General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is (i) True, (ii) False.

Key Points

• In Windows 11, the Task Manager serves as a powerful system monitor and management tool. Statement

(i) is accurate because the Processes tab displays real-time Network usage for every active application, allowing users to identify bandwidth-heavy processes. Additionally, the App history tab provides a cumulative view of data usage over a specific period, and the Performance tab offers detailed throughput graphs for Ethernet and Wi-Fi. ***Hence, statement

(i) is correct.***

• Statement

(ii) is inaccurate because the Task Manager is not limited to terminating unresponsive software. It includes a Run new task feature (located in the top command bar of the Windows 11 interface) that enables users to execute new programs, CMD commands, or system utilities by typing the executable name. It also manages Services, Startup apps, and User accounts. ***Hence, statement

(ii) is incorrect.***

 Additional Information

• Windows 11 Task Manager Features:
• Keyboard Shortcut: The quickest way to launch the utility is by pressing Ctrl + Shift + Esc on the keyboard.
• Efficiency Mode: A feature specific to modern Windows versions that allows users to limit the resources consumed by background processes to improve power efficiency.
• Performance Monitoring: Tracks the utilization of the Central Processing Unit (CPU), Random Access Memory (RAM), Disk, and Graphics Processing Unit (GPU).
• Startup Apps: Users can manage which third-party applications are permitted to launch during the Windows boot sequence, which can significantly impact boot time.
• Details Tab: Provides advanced information including Process IDs (PIDs), status, and CPU priority levels for all running threads.

The correct answer is India-France Infrastructure Pact.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid an official visit to France from February 10 to 12, 2025, at the invitation of President Emmanuel Macron. The visit primarily focused on technology, innovation, and strategic autonomy.
• During this visit, the two leaders co-chaired the Artificial Intelligence (AI) Action Summit in Paris. This resulted in the signing of the India-France Declaration on Artificial Intelligence, which outlines a framework for safe, ethical, and trustworthy AI development.
• The visit saw the formalization of the India-France Innovation Treaty (often referred to in documents as the Innovation Roadmap or specific treaty-level agreements for the Year of Innovation 2026), aimed at boosting collaboration in deep-tech, healthcare, and green energy.
• A specific India-France Cybersecurity Agreement was also highlighted to strengthen the digital partnership and protect critical information infrastructure, building upon the Cyber Security and Digital Technology Roadmap.
• The India-France Infrastructure Pact was not signed during this specific visit. While there were discussions on Triangular Development Cooperation for infrastructure in the Indo-Pacific and a Declaration of Intent on Railway Development, no comprehensive bilateral Infrastructure Pact was part of the February 2025 outcomes.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Outcomes of the 2025 Visit:
• Nuclear Energy: Both nations signed a Declaration of Intent for cooperation on Advanced Modular Reactors (AMR) and Small Modular Reactors (SMR).
• Consular Expansion: The leaders jointly inaugurated the Consulate General of India in Marseille to enhance people-to-people ties.
• Space Research: A Letter of Intent between ISRO and CNES was discussed concerning microgravity research and human space exploration.
• Environment: A bilateral Declaration of Intent on Environmental Cooperation was signed between the respective ministries to address climate change and biodiversity.
• Economic Ties: The visit reinforced the Horizon 2047 Roadmap, which guides the bilateral relationship toward the centenary of India’s independence and diplomatic ties.

The correct answer is Drip irrigation.

Key Points

• Drip irrigation, frequently referred to as trickle irrigation, is scientifically recognized as the most efficient water-application system, typically achieving efficiency levels of 90% or higher.
• The process involves applying water at very low rates (typically 2 to 20 liters per hour) through a specialized network of plastic pipes, valves, and emitters directly to the soil surface or the root zone of plants.
• By targeting the root zone specifically, it drastically minimizes evapotranspiration and deep percolation losses, which are prevalent in traditional irrigation methods.
• This technique maintains a near-optimal soil moisture level, preventing plants from experiencing water stress and thereby significantly improving crop yield and quality.
• It also facilitates fertigation, where soluble fertilizers are mixed with the water, ensuring precise nutrient delivery and reducing the risk of groundwater contamination from chemical leaching.

