General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Musi.

Key Points

• The Musi River, located in Telangana, was added to the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) in 2024.
• The NRCP is an initiative by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to conserve and rejuvenate polluted rivers across India.
• The Musi River flows through Hyderabad and has been heavily polluted due to untreated sewage, industrial waste, and urban runoff.
• Under the NRCP, measures such as sewage treatment plants, bio-remediation, riverbank restoration, and public awareness campaigns are implemented to revive polluted rivers.
• The inclusion of the Musi River in the NRCP aims to address environmental concerns and improve water quality for better ecological and human health.

Additional Information

• Yamuna River:
• The Yamuna River is the largest tributary of the Ganga and flows through several states, including Uttarakhand, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
• It has been part of the NRCP since 1993 due to high pollution levels in cities like Delhi and Agra.
• Under the NRCP, projects such as sewage treatment, riverfront development, and waste management have been undertaken.
• Krishna River:
• The Krishna River is one of India's major rivers, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is known for its importance in irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and water supply.
• The Krishna is not part of the NRCP, as pollution levels are comparatively lower than rivers like the Yamuna or Musi.
• Gomti River:
• The Gomti River flows through Uttar Pradesh, including the city of Lucknow.
• It has been part of the NRCP since the late 1990s due to pollution from untreated sewage and industrial effluents.
• Efforts under the NRCP include constructing sewage treatment plants and reducing pollution sources.

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

• Article 50 of the Indian Constitution falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are outlined in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36-51).
• It specifically states, "The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State."
• The purpose of Article 50 is to maintain the independence of the judiciary, a vital component of a democratic system, and to ensure the impartiality of justice.
• DPSPs, including Article 50, are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts, but they act as guiding principles for the State to establish policies and laws.
• Article 50 has played a crucial role in the Indian judicial system by emphasizing the doctrine of separation of powers between the judiciary and the executive.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties:
• Fundamental Duties are listed under Part IVA of the Indian Constitution (Article 51A).
• They were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• These duties serve as moral obligations for citizens to promote a spirit of patriotism and uphold the unity of the nation.
• Examples include abiding by the Constitution, respecting the national flag and anthem, protecting the environment, and promoting harmony.
• Fundamental Rights:
• Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12-35).
• They guarantee basic rights to all citizens, essential for their development and protection against state actions.
• Key Fundamental Rights include the Right to Equality (Article 14-18), Right to Freedom (Article 19-22), and Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32).
• These rights are justiciable, meaning individuals can approach the courts if their rights are violated.
• Preamble:
• The Preamble serves as the introductory statement of the Indian Constitution, outlining its objectives and philosophy.
• It declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic Republic and ensures Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity to all its citizens.
• Although not enforceable in a court of law, the Preamble is considered a guiding light for interpreting the Constitution.

The correct answer is 2-1-3.

Key Points

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented in India on July 1, 2017, marking the beginning of a unified indirect tax structure across the nation.
• Before its launch, the Constitution (101^st Amendment) Act was enacted on September 8, 2016, to provide the legal framework for GST implementation.
• The GST Council, which is responsible for making recommendations on GST-related matters, was constituted on September 15, 2016.
• Hence, the correct chronological order is as follows:
• Constitution (101^st Amendment) Act enacted (September 8, 2016)
• GST Council constituted (September 15, 2016)
• GST launched (July 1, 2017)
• This sequence aligns with the preparatory steps taken by the Indian government to roll out GST effectively.

Additional Information

• Constitution (101^st Amendment) Act, 2016:
• The 101^st Constitutional Amendment was enacted to introduce GST in India.
• It empowered both the Centre and the States to levy and collect GST on goods and services.
• The amendment subsumed several indirect taxes such as excise duty, service tax, and VAT into a single tax structure.
• GST Council:
• The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution.
• It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes State Finance Ministers as members.
• The council is responsible for making recommendations on tax rates, exemptions, and other policy matters related to GST.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 was a significant policy document that aimed to classify industries into three categories: Schedule A, Schedule B, and Schedule C.
• Schedule A included industries that were exclusively under state control and were regarded as essential for national defense and economic development (e.g., railways, atomic energy).
• Schedule B covered industries that were to be developed under joint sector arrangements, i.e., both state and private enterprises could participate in these industries.
• Schedule C comprised industries that were to be left for private sector operations, allowing individual entrepreneurship to thrive.
• The classification was designed to promote a mixed economy model and was rooted in the philosophy of socialist planning, which sought to balance private and state ownership.

