornamentation.
• These churches emphasize functionality over decorative elements, adhering to the Capuchin’s spiritual values of poverty and humility.
• The pediment, a triangular or curved gable, often sits atop the entrance, adding to the balanced and modest architectural style.
• The interiors of Capuchin churches are usually unadorned, focusing on creating a serene atmosphere for prayer and reflection.

Additional Information

• Ornate spires and domes:
• This feature is typical of Gothic and Baroque architecture but is not associated with Capuchin churches.
• Ornate spires are tall, pointed structures that symbolize a connection to the heavens, commonly found in European cathedrals.
• Domes, often lavishly decorated, are a hallmark of Renaissance and Baroque church designs, seen in structures like St. Peter's Basilica in the Vatican.
• Complex traceried rose windows:
• These are intricate circular stained-glass windows, typically seen in Gothic cathedrals like Notre Dame in Paris.
• They are known for their elaborate designs and colorful depictions of biblical stories, which are not in line with the plain aesthetics of Capuchin churches.
• Multi-storey shikhara tower:
• A shikhara is the rising tower typically found in Hindu temple architecture, specifically in Northern India.
• Multi-storey shikharas are designed to symbolize Mount Meru, a sacred mountain in Hindu cosmology, and are not a feature of Christian or Capuchin church architecture.

The correct answer is The name "Teej" comes from a red insect seen in monsoon.

Key Points

• The word "Teej" is derived from a tiny red insect (locally known as "Teej") that emerges during the monsoon season, symbolizing fertility and the arrival of rain.
• The insect signifies the onset of the monsoon, which is a crucial time for agriculture and fertility, aligning with the festival's themes of renewal and prosperity.
• Teej is widely celebrated in Northern India and Nepal, marking the monsoon season and honoring nature's bounty.
• The festival is deeply rooted in Indian culture, where mythology and seasonal changes are intertwined to emphasize the harmonious relationship between humans and nature.
• The red insect also symbolizes the vibrant and colorful rituals of Teej, such as women adorning themselves in red and green attire, which represent fertility and prosperity.

Additional Information

• Major Pan-Indian Festivals (Widely Celebrated)
• Diwali: Festival of lights, symbolizing victory of light over darkness (Oct/Nov).
• Holi: Spring festival of colors, celebrating joy and new beginnings (Mar).
• Dussehra/Vijayadashami: Commemorates Lord Rama's victory over Ravana (Oct/Nov).
• Navratri/Durga Puja: Nine nights dedicated to Goddess Durga, signifying divine feminine power.
• Eid-ul-Fitr: Marks the end of Ramadan for Muslims.
• Janmashtami: Celebrates the birth of Lord Krishna (Aug/Sep).

The correct answer is He acted as the foreign minister and collaborated closely with the king and military.

Key Points

• The Mahasandhivigrahika was an important official during the Gupta period and acted as the foreign minister.
• This officer was responsible for maintaining diplomatic relations and treaties with other kingdoms and empires.
• The Mahasandhivigrahika worked closely with the king and the military in strategic planning, particularly during times of war and peace negotiations.
• He played a crucial role in the administration by managing alliances, resolving disputes with neighboring states, and ensuring the stability of the kingdom's external relations.
• The title "Mahasandhivigrahika" itself translates to "the great officer of war and peace," highlighting his prominent role in diplomacy and military affairs.

Additional Information

• Administrative structure of the Gupta Empire
• The Gupta Empire (circa 320–550 CE) had a centralized administrative system with various officials handling specific responsibilities such as taxation, justice, military, and diplomacy.
• The Mahasandhivigrahika was one of the high-ranking officials, reflecting the advanced and organized governance of the Gupta Empire.
• The Gupta period is often referred to as the "Golden Age" of India due to advancements in science, literature, and administration.

The correct answer is Hafiz Nagma - Dance based on musical notes of Sufiana music.

Key Points

• Hafiz Nagma is a traditional dance form performed in Kashmir, with its roots deeply embedded in Sufiana music.
• It is based on musical notes and rhythms of Sufiana music, often performed by women dancers called “Hafizas.”
• The dance is accompanied by classical Kashmiri instruments such as the Santoor, Sitar, and Tabla.
• The dance movements are intricately aligned with the melody and spiritual essence of Sufiana music, creating a harmonious and soulful experience.
• This art form not only represents Kashmiri culture but also highlights the fusion of music and dance in Islamic traditions.

