General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Random Access Memory.

Key Points

• RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which serves as the primary memory or main memory of a computer system.
• It is called Random Access because any memory cell or storage location can be accessed directly by the CPU in the same amount of time, regardless of its physical position, unlike sequential access devices like magnetic tapes.
• The RAM stores the operating system, application programs, and data currently in use so that they can be quickly reached by the processor.
• It is volatile memory, meaning that all the information stored in RAM is lost as soon as the power supply is switched off or the system is rebooted.
• RAM is a Read/Write memory, which allows the computer to both read existing data and write new data into it at extremely high speeds.

 Additional Information

• Types of RAM:
• SRAM (Static Random Access Memory): It uses transistors to store data and does not need to be refreshed periodically. It is faster and more expensive than DRAM and is primarily used as Cache Memory.
• DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory): It stores data using capacitors and transistors. Since capacitors leak charge, DRAM must be refreshed thousands of times per second. It is used as the main system memory.
• SDRAM (Synchronous DRAM): This type synchronizes its speed with the system clock, allowing the CPU to process instructions more efficiently.
• Comparison with ROM:
• Unlike RAM, ROM (Read Only Memory) is non-volatile, meaning it retains its data even after power is lost. It typically contains the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) necessary for the computer to start up.
• Capacity and Speed:
• Modern RAM capacity is measured in Gigabytes (GB), and its speed is often measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Megatransfers per second (MT/s). Higher capacity and speed allow for better multitasking performance.

The correct answer is Article 133.

Key Points

• Article 133 of the Constitution of India defines the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts specifically regarding civil matters.
• According to this provision, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree, or final order in a civil proceeding of a High Court if the High Court certifies under Article 134A that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
• The High Court must also be of the opinion that the said question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court to grant the certificate.
• Prior to the 30^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1972, civil appeals were allowed if the amount or value of the subject matter of the dispute was not less than 20,000 rupees; however, this monetary requirement was abolished, and the focus shifted entirely to the substantial question of law.
• Under clause (2) of Article 133, any party appealing to the Supreme Court may also argue that a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution has been wrongly decided.

 Additional Information

• Article 131:
• Specifies the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• It empowers the court to hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States, to the exclusion of any other court.
• Article 132:
• Deals with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in certain cases involving constitutional matters.
• It applies if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law regarding the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Article 134:
• Delineates the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in criminal matters.
• It provides for an appeal if a High Court has, on appeal, reversed an order of acquittal and sentenced an accused to death, or has withdrawn a trial to itself and awarded a death sentence.

The correct answer is Palaeolithic Age and Neolithic Age.

Key Points

• The Mesolithic Age, often referred to as the Middle Stone Age, represents a crucial cultural and technological bridge between the Palaeolithic Age (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic Age (New Stone Age).
• This period is termed transitional because it reflects the shift from the hunter-gatherer lifestyle of the Pleistocene epoch to the food-producing, sedentary societies of the Holocene epoch.
• Geographically and climatically, it coincided with the end of the last Ice Age around 10,000 BCE, leading to warmer climates, increased rainfall, and the expansion of forests and grasslands.
• Technologically, it is defined by the production of microliths, which are very small, geometric stone tools made of chert, chalcedony, or agate, typically measuring 1 to 5 cm in length.
• The economy of the Mesolithic people remained based on hunting, fishing, and gathering, but it also saw the earliest evidence of animal domestication, particularly the dog, which paved the way for the agricultural revolution.
• Prominent Mesolithic sites in India include Bagor in Rajasthan, Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh, and Langhnaj in Gujarat, providing evidence of both microlithic industries and early burials.

