General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Spiti River.

Key Points

• The Pin River is recognized as the most significant right-bank tributary of the Spiti River, located within the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh.
• It originates from the base of the Pin-Parvati Pass, which acts as a high-altitude trekking corridor connecting the Parvati Valley in Kullu to the Spiti Valley.
• The river flows through the Pin Valley National Park, a high-altitude cold desert ecosystem famous for the conservation of the Snow Leopard and the Siberian Ibex.
• The confluence of the Pin River and the Spiti River occurs near Dankar (specifically near the Dhankar Monastery), where it adds substantial discharge to the main Spiti channel.

 Additional Information

• Spiti River:
• It is a major mountain torrent that originates from the Kunzum Range of the Himalayas.
• The river system ultimately merges with the Sutlej River at Khab in the Kinnaur district.
• Chandra and Bhaga Rivers:
• The Chandra River originates near the Bara-lacha la pass, while the Bhaga River flows from the opposite side of the same pass.
• These two rivers meet at Tandi in Lahaul to form the Chenab River, which is a principal tributary of the Indus.
• Tsarab River:
• It is a key tributary of the Zanskar River, primarily flowing through the Zanskar region of Ladakh.
• It contributes to the Indus River basin and is known for its rugged, high-altitude path.

The correct answer is 15% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly.

Key Points

• Article 164(1A) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
• This specific provision was inserted into the Constitution through the 91^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 to prevent the formation of jumbo cabinets and to reduce the financial burden on the state exchequer.
• The article also provides a mandatory minimum limit, specifying that the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not be less than twelve.
• The primary objective of this percentage cap is to ensure administrative efficiency and political stability by discouraging the practice of offering ministerial berths solely to appease various political factions or defectors.

 Additional Information

• 91^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003:
• This amendment also introduced a similar ceiling for the Union Council of Ministers under Article 75(1A), limiting their number to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
• It strengthened the Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule) by removing the provision that protected a split of one-third of the members of a political party.
• Article 164 Overview:
• Article 164(1): States that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164(2): Mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.

The correct answer is Pakhawaj.

Key Points

• The Pakhawaj is a traditional barrel-shaped, two-headed percussion instrument that serves as the primary accompaniment for the Dhrupad genre of Hindustani classical music.
• Musicologists and historians widely regard the Pakhawaj as the direct ancestor of the Tabla due to structural similarities in the drum heads, specifically the application of the syahi (black permanent paste) used to modulate pitch and resonance.
• According to popular musical lore, the Tabla was created in the 13^th century by the Sufi musician and poet Amir Khusrau, who reportedly divided a Pakhawaj into two separate pieces to produce a more versatile and portable sound.
• While the Pakhawaj is played with the full open palm and fingers, the Tabla evolved to accommodate more intricate finger-tapping techniques, though the right drum (Dayan) of the Tabla remains almost identical to the right head of the Pakhawaj.

 Additional Information

• Dhol
• It is a large double-sided barrel drum used primarily in regional folk music across North India and Pakistan, most notably in Bhangra performances.
• Unlike classical drums, it is played using wooden sticks (the dagga and tilli) and lacks the specialized syahi coating required for melodic precision.
• Thavil
• A high-pitched, barrel-shaped percussion instrument from South India, traditionally used in Carnatic music and temple festivals.
• It is typically paired with the Nadaswaram and is played with a stick on one side and fingers protected by plaster caps on the other.
• Kanjira
• The Kanjira is a frame drum from the tambourine family, used as a secondary percussion instrument in South Indian classical concerts.
• Its frame is traditionally made from jackfruit wood, and the drumhead was historically made from monitor lizard skin, giving it a unique, high-pitched snapping sound.

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• In October 2025, Brazil formally signed the Multilateral Convention (MLI) to implement measures related to the Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) project, specifically targeting the Subject to Tax Rule (STTR) and Pillar Two components.
• The BEPS initiative, led by the OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework, aims to prevent multinational enterprises from exploiting gaps and mismatches in tax rules to avoid paying tax in jurisdictions where economic activities are performed.
• By signing the convention, Brazil has committed to aligning its domestic tax legislation with international standards, facilitating its ongoing process for OECD accession.
• The Multilateral Instrument (MLI) allows countries to modify their existing bilateral tax treaties simultaneously to include anti-abuse provisions without the need for lengthy individual renegotiations.
• This move represents a significant shift for Brazil, which historically maintained a unique transfer pricing system, but has now transitioned toward the OECD Transfer Pricing Guidelines to promote tax transparency and certainty.