Additional Information

• Chakri
• Chakri is a popular folk music form of Kashmir, often used for storytelling.
• This music is performed using traditional instruments like the Rabab, Harmonium, and Sarangi.
• It is not a classical form or associated with the Santoor and Hafiz Nagma; instead, it is a lighter, conversational style of music.
• Sufiana Music
• Sufiana music is a classical music tradition of Kashmir inspired by Persian and Central Asian influences.
• It is performed using instruments like the Santoor, Setar, and Tabla, and is known for its spiritual and meditative qualities.
• This music is not a folk style and does not include instruments such as Garaha and Rabab as mentioned in the question.
• Rouf
• Rouf is a traditional group dance performed by Kashmiri women, especially during festivals like Eid and other celebrations.
• It is characterized by synchronized foot movements and singing of traditional Kashmiri songs.
• It is not an instrumental duet and does not involve the use of Santoor and Sitar.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• In pole vault competitions, a participant is allowed up to three consecutive failed attempts before being disqualified.
• A failed attempt occurs when the vaulter either knocks down the crossbar or does not complete the jump successfully within the allotted time.
• The three failed attempts can be at the same height or across multiple height levels during the competition.
• Once a vaulter fails three attempts consecutively, they are out of the competition, regardless of the heights attempted.
• This rule ensures fairness and aligns with the regulations set by the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF) (now World Athletics).

Additional Information

• Pole Vault Rules:
• Pole vault is a track and field event where athletes use a pole to propel themselves over a high bar.
• Each vaulter is given a specific amount of time (usually 1 minute) to execute their jump once their turn begins.
• The height of the bar progressively increases during the competition, and athletes must clear the bar without knocking it off.
• All rules, including the number of failed attempts, are governed by the World Athletics standards for official competitions.

The correct answer is Option 1: A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2.

Key Points

• Gurjara-Pratiharas: This dynasty primarily ruled over regions corresponding to present-day Gujarat and Rajasthan, which were significant centers of trade and culture during their reign.
• Rashtrakutas: They dominated the Western Deccan region, which included parts of Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Rashtrakutas were known for their contributions to art and architecture, especially the rock-cut temples at Ellora.
• Palas: The Pala dynasty ruled over Bengal and parts of Bihar. They were patrons of Buddhism and contributed immensely to the spread of the religion in Southeast Asia.
• Cholas: The Chola dynasty was centered in Tamil Nadu, known for its maritime trade and naval dominance. They were renowned for their temple architecture and cultural contributions, including the Brihadeeswarar Temple.
• The above matches align with historical and archaeological evidence regarding the geographical dominance of these dynasties.

Additional Information

• Gurjara-Pratiharas:
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas were instrumental in resisting Arab invasions into India during the 8^th century.
• Their empire extended over North India, but Gujarat and Rajasthan were their core regions.
• They were known for their patronage of Hindu temple architecture.
• Rashtrakutas:
• Rashtrakutas emerged as one of the most powerful dynasties in peninsular India during the medieval period.
• Their reign is marked by the construction of the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• They were known for their contributions to literature in Kannada and Sanskrit.
• Palas:
• The Palas ruled Bengal and Bihar, and their empire flourished between the 8^th and 12^th centuries CE.
• They were staunch supporters of Mahayana Buddhism and established several monasteries and universities, including Nalanda and Vikramashila.
• The Pala art and architecture influenced regions beyond India, particularly in Tibet and Southeast Asia.
• Cholas:
• The Cholas were known for their administrative efficiency and naval power, which facilitated their overseas expeditions to Southeast Asia.
• Their reign saw the construction of monumental temples like the Brihadeeswarar Temple, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• They fostered the growth of Tamil literature and culture, leaving a lasting impact on the region.

The correct answer is Glasgow.

