SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 401–420 of 7100Page 21 of 100
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 401

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is a notable architectural feature of Notre Dame des Anges Church in Puducherry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shikhara with amalaka

  2. BOption (b)

    Transparent enclosure with piers

  3. COption (c)

    Minaret with balcony

  4. DOption (d)

    Corbelled arch with lattice work

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Transparent enclosure with piers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Transparent enclosure with piers.

Key Points

  • The Notre Dame des Anges Church in Puducherry is renowned for its distinctive architectural style inspired by Greco-Roman architecture.
  • The church features a transparent enclosure with piers, a rare architectural element that enhances the structure's aesthetic appeal.
  • This feature allows natural light to permeate the interiors, creating a serene and ethereal ambiance within the church.
  • The pink and white façade of the church, coupled with the transparent design elements, makes it a unique and visually stunning landmark in Puducherry.
  • The church also boasts beautifully painted ceilings and intricate artwork, adding to its historical and cultural significance.

Additional Information

  • Shikhara with amalaka
  • The shikhara is a spire or tower that adorns the top of Hindu temples and is a key feature of Nagara-style architecture.
  • An amalaka is a circular, ribbed stone disc placed at the top of the shikhara, symbolizing the celestial realm.
  • This architectural style is typically seen in temples of North India, such as the Khajuraho temples, and is not associated with the Notre Dame des Anges Church.
  • Minaret with balcony
  • Minarets are tall, slender towers attached to mosques, commonly seen in Islamic architecture.
  • They often feature balconies (called muezzin's galleries) from where the call to prayer is announced.
  • This architectural feature is specific to Islamic religious buildings and is not relevant to the design of Notre Dame des Anges Church, a Christian site.
  • Corbelled arch with lattice work
  • A corbelled arch is constructed by overlapping stones or bricks in a step-like fashion, commonly used in ancient Indian architecture.
  • Lattice work refers to decorative perforated designs, often seen in Mughal and Rajasthani architecture.
  • These features are not part of the architectural style of the Notre Dame des Anges Church.
  • Notre Dame des Anges Church
  • Located in Puducherry, this church is a prominent landmark and represents a blend of European architectural styles.
  • It was built in 1855 and is dedicated to Our Lady of Angels.
  • The church is known for its serene atmosphere and historical significance, making it a major tourist attraction in the region.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 402

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following best captures the cultural and historical essence of Uttarakhand's Bissu Mela?

  1. AOption (a)

    A three-day martial arts event by Gorkha settlers in Garhwal to worship Lord Kartikeya as the harvest god.

  2. BOption (b)

    A week-long Jaunsari tribal fair in Chakrata, thanking for harvest and honoring Santoora Devi, a Durga form.

  3. COption (c)

    A pilgrimage where Pandavas are worshipped at stone altars through Himachali Brahmin rituals.

  4. DOption (d)

    A fasting-based fair restricting women from dancing due to ancestral customs.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A week-long Jaunsari tribal fair in Chakrata, thanking for harvest and honoring Santoora Devi, a Durga form.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A week-long Jaunsari tribal fair in Chakrata, thanking for harvest and honoring Santoora Devi, a Durga form..

Key Points

  • Bissu Mela is a prominent cultural event celebrated primarily by the Jaunsari tribal community in the Chakrata region of Uttarakhand.
  • This week-long festival is primarily held to express gratitude for a bountiful harvest and to honor Santoora Devi, an incarnation of Goddess Durga.
  • The festival is marked by colorful cultural performances, traditional music, and dance forms unique to the Jaunsari tribe.
  • Bissu Mela also represents the cultural essence and agricultural prosperity of the region, symbolizing unity and communal harmony.
  • During the mela, locals pray for continued agricultural success, good health, and the well-being of their community.

Additional Information

  • Tribal festivals in India
  • India is home to several tribal communities, each with its own unique traditions and festivals.
  • These festivals often revolve around nature, agriculture, and local deities, reflecting the cultural diversity of the country.
  • Bissu Mela is one such example, showcasing the rich heritage of the Jaunsari tribe in Uttarakhand.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 403

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In the context of Gupta dynasty's taxation, which pair is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Adeya - penalty for libellous speech

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhaga - king's share of produce

  3. COption (c)

    Hiranya - forced labour

  4. DOption (d)

    Dhanya - gold bullion fee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhaga - king's share of produce

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhaga - king's share of produce.