Additional Information

• Post-Independence (IPR 1948, 1956): Focused on public sector dominance and planned development.
• Liberalization (IPR 1991): Shifted towards opening the economy and global integration.
• Recent Initiatives:
• Make in India (2014): To make India a global manufacturing hub.
• Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (2020): Aimed at self-reliance and reducing import dependency.
• Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme (2020): Offers incentives for increased domestic production.

The correct answer is Option 3: Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Tropical zones experience minimal seasonal temperature variation because they are located near the equator and receive consistent solar radiation throughout the year. This results in relatively stable temperatures.
• Statement 2: Temperate zones are characterized by four distinct seasons: spring, summer, autumn, and winter. These zones experience significant temperature variations due to their location between the tropical and polar zones.
• The Earth's major climatic zones are divided into tropical, temperate, and polar zones based on latitude, solar radiation, and prevailing weather patterns.
• The tropical zone spans from the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn and is known for its hot and humid climate, while the temperate zones lie between the tropics and polar regions and experience moderate climates.
• The distinction between these zones is important for understanding global weather patterns, biodiversity, and human activities adapted to these climates.

Additional Information

• Earth's Climatic Zones
• The Earth is divided into three major climatic zones based on latitude: tropical, temperate, and polar.
• Tropical Zone: Located between 23.5°N and 23.5°S, it experiences high temperatures and rainfall year-round.
• Temperate Zone: Found between 23.5° and 66.5° in both hemispheres, it has distinct seasonal changes and moderate climates.
• Polar Zone: Situated beyond 66.5° in both hemispheres, it experiences extremely cold temperatures and long winters.
• These climatic zones influence global weather patterns, ecosystem diversity, and human adaptation to different environments.

The correct answer is Red sandstone.

Key Points

• The double-storeyed gates of Purana Qila were primarily built using red sandstone, a material widely used in Mughal architecture.
• Red sandstone was chosen for its durability and aesthetic appeal, ensuring the monument's longevity over centuries.
• The gates, including the majestic Bara Darwaza, showcase intricate carvings and architectural finesse, characteristic of the medieval period.
• Purana Qila, constructed during the reign of Humayun and later enhanced by Sher Shah Suri, is a fine example of Indo-Islamic architecture.
• The use of red sandstone became a hallmark of Mughal architecture, visible in other iconic structures such as the Red Fort and Humayun’s Tomb.

Additional Information

• Marble:
• Marble was used extensively during the later Mughal period, especially under Shah Jahan’s rule.
• Famous examples include the Taj Mahal and the Moti Masjid (Pearl Mosque) in Agra.
• It is a metamorphic rock known for its elegance and was primarily reserved for decorative purposes and royal buildings.
• Glazed tiles:
• Glazed tiles were commonly used in Islamic architecture for decorative purposes.
• These tiles were used to adorn walls and domes, especially in mosques and mausoleums.
• Rubble:
• Rubble masonry involves the use of undressed or roughly dressed stones.
• It was a common construction technique in ancient and medieval India for fortifications and basic structures.

The correct answer is Bundu.

Key Points

• The Tusu Festival is a harvest festival celebrated predominantly by the tribal communities in the state of Jharkhand.
• It is particularly observed in areas such as Bundu, Tamar, and Raidih, which are part of the tribal belt of the state.
• Bundu serves as a significant location where the festivities take place, marked by vibrant rituals and cultural practices tied to the agricultural calendar.
• The festival is celebrated during the harvest season, particularly in the month of January, and coincides with the Makar Sankranti festival.
• During the Tusu Festival, people sing traditional folk songs, perform dances, and pay homage to Goddess Tusu, believed to bless them with prosperity and good harvests.

