General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is The Tomaras.

Key Points

• The "Dehliwal" coins were introduced and minted by the Tomara dynasty during their rule over Delhi in the early medieval period.
• The Tomaras were a Rajput dynasty who ruled Delhi and its surrounding areas between the 8^th and 12^th centuries.
• The Dehliwal coins were made of silver and were known for their unique and intricate designs, showcasing the craftsmanship of the era.
• These coins held significant importance in trade and commerce, as they became a standard currency in the region.
• The introduction of Dehliwal coins by the Tomaras laid the foundation for a unified monetary system in Delhi, which was later adopted and modified by successive dynasties.

Additional Information

• The Gahadavalas
• The Gahadavalas were a Rajput dynasty that ruled parts of present-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar during the 11^th and 12^th centuries.
• Their capital was located in Varanasi (Kashi), and they were known for their patronage of Hindu culture and temples.
• King Govindachandra was one of the notable rulers of the Gahadavala dynasty.
• They did not mint the Dehliwal coins as their rule was centered in regions far from Delhi.
• The Khaljis
• The Khalji dynasty ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1290 to 1320 and was known for its military campaigns and administrative reforms.
• Their most notable ruler, Alauddin Khalji, implemented significant economic measures, including market control policies.
• The Khalji rulers minted coins, but they were different in design and type from the Dehliwal coins.
• Their coins often carried inscriptions in Persian and Arabic, reflecting the Islamic influence of the period.
• The Lodis
• The Lodis were the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate and ruled from 1451 to 1526.
• This Afghan dynasty was known for its architectural contributions and administrative reforms.
• The Lodi rulers minted coins during their reign, but these were distinct from the Dehliwal coins of the Tomaras.
• The Lodi dynasty came to an end after the defeat of Ibrahim Lodi by Babur at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526, leading to the establishment of the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is Option 1: Charter Act, 1813 – Allocated funds for promotion of education.

Key Points

• The Charter Act of 1813 was a landmark legislation that marked the beginning of formal state support for education in India.
• It allocated a sum of Rs. 1 lakh annually for the promotion of education among Indians. This was the first instance of the British government funding education in India.
• The Act emphasized the need for promoting knowledge of sciences and literature in India, focusing on Western education.
• This initiative laid the foundation for future educational reforms and the establishment of institutions to impart Western-style education.
• The Charter Act, 1813, also allowed missionaries to spread education and Christianity in India, further influencing the educational landscape.

Additional Information

• Evolution of Education Policies in Colonial India
• The question revolves around key milestones in the history of education during British rule in India.
• Various policies, acts, and initiatives shaped the educational system, transitioning from traditional Indian learning to Western-style education.
• Important events like the Charter Act, Macaulay's Minute, and contributions of missionaries played vital roles in transforming education in colonial India.

The correct answer is Simran (bronze, 200m T12) and Navdeep Singh (gold, javelin F41).

Key Points

• Simran won India's first Paralympic bronze medal in the women's 200m T12 category at Paris 2024.
• Navdeep Singh secured a historic gold medal in the men's javelin throw F41 category, marking India's dominance in the field events.
• The T12 category in athletics is designated for visually impaired athletes who compete under specific classification rules.
• The F41 category in javelin throw is specifically for athletes with short stature, allowing them to compete on an equal platform.
• India's performance at the Paris 2024 Paralympics highlighted its growing presence in adaptive sports, with athletes overcoming physical challenges to excel at the highest level.

Additional Information

• Paralympic Classification:
• The Paralympics feature classification systems for athletes with physical, visual, or intellectual impairments to ensure fair competition.
• Track and field events are divided into categories based on the type of disability, such as T (Track) for running events and F (Field) for throwing events.
• T12 is specific to athletes with visual impairments who may compete with the assistance of a guide.
• F41 is reserved for athletes with short stature, ensuring equitable competition within this classification.
• India in Paralympics:
• India's participation in the Paralympics has grown exponentially in recent years, showcasing remarkable performances in athletics, shooting, and badminton.
• Paralympic athletes often overcome significant challenges to represent their country and inspire millions through their achievements.
• Medals won by athletes like Simran and Navdeep Singh reflect India's investment in adaptive sports and the potential of athletes with disabilities.

The correct answer is India and Myanmar conduct joint surveys and proposed a Joint Boundary Working Group.