 Additional Information

• Flood Irrigation:
• A traditional surface irrigation method where water is pumped or brought to a field and allowed to flow over the ground freely.
• It is highly inefficient (often less than 50%), as a large volume of water is lost to surface runoff and uncontrolled infiltration.
• Sprinkler Irrigation:
• Simulates natural rainfall by distributing water through a system of pumps and pipes, spraying it through nozzles into the air.
• While more efficient than flood methods, it remains vulnerable to wind drift and high evaporation rates, especially in arid climates.
• Canal Irrigation:
• A large-scale system utilizing man-made channels to divert water from rivers or reservoirs to agricultural land.
• It often suffers from high conveyance losses due to seepage and can lead to environmental issues like waterlogging and soil salinity.

The correct answer is Adani Group.

Key Points

• The Adani Group, through its specialized subsidiary Adani Airport Holdings Limited (AAHL), announced an ambitious capital expenditure plan of US$15 billion (approximately Rs 1.25 lakh crore) to be deployed by 2030 for the expansion and modernization of its airport network.
• The primary objective of this massive investment is to triple the group's passenger handling capacity from the current 80 million per annum to over 250 million per annum, positioning India as a global aviation transit hub.
• A substantial portion of this US$15 billion fund is dedicated to the greenfield Navi Mumbai International Airport (NMIA), which is slated to commence operations by 2025 to ease the congestion at the existing Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport.
• The expansion strategy involves upgrading the infrastructure at seven existing airports located in Ahmedabad, Lucknow, Mangaluru, Jaipur, Guwahati, and Thiruvananthapuram, converting them into integrated Airport Cities with extensive commercial and retail zones.
• This announcement reflects the group's long-term commitment to the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) and the government's vision of enhancing regional air connectivity across the Indian subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Adani Airport Holdings Limited (AAHL):
• Established in 2019, it has rapidly become India's largest private airport operator, currently managing a significant 25% of the total passenger traffic and 33% of the air cargo traffic in the country.
• The company focuses on a consumer-centric model where non-aero revenues from duty-free shops, hotels, and lounges play a pivotal role in the business's sustainability.
• Indian Aviation Sector:
• India is projected to become the world's third-largest aviation market. Government initiatives like the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) scheme are driving the demand for expanded airport infrastructure in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
• The entry of private giants like Adani Group and Tata Group (which controls Air India and Vistara) has shifted the industry toward a competitive, privatized landscape.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep Islands.

Key Points

• The Lakshadweep Islands, located in the Arabian Sea off the Malabar Coast of Kerala, are entirely composed of coral deposits.
• These islands are classified as atolls, which are ring-shaped or horse-shoe-shaped coral reefs that partially or completely encircle a central lagoon.
• Geologically, they are situated on the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, a submarine mountain range; the islands were formed by the continuous accumulation of skeletal remains of coral polyps over thousands of years.
• The archipelago consists of approximately 36 islands, though only 10 are inhabited, with Kavaratti serving as the administrative headquarters.
• The total land area of this Union Territory is small, covering only about 32 square kilometers, making it India's smallest Union Territory.

 Additional Information

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
• Located in the Bay of Bengal, these are considered the elevated portions of submerged mountain ranges, specifically an extension of the Arakan Yoma range in Myanmar.
• While they have fringing coral reefs around them, the islands themselves are tectonic and volcanic in origin.
• This group contains Barren Island, which is the only active volcano in South Asia.
• Diu Island:
• A small coastal island located off the southern coast of the Kathiawar Peninsula in Gujarat.
• It is of sedimentary and tectonic origin, separated from the mainland by a narrow creek, and is known for its Miliolite limestone formations.
• Geographical Channels:
• The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman islands from the Nicobar islands.
• The Nine Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
• The Eight Degree Channel separates the entire Lakshadweep group from the Maldives.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Tank irrigation is a traditional method of water harvesting where rainwater is collected in natural or man-made depressions, widely prevalent in the Peninsular Plateau of India.
• Karnataka, situated on the Deccan Plateau, possesses hard crystalline rocks and a non-porous rocky structure that makes the excavation of canals and wells extremely difficult and costly.
• The undulating topography and uneven terrain of the state provide natural depressions that are ideal for constructing embankments to store monsoon runoff.
• Since rainfall in the interior parts of the state is seasonal and often insufficient, these tanks act as essential reservoirs to sustain agriculture during the dry rabi and kharif seasons.
• Historical data indicates that the Southern states, including Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, account for the highest percentage of tank-irrigated area in India due to these specific physiographic conditions.