 Additional Information

• Palaeolithic Age:
• The earliest period of human history, characterized by the use of crude, unpolished stone tools like hand-axes and cleavers.
• Humans were entirely nomadic and relied on hunting large animals and gathering wild plants during the Ice Age.
• Neolithic Age:
• Marked by the Neolithic Revolution, where humans began settled agriculture and pottery making.
• Tools became polished and grounded for higher efficiency in farming and construction.
• Chalcolithic Age:
• Known as the Copper-Stone Age, it marked the first use of metals alongside stone tools.
• It serves as the transition between the Neolithic and the Bronze Age.
• Iron Age:
• Characterized by the widespread smelting of iron ore, leading to the creation of stronger tools and weapons.
• In the Indian context, it is often associated with the Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture and the Vedic period.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• Mumbai is home to the world's second-largest collection of Art Deco buildings, a title it holds globally after Miami, USA. This architectural movement flourished in the city between the 1930s and 1950s, symbolizing the city's transition toward modernity.
• In 2018, the Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai were collectively inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. This recognition covers a total of 94 structures, primarily concentrated in the Oval Maidan and Marine Drive precincts.
• The Oval Maidan serves as a unique architectural boundary; its western side is flanked by a seamless row of Art Deco apartment blocks, while the eastern side features 19^th-century Victorian Gothic public buildings, creating a grand urban ensemble.
• The style in Mumbai is often referred to as Indo-Deco, as it blended the sleek, streamlined aesthetic of international Art Deco with Indian motifs and imagery, such as tropical flora and mythological figures.
• As of October 2025, these heritage structures continue to define the city's skyline, with iconic landmarks like Eros Cinema and Regal Cinema serving as prime examples of the movement's cinematic and maritime influences. Therefore, the correct option is (4).

 Additional Information

• Distinct Features of Mumbai Art Deco:
• Nautical Themes: Influenced by Mumbai's status as a port city, many buildings feature porthole windows, curved balconies, and railing designs that mimic ocean liners.
• Tropical Motifs: Buildings often incorporate bas-reliefs depicting palm trees, sunbursts, and local agricultural scenes, grounding the global style in the Indian context.
• UNESCO Significance:
• The ensemble represents the modernization of Mumbai through two distinct phases of urban planning: the Victorian era for public administration and the Art Deco era for residential and commercial expansion.
• The Backbay Reclamation project provided the necessary land for this 20^th-century architectural explosion, turning the waterfront into a modernist corridor.

The correct answer is January 12^th.

Key Points

• National Youth Day, also known as Rashtriya Yuva Diwas, is observed every year on January 12 to celebrate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, one of India's most influential spiritual leaders.
• The Government of India officially declared this day in 1984, and the first nationwide celebration took place on January 12, 1985, to inspire the youth of the country.
• The primary objective of the day is to propagate the philosophy and ideals of Swami Vivekananda among the Indian youth, encouraging them to contribute to the nation's progress with energy and character.
• Swami Vivekananda was born on January 12, 1863, in Kolkata; his teachings focus on self-reliance, spirituality, and the potential of the youth to transform society.

 Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda and his Legacy:
• He was the chief disciple of the mystic Ramakrishna Paramahansa and established the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to provide social service and spiritual education.
• He gained global recognition after his historic speech at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he introduced Vedanta and Yoga to the West.
• His works and speeches, such as 'Karma Yoga' and 'Raja Yoga', remain fundamental texts for modern spiritual and philosophical study.
• Other Notable Observances:
• March 20^th: This day is celebrated globally as World Sparrow Day to raise awareness about the conservation of sparrows and as the International Day of Happiness.
• April 30^th: Observed as Ayushman Bharat Diwas in India, highlighting the goals of the Ayushman Bharat scheme to provide health insurance to the underprivileged.

The correct answer is It is an equatorial low-pressure belt where trade winds meet..

Key Points

• The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a permanent low-pressure belt encircling the Earth near the Equator, where the solar insolation is maximum throughout the year.
• It is the region where the Northeast trade winds from the Northern Hemisphere and the Southeast trade winds from the Southern Hemisphere converge, forcing the air to rise into the atmosphere.
• As the converged air mass rises due to convection, it cools adiabatically, leading to the formation of towering cumulonimbus clouds and frequent, intense thunderstorms.
• The ITCZ is not stationary; it migrates North or South depending on the apparent movement of the Sun. For instance, during the Northern summer, it moves over the Indian subcontinent, establishing the Monsoon Trough.
• Due to the vertical movement of air rather than horizontal flow, this zone is often characterized by very light or calm winds, traditionally known to sailors as the Doldrums.