Key Points

• India and Myanmar share a 1,643-km-long land border, and both countries have a history of amicable relations with a focus on cooperation and mutual respect for sovereignty.
• The joint surveys and the establishment of a Joint Boundary Working Group have been instrumental in addressing boundary demarcation issues.
• India's approach involves collaboration and consultation to address disputes, ensuring that local sentiments and international norms are respected.
• The Joint Boundary Working Group serves as a platform to resolve differences in boundary alignment and ensure smooth implementation of border management mechanisms.
• India’s diplomatic strategy includes balancing national security interests with the need for peaceful resolution of disputes, thereby reducing tensions at the border.

Additional Information

• India-Myanmar Boundary Management
• India and Myanmar share a dynamic relationship involving trade, cultural e×changes, and strategic cooperation.
• Effective boundary management is critical for ensuring security, promoting trade, and fostering strong bilateral relations.
• Both nations work closely to resolve disputes peacefully and strengthen border infrastructure for mutual benefit.

The correct answer is Rohit Sinha.

Key Points

• Rohit Sinha is the author of the book 'School to Startup: Navigating the Path of Entrepreneurship'.
• The book provides insightful guidance for aspiring entrepreneurs, particularly students, on transitioning from academic life to entrepreneurial ventures.
• It emphasizes the challenges and opportunities involved in building startups and navigating the entrepreneurial ecosystem.
• The book highlights key strategies for innovation, funding, team-building, and scaling businesses successfully.
• It serves as a motivational and practical resource for young minds looking to explore entrepreneurship as a career path.

Additional Information

• Romila Thapar
• Romila Thapar is a renowned Indian historian specializing in ancient Indian history.
• Her notable works include 'A History of India' and 'Early India: From the Origins to AD 1300'.
• She has contributed extensively to the study of social and political structures in ancient India.
• Bipin Chandra
• Bipin Chandra was a prominent historian of modern Indian history.
• His famous books include 'India's Struggle for Independence' and 'The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India'.
• He focused on India's freedom movement and socio-economic developments during British rule.
• Shashi Tharoor
• Shashi Tharoor is a well-known Indian politician, diplomat, and author.
• His notable books include 'Inglorious Empire: What the British Did and What India Lost' and 'Why I Am a Hindu'.
• He writes extensively on history, politics, and international relations.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The 4^th KIO National (Senior, U-21 & Para) Karate Championship was held in Hyderabad, Telangana, from 26-29 March 2025.
• This prestigious event was organized by the Karate India Organization (KIO), which is recognized for promoting karate as a sport across India.
• Hyderabad, known for its well-equipped sports facilities, hosted the event to ensure the participation of athletes from diverse regions of India, including para-athletes.
• The championship aimed to provide a platform for karate enthusiasts to showcase their skills and foster sportsmanship among participants.
• It also served as an opportunity for athletes to qualify for national and international karate competitions in various categories.

Additional Information

• Delhi
• Delhi is a prominent hub for national-level sports events due to its state-of-the-art facilities and infrastructure, such as the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium and Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium.
• It has hosted events like the 2010 Commonwealth Games and several international and national championships.
• However, the 4^th KIO National Karate Championship was not conducted in Delhi in 2025.
• Ahmedabad
• Ahmedabad, Gujarat, is known for its newly constructed Narendra Modi Stadium, the world's largest cricket stadium.
• It also promotes other sports through various facilities like the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Sports Complex.
• Bengaluru
• Bengaluru, Karnataka, is known for promoting sports like cricket, hockey, and athletics, with renowned venues like the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium.
• The city has hosted several national and international sports events, including badminton and football tournaments.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Sahil Silwal crossed the 80m mark in the javelin throw for the first time this season, securing the gold medal in the 2024 Inter-State Athletics Championships.
• This achievement highlights Silwal's consistent improvement and his potential to compete at higher levels, including international competitions.
• The javelin throw event at the Inter-State Athletics Championships is one of the key events that attracts top athletes from across the country.
• The Inter-State Athletics Championships serve as a qualifying platform for athletes to secure spots in major international tournaments, including the Asian Games and World Championships.

Additional Information

• Inter-State Athletics Championships:
• This annual event is organized by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) and serves as a key platform for athletes to showcase their talent.
• The competition features various track and field events, including sprints, long-distance running, throws, and jumps.
• It often acts as a selection event for international competitions, including the Olympics and Asian Games.
• Javelin Throw in India:
• India has seen a surge in javelin throw performances with athletes like Neeraj Chopra, who won gold at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, inspiring many young throwers like Sahil Silwal.
• Throwers undergo rigorous training and participate in domestic and international meets to refine their technique and achieve qualifying standards.
• Relay Events:
• Relay races are team events in track and field, requiring precise coordination and speed during baton exchanges.
• The 4x400m relay is one of the most prestigious relay events, often featuring elite athletes and serving as a test of both speed and endurance.