Additional Information

• Dumka:
• Dumka is one of the oldest districts in Jharkhand and is known as the sub-capital of the state.
• The district is not directly associated with the Tusu Festival but is significant for hosting other cultural events and tribal traditions.
• It is home to the Santhal tribe, which celebrates festivals like Sohrai and Baha.
• Daltonganj:
• Located in the Palamu district, Daltonganj is not a focal point for the Tusu Festival celebrations.
• It is more known for its historic Palamu Fort and the Betla National Park, a prominent tiger reserve in Jharkhand.
• Chaibasa:
• Chaibasa is a town in the West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, home to the Ho tribe.
• Although not directly linked to the Tusu Festival, the region is culturally rich and celebrates tribal festivals like Mage Parab and Kolom Sankaranti.

The correct answer is Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande of Bombay.

Key Points

• Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande (1860–1936) is credited with standardizing and developing the modern notation system for Hindustani classical music.
• He documented a wide range of classical compositions in his pioneering work, the Kramik Pustak Maalika, a six-volume series that categorizes and systematizes ragas and compositions.
• Bhatkhande divided ragas into ten major thaats (parent scales) to provide a simplified and systematic approach to the study of Hindustani music.
• He emphasized the importance of written documentation of music, which had previously been passed down orally, ensuring its preservation for future generations.
• His efforts led to the establishment of music institutions, such as the Marris College of Music (now Bhatkhande Music Institute University) in Lucknow, to formalize music education in India.

Additional Information

• Ustad Allauddin Khan of Maihar Gharana
• Ustad Allauddin Khan (1862–1972) was a legendary Indian musician and composer from the Maihar Gharana.
• He was a master of multiple instruments, particularly the sarod, and is known for training iconic musicians like Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Ali Akbar Khan.
• Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar of Gwalior
• Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (1872–1931) was a prominent Hindustani classical vocalist and music educator.
• He is credited with popularizing Hindustani music among the masses and founding the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music school in Lahore, in 1901.
• Saint Tyagaraja of Carnatic Tradition
• Saint Tyagaraja (1767–1847) was a prolific composer and one of the most revered figures in Carnatic music, a classical music tradition of South India.
• He composed thousands of devotional songs, primarily in Telugu, in praise of Lord Rama, and is considered one of the Trinity of Carnatic music, along with Muthuswami Dikshitar and Shyama Sastri.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• In table tennis, service alternates every point once the score reaches 10-10 (deuce), rather than every two points as stated in the question. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• In doubles matches, the receiver order changes after one side reaches 5 points in the final game (often referred to as the deciding game). This rule ensures fairness by balancing the playing sides. Statement 2 is correct.
• The rules for service and receiver order in table tennis are specified by the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) and are strictly adhered to in official matches.
• Table tennis service rules are designed to ensure fairness, prevent predictability, and maintain the competitive nature of the game.
• Statement 2 aligns with the official rules of ITTF regarding receiver order in the final doubles game.

Additional Information

• General Table Tennis Rules:
• Table tennis matches consist of either best-of-five or best-of-seven games, depending on the tournament format.
• The service rules require the ball to be tossed at least 16 cm vertically and hit behind the end line of the table.
• A game is won by the player or team that first scores 11 points with at least a 2-point lead.
• The ITTF governs the rules and regulations for table tennis worldwide.

The correct answer is They were forbidden to declare war or make treaties without approval..

Key Points

• Pitt's India Act of 1784 was passed to address the deficiencies of the Regulating Act of 1773 and improve governance in British India.
• The Act established a Board of Control in Britain to supervise the political activities of the East India Company in India.
• The Governor-General and his Council were forbidden to declare war or make treaties without prior approval from the Court of Directors and the British Crown.
• This restriction was aimed at preventing unilateral decisions that could lead to unnecessary conflicts or alliances, ensuring better oversight and control.
• Pitt's India Act marked a significant step in centralizing British control over Indian administration, reducing the autonomy of the East India Company.

Additional Information

• Lord Canning (1858-1862): First Viceroy of India, following the 1857 Revolt.
• Lord Lytton (1876-1880): Controversial figure, held the Delhi Durbar.
• Lord Ripon (1880-1884): Known for liberal policies and local self-government reforms.
• Lord Curzon (1899-1905): Implemented the controversial Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• Lord Irwin (1926-1931): Associated with the Simon Commission and the Dandi March.
• Lord Linlithgow (1936-1944): Oversaw the launch of the Quit India Movement.
• Lord Wavell (1944-1947): Key figure during the end of the Raj, involved in the Cabinet Mission.
• Lord Mountbatten (1947): Last Viceroy and first Governor-General of independent India (until June 1948)

The correct answer is A goal scored accidentally into one's own net.