 Additional Information

• BEPS 2.0 Framework:
• Pillar One: Focuses on the reallocation of taxing rights over the largest and most profitable multinational enterprises to the jurisdictions where consumers are located.
• Pillar Two: Establishes a Global Minimum Tax rate of 15% to ensure that large corporations pay a fair share of tax regardless of where they operate.
• Subject to Tax Rule (STTR): A treaty-based rule that allows developing countries to "tax back" certain intra-group payments where these are subject to low nominal tax rates in the recipient country.
• OECD Role:
• The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development serves as a global forum for developing international standards on taxation, environment, and governance.
• The Inclusive Framework on BEPS currently brings together over 140 jurisdictions to collaborate on the implementation of the BEPS package.

The correct answer is IT and Services.

Key Points

• The Economic Reforms of 1991 in India, characterized by Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG), created a conducive environment for the Information Technology (IT) and Services sectors to flourish.
• India became a global hub for outsourcing because of its ability to provide high-quality technical services at a fraction of the cost compared to developed nations, leveraging its vast pool of English-speaking and skilled professionals.
• Major Multinational Corporations (MNCs) set up their Global Delivery Centres in India, leading to the rapid growth of companies like TCS, Infosys, and Wipro.
• Technological advancements in telecommunications and the internet bridged the geographical gap, allowing the tertiary sector to contribute nearly 55 percent to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) post-globalisation.

 Additional Information

• IT-Enabled Services (ITeS):
• This includes Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) and Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO), providing 24/7 customer support, payroll management, and data analytics to global clients.
• Cities such as Bengaluru (the Silicon Valley of India), Hyderabad, and Gurugram became epicenters for this growth.
• Impact on Other Sectors:
• Handicrafts: Conversely, this sector faced a decline as global competition introduced cheap, mass-produced machine goods, making it difficult for traditional artisans to compete.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): The services sector consistently receives the highest share of FDI inflows in India, emphasizing its importance in the globalized economy.

The correct answer is Rajmahal Hills.

Key Points

• The Malda Gap, frequently referred to as the Garo-Rajmahal Gap, is a major geological depression that separates the main Indian Peninsular Plateau from its northeastern extension, the Meghalaya Plateau.
• This gap originated during the Tertiary period due to down-faulting of the crust, creating a tectonic rift that was subsequently filled with alluvial sediments carried by the Ganga and Brahmaputra river systems.
• The Rajmahal Hills, situated primarily in Jharkhand, represent the northeastern edge of the Chota Nagpur Plateau and serve as the physical western boundary of the Malda Gap.
• While the gap itself facilitates the merging of the Ganga Plains and the Brahmaputra Plains, the Rajmahal Hills act as the topographical feature that demarcates the transition from the stable peninsular block to the sedimentary depression. Hence, Rajmahal Hills is the correct feature.

 Additional Information

• Meghalaya Plateau:
• It consists of the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills and is geologically part of the Deccan Plateau.
• It serves as the eastern boundary of the Malda Gap, rather than the feature separating the gap from the plains.
• Aravalli Range:
• Stretching from Gujarat to Delhi, these are among the oldest fold mountains in the world.
• They are located in the western part of India and act as a divide between the Thar Desert and the Ganga Basin.
• Bundelkhand Plateau:
• Located in central India across Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, it is characterized by Archaean gneiss and granite rocks.
• It lies to the south of the Yamuna River and is far removed from the Malda Gap region.

The correct answer is It is a collection of hymns composed by various sages over generations.