Key Points

  • In the Gupta dynasty, taxation was an essential part of the administrative system, contributing significantly to the empire's financial stability and governance.
  • Bhaga referred to the king’s share of the agricultural produce, typically collected as a tax from cultivators.
  • This share was usually set at a fixed proportion of the yield, often 1/6th of the total produce, a practice common in ancient Indian kingdoms.
  • Taxes like Bhaga were collected to maintain the state’s functioning, including administrative expenses, military upkeep, and public welfare activities.
  • The taxation system during the Gupta period was decentralized to some extent, with local officials or landlords overseeing collections in their respective regions.

Additional Information

  • Adeya - penalty for libellous speech:
  • Adeya does not refer to taxation in the Gupta dynasty but relates to penalties or fines for inappropriate or libellous speech.
  • The term is more associated with judicial practices or moral codes rather than the economic framework of the Gupta administration.
  • Hiranya - forced labour:
  • Hiranya, contrary to the given option, refers to taxes paid in cash or precious metals like gold.
  • It was distinct from Bhaga, which was collected as agricultural produce, and was often levied on urban dwellers or traders.
  • Hiranya was a crucial component of the Gupta empire’s revenue system, showcasing the diversity of taxation methods.
  • Dhanya - gold bullion fee:
  • Dhanya does not imply a gold bullion fee; instead, it generally refers to grains or agricultural produce in Sanskrit terminology.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 404

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following best describes Achal and Chal swaras in Indian classical music?

  1. AOption (a)

    All swaras have fixed pitch in both systems

  2. BOption (b)

    Sa and Pa are fixed; others have variants like Komal or Teevra

  3. COption (c)

    Komal and Teevra swaras are used only in Carnatic music

  4. DOption (d)

    Ga and Ni are always sung in Shuddha form in all styles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sa and Pa are fixed; others have variants like Komal or Teevra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sa and Pa are fixed; others have variants like Komal or Teevra.

Key Points

  • In Indian classical music, the concept of Achal and Chal swaras refers to the classification of swaras (musical notes) based on their pitch variability.
  • Achal swaras: Sa (Shadja) and Pa (Pancham) are considered fixed (Achal) swaras, meaning their pitch does not change.
  • Chal swaras: The remaining five swaras (Re, Ga, Ma, Dha, Ni) can have variations and are classified as movable (Chal) swaras. These variations are categorized as Komal (flat) or Teevra (sharp).
  • For instance, Re, Ga, Dha, and Ni can take both Shuddha (natural) and Komal (flat) forms, while Ma can be either Shuddha or Teevra (sharp).
  • This classification is fundamental in both Hindustani and Carnatic music systems, and it forms the basis for creating different ragas and melodies.

Additional Information

  • Achal and Chal Swaras
  • The seven swaras in Indian classical music are Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, and Ni.
  • The fixed swaras (Sa and Pa) act as reference points, while the movable swaras provide melodic flexibility.
  • This combination of fixed and movable swaras is essential for the formation of ragas, which are melodic frameworks in Indian classical music.
  • The interplay of Shuddha, Komal, and Teevra swaras adds depth and variety to musical compositions.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 405

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is true about "en passant" in chess?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only after a pawn moves two squares and waits a turn.

  2. BOption (b)

    Can be done within two moves after the pawn's advance.

  3. COption (c)

    Must be done immediately after the pawn moves two squares.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only if the capturing pawn is on a dark square.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Must be done immediately after the pawn moves two squares.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Must be done immediately after the pawn moves two squares.

Key Points

  • En passant is a special pawn capture rule in chess that allows a pawn to capture an opponent's pawn immediately after it moves two squares forward from its starting position.
  • The capture must be made on the very next move; otherwise, the opportunity is lost.
  • The opponent's pawn must have moved two squares forward from its starting position, landing adjacent to the capturing pawn.
  • When the en passant capture occurs, the capturing pawn moves diagonally to the square where the opponent's pawn would have landed if it had advanced only one square.
  • The rule was introduced to prevent pawns from bypassing a potential capture when advancing two squares, maintaining fairness in the game.