Key Points

• An "own goal" in football refers to a situation where a player inadvertently scores a goal in their own team's net.
• It typically occurs due to a mistake, misjudgment, or an attempt to clear the ball that results in the ball going into their own goal.
• Own goals are counted as valid scores but credited to the opposing team.
• These goals can significantly impact the outcome of a match, often leading to frustration for the player and the team.
• FIFA and other football governing bodies officially record own goals in match statistics, but they are not attributed to the player as a positive contribution to the game.

Additional

• Dribble: Running with the ball, keeping control with your feet.
• Pass: Kicking or moving the ball to a teammate.
• Tackle: Attempting to take the ball from an opponent legally.
• Shoot: Kicking the ball towards the opponent's goal.
• Header: Using the head to direct the ball.
• Volley: Kicking the ball in mid-air.
• Cross: A pass from the side of the field into the penalty area.
• Chip: A high, delicate kick over an opponent, usually the goalkeeper.
• Backheel: Kicking the ball backward with the heel.

The correct answer is Option 3: Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

• Shiva Keshavan is a six-time Winter Olympian from India and is widely regarded as the pioneer of luge in India.
• He was the first Indian to represent the country in luge at the Winter Olympics, beginning his journey at Nagano in 1998.
• Arif Mohammad Khan made history by becoming the first Indian to qualify for two alpine skiing events at the Winter Olympics 2022 in Beijing.
• Arif represented India in slalom and giant slalom events, showcasing his remarkable skills in alpine skiing.
• India has a limited yet impactful presence at the Winter Olympics, with athletes like Shiva Keshavan and Arif Mohammad Khan bringing global attention to winter sports in the country.

Additional Information

• India's Participation in the Winter Olympics:
• India's Winter Olympics journey began in 1964, with sporadic participation in skiing, luge, and other sports.
• Due to geographical and infrastructural limitations, winter sports in India have not gained widespread popularity.
• Efforts are being made to encourage winter sports through initiatives like training programs and international exposure.

The correct answer is Katihar-Parbotipur-Bornagar Interconnection Project.

Key Points

• The Katihar-Parbotipur-Bornagar Interconnection Project involves the construction of a 765 kV cross-border transmission line between India and Bangladesh.
• This project aims to enhance hydroelectric power trade across multiple countries, including Bhutan and Nepal, leveraging the regional energy grid.
• The interconnection will serve as a critical infrastructure for energy security and economic cooperation between India and Bangladesh.
• It is expected to facilitate the export of surplus electricity from India to Bangladesh and other neighboring nations.
• The project is part of India's broader vision of regional energy integration to promote sustainable development in South Asia.

Additional Information

• Regional Energy Integration
• India's energy projects with Bangladesh and other neighboring countries aim to create a South Asian energy hub, facilitating sustainable development and reducing energy deficits.
• Such initiatives promote cross-border electricity trade, regional cooperation, and infrastructure development.
• The Katihar-Parbotipur-Bornagar Interconnection Project is a key example of India's commitment to regional energy security.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The book "Being Indian" by Pavan K. Varma explores the complexities of Indian identity, culture, and society.
• The book won the prestigious Vodafone Crossword Book Award for its insightful exploration of Indian identity.
• It sheds light on modern Indian attitudes, behaviors, and societal dynamics while addressing the contrast between traditional values and contemporary realities.
• Statement 1 is correct as the book earned recognition for its cultural and societal analysis.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because the book was not awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award, nor is it related to Indian English poetry.

Additional Information

• Vodafone Crossword Book Award
• This award is one of the most prestigious literary awards in India, recognizing excellence in Indian writing.
• It celebrates authors across genres, providing a platform for Indian literature to gain recognition.
• Sahitya Akademi Award
• The Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honor conferred annually by the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters.
• It recognizes outstanding literary work in 24 recognized Indian languages, including poetry, fiction, drama, and criticism.

