General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0 tree-planting.

Key Points

• On World Environment Day 2025, Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan promoted the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0 campaign to encourage tree plantation as a tribute to mothers.
• The campaign emphasizes environmental sustainability and fostering a culture of gratitude by dedicating trees to mothers.
• It is a continuation of the earlier Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam initiative, which gained significant public participation in its first phase.
• The initiative aligns with the government’s broader focus on combating climate change and conserving biodiversity.
• Under this campaign, citizens are encouraged to plant trees in their homes, schools, and public spaces while promoting awareness about their environmental benefits.

Additional Information

• Plastic-Free India Campaign:
• This campaign focuses on eliminating single-use plastics and promoting sustainable alternatives to reduce plastic pollution.
• India has pledged to phase out single-use plastics by 2025 and aims to increase public awareness through initiatives like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
• The campaign has seen active participation from industries, educational institutions, and NGOs to reduce plastic waste and promote recycling.
• Clean Ganga Youth Movement:
• This initiative is part of the larger Namami Gange Programme, aiming to rejuvenate and conserve the Ganga river.
• It engages youth in activities like cleaning riverbanks, preventing pollution, and spreading awareness about the importance of clean water bodies.
• The movement highlights the role of young citizens in environmental conservation and water resource management.
• National Coastal Cleanup Drive:
• This program focuses on cleaning coastal areas and addressing marine pollution caused by human activities.
• It involves volunteers, local communities, and environmental organizations to remove waste from beaches and restore marine ecosystems.
• The drive is crucial for protecting marine biodiversity and mitigating the impacts of ocean pollution.

The correct answer is 31%.

Key Points

• India's urban population percentage in the 2011 Census was 31.16%, which is commonly rounded off to 31%.
• The Census 2011 data revealed that the urban population in India increased significantly compared to previous decades, reflecting urbanization trends.
• In absolute terms, the urban population of India in 2011 was approximately 377 million, out of a total population of 1.21 billion.
• This urbanization was driven by migration, natural population growth, and the reclassification of rural areas into urban areas.
• States like Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu had the highest urban populations in absolute terms in the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

• Key Population Figures
• Total Population: 1,210,854,977 (1.21 billion).
• Increase (2001-2011): Added 181.5 million people, a growth rate of 17.7%.
• Rural vs. Urban: 833.5 million (68.84%) lived in rural areas, 377.1 million (31.2%) in urban areas.
• Demographics & Ratios
• Sex Ratio: 940 females per 1000 males (up from 933 in 2001).
• Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years): 919 females per 1000 males.
• Population Density: 382 persons per square kilometer.
• Literacy 
• Overall Literacy: 74.04% (up from 64.83% in 2001).
• Male Literacy: 82.14%.
• Female Literacy: 65.46%.

The correct answer is 30 tonnes.

Key Points

• India's Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) is being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to meet future heavy payload demands for space missions.
• The NGLV is designed with a modular architecture and is capable of carrying up to 30 tonnes of payload to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• This capability ensures that the NGLV can support a wide range of space applications, including satellite launches, human spaceflight missions, and interplanetary missions.
• The NGLV is envisioned as a successor to the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) families, offering higher payload capacities and enhanced reliability.
• The development of the NGLV is part of India's long-term strategy to remain competitive in the global space launch market while also addressing domestic requirements.

Additional Information

• Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
• LEO refers to an orbit around Earth with an altitude between 160 km and 2,000 km.
• It is commonly used for Earth observation satellites, communication satellites, and the International Space Station (ISS).
• LEO missions require launch vehicles capable of precise navigation and sufficient payload capacity to meet mission objectives.

The correct answer is It was hosted at the K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, IG Stadium, New Delhi, from January 14 to 19, 2025, as part of the BWF Super 750 tier..

Key Points

• The Yonex-Sunrise India Open 2025 is classified as a BWF Super 750 tournament, which is part of the prestigious BWF World Tour.
• The tournament was hosted at the K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, located within IG Stadium, New Delhi.
• The event's official schedule spanned from January 14 to 19, 2025, showcasing top international badminton players.
• The BWF Super 750 tier is among the highest levels in the badminton tournament hierarchy, second only to Super 1000 tournaments.
• This tournament attracts global participants and offers significant ranking points and prize money, contributing to its importance in the badminton calendar.