Additional Information

  • Pieces & Board
  • Pieces: King, Queen, Rook, Bishop, Knight, Pawn.
  • Board: Chessboard, Center (e4, d4, e5, d5), Ranks (rows), Files (columns).
  • Game States & Results
  • Check: King is attacked.
  • Checkmate: King is attacked and cannot escape (Game Over).
  • Stalemate: No legal moves, but not in check (Draw).
  • Draw: Tie game (e.g., Perpetual Check, Threefold Repetition).
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 406

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the dynasties listed in Column A with their respective founders mentioned in Column B: 

Column A: DynastyColumn B: Founder
A. Tomaras1. Bahlul Lodi
B. Khalji Dynasty2. Ananga Pala
C. Sayyid Dynasty3. Jalaluddin Khalji
D. Lodi Dynasty4. Khizr Khan
  1. AOption (a)

    A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A → 3, B → 2, C → 4, D → 1

  3. COption (c)

    A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A → 1, B → 3, C → 4, D → 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1: A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1.

Key Points

  • Tomaras: Ananga Pala, the founder of the Tomara dynasty, established his rule in Delhi around the 8th or 9th century. The dynasty is known for laying the foundation of Delhi as a major political center.
  • Khalji Dynasty: Jalaluddin Khalji was the founder of the Khalji dynasty, which ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1290 to 1320 CE. His rule marked the beginning of a shift in power from the Turkic dynasties to Afghan rulers.
  • Sayyid Dynasty: Khizr Khan, the founder of the Sayyid dynasty, established his rule over Delhi in 1414 CE after the fall of the Tughlaq dynasty. He served as a vassal of the Timurid ruler Timur and later declared himself the ruler.
  • Lodi Dynasty: Bahlul Lodi, the founder of the Lodi dynasty, became Sultan of Delhi in 1451 CE. His reign marked the establishment of the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate before the Mughal Empire.
  • The matching of dynasties and founders is essential to understanding the chronological development of the Delhi Sultanate and its political history.

Additional Information

  • The Tomara Dynasty:
  • The Tomaras were originally a Rajput clan who ruled over parts of North India, primarily around Delhi.
  • Ananga Pala, a Tomara ruler, is credited with founding the city of Delhi, which later became a significant political center during the Sultanate period.
  • The dynasty was eventually overthrown by the Chauhan dynasty under Prithviraj Chauhan.
  • The Khalji Dynasty:
  • Jalaluddin Khalji established the Khalji dynasty in 1290 CE after overthrowing the last ruler of the Slave dynasty.
  • The Khalji dynasty is known for its strong military campaigns, including Alauddin Khalji's successful conquests of northern and southern India.
  • The dynasty marked the beginning of Afghan rule in India and introduced significant administrative reforms.
  • The Sayyid Dynasty:
  • The Sayyid dynasty ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1414 to 1451 CE.
  • Khizr Khan, the founder, was a former governor under Timur and declared independence after Timur's invasion of India.
  • The Sayyids were considered weak rulers compared to their predecessors, and their rule was marked by internal strife and external invasions.
  • The Lodi Dynasty:
  • The Lodi dynasty (1451–1526 CE) was the last ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate before the establishment of the Mughal Empire.
  • Bahlul Lodi, an Afghan noble, founded the dynasty by defeating the Sayyid rulers.
  • The Lodis introduced significant administrative reforms and expanded their territory, but their rule ended with the defeat of Ibrahim Lodi by Babur at the Battle of Panipat in 1526 CE.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 407

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which Olympic Games did Leander Paes make his debut before winning India's first Olympic tennis medal in the following edition?

  1. AOption (a)

    Barcelona Olympic Games

  2. BOption (b)

    Atlanta Olympic Games

  3. COption (c)

    Sydney Olympic Games

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi Olympic Games

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Barcelona Olympic Games

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Barcelona Olympic Games.

Key Points

  • Leander Paes made his debut at the 1992 Barcelona Olympic Games, representing India in tennis.
  • He competed in both the singles and doubles events during the 1992 Olympics.
  • Although he did not win a medal in Barcelona, his debut marked the beginning of a remarkable Olympic journey.
  • In the subsequent 1996 Atlanta Olympics, Leander Paes won the bronze medal in men’s singles tennis, becoming the first Indian to win an Olympic medal in the sport.
  • His bronze medal in Atlanta was also India’s first individual Olympic medal in 44 years since KD Jadhav’s wrestling bronze in 1952.