 Additional Information

• Climatic Significance
• Hadley Cell: The ITCZ represents the ascending branch of the Hadley Cell, a major component of the Earth’s atmospheric circulation system.
• Monsoon Connection: The shift of the ITCZ to about 20°N−25°N latitude over India in July is a primary driver for the Southwest Monsoon.
• Precipitation: This belt is responsible for the high annual rainfall found in tropical rainforest regions like the Amazon Basin and the Congo Basin.
• Distinction from other zones
• High-Pressure Belts: Unlike the ITCZ, the Subtropical Highs (Horse Latitudes) and Polar Highs are regions of descending air and high atmospheric pressure.
• Westerlies: These are prevailing winds in the mid-latitudes (between 30° and 60°), which flow towards the poles, unlike the trade winds that converge at the ITCZ.
• Frontal Systems: Cold fronts and warm fronts are features of the Extra-tropical Cyclones in temperate regions, whereas the ITCZ is a thermal, tropical phenomenon.

The correct answer is Joule.

Key Points

• Heat generated in an electrical resistor is a form of thermal energy produced by the collision of electrons with the atoms of the resistive material.
• The International System of Units (SI) identifies the Joule (J) as the standard unit for all forms of energy, work, and heat.
• The relationship between electricity and heat is defined by Joule's Law of Heating, which states that the heat produced (H) in a conductor is equal to the product of the square of the current (I), the resistance (R), and the time (t) for which the current flows.
• The mathematical expression for this law is H = I²Rt, where the resulting energy is measured in Joules.
• One Joule is defined as the work done or energy transferred when a force of one Newton moves an object through a distance of one meter in the direction of the force.

 Additional Information

• Coulomb:
• It is the SI unit of electric charge.
• One Coulomb represents the amount of charge transported by a constant current of one Ampere in one second.
• Watt:
• It is the SI unit of power, which defines the rate at which energy is consumed or converted.
• One Watt is equivalent to one Joule per second (1 W = 1 J/s). While heat is energy (Joules), the rate at which a resistor generates heat is measured in Watts.
• Volt:
• It is the SI unit of electric potential, potential difference, and electromotive force (EMF).
• One Volt is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one Ampere dissipates one Watt of power.

The correct answer is 1956.

Key Points

• The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 was adopted by the Indian Parliament in April 1956, replacing the previous 1948 resolution to align with the goal of a socialist pattern of society.
• This resolution is famously regarded as the Economic Constitution of India because it provided the basic framework for the country's industrial strategy for several decades.
• The policy categorized industries into three distinct schedules: Schedule A (17 industries under exclusive state responsibility), Schedule B (12 industries progressively state-owned but supplemented by the private sector), and Schedule C (remaining industries left to the private sector).
• It aimed to accelerate the rate of economic growth and speed up industrialization, specifically focusing on the development of heavy industries and machine-making sectors.
• The IPR 1956 emphasized the Public Sector taking the lead role, ensuring that the government controlled the commanding heights of the economy to prevent the concentration of wealth.
• It provided the theoretical and legal basis for the Second Five-Year Plan, which was built upon the Mahalanobis Model of development.

 Additional Information

• Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961):
• Formulated by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, it prioritized heavy industrialization over agriculture.
• Focus was placed on iron and steel plants, chemical industries, and mining to build a self-reliant economy.
• Regional Balanced Development:
• The IPR 1956 used industrial licensing as a tool to promote regional equality by offering tax concessions and lower electricity tariffs to industries set up in backward regions.
• Small Scale Industries (SSI):
• In 1955, the Karve Committee (Village and Small-scale Industries Committee) highlighted the potential of small-scale industries for rural development.
• The 1956 resolution protected these industries by reserving products and providing subsidies to generate mass employment.
• Industrial Development and Regulation Act (IDRA), 1951:
• This legislative act provided the government with the necessary powers to regulate and license new and existing industrial units according to the priorities of the 1956 resolution.

The correct answer is 1,027 million.

Key Points

• The Census of India 2001 was the 14^th Census of the country since 1872 and the 6^th Census conducted after Independence.
• The reference moment for the 2001 Census was 00:00 hours of 1^st March 2001, which served as the official date for calculating the nationwide population count.
• As of this reference date, the total population of India was recorded at 1,027,015,247, which is approximately 1,027 million or 1.027 billion.
• This census officially confirmed that India had crossed the one billion mark, making it the second country in the world after China to reach this demographic threshold.
• The population comprised 532.1 million males and 494.8 million females, reflecting the vast human resource and demographic diversity of the nation at the start of the 21^st century.