Additional Information

• Yonex-Sunrise India Open
• The Yonex-Sunrise India Open is an annual badminton tournament held in India, featuring international players competing in singles and doubles categories.
• It forms part of the BWF World Tour and is classified under different tiers based on prize money and ranking points.
• The tournament plays a vital role in promoting badminton in India and fostering global competitive standards.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• The Sindri fertilizer plant is located in Sindri, Jharkhand, which is known for its proximity to the Dhanbad coal belt, one of India's richest coal-producing regions.
• Established in 1944, the Sindri plant is one of India's oldest fertilizer plants and was pivotal in boosting agricultural productivity during its operational years.
• The plant was originally operated by the Fertilizer Corporation of India (FCI) and produced ammonium sulfate and urea, which are essential chemical fertilizers for agriculture.
• Jharkhand's rich coal reserves provided the energy required for the operation of the plant, making Sindri an ideal location for the production of fertilizers.
• The plant underwent modernization and revival under the National Fertilizers Limited (NFL) and Hindustan Urvarak and Rasayan Limited (HURL) initiatives to meet the growing demand for fertilizers in India.

Additional Information

• West Bengal
• West Bengal is known for its industrial hubs and fertile Gangetic plains.
• Important industries in West Bengal include jute, tea, and steel production.
• The state is a significant producer of coal, with the Raniganj coalfield being a major mining area.
• Odisha
• Odisha is rich in mineral resources like iron ore, bauxite.
• The state hosts the Paradip Phosphates Limited (PPL), a major fertilizer company specializing in phosphate-based fertilizers.
• Odisha is also known for its steel plants and aluminum production facilities.
• Bihar
• Bihar is primarily an agricultural state with fertile soil and abundant water resources.
• Bihar's economy relies heavily on agriculture, with crops like wheat, maize, and sugarcane being the primary products.

The correct answer is DNA → RNA → Protein.

Key Points

• The correct sequence of the flow of genetic information is DNA → RNA → Protein, commonly referred to as the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology.
• DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) acts as the genetic material, storing all the information necessary for the synthesis of proteins.
• RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) is synthesized from DNA in a process called transcription. This RNA (typically mRNA) acts as a template for protein synthesis.
• Protein synthesis, also known as translation, occurs at the ribosome where mRNA is decoded to assemble amino acids into a polypeptide chain.
• This process is essential for cellular functions, as proteins serve as enzymes, structural components, and signaling molecules in all living organisms.

Additional Information

• Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
• The concept was first proposed by Francis Crick in 1958.
• It explains the flow of genetic information within a biological system, stating that DNA is transcribed into RNA, and RNA is translated into protein.
• This principle is fundamental to molecular biology and underlies the mechanism of gene expression.

The correct answer is Stamp duties levied by Union but collected by States.

Key Points

• Article 268 of the Indian Constitution primarily deals with duties levied by the Union Government but collected and appropriated by the States.
• It includes stamp duties on certain instruments and excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations that are levied by the Union but collected by the State.
• The revenue collected from these duties does not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India but is assigned to the States where it is collected.
• This provision ensures that certain revenue sources are shared between the Union and State Governments to balance fiscal responsibilities.
• Examples of stamp duties include duties on transactions such as sale deeds, transfer of property, promissory notes, etc.

Additional Information

• Fiscal Federalism in India:
• The Indian Constitution establishes a clear division of fiscal powers between the Union and State Governments to ensure financial autonomy and accountability.
• Articles 268 to 281 of the Constitution outline the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.
• Article 268 specifically ensures that certain duties levied by the Union are collected and utilized by the States to support their fiscal responsibilities.

The correct answer is Option 1) 0.5 m.

Key Points

• The relationship between the speed of sound, frequency, and wavelength is given by the formula: speed = frequency × wavelength.
• Here, the speed of sound is 340 m/s, and the frequency is 680 Hz.
• To calculate the wavelength, rearrange the formula: wavelength = speed ÷ frequency.
• Substituting the values: wavelength = 340 ÷ 680 = 0.5 m.
• Thus, the wavelength of the sound wave is 0.5 meters, which corresponds to Option 1.

Additional Information

• Speed, Frequency, and Wavelength:
• The speed of a wave is the product of its frequency and wavelength: speed = frequency × wavelength.
• Frequency is the number of wave cycles passing through a point in one second, measured in Hertz (Hz).
• Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive points in phase (e.g., crests or troughs) on a wave, measured in meters.
• This relationship is fundamental in the study of wave mechanics and applies to all types of waves, including sound waves, light waves, and water waves.

