General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Marine deposits and wood fossils.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Desert, also known as the Thar Desert, has a geological history that reveals it was once submerged under the sea during the Mesozoic era, specifically during the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods.
• The presence of extensive marine deposits in the Jaisalmer and Bikaner regions serves as primary evidence of ancient marine transgressions where the Tethys Sea covered large parts of western Rajasthan.
• Evidence of this maritime past is preserved at the Akal Wood Fossil Park, located about 17 km from Jaisalmer, which contains petrified remains of gymnosperms and other trees dating back nearly 180 million years.
• The discovery of fossilized ammonites, bivalves, and other marine invertebrates within the sedimentary rock layers confirms that the region supported a diverse marine ecosystem before tectonic shifts caused the sea to retreat.
• Geologists have identified that the desert floor consists of sedimentary rocks like sandstones, limestones, and shales, which are characteristic of shallow marine environments and coastal deltas from the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras.

 Additional Information

• Other options do not serve as evidence for this specific geological phenomenon:
• Black soil:
• Also known as Regur soil, it is typically formed from the weathering of basaltic volcanic rocks.
• It is predominantly found in the Deccan Trap region, covering states like Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, rather than being an indicator of marine history in the Thar.
• Glacial deposits:
• These are sediments like tillites transported and deposited by glaciers.
• While found in the Himalayas or related to the Permo-Carboniferous glaciation of Gondwanaland, they are not the defining evidence for the Mesozoic sea in the Thar.
• Volcanic ash layers:
• These originate from explosive volcanic eruptions.
• While some volcanic activity occurred during the Deccan eruptions, they do not prove the existence of an ancient sea bed compared to the direct evidence of fossilized marine life.

The correct answer is Article 359.

Key Points

• Article 359 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part III during a National Emergency.
• Unlike Article 358, which automatically suspends the rights under Article 19, Article 359 does not automatically suspend any right; it only authorizes the President to issue a specific order naming the rights whose enforcement is to be suspended.
• The 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a crucial safeguard, stipulating that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of rights guaranteed by Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty).
• A Presidential Order issued under this Article may extend to the whole or any part of the territory of India and must be laid before each House of Parliament for approval as soon as possible after it is made.
• While Article 358 only operates in the case of an External Emergency (war or external aggression), Article 359 can be invoked during both External and Internal Emergencies (armed rebellion).

 Additional Information

• Article 358:
• Relates specifically to the suspension of the provisions of Article 19.
• Suspension is automatic and occurs the moment a National Emergency is proclaimed on grounds of war or external aggression.
• Article 356:
• Provisions regarding the failure of constitutional machinery in states, commonly referred to as President's Rule.
• It allows the Union Government to take direct control of a state executive.
• Article 357:
• Deals with the exercise of legislative powers under a proclamation issued under Article 356.
• It permits Parliament to confer the power to make laws for the state on the President or other specified authorities.

The correct answer is Kesavananda Bharati case.

Key Points

• The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) is a landmark judgment in which the Supreme Court of India introduced the Basic Structure doctrine.
• A special bench of 13 judges, which is the largest ever constituted in the history of the Indian judiciary, heard the case for 68 days and delivered the judgment on April 24, 1973.
• By a slim majority of 7:6, the court held that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, these powers are not absolute and cannot be used to destroy or emasculate the basic structure or essential features of the document.
• The case challenged the validity of the 24^th, 25^th, and 29^th Constitutional Amendment Acts, which were enacted by the government to bypass previous judicial restrictions on land reforms and property rights.
• The ruling identified several features as part of the basic structure, including Democracy, Secularism, Federalism, Rule of Law, and Judicial Review, ensuring they remain beyond the reach of parliamentary modification.