Key Points

• The Rigveda is the oldest of the four Vedas and represents the earliest form of Indo-Aryan civilization literature, dating back approximately between 1500 BCE and 1000 BCE.
• It is a massive collection of 1,028 hymns (known as Suktas) that are organized into 10 Mandalas (books) of varying lengths and ages.
• Authorship is attributed to numerous Rishis (seer-poets) rather than a single individual; these sages belonged to different lineages or clans who composed these verses over several centuries.
• The Family Books (Mandalas 2 through 7) form the core and oldest part of the text, with each book dedicated to hymns composed by a specific family of sages like Ghritsamada, Vishvamitra, Atri, and Vashistha.
• The transmission of the Rigveda was strictly oral for many centuries, categorized as Shruti (that which is heard), ensuring the preservation of precise phonetics and accents across generations before it was ever committed to writing.

 Additional Information

• Structure and Composition:
• The Purusha Sukta, found in the 10^th Mandala, is a famous hymn that describes the spiritual unity of the universe and the origin of the Varna system.
• The Gayatri Mantra, one of the most sacred verses in Hinduism, is located in the 3^rd Mandala and is attributed to Sage Vishvamitra.
• While predominantly male, the text includes hymns composed by nearly 27 female sages (Rishikas) such as Lopamudra, Ghosha, and Apala, highlighting the inclusive nature of early Vedic spiritual discourse.
• Context of Other Options:
• Valmiki is traditionally honored as the Adi Kavi and the author of the epic Ramayana, which belongs to the Itihasa category of literature.
• Sage Vyasa, or Veda Vyasa, is historically credited with the compilation and classification of the Vedas into four distinct collections (Rig, Sama, Yajur, and Atharva) rather than being the sole author of the content.
• The Mahabharata era is associated with the Later Vedic Period or the transition to the Epic Period, whereas the Rigveda was largely finalized during the Early Vedic Period.

The correct answer is 1.42degreeC.

Key Points

• The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) analysis of global temperature data for the period of January to August 2025 revealed that the global average temperature was approximately 1.42degreeC above the 1850−1900 pre-industrial baseline.
• This measurement is derived from a synthesis of six major international datasets, including NASA GISS, NOAA NCEI, and the Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S), which utilize millions of observations from ships, buoys, and land-based weather stations.
• The figure of 1.42degreeC highlights a continuing trend where global temperatures are dangerously close to the 1.5degreeC threshold defined by the Paris Agreement as a critical limit for avoiding the most severe impacts of climate change.
• The warming observed during the first eight months of 2025 was driven by the unprecedented accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, alongside the transition from a strong El Niño event to neutral or La Niña conditions.

 Additional Information

• World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations established in 1950 to coordinate international atmospheric science and meteorology.
• Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, it issues the annual State of the Global Climate report, which serves as a benchmark for international climate policy.
• Pre-industrial Baseline:
• The period 1850−1900 is used as a reference because it is the earliest period for which high-quality, global-scale instrumental temperature records are available.
• Warming relative to this period is the primary metric used by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) to assess progress toward global climate goals.
• Atmospheric Drivers:
• The concentration of Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) reached record levels in 2025, continuing to trap heat and increase the thermal energy of the oceans.
• Other key gases like Methane (CH₄) and Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) also contribute significantly to the total warming anomaly.
• Global Implications:
• A warming level of 1.42degreeC is associated with increased frequency of extreme weather events, including marine heatwaves, intense tropical cyclones, and prolonged droughts.

The correct answer is Dr. Anil Nayak.

Key Points

• Dr. Anil Nayak (officially Dr. Anilkumar J. Nayak) officially assumed charge as the National President of the Indian Medical Association (IMA) for the 2025-2026 term in December 2025.
• The installation took place during NATCON 2025, the 100^th national conference of the IMA, held in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, where the swearing-in ceremony was graced by Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah and Gujarat CM Shri Bhupendra Patel.
• A distinguished Orthopedic Surgeon from Mehsana, Gujarat, Dr. Nayak has an extensive leadership record, having previously served as the National Honorary Secretary General of the IMA and President of the IMA Gujarat State Branch.
• He succeeded Dr. Dilip Bhanushali, who concluded his term as the National President for the 2024-2025 period.