The correct answer is Budapest.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal in the men’s javelin throw event at the 2023 World Athletics Championships, held in Budapest, Hungary.
• With this victory, Neeraj became the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in the history of the World Athletics Championships.
• His winning throw measured 88.17 meters, achieved in his second attempt during the final.
• The World Athletics Championships 2023 took place from August 19 to August 27, 2023, in Budapest, Hungary.
• Neeraj Chopra's achievement is significant as it adds to his previous accomplishments, including his gold medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, further cementing his status as one of India's greatest athletes.

Additional Information

• Eugene
• Eugene, Oregon, USA, hosted the 2022 World Athletics Championships, making it the first time the event was held in the United States.
• Neeraj Chopra won a silver medal at this championship with a throw of 88.13 meters, marking India’s first-ever silver medal at the World Athletics Championships.
• Tokyo
• Tokyo, Japan, was the host city for the 2020 Summer Olympics, held in 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• At this event, Neeraj Chopra made history by winning the gold medal in the men’s javelin throw with a throw of 87.58 meters, becoming the first Indian track and field athlete to win an Olympic gold medal.
• Doha
• Doha, Qatar, hosted the 2019 World Athletics Championships from September 27 to October 6, 2019.
• Neeraj Chopra did not participate in this event due to an elbow injury that kept him out of competitive athletics during this period.

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the campaign "Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam" in 2024 to promote environmental conservation and honor the contributions of mothers.
• The campaign encourages citizens to plant trees in the name of their mothers, symbolizing the nurturing nature of motherhood and the importance of Mother Earth.
• It aligns with the Indian government’s broader environmental initiatives such as ‘Mission LiFE’ (Lifestyle for Environment) to create awareness about sustainable living.
• PM Modi has consistently supported eco-friendly programs like afforestation, renewable energy projects, and water conservation to combat climate change.
• The initiative also aims to enhance public awareness about the role of individuals in environmental preservation and to promote community participation in tree-planting drives.

Additional Information

• Leena Nandan
• Leena Nandan is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer who has served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• She has been instrumental in framing and implementing policies related to environmental protection and climate change mitigation.
• Bhupender Yadav
• Bhupender Yadav is the Union Minister for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change as of 2024.
• He has played a significant role in representing India at global climate conferences, such as the COP (Conference of Parties) summits.
• Under his leadership, the ministry has focused on sustainable development and increasing India’s green cover.
• Ashwini Vaishnaw
• Ashwini Vaishnaw is the Union Minister for Railways, Communications, and Electronics & Information Technology.
• He has introduced several technological and infrastructural advancements in Indian railways and digital governance.
• Although not directly associated with environmental campaigns, his ministry has contributed to sustainability efforts, such as promoting solar energy in railway stations.

The correct answer is Lateral erosion in flat terrain.

Key Points

• Lateral erosion occurs in the middle course of a river, where the gradient decreases, and the flow becomes slower, causing the river to erode its banks horizontally.
• This process is most prominent in flat terrains, as the river tends to meander and shift sideways rather than cutting vertically into the land.
• Meanders are formed due to the combined processes of erosion (on the outer bank of the curve) and deposition (on the inner bank of the curve).
• The constant shifting of the river flow due to varying velocity leads to the creation of winding curves known as meanders.
• Meanders are a characteristic feature of mature river systems and develop over time as the river seeks to balance its energy and flow.

Additional Information

• High-altitude origin
• Rivers originating from high altitudes generally have steep gradients, causing vertical erosion rather than lateral erosion.
• Such rivers typically form features like V-shaped valleys and waterfalls, but they do not develop meanders.
• Examples include Himalayan rivers like the Ganga and Brahmaputra in their upper course.
• Sudden tectonic uplift
• Tectonic uplift can cause rivers to increase their vertical erosion due to a change in gradient or slope.
• This process leads to the formation of canyons, gorges, and river terraces rather than meanders.
• It is not a direct contributor to the development of meanders.
• Ocean current influence
• Ocean currents primarily affect coastal processes such as wave action, sediment transport, and erosion along shorelines.
• They have no direct role in the formation of meanders within river systems.
• Meanders are an inland river phenomenon and are unrelated to marine processes.