The correct answer is Export infra development.

Key Points

• TIES (Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme) was launched by the Government of India in March 2017 to address the gaps in export infrastructure in the country.
• The scheme aims to create and upgrade export-related infrastructure for promoting exports in India.
• It provides financial assistance to central and state government agencies for the development of necessary export infrastructure, such as testing labs, cold chains, warehouses, and trade promotion centers.
• The funding under TIES is in the form of grants-in-aid, typically not exceeding 50% of the total project cost for eligible projects.
• The scheme focuses on projects that have a direct impact on improving the export competitiveness of goods and services from India.

Additional Information

• Cold storage for dairy (Option 2):
• While cold storage is an essential part of the dairy supply chain, it is not directly related to the TIES scheme.
• Cold storage for dairy products is typically supported under other initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana or schemes promoted by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
• These initiatives aim to reduce food wastage, improve processing infrastructure, and ensure better returns for farmers.
• PMFBY support (Option 3):
• The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a crop insurance scheme launched in 2016 to provide financial support to farmers in the event of crop failure due to natural calamities.
• It focuses on stabilizing farmer incomes and ensuring the adoption of innovative agricultural practices.
• PMFBY is unrelated to TIES, as it deals with crop insurance rather than export infrastructure.
• Drug pricing regulation (Option 4):
• Drug pricing regulation in India is overseen by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).
• The NPPA ensures the availability of essential medicines at affordable prices and monitors the prices of drugs under the Drug (Prices Control) Order.
• It is not connected to the objectives of the TIES scheme, which is focused on export infrastructure development.

The correct answer is Option 3: A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• The Happiness Index measures various factors, including political freedom, social support, income, health, life expectancy, and generosity.
• The Happiness Index is officially known as the World Happiness Report, which ranks countries based on these criteria.
• Political freedom and social support are significant components assessed in this index to evaluate the well-being of individuals in a society.
• The World Happiness Report is not published by the UNDP; instead, it is prepared by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) under the auspices of the United Nations.
• The report is based on data collected from global surveys like the Gallup World Poll, emphasizing subjective well-being and happiness levels across countries.

Additional Information

• Key UNDP Indices:
• Human Development Index (HDI): A summary measure of average achievement in:
• A long and healthy life (Life Expectancy at Birth).
• Access to knowledge (Mean Years of Schooling & Expected Years of Schooling).
• A decent standard of living (Gross National Income per Capita).
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): Identifies overlapping deprivations in health, education, and living standards (like nutrition, sanitation, electricity, cooking fuel, etc.) for individuals.
• Gender Inequality Index (GII): Measures gender disparities in reproductive health, empowerment, and economic activity.
• Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI): Accounts for inequality within countries by "discounting" the HDI in proportion to the level of inequality, notes United Nations Development Programme.
• Gender Development Index (GDI): Compares HDI for men and women.
• Planetary Pressures-adjusted HDI (PHDI): Adjusts the HDI for environmental impact.
• Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI): Measures social norms restricting gender equality.

The correct answer is Store CO₂ in vegetation and soil.

Key Points

• Carbon sink enhancement refers to increasing the capacity of ecosystems like forests, grasslands, and soil to absorb and store carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere.
• India’s climate plan aims to achieve an additional 2.5–3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent sequestration through afforestation and other green initiatives by 2030.
• This approach supports India’s commitment under the Paris Agreement to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions and combat climate change.
• Carbon sinks help reduce the concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere, thereby minimizing the harmful effects of global warming.
• Vegetation and soil act as natural reservoirs, storing carbon for extended periods through processes like photosynthesis and organic matter decomposition.

Additional Information

• Deforestation
• Deforestation is the process of clearing forests for agriculture, urbanization, or industrial use.
• It leads to increased CO₂ emissions as trees, which act as carbon sinks, are removed.
• Burn more fossil fuels
• Burning fossil fuels like coal, oil, and gas releases significant amounts of CO₂ and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
• It exacerbates global warming and is the opposite of carbon sink enhancement.
• Monocultures
• Monocultures involve planting a single crop species over a large area, which can lead to soil degradation and reduced biodiversity.
• Although monocultures may absorb CO₂, they are less effective as carbon sinks compared to diverse ecosystems like forests.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Import substitution refers to an economic policy aimed at reducing dependency on foreign goods by promoting domestic production and industries.
• India adopted the policy of import substitution during the planning era, particularly during the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) led by P.C. Mahalanobis, to boost industrialization.
• The primary objective was to protect the domestic industries, which were in their nascent stages, from foreign competition and to achieve self-reliance in industrial production.
• Through high import tariffs, quotas, and trade restrictions, foreign goods were made less competitive, encouraging the growth of Indian industries.
• While this policy played a critical role in laying the foundation for India’s industrial base, it also led to inefficiencies and a lack of competition in the long run.