 Additional Information

• Shankari Prasad case (1951)
• This was the first case to challenge the 1^st Constitutional Amendment Act.
• The Supreme Court ruled that the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 included the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
• Golaknath case (1967)
• An 11-judge bench overturned the previous stance and ruled that Fundamental Rights are transcendental and cannot be abridged by Parliament.
• The court stated that an amendment under Article 368 is a 'law' within the meaning of Article 13(2) and thus cannot violate Fundamental Rights.
• Minerva Mills case (1980)
• The Supreme Court reaffirmed and applied the Basic Structure doctrine to strike down portions of the 42^nd Amendment Act.
• It established that the limited amending power of Parliament is itself a part of the basic structure, and emphasized the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, was conferred the prestigious Speaker of the Knesset Medal during his high-profile state visit to Israel in February 2026.
• The medal was presented by the Speaker of the Knesset, the national legislature of Israel, in a special ceremony held at the parliament building in Jerusalem.
• This honor was bestowed upon the Indian Prime Minister to recognize his visionary leadership and his instrumental role in elevating India-Israel relations to a comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
• The visit in February 2026 marked a significant milestone, reinforcing cooperation in critical areas such as defense technology, semiconductor manufacturing, water management, and space exploration.
• The award reflects the deep-rooted democratic values shared by both nations and honors India as a key stabilizing force in the Indo-Pacific and the Middle East (West Asia) regions.

 Additional Information

• The Knesset:
• It is the unicameral legislature of Israel, consisting of 120 members elected for four-year terms.
• The Speaker of the Knesset is the presiding officer of the house, responsible for maintaining the dignity of the parliament and representing it in international forums.
• India-Israel Strategic Partnership:
• The relationship was upgraded to a Strategic Partnership during PM Modi’s historic first visit to Israel in July 2017.
• India is one of the largest buyers of Israeli military equipment, and both nations collaborate through the I2U2 Group (India, Israel, UAE, USA).
• Other Countries Mentioned:
• Spain: While Spain maintains diplomatic ties with Israel, its Prime Minister was not the recipient of this specific legislative honor in early 2026.
• Luxembourg: A key member of the European Union that focuses on financial and digital cooperation with Israel, but did not receive the Speaker's Medal in this timeframe.
• Belgium: Known for its role in the EU and NATO, Belgium's diplomatic interactions with Israel in 2026 were centered on trade rather than high-level parliamentary medals.

The correct answer is Reducing the maximum processor state (clock speed/frequency) to cap the peak computational capacity and thermal output.

Key Points

• The Power Saver plan in the Windows Operating System is a pre-configured power scheme designed to maximize battery life by prioritizing energy efficiency over hardware performance.
• The primary technical mechanism utilized is Processor Power Management (PPM), specifically the adjustment of the Maximum Processor State within the system's power settings.
• By capping the maximum processor state (often to values like 50% or 70%), the OS forces the Central Processing Unit (CPU) to operate at a lower clock frequency than its rated base or boost speed.
• This reduction in frequency is coupled with Dynamic Voltage Scaling, where the operating voltage is lowered; since power consumption is proportional to the square of the voltage (P ∝ V² × f), this results in significant energy savings and reduced thermal output.
• Because the CPU executes fewer cycles per second, the time required to complete computational tasks increases, leading to the reduced system responsiveness and lag observed by the user.
• This mechanism effectively disables or limits high-performance features such as Intel Turbo Boost or AMD Precision Boost, ensuring the processor stays within a low-power P-state.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Incorrect Mechanisms:
• Cache Memory Flushing:
• Aggressively flushing the L1, L2, or L3 cache would actually increase power consumption and latency, as the CPU would be forced to fetch data from the much slower and power-intensive System RAM or Virtual Memory.
• Disabling the GPU:
• The OS does not entirely disable the Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) as it is required for the Desktop Window Manager (DWM) to render the UI; however, it may switch from a discrete GPU to an Integrated GPU (iGPU) to save power.
• Hard Disk Spin-down:
• While increasing the frequency of HDD spin-down saves mechanical energy, it primarily affects storage latency rather than the overall peak computational capacity of the system.
• Related Technical Concepts:
• Thermal Design Power (TDP): By limiting the processor state, the system ensures the CPU operates well below its maximum TDP, preventing the cooling fans from spinning at high speeds, which further conserves battery.
• Idle States (C-States): In addition to limiting active performance, the Power Saver plan encourages the processor to enter deeper C-states (sleep states) more rapidly when no tasks are being processed.