 Additional Information

• Indian Medical Association (IMA):
• Established in 1928 and headquartered in New Delhi, it is the largest voluntary organization of Allopathic doctors in India.
• It plays a critical role in healthcare policy, medical ethics, and safeguarding the interests of over 3.5 lakh doctor members.
• Dr. Dilip Bhanushali:
• Held the office of IMA National President for the year 2024-2025.
• He is a noted physician from Telangana who represented India at several global medical summits during his tenure.
• Dr. Ketan Desai:
• A former National President of the IMA and former President of the Medical Council of India (MCI) and the World Medical Association (WMA).
• Currently acts as the Chief Patron of the association.
• Dr. Amit Chakrabarty:
• A prominent urologist and former President of the Association of American Physicians of Indian Origin (AAPI), though not the IMA National President for 2025.

The correct answer is Promoting monotheistic worship and rejecting ritual sacrifices entirely..

Key Points

• The Brahmo Samaj, established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828, was founded on the principle of Monotheism, which emphasized the worship of one single, formless God (the Brahman). This was a direct challenge to the prevalent polytheistic practices and deity worship in 19^th-century India.
• The movement sought to reform Hinduism by returning to the original philosophical roots found in the Upanishads and Vedanta, arguing that these ancient texts supported a rational, ethical, and monotheistic framework rather than the complex ritualism that had developed over centuries.
• A central tenet of the Samaj was the total rejection of idol worship and ritual sacrifices. The members believed that God should be reached through meditation, prayer, and the reading of scriptures, rather than through external physical offerings or the mediation of a priestly class.
• By advocating for the removal of meaningless ceremonies, the Brahmo Samaj aimed to create a simplified and purified form of religion that was accessible to all, regardless of caste or social status, thereby promoting social equality and humanism.

 Additional Information

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• Known as the Father of Indian Renaissance, he founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815 before establishing the Brahmo Samaj.
• He played a pivotal role in the abolition of Sati in 1829 through the efforts of Lord William Bentinck.
• Evolution of the Samaj:
• After Roy, the leadership passed to Debendranath Tagore, who introduced the Brahmo Covenant.
• In 1866, the movement split into the Brahmo Samaj of India led by Keshab Chandra Sen and the Adi Brahmo Samaj led by Tagore.
• Vedic Polytheism vs. Reformism:
• While some later movements like the Arya Samaj emphasized Back to the Vedas, the Brahmo Samaj was distinct in its heavy reliance on the rationalist and universalist interpretation of the Upanishads.

The correct answer is 44^th Amendment.

Key Points

• The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1978 by the Janata Party government primarily to undo several changes made by the 42^nd Amendment and to provide safeguards against future misuse of emergency provisions.
• Before this amendment, the President could declare a National Emergency on the oral advice of the Prime Minister, as witnessed during the 1975 Emergency when Indira Gandhi advised the President without consulting her Cabinet.
• The act amended Article 352 to stipulate that the President can only issue a Proclamation of Emergency after receiving a written recommendation from the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and other ministers of Cabinet rank).
• It replaced the vague term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' as a ground for declaring an emergency, ensuring it cannot be invoked for simple political unrest or protests.
• The amendment also mandated that the proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month (reduced from two months) by a special majority.
• Therefore, the 44^th Amendment is the legislation that made written Cabinet advice mandatory for imposing an emergency in India.

 Additional Information

• 42^nd Amendment Act (1976):
• Known as the Mini-Constitution, it was passed during the Emergency to centralize power.
• It added Fundamental Duties via Article 51A and inserted Socialist, Secular, and Integrity into the Preamble.
• 24^th Amendment Act (1971):
• Enacted to counter the Golaknath case judgment, it affirmed Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
• It made it mandatory for the President to give assent to Constitution Amendment Bills.
• 26^th Amendment Act (1971):
• This act formally abolished the Privy Purses and privileges of the former rulers of Princely States in India.
• It omitted Articles 291 and 362 to ensure equality of status among all citizens.