Additional Information

• First FYP (1951-56): Focused on agriculture, controlling inflation, and refugee rehabilitation (Harrod-Domar model).
• Second FYP (1956-61): Emphasized rapid industrialization, especially heavy industries (Mahalanobis Model).
• Third FYP (1961-66): Aimed for food self-sufficiency and increased agricultural/industrial production, but faced challenges.
• Fifth FYP (1974-78): Key focus on Garibi Hatao (poverty alleviation), employment, and social justice.
• Sixth FYP (1980-85): Introduced early economic liberalization and aimed for technological self-reliance.
• Eighth FYP (1992-97): Launched after the 1991 economic crisis, promoting LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation) and industrial modernization.
• Ninth FYP (1997-2002): Focused on social sector development and equitable growth.
• Tenth FYP (2002-07): Aimed for faster and more inclusive growth.
• Eleventh FYP (2007-12): Focused on faster, more inclusive, and sustainable growth.
• Twelfth FYP (2012-17): The final FYP, targeting faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth with emphasis on education, infrastructure, and poverty reduction.

The correct answer is Option 2: Statement 2 only.

Key Points

• Pulsars are highly magnetized, rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation from their poles.
• The radiation emitted by pulsars is observable as pulses due to their rotation, hence the name "pulsars."
• Pulsars were first discovered in 1967 by Jocelyn Bell Burnell and Antony Hewish and are considered some of the most precise natural clocks in the universe.
• Pulsars are formed during the supernova explosion of massive stars, resulting in the collapse of their cores into dense neutron stars.
• These celestial objects rotate rapidly, with some pulsars completing hundreds of rotations per second (millisecond pulsars).

Additional Information

• Black Holes:
• Black holes are regions of spacetime exhibiting gravitational forces so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape from them.
• The event horizon is the boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing can return.
• They are classified into stellar-mass black holes, supermassive black holes, and intermediate black holes based on their size and formation.
• Pulsars:
• Pulsars are a subtype of neutron stars and are among the densest objects in the universe.
• The precise timing of pulsar emissions allows scientists to study gravitational waves, test theories of relativity, and detect exoplanets.
• Some pulsars are part of binary systems, interacting with companion stars and exhibiting phenomena such as X-ray pulsations.

The correct answer is Article 250.

Key Points

• Article 250 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on matters enumerated in the State List under exceptional circumstances, such as during a National Emergency.
• While a National Emergency is in operation (as per Article 352), Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List for the entire country or part of its territory.
• Such laws made by Parliament under Article 250 remain valid only during the period of the emergency and up to six months after it ceases to operate.
• This provision ensures that Parliament can address urgent national concerns that might require overriding state authority during an emergency.
• Article 250 is a crucial component of the emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution, allowing the central government to maintain legislative control during extraordinary situations.

Additional Information

• Article 256
• Article 256 deals with the obligation of states and the Union to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament.
• It mandates that the executive power of every state shall be exercised to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament.
• It does not specifically address the legislative powers of the Parliament during an emergency.
• Article 254
• Article 254 addresses inconsistencies between laws made by Parliament and laws made by state legislatures.
• If there is a conflict between a central law and a state law on a subject in the Concurrent List, the central law prevails.
• It is unrelated to Parliament’s ability to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency.
• Article 352
• Article 352 provides for the proclamation of a National Emergency in India.
• The President can declare a National Emergency if there is a threat to the security of India or any part of it due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• While Article 352 enables the declaration of an emergency, it is Article 250 that specifically allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during such emergencies.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Article 131A was introduced by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 during the Emergency period in India.
• This article granted the Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction to decide the constitutional validity of any Central law, bypassing High Courts.
• The provision aimed to centralize judicial power in the Supreme Court, reducing the role of High Courts in this matter.
• The 43^rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1977 repealed Article 131A, restoring the original balance of judicial power between the High Courts and the Supreme Court.
• Thus, Statement 2 is correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
• Known as the "Mini-Constitution," this amendment introduced sweeping changes to the Constitution, increasing the power of the Central government.
• It added Article 131A, which centralized the adjudication of the validity of Central laws in the Supreme Court.
• Other changes included the addition of the Fundamental Duties (Part IVA) and the extension of the term of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
• 43^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977:
• This amendment reversed many provisions of the 42^nd Amendment, reflecting the shift in political power after the Emergency.
• It repealed Article 131A, restoring the High Courts' jurisdiction in deciding the validity of Central laws.
• The amendment also reinstated judicial review and reduced the power of the executive in certain areas.
• Judicial Review:
• Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.
• In India, both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power of judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution.
• It ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and protects fundamental rights.