 Additional Information

• Population Growth and Density:
• The decadal growth rate from 1991 to 2001 was 21.54%, showing a slight decline compared to the previous decade.
• The population density in 2001 was 324 persons per square kilometer, increasing significantly from 267 in 1991.
• The sex ratio was recorded as 933 females per 1,000 males, showing a marginal improvement from 927 in the 1991 Census.
• Literacy and States:
• The literacy rate in 2001 stood at 64.84%, with Kerala maintaining the highest literacy and Uttar Pradesh being the most populous state.
• The subsequent 2011 Census recorded the population at 1,210 million, continuing the trend of substantial demographic expansion.

The correct answer is INS Rana and INS Jyoti.

Key Points

• SLINEX-25 (Sri Lanka-India Naval Exercise 2025) is the 12^th edition of the bilateral maritime exercise conducted between the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy in August 2025.
• The exercise was structured into two distinct phases: the Harbour Phase held at Colombo and the Sea Phase conducted in the Laccadive Sea off the western coast of Sri Lanka.
• The Indian Navy deployment for this iteration featured INS Rana, a Rajput-class guided-missile destroyer, and INS Jyoti, a fleet replenishment tanker, representing a balanced mix of combat power and logistical support.
• The primary objective of SLINEX-25 was to improve interoperability, strengthen mutual understanding, and exchange best practices in multi-faceted maritime operations including surface firing and tactical maneuvers.
• This exercise aligns with India's SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) policy and the Neighborhood First initiative, fostering regional maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

 Additional Information

• Participating Vessels and Specifics:
• INS Rana (D52): It is the fourth ship of the Rajput-class destroyers. Commissioned in 1982, it is equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles, Styx anti-ship missiles, and advanced anti-submarine warfare (ASW) capabilities.
• INS Jyoti (A58): A Komandarm Fedko-class replenishment oiler that provides essential logistics like fuel, ammunition, and provisions to the fleet, extending the blue-water reach of the Indian Navy.
• SLNS Sayurala: The Sri Lanka Navy typically participates with its Advanced Offshore Patrol Vessels (AOPV), such as SLNS Sayurala, to conduct joint visit, board, search, and seizure (VBSS) drills.
• Technical Concepts in Exercises:
• Sea Phase Operations: Focuses on complex drills such as asymmetric threat simulations, cross-deck helicopter operations, and coordinated maritime surveillance.
• Harbour Phase Activities: Includes professional interactions, subject matter expert exchanges (SMEE), and sports fixtures to build camaraderie between personnel.
• Other Notable Ships (Incorrect Options):
• INS Vikrant: India's first indigenous aircraft carrier (IAC-1), which serves as the flagship of the Western or Eastern fleets.
• INS Talwar: The lead ship of the Talwar-class stealth frigates, known for its stealth hull design and multi-role versatility.
• INS Kolkata: A Project 15A destroyer featuring the MF-STAR AESA radar and Barak-8 long-range surface-to-air missiles.

The correct answer is Sleep keeps data in RAM; Hibernate saves it to disk.

Key Points

• Sleep Mode is a low-power state that allows a Windows computer to resume full-power operation quickly. It achieves this by maintaining the power supply to the Random Access Memory (RAM), where all open applications, files, and the System State are stored. Because RAM is Volatile Memory, it requires a continuous trickle of electricity to retain data.
• Hibernate Mode is designed specifically to save power over longer durations. Instead of keeping data in the RAM, the Operating System takes a snapshot of the current session and writes it to the Hard Disk Drive (HDD) or Solid State Drive (SSD). Once the data is safely written to the Non-volatile Storage, the computer completely powers down, consuming zero electricity.
• The primary technical difference involves the Storage Medium and Data Persistence. In Sleep, if power is lost (e.g., a battery dies or a plug is pulled), any unsaved data in the RAM is permanently lost. In Hibernate, the data remains safe on the Disk even without power, and the session is restored when the user restarts the machine.
• In terms of Performance, waking from Sleep is significantly faster (often 1−3 seconds) because the CPU simply resumes processing from the existing RAM state. Resuming from Hibernate takes longer (15−60 seconds) because the Windows Boot Manager must read the saved session file from the Disk and reload it into the RAM.