The correct answer is Hibernate.

Key Points

• Hibernate is a power management mode in Windows 11 designed to save the current state of the Operating System, including all open applications and documents, to the Hard Disk Drive (HDD) or Solid State Drive (SSD).
• When this mode is activated, the system writes the contents of the Random Access Memory (RAM) into a hidden file located in the root directory of the system drive named hiberfil.sys.
• Unlike Sleep mode, which requires a small amount of power to keep data active in the volatile RAM, Hibernate uses zero power because the computer is physically powered down after the data transfer to storage is complete.
• It is particularly useful for laptop users who need to stop working for an extended period without a power source, as it ensures that the session is preserved even if the battery drains completely.
• When the user triggers a Power On, the Windows Boot Loader reads the data from the storage drive and restores it to the RAM, allowing the user to resume work exactly where they left off.

 Additional Information

• Shut Down:
• This process closes all running programs, logs out the user, and clears the RAM entirely before cutting power to the hardware.
• In Windows 11, if Fast Startup is enabled, it saves a small part of the Kernel state to the disk to speed up the next boot process.
• Restart:
• This command initiates a full Shut Down followed by an immediate boot-up sequence.
• It is the standard procedure for clearing temporary software conflicts and finalizing the installation of system updates or device drivers.
• Sleep:
• Often confused with hibernation, this is a low-power state where data is kept in the RAM for near-instant wake times.
• If power is lost while in this mode, any unsaved data that was not previously backed up to the Hard Drive will be lost.

The correct answer is Antarctica.

Key Points

• Antarctica is globally recognized as the highest continent in terms of average elevation, reaching approximately 2,300 meters (roughly 7,500 feet) above mean sea level.
• This distinction is not due to the height of its bedrock, but rather the presence of massive, permanent ice sheets that cover approximately 98% of the landmass.
• The Antarctic Ice Sheet has an average thickness of about 1.9 kilometers (1.2 miles), and in certain locations, the ice reaches depths of nearly 4.8 kilometers.
• Without this thick layer of ice, Antarctica would likely be the lowest continent, as the weight of the ice causes isostatic depression, pushing much of the continental crust below sea level.
• In contrast, other continents consist primarily of exposed rock and soil, with their average elevations calculated based on their varied terrain of mountains, plateaus, and plains.

 Additional Information

• Asia:
• While home to the world’s highest point, Mount Everest (8,848.86 meters), its vast plains and lowlands result in an average elevation of approximately 950 meters.
• Africa:
• Characterized by extensive plateaus and the East African Highlands, its average elevation is roughly 600 meters.
• South America:
• Despite containing the Andes Mountains, the longest continental mountain range, the continent maintains an average elevation of about 590 meters.
• Europe:
• Considered the lowest continent by average elevation, standing at only 300 meters, largely due to the massive North European Plain.

The correct answer is Kharavela.

Key Points

• Kharavela was the third and most illustrious ruler of the Mahameghavahana dynasty, also referred to as the Chedi dynasty of Kalinga.
• He reigned during the 1^st or 2^nd century BCE, significantly expanding the power of Kalinga (modern-day Odisha) following the disintegration of the Mauryan Empire.
• The primary historical source for his reign is the Hathigumpha inscription, a seventeen-line record carved in the Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar.
• The inscription provides a chronological account of his first thirteen years, mentioning his military victories over the Satavahanas, the Indo-Greek king Demetrius, and various Tamil kingdoms.
• A staunch follower of Jainism, Kharavela is credited with retrieving the Kalinga Jina idol from Magadha and constructing rock-cut caves for Jain monks at Udayagiri and Khandagiri.

 Additional Information

• Gautamiputra Satakarni:
• The 23^rd ruler and the most powerful king of the Satavahana dynasty, who ruled the Deccan and Central India.
• He is celebrated in the Nashik inscription for destroying the Saka, Yavana, and Pahlava rulers and restoring the glory of the Satavahanas.
• Kanishka:
• The greatest emperor of the Kushan dynasty, who ruled over a vast territory spanning Central Asia and North India.
• He is famous for starting the Saka Era in 78 CE and convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir to resolve sectarian disputes.
• Pushyamitra Shunga:
• The founder of the Shunga dynasty, who ascended the throne in 185 BCE after assassinating the last Maurya emperor, Brihadratha.
• He was a champion of Brahmanical traditions and performed two Ashvamedha (horse) sacrifices to assert his imperial authority.