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

• The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is recognized as one of the largest and tallest masonry dams in the world, serving as a pivotal multipurpose river valley project in India.
• It is constructed across the Krishna River, which is the fourth-largest river in India in terms of water inflow and basin area.
• The dam is geographically located on the border between Nalgonda district in Telangana and Palnadu district (formerly part of Guntur) in Andhra Pradesh.
• The foundation stone for this massive project was laid by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, on December 10, 1955, and the dam was completed in 1967.
• The project is named after Acharya Nagarjuna, a renowned Buddhist philosopher and scholar of the 2^nd century AD, who established a center of learning at the site now submerged under the reservoir, known as Nagarjunakonda.
• The structure stands approximately 124 meters high and features 26 radial floodgates, facilitating irrigation for over 10 lakh acres of agricultural land.

 Additional Information

• Godavari River:
• Originates at Trimbakeshwar in Nashik, Maharashtra, and is the longest river in Peninsular India.
• It is often called the Dakshin Ganga and hosts major dams like the Jayakwadi and Sriram Sagar.
• Tungabhadra River:
• A major right-bank tributary of the Krishna River, formed by the confluence of the Tunga and Bhadra rivers at Koodli in Karnataka.
• The Tungabhadra Dam near Hospet is a significant multipurpose project on this river.
• Bhima River:
• Originates from the Bhimashankar hills in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
• It is the most important left-bank tributary of the Krishna River, flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.

Concept:

Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms are regulatory standards designed to reduce the carbon footprint of the automotive industry. These norms aim to lower the average fuel consumption (and thus CO₂ emissions) of a vehicle manufacturer's entire fleet. In India, these standards are notified by the Ministry of Power through the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

The implementation of CAFE norms in India is divided into specific phases, each with progressively stricter targets for fuel efficiency and emission levels.

Given

Target Phase: CAFE-3 (Phase 3)

Calculation

To determine the implementation date for CAFE-3, we look at the timeline established for CAFE norms in India:

• Phase 1 (CAFE-1): This phase was implemented from April 2017 to March 2022.
• Phase 2 (CAFE-2): This phase is currently in effect, having started in April 2022, and is scheduled to conclude in March 2027.
• Phase 3 (CAFE-3): Following the completion of Phase 2, the third phase of these efficiency norms is scheduled to begin on April 1, 2027.
• Phase 4 (CAFE-4): This subsequent phase is proposed to start after five years of Phase 3, beginning in April 2032.

The transition to CAFE-3 in April 2027 will require automobile manufacturers to further enhance engine technology, promote hybrid vehicles, and increase the share of Electric Vehicles (EVs) in their total sales to meet the stricter CO₂ emission targets.

Final Answer: April 2027

The correct answer is Article 72.

Key Points

• Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense.
• This power extends to all cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial, cases involving an offense against a Union Law, and all cases where the sentence is a death sentence.
• A Pardon completely absolves the offender from all sentences, punishments, and disqualifications, effectively placing them in the same position as if they had never committed the crime.
• Commutation denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form; for instance, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment.
• Remission implies reducing the duration of the sentence without changing its nature, such as reducing a sentence of two years of rigorous imprisonment to one year.
• Respite involves awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally imposed due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
• Reprieve signifies a temporary stay of the execution of a sentence, especially a death sentence, to allow the convict time to seek a pardon or commutation from the President.

 Additional Information

• Article 53:
• Declares that the executive power of the Union is vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.
• It also establishes the President as the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of the Union.
• Article 74:
• Provides for a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
• Article 75:
• Deals with other provisions as to Ministers, including their appointment by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and their collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha.
• Article 161:
• While the President acts under Article 72, the Governor of a State possesses similar powers under Article 161 for offenses against State Laws, though the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence or a Court Martial sentence.

The correct answer is Rana Sanga.

Key Points

• The Battle of Khanwa was a landmark military engagement fought on March 16, 1527, at Khanwa, located near Bharatpur in Rajasthan.
• The battle took place between the forces of the first Mughal Emperor Babur and a powerful Rajput confederacy led by Rana Sanga (Maharana Sangram Singh) of Mewar.
• Rana Sanga aimed to expel Babur from India and had gathered support from various Rajput chiefs and Afghan nobles, including Mahmud Lodi.
• Babur employed superior military technology, specifically artillery (cannons) and gunpowder, alongside the Tulughma tactical formation, which neutralized the numerical advantage of the Rajput cavalry.
• The Mughal victory at Khanwa was more decisive than the First Battle of Panipat, as it crushed the most potent internal threat to Babur and firmly established the Mughal Dynasty in Northern India.
• After the victory, Babur adopted the title of Ghazi to celebrate his triumph over the confederated forces.