 Additional Information

• Hybrid Sleep
• This feature, primarily found on Desktop PCs, combines Sleep and Hibernate. It writes the session to the Disk but also keeps it in RAM.
• Its primary Key Function is to provide the speed of Sleep while offering the Data Redundancy of Hibernate in case of a sudden power outage.
• hiberfil.sys File
• This is a hidden System File located in the root folder of the drive where the Operating System is installed.
• The size of hiberfil.sys is approximately equal to the amount of Physical RAM installed on the system, as it must accommodate the entire Memory Dump during hibernation.
• Fast Startup
• Introduced in Windows 8 and continuing through Windows 10 and Windows 11, this feature uses Hibernation technology to save the Kernel Session to the disk during a standard shutdown.
• This allows the Operating System to boot much faster by skipping the full hardware initialization and loading the saved Kernel State directly from the Disk.

The correct answer is Software that manages hardware and provides platform for application software.

Key Points

• System software is defined as a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs.
• It acts as the primary interface between the physical components of the computer (the hardware) and the user-facing software, ensuring that the machine functions efficiently and reliably.
• The most prominent example of system software is the Operating System (OS), such as Windows, macOS, or Linux, which manages the Central Processing Unit (CPU), Main Memory (RAM), and Input/Output (I/O) devices.
• It provides a necessary runtime environment or platform; without system software, application software like games or web browsers would have no way to communicate instructions to the hardware.
• Beyond the OS, system software includes device drivers, which are specialized programs that allow the OS to interact with specific hardware like Graphic Cards, Printers, and Network Adapters.
• It also encompasses firmware like BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or UEFI, which initializes the hardware during the booting process before the operating system takes control.
• System software typically runs in the background and is responsible for resource allocation, file management, and memory management tasks that are transparent to the user.

 Additional Information

• Application Software: Unlike system software, application software is designed to perform specific tasks for the end-user.
• Document Creation: Tools like Microsoft Word, LibreOffice Writer, or Notepad are productivity applications used for text manipulation.
• Multimedia Players: Software such as VLC Media Player or Windows Media Player is used specifically for decoding and playing audio and video file formats.
• Web Browsers: Applications like Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Microsoft Edge are used to access and navigate the World Wide Web.
• Utility Software: Often categorized under system software, these programs help analyze, configure, and maintain the computer system, such as Antivirus software, Disk Cleanup tools, and Compression utilities like WinRAR.
• Programming Language Translators: These include Compilers, Interpreters, and Assemblers that convert high-level programming code into Machine Code that the hardware can execute.

The correct answer is Gender Inequality Index.

Key Points

• The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is a composite metric introduced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in the 2010 Human Development Report to measure the loss in potential human development due to inequality between female and male achievements.
• It evaluates gender disparity across three fundamental dimensions: Reproductive Health, Empowerment, and Labour Market Participation.
• The Reproductive Health dimension is measured by two indicators: the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) and the Adolescent Birth Rate (ABR).
• The Empowerment dimension is assessed by the share of parliamentary seats held by each gender and the attainment of at least secondary education by both women and men.
• The Labour Market dimension is represented by the labour force participation rate for both female and male populations aged 15 years and older.
• The GII value ranges from 0 to 1, where 0 signifies that women and men fare equally (perfect equality) and 1 signifies that one gender fares as poorly as possible in all measured dimensions (perfect inequality).

 Additional Information

• Comparison with Other Indices:
• Human Development Index (HDI): A summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development, including a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
• Gender Development Index (GDI): Introduced in 2014, it measures gender gaps in human development by calculating the ratio of female to male HDI values.
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): Captures the various deprivations experienced by people in their daily lives, such as poor health, lack of education, and low living standards.
• Global Context:
• The GII helps policy makers understand the opportunity cost of gender inequality and provides a mechanism to monitor progress toward Sustainable Development Goal 5 (SDG 5), which aims for Gender Equality.

The correct answer is 20^th Edition.