The correct answer is Intensity.

Key Points

• Sound intensity is scientifically defined as the amount of sound energy passing through a unit area per unit time (per second) in a direction perpendicular to that area.
• The relationship is mathematically expressed as I = P / A, where I is intensity, P is sound power (energy per second), and A is the surface area.
• Intensity is an objective physical quantity that can be accurately measured using instruments, regardless of the listener’s hearing sensitivity.
• The S.I. unit of sound intensity is Watt per square meter (W/m²).
• The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration. This means if the amplitude of the wave is tripled, the intensity increases by a factor of nine.
• While intensity is often associated with loudness, they are not the same; loudness is the subjective physiological response of the human ear to the intensity of sound.

 Additional Information

• Frequency
• It is the number of complete oscillations or cycles of a sound wave produced in one second.
• The unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz). It determines the pitch of the sound but is independent of the energy-per-area measurement.
• Pitch
• It is the subjective perception of the frequency of a sound by the human brain.
• Sounds with higher frequencies are perceived as high-pitched (shrill), while sounds with lower frequencies are perceived as low-pitched (flat).
• Echo
• An echo is the reflection of sound that reaches the listener shortly after the direct sound.
• To distinguish an echo from the original sound, the reflected sound must reach the ear at least 0.1 seconds later, requiring a minimum distance of approximately 17.2 meters in air at room temperature.

The correct answer is Radiation.

Key Points

• Radiation is the unique method of heat transfer that does not require any material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to propagate, allowing energy to travel through the vacuum of space.
• Energy from the Sun is transmitted in the form of electromagnetic waves, primarily consisting of visible light, infrared radiation (heat), and ultraviolet rays.
• Because the vast expanse between the Sun and the Earth is nearly a perfect vacuum, other methods like conduction or convection are impossible as they rely on molecular interaction or fluid movement.
• Thermal radiation travels at the speed of light, which is approximately 3 × 10⁸ meters per second, ensuring that solar energy reaches Earth in about 8 minutes and 20 seconds.
• Once these electromagnetic waves strike the Earth's atmosphere and surface, the energy is absorbed by molecules, increasing their kinetic energy and resulting in a rise in temperature.

 Additional Information

• Conduction
• This is the transfer of heat through direct contact between substances.
• It occurs as faster-moving molecules collide with slower ones, passing thermal energy through a medium, typically effective in solids like metals.
• Convection
• It involves the mass movement of molecules within fluids, which includes both liquids and gases.
• Heated fluid becomes less dense and rises, while cooler, denser fluid sinks, creating convection currents that distribute heat.
• Insulation
• This is not a heat transfer method but rather the process of reducing heat flow between objects.
• Thermal insulators like fiberglass, wool, or trapped air are used to inhabit the transfer of energy via conduction or convection.

The correct answer is Battle of Plassey.

Key Points

• The Battle of Plassey was fought on June 23, 1757, on the banks of the Bhagirathi River in Bengal.
• The conflict occurred between the British East India Company, commanded by Robert Clive, and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah.
• A primary reason for the British victory was the secret alliance between Robert Clive and Mir Jafar, the commander of the Nawab’s army, who defected during the battle.
• The victory transformed the British East India Company from a commercial entity into a dominant political and military force in India, establishing its first major foothold in the wealthy province of Bengal.
• Following the battle, the British gained immense wealth from the Bengal treasury and were granted significant land and revenue rights, facilitating their subsequent expansion.