The correct answer is 35.

Key Points

• The minimum age required to contest the Presidential election in India is 35 years.
• This eligibility criterion is specified in Article 58(1)(b) of the Indian Constitution.
• In addition to the age requirement, the candidate must be an Indian citizen and qualified to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
• Presidential candidates must secure endorsements from at least 50 proposers and 50 seconders, who should be members of the Electoral College.
• The Electoral College for the Presidential election includes elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories.

Additional Information

• Presidential Elections in India
• The President is the head of state and the highest constitutional authority in India.
• The election process is conducted through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The President holds office for a term of 5 years but is eligible for re-election.

The correct answer is Only 2 and 3 are correct.

Key Points

• Glycolysis does not occur in the mitochondria; it takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• Kreb's cycle (or citric acid cycle) occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, where acetyl-CoA is oxidized to produce energy carriers like NADH and FADH2.
• The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is oxygen, which combines with hydrogen ions and electrons to form water at the end of the electron transport chain.
• Aerobic respiration is a multi-step process that includes glycolysis, Kreb's cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation, with mitochondria playing a central role in the latter two stages.
• Energy in the form of ATP is produced primarily during the electron transport chain, a process that is dependent on oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor.

Additional Information

• Kreb's Cycle (Statement 2):
• This cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and is a key step in aerobic respiration.
• It oxidizes acetyl-CoA derived from pyruvate to produce NADH, FADH2, and ATP (or GTP).
• The cycle also releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct.
• Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes the location of the Krebs' cycle.
• Final Electron Acceptor (Statement 3):
• In the electron transport chain, electrons are passed through a series of protein complexes in the mitochondrial inner membrane.
• The final acceptor of electrons is oxygen, which combines with protons (H+) to form water.
• This step is essential for maintaining the flow of electrons and ensuring the production of ATP.
• Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Article 249.

Key Points

• Article 249 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on matters enumerated in the State List if the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest.
• This resolution remains valid for one year and can be extended by one year at a time through further resolutions.
• The laws made under Article 249 are only applicable as long as the resolution is in force and cease to have effect after six months once the resolution expires.
• The provision ensures that Parliament can address matters of national interest even in areas under the State List, maintaining the unity and integrity of the country.
• Examples of matters in the State List include public order, police, public health, and agriculture, among others.

Additional Information

• Article 253:
• Article 253 enables Parliament to make laws for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with other countries or for implementing decisions made at international conferences, associations, or other bodies.
• This article primarily deals with India's compliance with international obligations and agreements.
• It serves as a basis for enacting laws on matters that may fall in the State List if required for implementing international commitments.
• Article 248:
• Article 248 provides Parliament with exclusive power to make laws on matters not enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List, referred to as the residuary powers of legislation.
• This article ensures that any subject not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution can still be legislated upon by Parliament.
• It reflects the flexibility of the Indian Constitution in adapting to emerging issues and challenges.
• Article 254:
• Article 254 resolves conflicts between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the State Legislature on matters in the Concurrent List.
• If there is inconsistency between the two, the law made by Parliament prevails, and the state law becomes void to the extent of the repugnancy.
• However, a state law on the same subject can prevail if it has received Presidential assent, unless Parliament later enacts a law inconsistent with it.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Vilasini Natyam is a classical dance form that was historically performed in temples and courts in Andhra Pradesh.
• It was traditionally practiced by Devadasis as part of ritual worship and cultural performances in temples.
• The dance form was revived in the 20^th century by Padma Bhushan Swapnasundari, who played a significant role in bringing it back to prominence.
• Vilasini Natyam is known for its intricate footwork, expressive gestures, and deep connection to religious and cultural traditions.
• It is rooted in the Natya Shastra, an ancient Indian treatise on performing arts, and is characterized by its storytelling and devotional themes.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu (Option 1):
• Tamil Nadu is renowned for Bharatanatyam, one of the oldest classical dance forms in India.
• Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu and was traditionally performed in temples as a form of devotional offering to deities.
• It is characterized by its fixed upper torso, bent legs, intricate hand gestures, and facial expressions that narrate stories.
• Karnataka (Option 2):
• Karnataka is known for Yakshagana, a traditional dance-drama form that combines dance, music, and dialogue.
• Yakshagana originated in coastal Karnataka and is recognized for its elaborate costumes, vibrant makeup, and powerful storytelling.
• It primarily depicts themes from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Kerala (Option 4):
• Kerala is famous for Kathakali, a highly stylized classical dance-drama noted for its elaborate makeup, costumes, and facial expressions.
• It is deeply rooted in Hindu mythology and is often performed as part of temple rituals and cultural festivals.
• Other significant dance forms from Kerala include Mohiniyattam, which is a graceful classical dance form performed by women.