Key Points

• The Global Risks Report is a flagship annual publication released by the World Economic Forum (WEF) ahead of its high-profile Annual Meeting in Davos, Switzerland.
• The 20^th Edition of the report was launched in January 2025, marking two full decades of the WEF tracking and analyzing the global risk landscape.
• The 2025 report is based on the results of the Global Risks Perception Survey (GRPS), which captures the insights of more than 1,500 experts across various sectors, including business, government, and civil society.
• The 20^th Edition focuses on the theme of a 'polycrisis,' where interconnected risks such as environmental degradation, technological disruption, and geopolitical instability compound one another.
• The report serves as a critical tool for policy-makers and global leaders to understand the transition from short-term volatility (2-year horizon) to long-term structural shifts (10-year horizon).

 Additional Information

• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• It was established in 1971 by Klaus Schwab as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Cologny, Geneva, Switzerland.
• The forum is committed to improving the state of the world through public-private cooperation.
• Historical Timeline of the Report:
• The 1^st Edition of the Global Risks Report was published in 2006, which initially focused on economic imbalances and the threat of a global pandemic.
• The 19^th Edition, released in 2024, prominently highlighted misinformation and disinformation as the top short-term global risks.
• The 18^th Edition, released in 2023, focused heavily on the cost-of-living crisis following the post-pandemic inflationary pressures.
• Risk Classification:
• The WEF classifies risks into five categories: Economic, Environmental, Geopolitical, Societal, and Technological.
• In recent editions, Environmental risks like biodiversity loss and climate action failure have consistently ranked as the most severe long-term threats.

The correct answer is 1909.

Key Points

• The Morley-Minto Reforms, officially known as the Indian Councils Act 1909, were enacted by the British Parliament to introduce limited self-governance and increase Indian participation in the legislative process.
• The reforms were named after Lord John Morley, the then Secretary of State for India, and Lord Minto, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910.
• A defining and historically significant feature of the Act was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims, a system where Muslim representatives were elected exclusively by Muslim voters.
• The Act significantly increased the size of the legislative councils at both the Central and Provincial levels; for instance, the membership of the Central Legislative Council was expanded from 16 to 60.
• It empowered members of the council to ask supplementary questions and move resolutions on the budget, although they could not vote on the entire budget.
• The reforms allowed for the first time the inclusion of an Indian in the Viceroy’s Executive Council, with Satyendra Prasad Sinha being appointed as the Law Member.

 Additional Information

• Background and Evolution of Reforms:
• The reforms were preceded by the Simla Deputation of 1906, where a group of Muslim leaders led by the Aga Khan demanded separate representation to safeguard their political interests.
• Due to the institutionalization of communal representation, Lord Minto is formally recognized in Indian history as the Father of Communal Electorate.
• The political trajectory established in 1909 was followed by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms in 1919, which introduced Dyarchy and a bicameral legislature at the center.
• Later, the Government of India Act 1935 further expanded the constitutional framework by proposing an All-India Federation and granting Provincial Autonomy, marking a major step toward the eventual independence of India.
• While the 1909 Act aimed to appease moderates in the Indian National Congress, it was later criticized for sowing the seeds of partition through religious segregation in politics.

The correct answer is (i) True, (ii) True.

Key Points

• A Microphone is a specialized transducer designed to convert sound waves (acoustic energy) into electrical signals (analog or digital) for computer processing; since its hardware architecture is strictly unidirectional for data entry and lacks the components to convert electrical signals back into audible sound waves, it is classified solely as an input device. Hence, statement

(i) is correct.

• The Central Processing Unit (CPU) operates at extremely high speeds, with clock rates typically measured in Gigahertz (GHz), which allows it to process billions of operations per second, while external peripherals like printers are limited by mechanical constraints and the relatively slower data transfer rates of I/O interfaces (like USB or Wi-Fi). Hence, statement

(ii) is correct.

 Additional Information

• Input Devices:
• These hardware components allow users to feed data into a computer system.
• Key examples include Keyboards (text entry), Optical Scanners (image digitization), and Joysticks (control signals).
• The primary function is to translate human-understandable data into binary format.
• Output Devices:
• These devices receive data from the computer and convert it into a form that is perceptible to humans.
• Common examples include Monitors (visual), Printers (hard copy), and Speakers (audio).
• While a microphone captures sound, a Speaker or Headset is required to output it.
• Speed Gap Management:
• Because the CPU is significantly faster than I/O devices, computers use Buffering and Spooling techniques.
• A Buffer is a temporary storage area in RAM that holds data while it is being transferred between two devices with different speeds.
• Print Spooling allows the CPU to offload a print job to the Hard Drive or Memory so the user can continue working while the slow printer catches up.