Additional Information

  • Atlanta Olympic Games
  • The 1996 Atlanta Olympics was where Leander Paes won his historic bronze medal in men’s singles tennis.
  • Paes defeated Brazilian player Fernando Meligeni in the bronze medal match, earning India’s only medal in the Atlanta Olympics.
  • This achievement marked India’s resurgence in individual sports on the Olympic stage.
  • Sydney Olympic Games
  • The 2000 Sydney Olympics saw Leander Paes compete in both singles and doubles events.
  • In the doubles event, he partnered with Mahesh Bhupathi, but the duo did not secure a medal.
  • The Sydney Olympics was part of Paes’ long-standing Olympic career, spanning seven consecutive appearances from 1992 to 2016.
  • New Delhi Olympic Games
  • There has never been an Olympic Games held in New Delhi.
  • India hosted the Asian Games in New Delhi in 1951 and 1982 but has never hosted the Olympics.
  • This option is incorrect as it does not correspond to any actual Olympic Games.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 408

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

At which BIMSTEC Summit was the agreement to set up the Technology Transfer Facility in Colombo signed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Third Summit

  2. BOption (b)

    Fourth Summit

  3. COption (c)

    Fifth Summit

  4. DOption (d)

    Sixth Summit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fifth Summit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fifth Summit.

Key Points

  • The agreement to set up the BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility (TTF) in Colombo, Sri Lanka, was signed during the Fifth BIMSTEC Summit held on 30 March 2022.
  • The summit was chaired by Sri Lanka, and it was held virtually due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • The Technology Transfer Facility aims to strengthen cooperation among BIMSTEC member countries in the field of technology, innovation, and capacity building.
  • This initiative focuses on sharing technologies and innovations to promote sustainable development and boost regional economic growth.
  • The Fifth Summit also adopted the BIMSTEC Charter, which provides a formal structure for the organization and enhances its institutional framework.

Additional Information

  • Third BIMSTEC Summit:
  • The Third BIMSTEC Summit was held in Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar, on 4 March 2014.
  • The summit emphasized enhanced connectivity among member nations, including road, rail, and air links.
  • It also highlighted the importance of energy cooperation and trade facilitation.
  • Fourth BIMSTEC Summit:
  • The Fourth BIMSTEC Summit took place in Kathmandu, Nepal, on 30-31 August 2018.
  • The focus was on deepening regional integration and connectivity, including the signing of the BIMSTEC Convention on Mutual Legal Assistance in Criminal Matters.
  • Leaders emphasized the need for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) to strengthen economic cooperation.
  • Sixth BIMSTEC Summit:
  • The Sixth BIMSTEC Summit is yet to take place as of October 2023.
  • It is expected to build upon the initiatives undertaken during the Fifth Summit, particularly in areas of technology, connectivity, and economic cooperation.
  • BIMSTEC Overview:
  • BIMSTEC stands for the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
  • It includes seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand.
  • The organization aims to promote regional cooperation in areas such as trade, technology, energy, transport, and climate change.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 409

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who wrote 'An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shashi Tharoor

  2. BOption (b)

    Vikram Seth

  3. COption (c)

    Pavan Varma

  4. DOption (d)

    Romila Thapar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shashi Tharoor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shashi Tharoor.

Key Points

  • Shashi Tharoor, a renowned Indian author, politician, and diplomat, wrote the book 'An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India'.
  • The book was published in 2016 and critiques the exploitative practices of British colonial rule in India.
  • In this work, Tharoor elaborates on the economic, cultural, and social damages caused by the British Empire during its rule in India, often using historical evidence and statistics.
  • The book is based on Tharoor’s famous speech at the Oxford Union debate in 2015, where he argued for reparations for colonial damages caused by Britain.
  • 'An Era of Darkness' is lauded for its detailed and compelling narrative, exposing the harsh realities of colonial exploitation.