 Additional Information

• Himachal Pradesh
• Characterized by mountainous terrain where traditional irrigation is done through Kuhls, which are surface channels diverting water from glaciers and streams.
• West Bengal
• The state features flat alluvial plains and perennial rivers, leading to a dominance of canal irrigation and tube well systems rather than tanks.
• Haryana
• Part of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, this state relies heavily on tube wells and an extensive canal network, such as the Western Yamuna Canal, facilitated by soft soil and level land.

The correct answer is Force and displacement are between 90degree and 180degree.

Key Points

• Work done is mathematically defined as the dot product of the force vector and the displacement vector. It is a scalar quantity.
• The formula for work is \( W = F \cdot s \cdot \cos \theta \), where F represents the magnitude of the force, s represents the displacement, and θ is the angle between the force and displacement vectors.
• Work done is negative when the angle θ is an obtuse angle, specifically when 90° < θ ≤ 180°.
• In the second quadrant of trigonometry (90° to 180°), the value of cos θ is negative. Therefore, the resulting product of force, displacement, and the cosine of the angle becomes negative.
• Negative work indicates that the applied force is opposing the motion of the object. A classic example is the force of friction acting on a moving body, where the angle is 180°.

 Additional Information

• Positive Work:
• Occurs when the angle θ is acute (between 0° and 90°).
• The force or a component of the force acts in the same direction as the displacement.
• Example: A horse pulling a cart or a person lifting a weight upwards (work done by the person).
• Zero Work:
• Occurs when the force and displacement are mutually perpendicular (angle is exactly 90°), as cos 90° = 0.
• Example: The centripetal force acting on a satellite orbiting Earth or a person carrying a bucket horizontally at a constant velocity.
• SI Unit:
• The SI unit of work is the Joule (J), which is equivalent to 1 Newton-meter (N·m).

The correct answer is Kashmir Stag.

Key Points

• Project Hangul was launched in 1970 by the Government of Jammu and Kashmir in collaboration with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
• The project targets the conservation of the Kashmir Stag, also known as the Hangul (scientifically termed Cervus elaphus hanglu), which is a subspecies of the European Red Deer.
• The Hangul is the State Animal of Jammu and Kashmir and is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar at an elevation of approximately 3,000 meters.
• The population of this species saw a drastic decline from about 5,000 in the early 20^th century to a few hundred due to habitat fragmentation, poaching, and overgrazing by domestic livestock.
• The species is classified as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

 Additional Information

• Red Panda:
• Project Red Panda was initiated in 1994 at the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park in West Bengal.
• They are native to the Eastern Himalayas and are found in states like Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Himalayan Musk Deer:
• Targeted under Project Musk Deer, launched in 1974 at the Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttarakhand.
• It is highly sought after for its musk pod, which is used in traditional medicines and perfumes.
• Indian Bison (Gaur):
• The largest extant bovine in the world, native to South and Southeast Asia.
• Listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, it is found extensively in the Western Ghats and Central India.

The correct answer is 6 min.

Key Points

• In a significant breakthrough released in early 2025, the Department of Science and Technology (DST) highlighted the development of a high-performance Sodium-ion battery (SIB) by researchers at the Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR).
• The newly developed Sodium-ion battery addresses the critical limitation of slow charging in conventional energy storage systems, demonstrating the ability to be fast-charged to 80% of its capacity in approximately 6 min.
• The research focuses on using a novel anode material that allows for rapid ion transport and high structural stability, which is essential for maintaining performance during high-speed charging cycles.
• This technological advancement is tailored for the Electric Vehicle (EV) sector and large-scale stationary energy storage, aiming to provide a cheaper and faster alternative to existing Lithium-ion technologies.
• By utilizing Sodium, which is globally abundant and cost-effective, this JNCASR innovation supports India's National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage.