The correct answer is Holika Dahan.

Key Points

• The Bhagoria festival is celebrated by the tribal communities, primarily the Bhil and Bhilala tribes, in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
• The festival begins seven days before Holika Dahan, which marks the start of Holi celebrations.
• Bhagoria is a unique tribal festival where fairs are held, and young people traditionally choose their life partners.
• During the festival, markets are set up, and cultural activities such as dances and music are performed.
• It is a celebration of love, joy, and social bonding among the tribal communities.

Additional Information

• Diwali
• Diwali, also known as the Festival of Lights, is a major Hindu festival celebrated across India and the world.
• It signifies the victory of light over darkness and good over evil, commemorating Lord Rama's return to Ayodhya after defeating Ravana.
• The festival involves lighting lamps (diyas), bursting crackers, and sharing sweets.
• It typically falls in October or November, depending on the lunar calendar.
• Navratri
• Navratri is a nine-day Hindu festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Durga and her nine forms.
• It is celebrated twice a year—Sharad Navratri (autumn) and Chaitra Navratri (spring).
• The festival includes fasting, prayers, and cultural activities such as Garba and Dandiya Raas dances.
• Navratri symbolizes the triumph of good over evil, particularly Goddess Durga's victory over the demon Mahishasura.
• Makar Sankranti
• Makar Sankranti is a Hindu festival celebrated to mark the transition of the Sun into the zodiac sign Capricorn (Makara).
• It is associated with the harvest season and is observed with kite flying, feasting, and rituals across India.
• The festival usually falls on January 14^th and signifies the end of the winter solstice.
• Different regions of India have unique names and traditions for celebrating Makar Sankranti, such as Pongal in Tamil Nadu and Lohri in Punjab.

The correct answer is Akbar's Tomb (Sikandra).

Key Points

• Akbar's Tomb, located in Sikandra, near Agra, deviates from the traditional 'hasht-bihisht' (eight-part) layout, which is common in Mughal architecture.
• Unlike the square or octagonal base of other Mughal mausoleums, Akbar's Tomb has a pyramidal structure with multiple tiers, culminating in an open terrace without a traditional dome.
• The tomb reflects a unique blend of Hindu, Islamic, Jain, and Buddhist architectural styles, showcasing Akbar's policy of religious tolerance.
• The structure is constructed using red sandstone and white marble, with intricate inlay work, but the absence of a central dome makes it distinct from other Mughal tombs.
• The garden surrounding the tomb follows the charbagh layout, which is divided into four equal quadrants by water channels, a common feature in Mughal gardens.

Additional Information

• Humayun's Tomb:
• Located in Delhi, it was commissioned by Humayun's wife, Haji Begum, in 1569-70.
• The tomb was the first garden-tomb in India and heavily inspired by Persian architecture.
• It follows the typical 'hasht-bihisht' layout, with a central dome and symmetrical square design.
• The structure is made of red sandstone and white marble, symbolizing Mughal grandeur.
• Itimad-ud-Daulah:
• Also known as the "Baby Taj," it is located in Agra and was commissioned by Nur Jahan, the wife of Jahangir, for her father, Mirza Ghiyas Beg.
• This tomb marks the transition from red sandstone to white marble as the primary construction material in Mughal architecture.
• It follows the 'hasht-bihisht' layout and features intricate pietra dura inlay work.
• The tomb is renowned for its delicate carvings and symmetrical design.
• Safdarjung's Tomb:
• Located in Delhi, this tomb was built in 1754 for Safdarjung, the Nawab of Oudh.
• It is one of the last examples of Mughal architecture and follows the 'hasht-bihisht' layout.
• The tomb is made of red sandstone and marble, with a central dome and a charbagh garden layout.
• It reflects the decline of Mughal architectural grandeur, with less intricate decoration compared to earlier tombs.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is correct: The seals of the Harappan culture were made using locally found steatite. Steatite, also known as soapstone, was a commonly used material in Harappan civilization due to its easy availability and soft texture, allowing intricate carvings.
• Statement 2 is correct: These seals often feature animal motifs and undeciphered script symbols. The seals depict animals like unicorns, bulls, elephants, and tigers, alongside inscriptions in the undeciphered Harappan script.
• The Harappan seals were primarily used for trade and administrative purposes, serving as markers of identity and authenticity.
• Most seals are square or rectangular, featuring a combination of pictorial motifs and inscriptions, highlighting the advanced artistic and linguistic capabilities of the civilization.
• The seals reflect the cultural and economic aspects of the Harappan civilization, showcasing their trade networks, artistic skills, and early forms of communication.