Additional Information

  • Vikram Seth
  • Vikram Seth is an acclaimed Indian author and poet, best known for his novel 'A Suitable Boy', which is one of the longest novels ever published in English.
  • Seth’s works often explore themes of love, relationships, and the intricacies of Indian society.
  • His other notable works include 'The Golden Gate', a novel in verse, and 'An Equal Music', which focuses on the life of a violinist.
  • Pavan K. Varma
  • Pavan K. Varma is an Indian diplomat and author known for his works on Indian culture and society.
  • His notable books include 'The Great Indian Middle Class' and 'Being Indian', which provide deep insights into Indian identity and its evolution.
  • Varma often delves into topics related to India’s socio-political framework and cultural ethos.
  • Romila Thapar
  • Romila Thapar is a prominent Indian historian, well-known for her scholarly works on ancient Indian history.
  • Her major works include 'A History of India' and 'Ashoka and the Decline of the Mauryas'.
  • Thapar has extensively written about the cultural, political, and social aspects of ancient India, providing a nuanced perspective on historical events.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 410

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

A key appointment in India's disaster management sector was made in 2024. Which Indian Police Service (IPS) officer took charge as the "Director General of the National Disaster Response Force", leading the nation's primary disaster relief efforts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Piyush Anand

  2. BOption (b)

    Atul Karwal

  3. COption (c)

    Rajeev Kapoor

  4. DOption (d)

    Pradeep Kumar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Piyush Anand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Piyush Anand.

Key Points

  • Piyush Anand IPS officer Uttar Pradesh 1991 batch, who is presently posted as Special DG CISF Ministry of Home Affairs Government of India, has been appointed as Director General, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)Ministry of Home Affairs Government of India, in place of Atul Karwal, IPS (GJ/88) upon his superannuation on 31.03.2024.
  • The NDRF is India's premier agency for disaster management and plays a critical role in disaster relief and rescue operations across the country.

Additional Information

  • Atul Karwal
  • Appointed DG of NDRF on November 15, 2021, and served until March 31, 2024, when he retired.
  • A decorated officer known for his leadership, ultra-marathon running, mountaineering (including Everest), and martial arts, he led NDRF through significant operations like Operation Dost.
  • Rajeev Kapoor
  • Rajeev Kapoor is another prominent IPS officer but has not served as the Director General of the NDRF.
  • His contributions lie in other areas of public service and law enforcement, unrelated to disaster management.
  • Pradeep Kumar
  • Pradeep Kumar is a senior government official but has no connection with the NDRF's leadership role or disaster management operations.
  • His expertise lies in other administrative domains rather than emergency response or relief efforts.
  • About the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
  • The NDRF was formed in 2006 under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, to respond to natural and man-made disasters.
  • It comprises 12 battalions deployed across the country and is equipped with specialized training and modern equipment to handle disasters.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 411

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Gaganyaan is planned to orbit Earth at approximately what altitude?

  1. AOption (a)

    100 km

  2. BOption (b)

    400 km

  3. COption (c)

    1000 km

  4. DOption (d)

    36,000 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

400 km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 400 km.

Key Points

  • Gaganyaan Mission is India's first human spaceflight program developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • The planned altitude for the orbit of the spacecraft is approximately 400 km from Earth's surface.
  • At this altitude, the spacecraft will perform microgravity experiments and other scientific studies.
  • The mission aims to send a crew of three astronauts into space for a duration of up to seven days.
  • The spacecraft will orbit in a low Earth orbit (LEO), which is ideal for human spaceflight missions due to reduced radiation exposure compared to higher altitudes.
  • This milestone mission is expected to establish India as the fourth nation to send humans into space, after the USA, Russia, and China.

Additional Information

  • The Gaganyaan mission is part of India's efforts to advance its space exploration capabilities and develop the technological infrastructure for human spaceflight.
  • It involves critical systems like the GSLV Mk III rocket (launch vehicle), crew module, environmental control and life support systems, and ground support systems.
  • Through Gaganyaan, ISRO aims to enhance India's status as a spacefaring nation and open avenues for future interplanetary missions.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 412

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is unrelated to the components of population change?

  1. AOption (a)

    Births

  2. BOption (b)

    Deaths

  3. COption (c)

    Migration

  4. DOption (d)

    Employment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Employment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Employment.

Key Points

  • Employment is not considered a direct component of population change as it does not directly influence the size of the population.
  • Population change is typically determined by three key factors: births, deaths, and migration.
  • Employment affects the socio-economic structure of a population but does not contribute directly to its growth or decline.
  • While employment may influence migration patterns indirectly (e.g., people moving to cities for jobs), it is not a standalone factor in population change.