 Additional Information

• Battle of Buxar (1764):
• This battle was fought between the British and the combined forces of Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Shuja-ud-Daulah (Nawab of Awadh), and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
• It consolidated British control over northern India and led to the Treaty of Allahabad (1765), which granted the Company the Diwani rights to collect taxes from Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha.
• Battle of Wandiwash (1760):
• A decisive engagement during the Third Carnatic War between the British and the French.
• The British victory led by Sir Eyre Coote effectively ended French colonial ambitions in India.
• Battle of Panipat:
• The Third Battle of Panipat (1761) was fought between the Maratha Empire and the Afghan forces of Ahmad Shah Abdali.
• While it resulted in a Maratha defeat, it significantly weakened indigenous powers, indirectly aiding British ascendancy.

The correct answer is Sanjay Malhotra.

Key Points

• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the appointment of Sanjay Malhotra as the 26^th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 9, 2024.
• He officially assumed his duties on December 11, 2024, succeeding Shaktikanta Das, who served as the 25^th Governor for a tenure spanning six years from 2018 to 2024.
• Sanjay Malhotra is a veteran 1990-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer belonging to the Rajasthan cadre.
• Before his elevation to the central bank's top post, he served as the Secretary in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, where he played a pivotal role in tax administration and policy.
• His appointment is for a period of three years from the date of assuming charge or until further orders.

 Additional Information

• Michael Patra:
• He is a career central banker currently serving as a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• He is a vital member of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and is known for his expertise in macroeconomic policy and inflation targeting.
• Poonam Gupta:
• She serves as the Director General of the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) and is a member of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (PMEAC).
• Raghuram Rajan:
• He was the 23^rd Governor of the RBI, serving from 2013 to 2016, and is a world-renowned economist.
• RBI Governor Appointment:
• The Governor is appointed by the Government of India under the provisions of Section 8 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The first Governor of the RBI was Sir Osborne Smith (1935), and the first Indian to hold the post was C.D. Deshmukh (1943).

The correct answer is Accelerate socio-economic reforms.

Key Points

• The Twenty Point Programme (TPP) was first launched by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on July 1, 1975, with the primary objective of improving the quality of life of the poor and underprivileged sections of society.
• The programme was designed to facilitate growth with social justice by addressing critical areas such as land reforms, liquidating rural indebtedness, and ensuring the abolition of bonded labor.
• It focused on increasing agricultural production, implementing a land ceiling, and providing housing sites for the landless, which were essential components of the socio-economic reform agenda of that era.
• The initiative was closely linked to the Fifth Five-Year Plan and the slogan of Garibi Hatao (Eradicate Poverty), aiming to provide basic necessities like clean drinking water, health, and education to the rural masses.
• The programme sought to redistribute resources and curb economic inequalities by socializing urban land and preventing the hoarding of essential commodities. Hence, the primary aim was to accelerate socio-economic reforms.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of TPP:
• The programme has been restructured multiple times in 1982, 1986, and most recently in 2006 (known as TPP-2006) to address contemporary challenges.
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency responsible for monitoring the implementation of the programme across various states.
• Distinction from Other Economic Shifts:
• Liberalize trade policies and Promote foreign direct investment were the core features of the New Economic Policy introduced in 1991, commonly known as LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization) reforms.
• The 1975 programme was launched during the Emergency and focused on domestic social welfare rather than market-oriented liberalization or reducing government borrowing.

The correct answer is Ctrl + C.

Key Points

• The keyboard shortcut Ctrl + C is the primary command used in Graphical User Interfaces (GUI) to duplicate Selected Text, Images, or Files without removing them from their original location.
• When this shortcut is executed, the operating system places a copy of the selected data into a temporary storage area known as the Clipboard, which resides in the Random Access Memory (RAM).
• This command follows the Common User Access (CUA) standards, making it a universal shortcut across Windows, Linux, and various application softwares like Microsoft Office and Web Browsers.
• Unlike the Cut command, Ctrl + C is a non-destructive process that ensures the integrity of the source data while allowing for replication in another environment or document.
• In certain Command-Line Interfaces (CLI), such as the Linux Terminal, the same key combination is often used to send a SIGINT (Signal Interrupt) to stop a running program, though its primary role in desktop computing remains copying.