 Additional Information

• Ibrahim Lodi:
• He was the last Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate belonging to the Lodi Dynasty.
• He was defeated and slain by Babur in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
• Sher Shah Suri:
• The founder of the Suri Empire in North India, he was a brilliant administrator and general.
• He famously defeated Babur's son, Humayun, in the Battle of Chausa (1539) and the Battle of Kannauj (1540).
• Bairam Khan:
• He was a prominent military commander and the regent for the third Mughal Emperor, Akbar, during his minority.
• He led the Mughal army to victory against Hemu in the Second Battle of Panipat in 1556.

The correct answer is Chlorophyll.

Key Points

• Chlorophyll is the primary biological pigment found in nearly all photosynthetic organisms, including green plants, cyanobacteria, and algae. It is essential for the process of photosynthesis, which converts light energy into chemical energy.
• This pigment is concentrated within the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplasts, which are specialized organelles in plant cells. The presence of these organelles is the defining characteristic of the Kingdom Plantae.
• The green color of plants is a result of chlorophyll absorbing light mainly in the blue (wavelengths 430 nanometers) and red (wavelengths 660 nanometers) regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. It poorly absorbs green light, which is instead reflected or transmitted to our eyes.
• Chemically, chlorophyll features a porphyrin ring structure similar to the heme in hemoglobin, but with a Magnesium (Mg) atom at its center instead of iron. This magnesium core is critical for the excitation of electrons when struck by photons.

 Additional Information

• Anthocyanin
• These are water-soluble vacuolar pigments that may appear red, purple, or blue depending on the pH levels.
• They are responsible for the vibrant colors of flowers like hibiscus, fruits like blueberries, and the changing colors of leaves in autumn.
• Xanthophyll
• Belonging to the carotenoid group, these pigments are responsible for yellow colors in nature.
• They act as accessory pigments, helping the plant absorb light frequencies that chlorophyll cannot and protecting the plant from photo-oxidation.
• Carotene
• These are orange-colored photosynthetic pigments that lack oxygen in their molecular structure.
• The most common form is beta-carotene, which is abundant in carrots and serves as a vital precursor for the synthesis of Vitamin A (Retinol) in the human body.

The correct answer is Department of Telecommunications (DoT).

Key Points

• The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), which is part of the Ministry of Communications, officially launched the 5G Innovation Hackathon 2025.
• This initiative is a six-month long program designed to catalyze the development of 5G-powered solutions that address specific industrial and societal challenges within India.
• The primary objective of the hackathon is to bridge the gap between theoretical innovation and market-ready products, encouraging the creation of indigenous intellectual property in the telecom sector.
• It targets a diverse group of participants, including startups, MSMEs, academic researchers, and students, providing them with access to 5G testbeds and professional mentorship.
• Selected winners and participants are often granted financial rewards and opportunities for pilot projects with industry leaders, facilitating the commercialization of their 5G use cases.
• By fostering a local ecosystem for high-speed, low-latency technology, the DoT aims to strengthen India’s position in the global telecommunications landscape.
• Therefore, the correct department identified for launching this initiative is the Department of Telecommunications, which corresponds to option 4.

 Additional Information

• NITI Aayog:
• Functions as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
• Focuses on cooperative federalism and strategic initiatives like the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), which promotes a culture of entrepreneurship across various sectors.
• Department of Science and Technology (DST):
• Operates under the Ministry of Science and Technology and is responsible for formulating policies related to science and technology in the country.
• It manages large-scale research projects and National Missions, such as those related to Quantum Technologies and Climate Change research.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY):
• Responsible for the Digital India program, e-governance, and the promotion of electronics manufacturing.
• While it oversees cybersecurity and software innovation, the specific governance and innovation programs for spectrum-related technologies like 5G fall under the DoT.

The correct answer is 1956.