 Additional Information

• Sodium-ion Batteries (SIBs):
• These batteries use Sodium ions (Na+) as charge carriers, which are physically larger than Lithium ions, traditionally making fast charging a technical challenge.
• Sodium is the sixth most abundant element in the Earth's crust, making SIBs roughly 30-40% cheaper to produce than Lithium-ion batteries.
• They offer better safety profiles and can be transported at zero volts (0V), reducing the risk of thermal runaway during shipping.
• JNCASR (Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research):
• It is a multidisciplinary research institute located in Bengaluru, established to commemorate the birth centenary of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• It functions as an autonomous institution under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
• The center plays a pivotal role in Materials Science and Energy Research, contributing to the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in the energy sector.

The correct answer is India acquires new territory.

Key Points

• Incorporation of Territory is one of the five distinct ways to acquire Indian citizenship, as defined under Section 7 of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
• It applies specifically when a foreign territory becomes a part of the Indian Union through treaty, purchase, conquest, or any other means of acquisition.
• The Government of India exercises the power to specify, via a notification in the Official Gazette, which persons from the newly acquired territory shall become citizens of India.
• Unlike birth or descent, this form of acquisition is collective and depends on the specific date and criteria determined by the Central Government.
• A notable historical application was the Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962, which granted Indian citizenship to inhabitants of Pondicherry (now Puducherry) after it was integrated into India.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• Articles 5 to 11 in Part II of the Constitution of India address citizenship, primarily defining who was a citizen at the time of the Constitution’s commencement on January 26, 1950.
• Article 11 empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law, which led to the enactment of the comprehensive Citizenship Act, 1955.
• Other Modes of Acquisition:
• Birth (Section 3): Citizenship based on the location and date of birth within Indian borders.
• Descent (Section 4): Citizenship acquired by those born outside India to Indian parents.
• Registration (Section 5): Available to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) or spouses of Indian citizens after a prescribed period of residence.
• Naturalization (Section 6): A process for foreigners who have resided in India for 12 years and meet specific qualifications.
• Single Citizenship: India follows the principle of Single Citizenship, meaning there is no separate state citizenship; moving between states does not change one’s status as an Indian citizen.

The correct answer is The violent attack on policemen during the Chauri Chaura incident.

Key Points

• The Non-Cooperation Movement, which began in 1920, was abruptly called off by Mahatma Gandhi in February 1922 due to the outbreak of violence.
• The specific catalyst was the Chauri Chaura incident, which occurred on February 4, 1922, in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh).
• During a protest march, a clash broke out between the volunteers and the police; the police opened fire on the crowd, which provoked the protesters to attack the local police station.
• The mob set the police station on fire, resulting in the death of 22 policemen who were burned alive inside the building.
• Mahatma Gandhi, a staunch practitioner of Ahimsa (non-violence), felt that the movement was deviating from its peaceful path and becoming a violent struggle.
• He believed that the Indian people were not yet fully prepared for a disciplined, non-violent mass movement and required further training in the principles of Satyagraha.
• On February 12, 1922, the Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli, where Gandhi passed a resolution to suspend the movement nationwide.

 Additional Information

• Non-Cooperation Movement Goals:
• The movement aimed to achieve Swaraj (self-rule) and address grievances related to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Khilafat issue.
• It involved the boycott of British goods, government-run educational institutions, and law courts.
• Impact of the Withdrawal:
• The sudden suspension of the movement led to significant internal debate within the Indian National Congress.
• This internal rift eventually led to the formation of the Swaraj Party in 1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru, who advocated for participating in legislative councils.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918):
• While option 3 mentions textile workers, this refers to an earlier event where Gandhi successfully mediated between workers and owners using his first hunger strike in India.

The correct answer is A foul is committed inside the penalty area.