 Additional Information

• Ctrl + F
• This shortcut activates the Find or Search utility, enabling users to locate specific keywords or character strings within a Document, PDF, or Webpage.
• Ctrl + S
• Known as the Save command, this shortcut writes the current state of a file from the Volatile Memory to a Permanent Storage Device like an SSD or HDD.
• Ctrl + V
• This is the Paste shortcut, which retrieves the content currently held in the System Clipboard and inserts it into the current cursor position or active window.

The correct answer is Fantasy With Truth.

Key Points

• Dr. L. Subramaniam, a world-renowned Indian violinist, composer, and conductor, achieved a significant milestone in his career when he received a Grammy Award nomination in 1981.
• The nominated album, Fantasy With Truth, is a landmark recording in the Global Fusion genre, showcasing his ability to blend the intricate gamakas of Carnatic music with the improvisational freedom of Western Jazz.
• This nomination in the Best Jazz Fusion Performance category highlighted the violin as a versatile lead instrument capable of transcending cultural boundaries and standard orchestral roles.
• The album features collaborations with prominent international artists, reinforcing Dr. Subramaniam's reputation as a bridge between Eastern and Western musical traditions.

 Additional Information

• Dr. L. Subramaniam:
• Commonly referred to as the God of Indian Violin, he has composed major symphonic works and film scores, including the soundtrack for Salaam Bombay!.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1988 and the Padma Bhushan in 2001 by the Government of India for his exceptional contribution to the arts.
• He is the founder of the Lakshminarayana Global Music Festival, which promotes cross-cultural artistic exchange.
• West Meets East:
• This is a famous collaborative album series featuring sitar maestro Pandit Ravi Shankar and violinist Yehudi Menuhin, which began in 1966 and won a Grammy Award in 1967.
• Indo-Jazz Fusion:
• Dr. Subramaniam is considered a pioneer of this movement, often working with legends such as George Harrison, Stephan Grappelli, and Jean-Luc Ponty to create a new musical vocabulary.

The correct answer is 67.0.

Key Points

• India achieved an overall score of 67.0 in the SDG Index 2025, reflecting its incremental progress toward the United Nations 2030 Agenda.
• The SDG Index is a featured component of the Sustainable Development Report, which is published annually by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) to track the performance of all 193 UN Member States.
• A score of 67.0 indicates that India is approximately 67 percent of the way toward achieving the optimal target across the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), where a score of 100 represents full achievement.
• India has demonstrated significant resilience and improvement in specific areas such as SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production) and SDG 13 (Climate Action), while continuing to face challenges in SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) and SDG 5 (Gender Equality).
• The index provides a quantitative framework for comparing national progress, helping policymakers identify gaps in socio-economic development and environmental sustainability.

 Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN):
• It was launched in 2012 under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General to mobilize global scientific and technological expertise.
• The organization is currently led by Professor Jeffrey Sachs and focuses on practical problem solving for sustainable development.
• Comparison with SDG India Index:
• The SDG India Index is a separate sub-national monitoring tool developed by NITI Aayog, which usually reports different scores based on localized indicators and a specialized methodology.
• While the Global SDG Index focuses on international comparability, the NITI Aayog version focuses on competitive federalism among Indian States and Union Territories.
• The 17 Goals:
• These goals were adopted in September 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
• Key goals include No Poverty (Goal 1), Quality Education (Goal 4), Affordable and Clean Energy (Goal 7), and Decent Work and Economic Growth (Goal 8).

The correct answer is Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims.

Key Points

• The Indian Councils Act of 1909, popularly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the system of separate electorates based on religion. Under this provision, Muslim members were to be elected exclusively by Muslim voters, thereby institutionalizing communal representation in the Indian political system.
• This act effectively legalized communalism in India, and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate for his role in implementing this divisive electoral policy.
• The reform significantly increased the size of the Legislative Councils at both the Central and Provincial levels, where the number of members in the Central Legislative Council was raised from 16 to 60.
• It empowered members of the Legislative Council to ask supplementary questions and move resolutions on the Budget, expanding the deliberative functions of the legislative bodies beyond mere discussion.
• The act provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the Executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors, leading to the appointment of Satyendra Prasad Sinha as the first Indian member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context of Other Options:
• The Supreme Court in India was first established at Calcutta through the Regulating Act of 1773, with Sir Elijah Impey as the first Chief Justice.
• Universal voting rights or Universal Adult Franchise was not granted during the British Raj; it was formally adopted only with the enforcement of the Constitution of India on January 26, 1950.
• The position of the Viceroy was created by the Government of India Act 1858 following the Revolt of 1857 and remained the supreme executive authority until the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
• The Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) later introduced Dyarchy in the provinces and expanded the principle of communal representation to Sikhs, Indian Christians, and Anglo-Indians.