The correct answer is Option 1: Only Statement 1 is correct.

Key Points

• The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF): It represents the maximum possible combinations of goods and services that an economy can produce given its resources and technology.
• Trade-offs and Opportunity Costs: The PPF graphically demonstrates the trade-offs and opportunity costs involved in allocating resources between different products.
• Efficient Resource Utilization: Any point on the PPF curve indicates the efficient use of resources, while points inside the curve indicate underutilization, and points outside are unattainable.
• PPF is a cornerstone concept in economics and is used to understand how economies allocate scarce resources efficiently.
• Statement 1 is correct because the PPF explicitly depicts trade-offs and opportunity costs faced by an economy.

Additional Information

• Concept of Opportunity Cost:
• Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative foregone when a choice is made.
• In the context of the PPF, when resources are reallocated from producing one good to another, the opportunity cost is the amount of the first good that must be sacrificed.
• Shape of the PPF:
• The PPF is typically concave to the origin because of the law of increasing opportunity costs. As more resources are allocated to one good, the cost of producing additional units of that good increases.
• However, a straight-line PPF indicates constant opportunity costs, which is less common in real-world scenarios.

The correct answer is Government Spending Levels.

Key Points

• The 2025 Index of Economic Freedom evaluates "Government Size" by primarily analyzing government spending levels, tax burdens, and fiscal health.
• The "Government Spending" metric assesses how government expenditures as a percentage of GDP affect economic freedom and growth.
• High government spending is often associated with inefficiencies, slower economic growth, and a reduction in overall economic freedom.
• Countries with lower government spending levels relative to GDP typically score higher in this component, as they allow greater room for private sector activity.
• This category also evaluates the sustainability of government spending to ensure fiscal discipline and avoid excessive public debt.

Additional Information

• Public Education Funding
• While public education funding is an important government expenditure, it is not a primary metric used to evaluate "Government Size" in the Index of Economic Freedom.
• Education funding is typically analyzed under categories such as human capital development or social infrastructure, rather than government size.
• However, excessive government intervention in education systems can impact economic freedom indirectly by increasing public spending levels.
• National Defense Expenditures
• National defense spending is a critical area of government expenditure, but it is not specifically analyzed under "Government Size" in the Index of Economic Freedom.
• Such expenditures are typically assessed in terms of their efficiency and necessity for maintaining national security rather than their impact on economic freedom.
• In some cases, disproportionate defense spending can strain public finances, indirectly affecting economic freedom.
• Foreign Aid Contributions
• Foreign aid contributions are a form of international assistance provided by governments to other nations, often for humanitarian or developmental purposes.
• While foreign aid reflects a country’s external economic policies, it does not directly influence the evaluation of "Government Size" in the Index of Economic Freedom.
• Such contributions are more likely to be assessed under categories like international trade or investment freedom.

The correct answer is Second.

Key Points

• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) of India was focused on the rapid industrialization of the country, especially the establishment and growth of heavy industries.
• This plan was based on the Mahalanobis Model, named after P.C. Mahalanobis, which emphasized investment in the heavy industrial sector as a means to achieve long-term economic growth.
• Key industries such as steel, coal, and heavy machinery were given priority to build a strong industrial base for the country.
• The government established public sector enterprises like the Bhilai Steel Plant, Durgapur Steel Plant, and Bokaro Steel Plant under this plan.
• Promoting self-reliance in industrial production and reducing dependence on foreign imports was one of the main objectives of this plan.