Key Points

• According to Law 14 of the International Football Association Board (IFAB) Laws of the Game, a penalty kick is awarded if a player commits a direct free kick offense inside their own penalty area.
• The offense must be committed while the ball is in play. If the ball is out of play when the foul occurs, the restart is determined by the previous situation (e.g., goal kick, corner).
• Specific fouls that lead to a penalty include tripping, striking, pushing, charging, or deliberate handball (excluding the goalkeeper within their own area) by a defending player.
• The ball is placed on the penalty mark, which is located 11 meters (12 yards) from the center of the goal line.
• During the kick, all players except the kicker and the defending goalkeeper must be at least 9.15 meters (10 yards) from the penalty mark and outside the penalty area until the ball is kicked.

 Additional Information

• Offside:
• Being in an offside position is not an offense in itself; however, if a player becomes active in play from that position, the referee awards an indirect free kick to the opposing team.
• Goalkeeper handling outside the area:
• The goalkeeper is only permitted to handle the ball within their own penalty box. If they touch the ball with their hands outside this area, a direct free kick is awarded.
• Hat-trick:
• This term refers to a single player scoring three goals in a single match. It is a statistical milestone and does not trigger any specific refereeing award like a penalty.
• VAR (Video Assistant Referee):
• In professional leagues, VAR can intervene to review penalty kick decisions, ensuring that fouls occurring on the line or inside the 18-yard box are correctly identified.

The correct answer is Random Access Memory.

Key Points

• Random Access Memory (RAM) is the primary internal memory of a computer system that allows data items to be read or written in almost the same amount of time irrespective of the physical location of data inside the memory.
• It serves as a temporary storage area or working space for the Operating System, application programs, and data currently in use, enabling the Central Processing Unit (CPU) to access instructions quickly.
• RAM is fundamentally volatile in nature, which means that any information stored within it is lost immediately when the power supply is interrupted or the computer is turned off.
• The performance of a system is heavily dependent on the capacity and speed of the RAM, as higher RAM allows for more efficient multitasking and faster execution of complex software.

 Additional Information

• Dynamic RAM (DRAM)
• This is the most common type of RAM used in modern computers; it utilizes capacitors to store bits of data and requires frequent refreshing to prevent data loss.
• Static RAM (SRAM)
• Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not need to be refreshed and is significantly faster; however, it is more expensive and bulkier, typically used for high-speed CPU Cache memory.
• Read-Only Memory (ROM)
• In contrast to RAM, ROM is non-volatile memory, meaning it retains its data even without power; it is used to store the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or firmware that initializes hardware during the boot-up process.
• SDRAM (Synchronous DRAM)
• A specialized version of DRAM that synchronizes its speed with the system clock, increasing the number of instructions the processor can execute in a given time.

The correct answer is 106^th Amendment.

Key Points

• The 106^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023, also known as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, was enacted to provide one-third (33 percent) reservation for women in legislative bodies.
• This reservation specifically applies to the Lok Sabha, the State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
• A unique feature of this amendment is the transitional requirement: the reservation will become operational only after a delimitation exercise is conducted following the first Census published after the Act's commencement.
• The Act introduces Article 330A and Article 332A into the Constitution and includes a sunset clause, stipulating that the reservation will last for 15 years, unless extended by Parliament.
• It aims to enhance gender parity and women's participation in higher-level political decision-making, fulfilling a demand that had been pending in the Indian Parliament for nearly three decades.

 Additional Information

• 103^rd Amendment:
• Enacted in 2019, it introduced a 10 percent reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in civil posts and services.
• It amended Article 15 and Article 16 of the Constitution.
• 104^th Amendment:
• Passed in 2020, it extended the reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for 10 years.
• It also abolished the provision for nominating Anglo-Indian members to these legislative bodies.
• 105^th Amendment:
• Enacted in 2021, it restored the power of State Governments and Union Territories to identify their own lists of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).

Therefore, the correct option is 4.

The correct answer is Summer season.