Additional Information

  • Births:
  • Births are a primary component of population change. The birth rate measures the number of live births per 1,000 people in a given year.
  • It plays a significant role in determining the natural increase or decrease in population.
  • Factors such as fertility rates, healthcare services, and socio-economic conditions influence birth rates.
  • Deaths:
  • Deaths are another critical component of population change. The death rate measures the number of deaths per 1,000 people in a given year.
  • Mortality rates are affected by healthcare facilities, lifestyle, nutrition, and sanitation.
  • A decline in the death rate due to advancements in medicine and public health can lead to population growth.
  • Migration:
  • Migration refers to the movement of people from one region to another, either within a country or across international borders.
  • It can be classified into immigration (in-migration) and emigration (out-migration).
  • Migration impacts the distribution and growth of a population in specific regions rather than the total global population size.
  • Reasons for migration include employment opportunities, education, better living conditions, and political or environmental factors.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 413

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

With reference to the All India Inter-Club U21 Men & Women Water Polo League - 2025, which of the following statements are accurate?

  1. The tournament was hosted at Mayo College in Ajmer, Rajasthan.
  2. It was organized under the aegis of the Western Naval Command.
  3. The event took place from 14 to 18 April 2025.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The All India Inter-Club U21 Men & Women Water Polo League - 2025 was hosted at Mayo College in Ajmer, Rajasthan.
  • The event took place from 14 to 18 April 2025, making this information accurate as per the question.
  • However, the statement regarding the organization of the event under the aegis of the Western Naval Command is incorrect, as it was not associated with this authority.
  • Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are accurate, aligning with the question and confirming Option 3 as the correct choice.
  • The league aimed to promote water polo at the grassroots level, offering young athletes a platform to showcase their talent and develop their skills.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Water Polo in India
  • Water polo is a growing sport in India, with increasing attention being given to grassroots development and youth participation.
  • Events like the All India Inter-Club U21 Men & Women Water Polo League aim to provide a platform for young athletes to compete at a national level and gain exposure.
  • Such tournaments also help identify talent for international competitions, fostering the growth of aquatic sports in the country.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 414

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which state among the following is a major contributor to India's iron ore reserves?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Karnataka is one of the largest producers of iron ore in India, contributing significantly to the country's overall production.
  • The state is rich in mineral resources, with the districts of Bellary, Chitradurga, and Tumkur being the key hubs for iron ore mining.
  • Iron ore from Karnataka is of high quality and is extensively used in steel production, both domestically and internationally.
  • Approximately one-fourth of India's total iron ore reserves are located in Karnataka, making it a leading state in this sector.
  • The Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd (KIOCL), a government-owned enterprise, is one of the major organizations involved in iron ore mining in Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Maharashtra:
  • Maharashtra is not a major contributor to India’s iron ore reserves.
  • It is more known for its reserves of manganese, coal, and bauxite.
  • The Vidarbha region of Maharashtra is rich in coal and manganese deposits, making it a significant contributor to these resources.
  • Andhra Pradesh:
  • Andhra Pradesh has some deposits of iron ore but does not rank among the top iron ore-producing states in India.
  • The state is better known for its reserves of limestone, bauxite, and barites.
  • It is also a significant producer of mica and has abundant reserves of quartz and silica.
  • Tamil Nadu:
  • Tamil Nadu has limited reserves of iron ore compared to Karnataka, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh.
  • The state is better known for its deposits of lignite and magnesite.
  • It is also a leading producer of garnet and other industrial minerals.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 415

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of these is an odd one out?

  1. AOption (a)

    ATP

  2. BOption (b)

    Glucose

  3. COption (c)

    DNA

  4. DOption (d)

    NADH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

DNA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is DNA.

Key Points

  • DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the odd one out as it is a molecule that carries genetic information, unlike the other options which are involved in energy metabolism.
  • DNA is a nucleic acid, made up of nucleotide monomers, and its primary role is to store and transfer genetic information in living organisms.
  • It is not directly involved in cellular energy transfer or metabolism, which is the primary function of ATP, NADH, and Glucose.
  • The structure of DNA consists of a double helix made of two strands held together by complementary base pairing (adenine-thymine and cytosine-guanine).
  • DNA is crucial for processes like replication, transcription, and translation, which are central to heredity and protein synthesis.