The correct answer is Article 51 'A'.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in Article 51A, which is the only article under Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution.
• These duties were not part of the original Constitution; they were incorporated by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR (now Russia).
• Originally, the amendment introduced 10 Fundamental Duties. The 11^th Fundamental Duty, regarding providing education opportunities to children between 6 and 14 years, was added by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the courts, but they serve as a guide for citizens to maintain discipline and commitment to the nation.

 Additional Information

• Article 52:
• This article provides that there shall be a President of India, who is the head of the Indian State and the first citizen of India.
• Article 50:
• Contained within the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), it directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
• Article 51:
• This article mandates the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

The correct answer is Indian princes.

Key Points

• The Second Round Table Conference took place in London from September 7, 1931, to December 1, 1931, following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
• During this conference, Mahatma Gandhi claimed that the Indian National Congress was the sole representative of the entire Indian population, including those living in the Princely States.
• The Indian princes, who represented over 560 semi-autonomous states, strongly contested this claim by asserting that the Congress possessed no legal or political authority over their territories.
• The princes maintained that their relationship was exclusively with the British Crown through the doctrine of Paramountcy and individual treaties, which exempted them from the jurisdiction of any political party in British India.
• This dispute over sovereignty was a major reason for the failure of the conference to reach a consensus on the All-India Federation, as the rulers feared the Congress would interfere with their internal autocratic administration.

 Additional Information

• Second Round Table Conference:
• It was the only conference attended by the Indian National Congress after the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Other key stakeholders included B.R. Ambedkar, who demanded separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, and representatives of the Muslim League.
• Zamindars:
• This group consisted of influential landlords who held significant socio-economic power in British India but did not possess the sovereign territorial status that the princes did.
• Provincial Governors:
• These were British officials appointed to head the executive branch in British Indian provinces like Bengal and Bombay, operating under the Government of India Act.

The correct answer is Amoebiasis.

Key Points

• Amoebiasis, also referred to as amoebic dysentery, is a gastrointestinal infection caused by the protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica.
• The parasite primarily inhabits the large intestine of humans, where it can cause ulceration of the intestinal lining.
• Clinical symptoms of the disease include abdominal pain, constipation, cramps, and the passage of stools characterized by excess mucous and blood clots.
• The transmission of the disease is facilitated by houseflies (Musca domestica), which serve as mechanical carriers by transferring the parasite from the feces of infected individuals to food and water supplies.
• Infection occurs through the fecal-oral route, specifically via the ingestion of contaminated food and drinking water containing the cysts of the parasite.

 Additional Information

• Giardiasis:
• Caused by the flagellated protozoan Giardia lamblia.
• It affects the small intestine and typically leads to diarrhea, fatigue, and greasy stools that tend to float.
• Cholera:
• An acute diarrheal infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
• It is characterized by severe watery diarrhea, often described as rice-water stools, leading to rapid dehydration.
• Ascariasis:
• A helminthic disease caused by the common roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides.
• Symptoms include internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia, and potential blockage of the intestinal passage.

The correct answer is Electromagnetic Energy.

Key Points

• Light is fundamentally composed of photons, which are discrete packets or quanta of energy that lack rest mass but carry momentum.
• The energy of these photons is a manifestation of electromagnetic radiation, which occurs due to the synchronization of oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
• According to quantum mechanics, the energy (E) of a photon is determined by the Planck-Einstein relation: E = hf, where h is the Planck constant (approximately 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s) and f is the frequency.
• Electromagnetic energy covers the entire electromagnetic spectrum, including visible light, infrared radiation, and ultraviolet rays, all of which travel at the speed of light (approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s) in a vacuum.
• Since light behaves as both a wave and a particle (wave-particle duality), its energy is transferred via electromagnetic waves that do not require a physical medium for conduction.

 Additional Information

• Nuclear Energy
• Refers to the binding energy held within the atomic nucleus, typically harnessed via nuclear fission or nuclear fusion reactions.
• Gravitational Potential Energy
• A form of stored energy related to an object mass and its altitude or height within a gravitational field.
• Mechanical Energy
• Defined as the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy in a system, pertaining to macroscopic objects in motion or specific physical configurations.