Key Points

• The Summer season in India, which lasts from March to May, is characterized by a rapid rise in temperature and a decrease in air pressure over the northern parts of the country.
• The Loo is a striking feature of this season, consisting of strong, gusty, hot, and dry winds that blow during the day over North and Northwestern India.
• These winds are primarily caused by the intense heating of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, creating a localized low-pressure system that attracts dry air from the Thar Desert.
• Temperatures during a Loo event typically range between 45°C and 50°C, often persisting into the evening and causing severe discomfort.
• Direct exposure to these hot winds is extremely dangerous and can lead to fatal conditions such as heatstroke, hyperthermia, and severe dehydration.

 Additional Information

• Pre-monsoon showers:
• Occur towards the end of the summer season, providing relief from the intense heat through localized thunderstorms.
• In Kerala and Karnataka, they are known as Mango Showers as they aid in the early ripening of mangoes; in West Bengal, they are called Kaal Baisakhi.
• Cold weather season:
• Spans from mid-November to February in Northern India, characterized by clear skies, low temperatures, and low humidity.
• This season is influenced by Western Cyclonic Disturbances from the Mediterranean Sea, which bring rainfall beneficial for Rabi crops like wheat.
• Retreating monsoon:
• Occurs during October and November as the monsoon trough shifts southwards, marking the transition from the rainy season to winter.
• The combination of high temperature and high humidity during this period leads to an oppressive weather condition known as October Heat.

Therefore, the correct answer is Summer season.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• In November 2025, the West Bengal State Government officially mandated the comprehensive digitization of all assets under the Board of Auqaf through the UMEED (Unified Management of Estates and Endowments Digitization) portal.
• The move came after a significant period of administrative deadlock and initial implementation refusal, as the state government and various stakeholders debated the integration of state records with centralized monitoring frameworks.
• The UMEED portal serves as a robust digital repository designed to provide geo-tagging and real-time tracking of thousands of properties, including mosques, madrasas, graveyards, and commercial land.
• The primary objective of this mandate is to curb illegal encroachments and unauthorized transfers of Waqf land, ensuring that the revenue generated is used strictly for the socio-economic development of the community.
• By digitizing these records, the Government of West Bengal aims to bring transparency to the Board of Auqaf's operations, which manages one of the largest inventories of such properties in India.

 Additional Information

• Waqf Properties:
• These are properties permanently dedicated for religious, pious, or charitable purposes under Islamic Law.
• In India, these assets are governed by the Waqf Act, 1995, which provides the legal framework for their administration and protection.
• The management is overseen by State Waqf Boards, which have the power to appoint Mutawallis (managers) for individual estates.
• Board of Auqaf, West Bengal:
• It is a statutory body responsible for supervising over 8,000 registered Waqf estates across the state.
• The digitization process involves synchronizing records with the Land and Land Reforms Department to verify Khatian and Dag numbers.
• Waqf Assets Management System of India (WAMSI):
• A centralized project by the Ministry of Minority Affairs to digitize all Waqf records nationwide, which the UMEED portal complements at the state level.

The correct answer is Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).

Key Points

• Ajay Seth, a distinguished 1987-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Karnataka cadre, was appointed as the Chairperson of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved his appointment to lead the insurance regulator following his successful tenure as the Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) within the Ministry of Finance.
• He officially assumed his duties on 1 September 2025, succeeding Debasish Panda, whose three-year term concluded in early 2025.
• As the head of IRDAI, Seth is responsible for overseeing the insurance sector, implementing reforms to increase insurance penetration, and ensuring the financial stability of the re-insurance market in India.
• His previous experience includes managing India's G20 Finance Track and playing a critical role in the formulation of Union Budgets, making him a strategic choice for this regulatory role.

 Additional Information

• IRDAI:
• It is a statutory body formed under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
• The body is headquartered in Hyderabad and serves as the apex regulator for both Life and General Insurance companies in India.
• NITI Aayog:
• The National Institution for Transforming India is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• The Prime Minister acts as the Ex-officio Chairperson, while the Vice-Chairperson and CEO handle daily operations.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The RBI is India's central bank, established on 1 April 1935 under the RBI Act, 1934.
• It is responsible for monetary policy, currency issuance, and the regulation of the banking sector.
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• Established as a statutory body on 12 April 1992, it regulates the securities and commodities market.
• It aims to protect the interests of investors and promote the development of the capital markets.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• Article 1 of the Constitution of India defines the name and territory of the Union, establishing that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
• Under Article 1(3), the territory of India is classified into three distinct categories: the territories of the States, the Union Territories, and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
• The first category includes 28 States (as of 2025) which are members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Central Government.
• The second category comprises the Union Territories specified in the First Schedule (currently 8 UTs), which are governed directly by the President through an administrator appointed by him.
• The third category refers to acquired territories, which allows India to incorporate new lands through international legal methods such as cession, occupation, or conquest, even though no such territory is currently held separately from the existing states/UTs.