Additional Information

• First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956):
• The primary focus of the First Five-Year Plan was on the agricultural sector to address food shortages and ensure self-sufficiency in food production.
• It was based on the Harrod-Domar Model, which emphasized increasing investment in agriculture and irrigation projects.
• Key projects included the construction of major dams like Bhakra Nangal and Hirakud to improve irrigation and power generation.
• Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966):
• The Third Plan aimed to achieve self-reliance in food production and accelerate economic development by prioritizing both agriculture and industry.
• It also focused on defense production following the 1962 Indo-China War.
• The plan, however, faced setbacks due to the war, drought, and economic challenges, leading to its partial success.
• Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974):
• The Fourth Plan primarily focused on stabilizing the economy and achieving self-reliance in technology and production.
• It emphasized the growth of the Green Revolution to boost agricultural productivity and reduce dependence on food imports.
• Industrial growth was also pursued, but the focus shifted towards balancing agriculture and industry.

The correct answer is Climate Resilient Watershed Programme.

Key Points

• Climate Resilient Watershed Programme is an Indian initiative under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) focusing on improving micro-climate resilience in semi-arid zones.
• The programme emphasizes community-led water harvesting techniques to address water scarcity and enhance water resource management.
• It aims to bolster resilience against climate change by promoting sustainable agricultural practices that are less dependent on erratic rainfall.
• The initiative involves the construction of small check dams, percolation tanks, and farm ponds to ensure efficient water storage and utilization.
• By adopting integrated watershed development practices, the programme seeks to mitigate the adverse effects of climate change while improving the livelihoods of farmers in affected regions.

Additional Information

• Jal Urja Yojana
• The name suggests a focus on water and energy conservation; however, no specific programme titled "Jal Urja Yojana" exists under NAFCC or other climate-related schemes.
• It is likely a hypothetical option included in the question.
• Hariyali Mission
• The Hariyali Mission is primarily a plantation and afforestation initiative, aimed at increasing green cover and improving ecological balance.
• It does not directly address micro-climate resilience through community-led water harvesting.
• Jal Mitra Scheme
• The Jal Mitra Scheme is centered around water conservation and community engagement for sustainable water resource management.
• However, it is not linked specifically to the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) or its objectives of improving micro-climate resilience in semi-arid zones.
• National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC)
• Launched in 2015, NAFCC is a central government scheme aimed at addressing the impacts of climate change through adaptation measures.
• It provides financial assistance to projects that promote sustainable agricultural practices, water management, and ecosystem conservation.
• NAFCC is particularly focused on vulnerable regions and communities most affected by climate change.

The correct answer is Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary.

Key Points

• Economic liberalisation refers to the relaxation of government restrictions in areas such as trade, investment, and industry to encourage greater efficiency and economic growth.
• It impacts all three sectors of the economy—primary, secondary, and tertiary—by fostering competition, improving productivity, and increasing the flow of foreign investments.
• In the primary sector, liberalisation has enhanced agricultural exports, introduced modern farming techniques, and opened markets for global trade.
• In the secondary sector, industrial growth has surged due to deregulation of industries, foreign direct investment (FDI), and access to new technologies.
• In the tertiary sector, liberalisation has significantly boosted services such as banking, communication, IT, and transportation, making India a global hub for outsourcing and technology-driven services.

Additional Information

• Economic liberalisation was introduced in India in 1991 under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
• It aimed to remove trade barriers, deregulate industries, and open the economy to global markets.
• Liberalisation policies have led to rapid economic growth, increased foreign investments, and integration with the global economy.
• Key measures include reduction in tariffs, removal of licensing requirements, and encouragement of private sector involvement in various industries.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• The economic reforms of 1991, often referred to as the LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization) reforms, were a watershed moment in India's economic history.
• Post-1991 reforms, India experienced a significant increase in foreign exchange reserves due to improved capital inflows and enhanced export performance.
• Trade liberalization led to a reduction in import tariffs, simplified export-import procedures, and a more open trade regime, which boosted export competitiveness.
• The liberalized foreign investment policies encouraged Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) inflows, further bolstering foreign exchange reserves.
• Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A) because the enhanced trade policies and capital inflows directly contributed to the improvement of India's foreign exchange position.

Additional Information

• Impact of 1991 Economic Reforms
• The 1991 economic reforms dismantled the License Raj, reduced bureaucratic red tape, and opened up the Indian economy to foreign investment.
• India's GDP growth rate accelerated, and the country transitioned from a highly regulated economy to a market-driven one.
• Key measures included devaluation of the rupee, reduction in fiscal deficits, and structural adjustments to encourage private sector growth.

The correct answer is Option 1: 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D.