Additional Information

  • ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate):
  • ATP is often called the "energy currency" of the cell as it provides energy for various cellular processes.
  • It is composed of adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups. The energy is released during the hydrolysis of its terminal phosphate bond.
  • ATP is synthesized in the mitochondria during cellular respiration and in chloroplasts during photosynthesis.
  • It is critical for muscle contraction, active transport, and biochemical reactions.
  • Glucose:
  • Glucose is a simple sugar and a primary source of energy for most organisms.
  • It is a monosaccharide with the chemical formula C6H12O6.
  • Glucose undergoes metabolic processes like glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP.
  • It is obtained from dietary carbohydrates and is regulated in the body by hormones like insulin and glucagon.
  • NADH (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide - Reduced Form):
  • NADH is an electron carrier that plays a crucial role in cellular respiration and energy production.
  • It is produced during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle and donates electrons to the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
  • Through oxidative phosphorylation, NADH contributes to the generation of ATP.
  • NADH is essential for maintaining redox balance in the cell and for metabolic pathways.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 416

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Through which Constitutional Amendment was Article 21A introduced, mandating free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for children between 6 and 14 years of age?

  1. AOption (a)

    42nd Amendment Act

  2. BOption (b)

    86th Amendment Act

  3. COption (c)

    93rd Amendment Act

  4. DOption (d)

    44th Amendment Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

86th Amendment Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act.

Key Points

  • The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A into the Indian Constitution, making education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
  • This amendment also brought changes to Article 45, which now directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for children below six years of age.
  • Additionally, it added Clause (k) to Article 51A, which made it a Fundamental Duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
  • The 86th Amendment Act paved the way for the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, commonly known as the RTE Act, which operationalized Article 21A.
  • This historic amendment was a milestone in India's efforts to achieve universal primary education and combat illiteracy among children.

Additional Information

  • 42nd Amendment Act:
  • Enacted in 1976, it is also known as the "Mini-Constitution" of India due to the extensive changes it brought to the Constitution.
  • It made India a "socialist", "secular", and "integrity" State by amending the Preamble.
  • Transferred subjects like Education, Forests, and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds from the State List to the Concurrent List.
  • Strengthened the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) and inserted provisions like Article 48A (environment protection) and Article 43A (worker participation in industries).
  • 93rd Amendment Act:
  • Enacted in 2005, it inserted Clause (5) to Article 15, enabling the State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
  • This amendment allowed for the reservation of seats in educational institutions, including private unaided institutions, except for minority institutions under Article 30(1).
  • It laid the foundation for the implementation of the 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in central educational institutions.
  • 44th Amendment Act:
  • Enacted in 1978, it reversed some provisions of the controversial 42nd Amendment Act.
  • It restored the right to property as a legal right under Article 300A, removing it from the list of Fundamental Rights.
  • It ensured that Articles 20 and 21, dealing with protection in respect of conviction for offenses and the right to life and personal liberty, could not be suspended even during an emergency.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 417

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What happens when an ideal fluid flows through a narrowing horizontal pipe?

  1. AOption (a)

    Speed decreases, Pressure increases

  2. BOption (b)

    Speed increases, Pressure decreases

  3. COption (c)

    Both Speed and Pressure increases

  4. DOption (d)

    Both speed and pressure decreases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Speed increases, Pressure decreases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Speed increases, Pressure decreases.

Key Points

  • An ideal fluid is incompressible and non-viscous, which means it flows without resistance or energy loss.
  • According to the principle of conservation of mass (continuity equation), when the cross-sectional area of a pipe decreases, the velocity of the fluid increases to maintain a constant flow rate.
  • The Bernoulli's principle states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure or potential energy.
  • In a narrowing horizontal pipe, the fluid's velocity increases due to the reduced area, while the pressure decreases to conserve energy as per Bernoulli's equation.
  • This phenomenon is commonly observed in fluid dynamics and is crucial in understanding the behavior of fluids in various systems, such as pipelines, nozzles, and aerodynamic designs.

Additional Information

  • Bernoulli's Principle
  • Bernoulli's principle is a fundamental concept in fluid dynamics.
  • It states that in a streamline flow, the sum of the pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy per unit volume remains constant.
  • This principle is widely applied in various fields, including aerodynamics, hydrodynamics, and engineering systems.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 418

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the National Single Window System (NSWS) portal launched by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    To streamline pension disbursal mechanisms for unorganized workers

  2. BOption (b)

    To facilitate industrial clearances and approvals through a single digital platform

  3. COption (c)

    To monitor school enrollments across states using Aadhaar linkage

  4. DOption (d)

    To centralize water quality testing across urban and rural regions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To facilitate industrial clearances and approvals through a single digital platform

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To facilitate industrial clearances and approvals through a single digital platform.