 Additional Information

• Territory of India vs. Union of India:
• The expression Territory of India is wider than the Union of India because the Union includes only the States, whereas the Territory encompasses States, Union Territories, and any acquired areas.
• While States are federal units, Union Territories and acquired territories are unitary units administered directly by the Union Government.
• First Schedule:
• The First Schedule contains the names of the States and Union Territories along with their territorial extent and boundaries.
• Any modification to the First Schedule or the Fourth Schedule resulting from the creation or reorganization of states under Article 2 or Article 3 is not considered a formal amendment under Article 368.
• Sovereignty and Acquisition:
• Being a sovereign state, India has the inherent right to acquire foreign territories. Historical examples of such acquisitions include Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Goa, Daman and Diu, Puducherry, and Sikkim, which were later integrated into the standard state/UT categories.

The correct answer is To stabilise the economy by liberalising interest rates and enhancing financial sector efficiency.

Key Points

• Following the Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis in 1991, India initiated structural reforms to shift from a centrally planned economy to a market-led economy.
• A primary objective of the monetary policy reforms was the deregulation of interest rates, allowing banks to determine rates based on market demand and supply rather than rigid Reserve Bank of India (RBI) directives.
• The Narasimham Committee (1991) on the Financial System recommended reducing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to increase the availability of lendable funds for the private sector, thereby enhancing financial sector efficiency.
• Fiscal policy reforms focused on macroeconomic stabilization by reducing the fiscal deficit, which had reached 8.4% of the GDP in 1990-91, through better expenditure management and tax restructuring.
• These reforms aimed to create a competitive banking environment by allowing the entry of new private sector banks and increasing the operational autonomy of public sector banks.

 Additional Information

• New Economic Policy (NEP) 1991:
• Liberalization: Involved removing industrial licensing, dismantling price controls, and allowing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to integrate with the global economy.
• Fiscal Reforms: Based on the Raja Chelliah Committee recommendations, these reforms simplified the tax structure and lowered corporate tax and personal income tax rates to improve compliance.
• Monetary Shift: The RBI transitioned from direct controls to indirect instruments like the Repo Rate and Open Market Operations (OMO) to manage liquidity.
• External Sector: The Indian Rupee was devalued in July 1991 and later moved toward a unified exchange rate system to boost exports and attract foreign capital.

The correct answer is Application software.

Key Points

• Application software refers to a category of computer programs designed to help end-users perform specific sets of tasks, functions, or activities that go beyond the basic operation of the computer itself.
• A Web Browser, such as Google Chrome, is a prime example of application software because it serves the specific purpose of retrieving, presenting, and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web.
• Chrome interprets HTML (HyperText Markup Language), CSS, and JavaScript to render web pages, which is a high-level task that requires an Operating System to be already functioning.
• Unlike system software, Chrome does not manage CPU scheduling or memory allocation directly; instead, it requests these resources from the OS to execute its user-oriented processes.
• This software category also includes other well-known tools like Microsoft Word, VLC Media Player, and Adobe Photoshop, all of which are installed to fulfill specific user needs.

 Additional Information

• System software:
• This includes programs like the Operating System (OS) (e.g., Windows, Linux, macOS), BIOS, and device drivers.
• Its primary role is to manage the hardware components and provide a platform for application software to run.
• Hardware:
• These are the physical, tangible components of a computer system.
• Key examples include the Central Processing Unit (CPU), Random Access Memory (RAM), Motherboard, and Hard Drives.
• Device troubleshooter:
• This is a specific type of utility software or built-in OS tool designed to diagnose and repair hardware configuration or software connectivity issues.