Key Points

• Glasgow is set to host the 2026 Commonwealth Games after Australia withdrew from hosting due to cost concerns and logistical issues.
• The Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF) announced Glasgow as the new host due to its prior experience in hosting major international sporting events, including the 2014 Commonwealth Games.
• Glasgow has a well-developed infrastructure, including sports facilities and transportation networks, suitable for hosting an event of this magnitude.
• The city is expected to leverage its existing venues, such as the Emirates Arena and Hampden Park, to minimize additional expenditure.
• The decision to allocate the Games to Glasgow aligns with the CGF's efforts to ensure sustainability and financial viability for future host cities.

Additional Information

• Birmingham:
• Birmingham hosted the 2022 Commonwealth Games, which featured 19 sports and drew participants from 72 nations and territories.
• The event was highly praised for its inclusivity, as it became the first Commonwealth Games to feature more medal events for women than men.
• The city's facilities, such as the Alexander Stadium, underwent significant upgrades to host the event.
• Victoria:
• Victoria, a state in Australia, was initially set to host the 2026 Commonwealth Games but withdrew in 2023 due to escalating costs that exceeded its budgetary expectations.
• The decision to withdraw highlighted the financial challenges associated with hosting such large-scale international events.
• Toronto:
• Toronto, Canada, has not hosted the Commonwealth Games but is a prominent city known for hosting international sports events, such as the 2015 Pan American Games.
• The city has a strong infrastructure for sports and cultural events, making it a potential candidate for future Games.

The correct answer is North-South Transport Corridor.

Key Points

• The North-South Transport Corridor (NSTC) is a multimodal transportation network aimed at enhancing connectivity between India, Russia, Iran, and Central Asia.
• The corridor includes the use of Chabahar Port in Iran, which serves as a crucial gateway for India to access Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
• It was officially established in 2000 by India, Iran, and Russia and has since expanded to include several other countries.
• The NSTC reduces transportation time and costs for goods traveling between India and Central Asia, Europe, and Russia via a combination of sea, rail, and road networks.
• The strategic use of Chabahar Port is part of India's broader geopolitical and economic strategy to counter China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) and strengthen India's trade and energy ties with Central Asia.

Additional Information

• East-West Corridor
• The East-West Corridor is a part of India’s Golden Quadrilateral project aimed at improving road connectivity across the country.
• This corridor connects Silchar in Assam (Eastern India) to Porbandar in Gujarat (Western India).
• It primarily focuses on domestic connectivity and has no direct role in enhancing India’s access to Central Asia.
• India-Myanmar Highway
• The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is an important infrastructure project aimed at improving connectivity between India and Southeast Asia.
• This highway connects Moreh in Manipur (India) to Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar.
• While significant for India's Act East Policy, it does not facilitate access to Central Asia.
• South Asian Maritime Path
• This term generally refers to maritime routes used for trade within South Asia and beyond, including the Indian Ocean Region.
• It is not a formal or specific corridor and does not pertain to Central Asian connectivity through Chabahar Port.

The correct answer is Complex mother-daughter bond.

Key Points

• Burnt Sugar, written by Avni Doshi, explores the deeply intricate and often tumultuous relationship between a mother and her daughter.
• The novel is centered on Tara, a rebellious mother, and Antara, her daughter, who struggles with resentment and unresolved emotions stemming from her childhood.
• As Tara begins to suffer from memory loss, Antara is faced with the challenge of caring for the very person who once neglected her.
• The narrative delves into themes of memory, trauma, and the cyclical nature of familial relationships, making it a profound exploration of emotional complexities.
• Burnt Sugar was shortlisted for the Booker Prize in 2020, gaining critical acclaim for its raw portrayal of maternal bonds and its lyrical writing style.

Additional Information

• Key Indian Booker Prize Winners
• Arundhati Roy (1997): First Indian citizen to win the Booker Prize for Fiction for her debut novel, The God of Small Things, a poignant story set in Kerala.
• Salman Rushdie (1981): Won the Booker Prize for Midnight's Children, a magical realist novel about India's transition to independence.
• Kiran Desai (2006): Awarded the Booker Prize for The Inheritance of Loss, exploring themes of globalisation and migration.
• Aravind Adiga (2008): Won the Booker Prize for The White Tiger, a satirical novel about class and corruption in modern India.