Key Points

  • The National Single Window System (NSWS) is a digital platform aimed at simplifying and expediting the process of obtaining regulatory approvals and clearances for businesses in India.
  • It provides a single-window clearance mechanism for investors and businesses, enabling seamless interaction with various government departments.
  • NSWS integrates over 32 central departments and 15 state governments to provide a unified platform for industrial approvals, avoiding duplication and reducing paperwork.
  • The platform is designed to boost the ease of doing business in India by making the approval process more efficient, transparent, and faster.
  • Launched in September 2021 by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, the system is a key initiative under the 'Make in India' and 'Digital India' campaigns.

Additional Information

  • Schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana (PM-SYM), which ensures old-age protection for unorganized workers.
  • PM-SYM is implemented through the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and provides a minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3,000 after the age of 60.
  • Educational enrollment and Aadhaar linkage fall under programs like the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan or initiatives led by the Ministry of Education.
  • The NSWS focuses exclusively on industrial clearances and does not handle educational or Aadhaar-related tasks.
  • Water quality testing and monitoring are undertaken by initiatives like the Jal Jeevan Mission, which ensures safe drinking water supply to rural households.
  • The Ministry of Jal Shakti oversees such programs, which are distinct from the objectives of the NSWS.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 419

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the statements about Tippani :

  1. Originated among Saurashtra women tamping lime floors with wooden rods.
  2. Male drummers provide dhol-nagara accompaniment.

Which is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 & 2 correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 & 2 correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Tippani folk dance originated among Saurashtra women who tamped lime floors using wooden rods.
  • It is a traditional dance that reflects the laborious work of women who took part in construction-related activities.
  • Male drummers provide accompaniment using traditional instruments such as dhol and nagara, adding rhythm and vibrancy to the dance.
  • Tippani symbolizes teamwork and coordination while celebrating the essence of folk culture.
  • The dance is popular in Gujarat, especially in the Saurashtra region, and is performed during festivals and special occasions.

Additional Information

  • Key Folk Dances of Saurashtra:
  • Maniaro Raas: An all-male martial dance, especially by the Maher community, featuring swords and shields (or sticks) to symbolize bravery and victory, performed with strong beats and traditional songs.
  • Gof-Gunthan: A unique Garba style from Saurashtra, popular with Koli and Kanbi communities, performed during Navratri with intricate patterns.
  • Garba & Dandiya Raas: While widespread in Gujarat, these iconic circular dances, with their colorful costumes and energetic steps, are integral to Saurashtra's festive culture, especially during Navratri.
  • Padhar Dance: A lively dance by the Padhar community from the Nal Sarovar area, known for its graceful, wave-like movements mimicking water.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 17 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 420

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:

Assertion (A): Human Development Index (HDI) in India improved significantly post-2010.

Reason (R): The methodology was revised globally to include inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (HDI).

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2: Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • The Human Development Index (HDI) in India has shown significant improvement post-2010 due to progress in areas such as health, education, and income.
  • Globally, the HDI methodology was revised in 2010 to include the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI), which accounts for inequality in each dimension of HDI.
  • However, India’s improvement in HDI post-2010 is primarily attributed to socio-economic growth and policy interventions rather than just the inclusion of IHDI.
  • The IHDI adjustment reflects the actual level of human development after accounting for inequality, but it is not the sole reason for India's HDI improvement.
  • Thus, while both the assertion and reason are true, the reason does not directly explain the assertion.

Additional Information

  • Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI):
  • The IHDI was introduced in 2010 to address the limitations of the HDI by considering inequality in each dimension.
  • It provides a more accurate representation of human development by accounting for disparities in health, education, and income.
  • If inequality is high, the IHDI value will be much lower than the HDI value.
  • India’s Socio-Economic Policies:
  • Post-2010, India implemented various schemes focusing on education (e.g., Right to Education Act), healthcare (e.g., Ayushman Bharat), and income generation (e.g., MNREGA).
  • These policies collectively contributed to the improvement in India’s HDI.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.