Key Points

• Panthi: This folk dance is associated with devotional hymns to Guru Ghasidas (Hari-Gaitri). It is performed by the Satnami community of Chhattisgarh and is deeply spiritual in nature.
• Gotipua: This traditional dance of Odisha narrates Krishna-Jagannath leela. It is performed by young boys dressed as females and is a precursor to the Odissi dance form.
• Kalbelia: The Kalbelia dance of Rajasthan uses sensuous serpent metaphors to mimic the movements of a snake, reflecting the community’s traditional association with snake charming.
• Tippani: This is a work-song dance from Gujarat that features pounding couplets (saathiyo re). It is performed by women using long sticks to pound the ground in rhythm.

Additional Information

• Panthi Dance:
• It is a devotional dance form performed by the Satnami sect in Chhattisgarh.
• The dance is a tribute to Guru Ghasidas, who is revered as a spiritual leader and social reformer.
• Gotipua Dance:
• This dance form has been performed in Odisha since ancient times, often in temples to praise Lord Jagannath and Lord Krishna.
• Gotipua translates to “single boy,” as young boys dress up as female dancers for this performance.
• Kalbelia Dance:
• Performed by the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan, who were traditionally snake charmers.
• The dance involves intricate footwork and fluid movements that mimic the slithering of a snake.
• Tippani Dance:
• This folk dance originates from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
• Performed by women in groups, it is a work-oriented dance in which pounding sticks are used rhythmically to compact mud or clay.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is applicable only to the four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It is not applicable to Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Under the Sixth Schedule, autonomous district councils (ADCs) are empowered to make laws on specified subjects such as land management, forest resources, and inheritance.
• These councils function as local self-governing bodies, and they have the authority to levy taxes, manage public services, and regulate trade within their jurisdiction.
• The objective of the Sixth Schedule is to safeguard the rights of tribal communities by granting them autonomy in governance and preserving their cultural heritage.
• Statement 1 in the question is incorrect because Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh are governed by special provisions under Article 371 of the Constitution and are not covered by the Sixth Schedule.
• Statement 2 is correct because the Sixth Schedule explicitly empowers ADCs to make laws on certain matters listed in the schedule.

Additional Information

• Sixth Schedule:
• It was added to the Constitution through the Government of India Act, 1935, and later incorporated into the Constitution in 1950.
• The ADCs have legislative, executive, and judicial powers over the subjects listed in the Sixth Schedule, including social customs, land management, forests, and agriculture.
• The aim is to protect the rights and autonomy of tribal populations in the northeast.
• Each ADC consists of members elected by the people and nominated by the Governor of the respective state.
• Special Provisions for Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh:
• Nagaland is governed under Article 371A, which provides special rights to the Naga people over their religion, social practices, and land ownership.
• Arunachal Pradesh has special provisions under Article 371H, which grants the Governor special powers concerning law and order in the state.
• These states are not included in the Sixth Schedule as they have their own unique governance mechanisms.
• Autonomous District Councils (ADCs):
• ADCs are constituted under the Sixth Schedule and function as self-governing bodies for tribal areas.
• They have the power to make laws on subjects like land, water resources, and inheritance, but these laws require the approval of the Governor.
• They aim to empower tribal communities by giving them control over their local governance.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) observes primarily in the near-infrared and mid-infrared spectrum, enabling it to peer through cosmic dust and study distant galaxies, stars, and planetary systems.
• It is positioned at the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point L2, approximately 1.5 million kilometers away from Earth, providing a stable environment for its operations while keeping it shielded from solar and terrestrial radiation.
• The JWST is equipped with a coronagraph, a device designed to block light from a star to allow the observation of faint objects like exoplanets orbiting it.
• Launched on December 25, 2021, by NASA, in collaboration with ESA (European Space Agency) and CSA (Canadian Space Agency), the JWST is the most advanced space telescope to date, designed to succeed the Hubble Space Telescope.
• The JWST aims to explore fundamental questions about the formation of stars and galaxies, the atmospheres of exoplanets, and the origins of the universe.

Additional Information

• Lagrange Point L2:
• The Lagrange Point L2 is a gravitationally stable location behind Earth, where the combined gravitational forces of the Sun and Earth allow an object to remain in a fixed position relative to them.
• JWST:
• The JWST's primary mirror is 6.5 meters in diameter, significantly larger than Hubble's 2.4-meter mirror, enhancing its light-gathering capabilities.
• The telescope operates at extremely low temperatures, around -233°C, to ensure optimal performance of its infrared instruments.
• Its sunshield, the size of a tennis court, protects the telescope from solar radiation and helps maintain its operational temperature.