The correct answer is Kalinga style.

Key Points

• The Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha, is a monumental example of the Kalinga style of architecture, which is a specialized sub-branch of the broader Nagara (North Indian) tradition.
• This architectural style is characterized by three distinct types of temples: Rekha Deula (tall curvilinear tower), Pidha Deula (pyramidal roofed square porch), and Khakhara Deula (rectangular temple with a barrel-vaulted roof).
• The main sanctum of the Jagannath Temple is a Rekha Deula, while the assembly hall or porch, known as the Jagamohana, follows the Pidha Deula structure.
• Construction was initiated in the 12^th century by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, showcasing the pinnacle of Odishan stone masonry.
• The temple complex is enclosed by two massive concentric walls: the outer Meghanada Pacheri and the inner Kurma Bheda, which protect the sacred deities Jagannath, Balabhadra, and Subhadra.

 Additional Information

• Dravidian style
• Origin: Developed primarily in South India under dynasties like the Cholas and Pallavas.
• Features: Characterized by a pyramid-like tower called a Vimana and massive gateways known as Gopurams.
• Hoysala Style
• Origin: Flourished in Karnataka between the 11^th and 14^th centuries.
• Features: Distinguished by a stellate (star-shaped) ground plan and extremely intricate carvings on chloritic schist (soapstone).
• Vesara style
• Origin: Emerged in the Deccan region, particularly under the Later Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas.
• Features: A hybrid style that harmoniously combines elements of both the Nagara and Dravidian architectural traditions.

The correct answer is 1985.

Key Points

• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, following the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976 of the Constitution of India.
• The tribunal was officially inaugurated on November 1, 1985, during the tenure of the Rajiv Gandhi government to provide specialized adjudication for service-related disputes.
• The constitutional backing for the CAT is found in Article 323-A, which empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service.
• Its primary objective is to offer a speedy and inexpensive justice delivery mechanism to employees of the Central Government, thereby reducing the workload of the regular civil courts.

 Additional Information

• Jurisdiction and Scope:
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction over service matters concerning members of the All-India Services, Central Civil Services, and civilian employees of the Defense Services.
• It does not have jurisdiction over members of the Armed Forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and the secretarial staff of the Parliament.
• Legal Framework and Composition:
• The tribunal is a multi-member body consisting of a Chairman and various Members (Judicial and Administrative), all of whom are appointed by the President of India.
• In its proceedings, the tribunal is not bound by the technicalities of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is governed by the Principles of Natural Justice.
• Following the L. Chandra Kumar Case (1997), the decisions of the CAT can be challenged before the Division Bench of the respective High Court through a writ petition.

The correct answer is 52.5 %.

Key Points

• The Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the total population, providing a primary indicator of the level of employment in the country.
• As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Quarterly Bulletin covering the period October – December 2025, the WPR for persons aged 15 years and above in India was recorded at 52.5%.
• The data is compiled and released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• The survey utilizes the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach for quarterly reports, which classifies a person as employed if they worked for at least one hour on any day during the seven-day reference period preceding the interview.
• An increasing WPR trend signifies an expansion in employment opportunities and higher participation of the population in economic activities.

 Additional Information

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• Launched in April 2017 to provide more frequent labor market data.
• Objectives include estimating employment and unemployment indicators in the short time interval of three months for urban areas and annually for both rural and urban areas.
• Key indicators tracked include Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR).
• The 15+ age group is the standard demographic used to measure the active labor force, excluding children and early adolescents from the primary employment statistics.