Additional Information

• Harappan Civilization:
• The Harappan civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, flourished between 2600 BCE and 1900 BCE in the Indian subcontinent.
• It was characterized by advanced urban planning, including well-organized cities like Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, and Dholavira.
• Artifacts such as seals, pottery, beads, and tools highlight the economic and artistic achievements of the civilization.
• Despite extensive research, the Harappan script remains undeciphered, limiting complete understanding of their language and administrative practices.

The correct answer is Swarlakshana.

Key Points

• In "Rāga Vivodha," Pt. Somnath defines a rāga through its Devamāyā svarūpa, which refers to the ethos or essence of a rāga.
• The term Swarlakshana is used to describe the tonal structure and characteristics of a rāga.
• Swarlakshana includes specific details of notes (swaras), ascending (āroha) and descending (avaroha) scales, and their unique arrangements that distinguish one rāga from another.
• It provides the foundation for understanding the technical and melodic framework of a rāga, making it an essential concept in Indian classical music theory.
• Swarlakshana serves as a guideline for composers and performers to adhere to the rāga’s traditional structure while improvising within its framework.

Additional Information

• Tālanga
• Tālanga typically refers to rhythmic patterns or aspects associated with Indian classical music.
• It focuses on the time cycle (tāla) used in compositions and performances, which is distinct from the melodic framework of a rāga.
• While an integral part of Indian music, it is not related to defining the tonal structure of a rāga.
• Rūpa
• Rūpa translates to "form" or "appearance" and can be a generic term referring to the overall aesthetic or shape of a musical piece.
• However, it is not a technical term used specifically for describing the tonal structure of a rāga.
• Jāti
• Jāti refers to the classification of rāgas based on the number of swaras used in ascending and descending scales.
• It divides rāgas into categories such as Audava (5 notes), Shadava (6 notes), and Sampurna (7 notes).
• While closely related to rāga structure, it does not specifically define the tonal framework in the detailed manner that Swarlakshana does.

The correct answer is Sector.

Key Points

• The term sector in the javelin throw refers to the designated area within which the javelin must land for the throw to be considered valid.
• The javelin must land within the 34.92-degree sector marked on the field, ensuring accuracy and fairness in the competition.
• The sector lines are marked as per international standards, and any deviation outside this area results in a foul throw.
• In professional javelin competitions, the sector is closely monitored to ensure compliance with the rules set by World Athletics.
• The sector lines are critical for determining the validity of the throw and play a key role in maintaining the integrity of the sport.

Additional Information

• Glide
• The term glide is associated with the shot put event in athletics.
• It refers to a technique in which the athlete glides across the throwing circle to generate momentum for the throw.
• This method was developed in the 1950s and is commonly used by shot putters to achieve better results.
• The glide technique is one of the two main techniques in shot put, the other being the rotational technique.
• Vault
• The term vault is specifically linked to the pole vault event in athletics.
• In this event, athletes use a pole to propel themselves over a horizontal bar set at a certain height.
• Pole vault requires a combination of speed, strength, and precision to achieve successful clearances.
• It is one of the most technically demanding field events in athletics.
• Spin
• The term spin is primarily associated with the discus throw and hammer throw events in athletics.
• In these events, athletes use a spinning motion to generate rotational force, which helps them throw the implement farther.
• The spin technique is crucial for maximizing the distance in these throwing events.
• It requires precise coordination and balance to execute effectively.