Key Points

• The Government of India officially constituted the first Sanskrit Commission on October 1, 1956, to evaluate the state of Sanskrit education and research in the country.
• The commission was chaired by the renowned Indian philologist and linguist Suniti Kumar Chatterji, who was then the Chairman of the West Bengal Legislative Council.
• The primary mandate of the commission was to examine the existing facilities for Sanskrit studies in universities, secondary schools, and traditional Pathashalas, and to suggest measures for their improvement and coordination.
• The commission explored the significance of Sanskrit in the context of the Official Language policy and its role in the cultural unity of India.
• After conducting extensive inquiries and visiting various educational centers, the commission submitted its final, detailed report to the Ministry of Education in 1957.

 Additional Information

• Structure and Recommendations of the 1956 Commission:
• The commission included notable members such as Dr. S.K. Belvalkar, **Dr.

V. Raghavan**, and Dr. R.N. Dandekar.

• One of its major recommendations was the establishment of a Central Sanskrit Board to advise the government on matters relating to the promotion of the language.
• It proposed the integration of Sanskrit into the Three-Language Formula and suggested the creation of Sanskrit Universities to facilitate advanced research.
• Satyavrat Shastri and the Second Commission:
• A second Sanskrit Commission was later set up by the government in 2014, headed by Professor Satyavrat Shastri.
• This commission was tasked with developing a fresh roadmap for Sanskrit education in the modern globalized context, building upon the foundations laid in 1956.
• Constitutional and Cultural Context:
• Sanskrit is recognized as one of the Classical Languages of India and is listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, now known as the Central Sanskrit University, was established following the spirit of the commission's recommendations to preserve and propagate Vedic and Sanskritic learning.

The correct answer is Tehri Dam and Hydroelectric Power Plant.

Key Points

• The Tehri Dam is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam located on the Bhagirathi River in the Tehri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand.
• The Bhagirathi River is a major Himalayan river and one of the two primary headstreams of the Ganga, originating from the Gaumukh snout of the Gangotri Glacier.
• It stands as the highest dam in India and is among the tallest in the world, with a height of 260.5 meters (855 feet) and a crest length of 575 meters.
• The project was commissioned by the Tehri Hydro Development Corporation (THDC) and currently has an installed capacity of 1000 MW in its first stage, providing electricity to states across Northern India.

 Additional Information

• Mettur Hydroelectric Power Plant:
• Located on the Kaveri River in the Salem district of Tamil Nadu.
• The Kaveri is a Peninsular river that originates in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats.
• Krishnarajasagar Hydroelectric Power Plant:
• Situated on the Kaveri River in the Mandya district of Karnataka.
• It is a vital source of irrigation and drinking water for Mysuru and Bengaluru, powered by a Peninsular river system.
• Srisailam Hydroelectric Power Plant:
• Constructed across the Krishna River, which is a major Peninsular river originating near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
• The dam is located in the Nallamala Hills and serves as one of the largest hydroelectric projects in South India.

The correct answer is Compulsory State supervision.

Key Points

• Article 243ZI was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 97^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011. This amendment added Part IXB, which specifically deals with The Co-operative Societies.
• The article mandates that the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions for the incorporation, regulation, and winding up of co-operative societies based on specific democratic principles.
• The four core principles explicitly mentioned under Article 243ZI are voluntary formation, democratic member-control, member-economic participation, and autonomous functioning.
• The inclusion of these principles in the Constitution ensures that co-operative societies function as self-governing and economically viable institutions without undue external pressure.
• Compulsory State supervision is not included in the scope of Article 243ZI because the primary goal of the 97^th Amendment was to reduce excessive government interference and promote the autonomy of these societies.

 Additional Information

• The 97^th Amendment Act, 2011 also introduced other significant changes:
• It added Article 43B to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which tasks the State with the voluntary formation and professional management of co-operative societies.
• It amended Article 19(1)(c) to include the right to form co-operative societies as a Fundamental Right.
• Voluntary formation: Ensures that individuals have the freedom to join or leave a society of their own free will.
• Democratic member control: Establishes that the board and management are accountable to the members through regular elections.
• Autonomous functioning: Protects the society from being a State-controlled entity, allowing it to manage its internal affairs independently.