The correct answer is 12 days.

Key Points

• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth observation mission between NASA and ISRO.
• One of the key features of NISAR is its ability to map the Earth's surface globally every 12 days.
• The mission aims to provide high-resolution data on changes in Earth's land and ice surfaces, helping scientists monitor environmental changes such as deforestation, glacier melting, and land subsidence.
• The radar system uses two frequencies: L-band and S-band. The L-band radar is provided by NASA, while the S-band radar is developed by ISRO.
• NISAR's data is expected to support disaster management efforts, agricultural monitoring, and climate change research.

Additional Information

• ISRO's major Achievements & Milestones 
• Cost-Effectiveness: Known for achieving missions at significantly lower costs than global counterparts.
• Lunar Missions: Chandrayaan-1 discovered water molecules; Chandrayaan-3 achieved a soft landing.
• Mars Mission (MOM): Mangalyaan successfully reached Mars on its first attempt (2014).
• Record Launches: Launched 104 satellites in a single rocket launch (2017).
• Indigenous Capability: One of few agencies to develop its own launch vehicles and satellites.

The correct answer is Ethylene promotes seed germination.

Key Points

• Ethylene is primarily known as a gaseous plant hormone responsible for regulating processes such as fruit ripening, leaf abscission, and flower senescence.
• It is not directly linked with promoting seed germination; instead, other hormones such as gibberellins play a more dominant role in this process.
• The role of ethylene is often associated with responses to stress conditions and the promotion of senescence rather than germination.
• Studies have shown that ethylene can inhibit seed germination under certain conditions, contrary to the statement in the question.
• Thus, the statement "Ethylene promotes seed germination" is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Auxins promote growth:
• Auxins are a class of plant hormones that play a critical role in cell elongation, root formation, and overall plant growth.
• They are primarily produced in the shoot apical meristem and transported to other parts of the plant.
• Auxins stimulate cell division and elongation, especially in the stem and roots, contributing to phototropism and gravitropism.
• Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) is the most common naturally occurring auxin in plants.
• Cytokinins delay aging:
• Cytokinins are plant hormones that promote cell division and delay senescence (aging) in leaves and other plant tissues.
• They work antagonistically with auxins in regulating plant growth and development.
• Cytokinins help maintain chlorophyll levels in leaves, delaying leaf yellowing and promoting nutrient mobilization.
• Natural cytokinins include zeatin, which is derived from adenine and plays a role in promoting shoot initiation and growth.
• Gibberellins promote stem elongation:
• Gibberellins are a group of plant hormones that stimulate stem elongation, seed germination, and flowering.
• They break seed dormancy by promoting the synthesis of enzymes required for mobilizing stored nutrients.
• Gibberellins also influence the development of fruits and delay senescence in certain plants.
• They are widely used in agriculture to improve crop yield and quality.

The correct answer is Disputes between Centre and one or more States.

Key Points

• Article 131 of the Indian Constitution provides the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India in certain disputes.
• These disputes include those between the Government of India and one or more States or between two or more States.
• The Supreme Court's original jurisdiction is called "exclusive" because it cannot be exercised by any other court in India.
• The jurisdiction applies only to legal matters and not political disputes or policy matters.
• This provision ensures the role of the Supreme Court as the final arbiter in resolving disputes concerning the interpretation of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Key Jurisdictions of the Supreme Court of India:
• Original Jurisdiction (Article 131):
• Hears disputes between the Government of India and States, or between States themselves, involving questions of law or fact.
• Writ Jurisdiction (Article 32): Enforces Fundamental Rights by issuing writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
• Appellate Jurisdiction:
• The final court of appeal, hearing appeals from High Courts in constitutional, civil, criminal, and special leave petition (SLP) cases.
• Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143):
• Advises the President on matters of public importance or law, though these are not binding.
• Review Jurisdiction:
• Power to review its own judgments or orders.
• Extraordinary & Other Powers:
• Transfer of Cases: Can transfer civil/criminal cases between High Courts or subordinate courts.
• Suo Moto Powers: Can take up cases on its own motion.
• Article 142: Powers to pass orders for "complete justice".