General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

• Pepsin is a powerful enzyme found in Gastric Juice that initiates the digestion of proteins by breaking them down into smaller units called Peptones and Proteoses.
• It is secreted by the Chief Cells (peptic cells) of the stomach lining in an inactive proenzyme form known as Pepsinogen.
• The activation of Pepsinogen into Pepsin requires an acidic medium, which is provided by Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) secreted by the Oxyntic Cells (parietal cells).
• The stomach maintains a highly acidic pH level (approximately 1.8), which is the optimum environment for Pepsin to function efficiently as an Endopeptidase.
• By hydrolyzing internal peptide bonds, Pepsin transforms long-chain complex Proteins into shorter polypeptide chains, facilitating further digestion in the Small Intestine.

 Additional Information

• Carbohydrates:
• Digestion begins in the Buccal Cavity through the action of Salivary Amylase (Ptyalin).
• Final breakdown into simple sugars like Glucose occurs in the small intestine via Pancreatic Amylase and Disaccharidases.
• Fats:
• Requires Emulsification by Bile Salts produced in the Liver and stored in the Gallbladder.
• The enzyme Lipase, primarily from the Pancreas, breaks down fats into Fatty Acids and Glycerol.
• Vitamins:
• These are Micronutrients essential for metabolic functions but do not require enzymatic breakdown for energy.
• They are absorbed directly in the Small Intestine, specifically in the Ileum for Vitamin B₁₂.

The correct answer is Lichchhavi.

Key Points

• Chandragupta I (reigned c. 319–335 CE) was the son of Ghatotkacha and the first powerful ruler of the Gupta dynasty to adopt the imperial title of Maharajadhiraja (King of Kings).
• He significantly elevated his political status and the influence of the Gupta Empire by marrying Princess Kumaradevi of the Lichchhavi tribe, an ancient and prestigious Kshatriya clan.
• The Lichchhavis were a dominant power in Vaishali (modern-day Bihar), and this matrimonial alliance provided the Guptas with substantial territorial and political leverage over the Magadha region.
• To commemorate this union, Chandragupta I issued a special series of gold coins known as the King-and-Queen type (or Chandragupta-Kumaradevi type), featuring the names and portraits of both the King and the Queen.
• The prestige associated with the Lichchhavi lineage was so high that their son, Samudragupta, proudly referred to himself as Lichchhavi-dauhitra (grandson of the Lichchhavis) in his famous Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prashasti).

 Additional Information

• Avanti:
• An ancient Indian Mahajanapada located in the Malwa region with its capital at Ujjain. It was later annexed into the Gupta Empire during the reign of Chandragupta II.
• Panchala:
• A historical region in the Ganges-Yamuna Doab of Northern India, known for being one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas mentioned in ancient Buddhist and Jain texts.
• Gandhara:
• A region situated in present-day Afghanistan and Pakistan, famous for its unique Gandhara School of Art and the ancient learning center at Takshashila.

The correct answer is Ultrasound.

Key Points

• The human auditory system is sensitive to a specific range of vibrations known as the audible range, which typically spans from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
• Sound waves with frequencies that surpass the upper limit of 20,000 Hz (or 20 kHz) are scientifically classified as ultrasound or ultrasonic waves.
• While these waves are physically identical to audible sound in terms of propagation, they are inaudible to the human ear because the tympanic membrane cannot vibrate at such high speeds.
• Many animals, including bats, dolphins, and porpoises, have the biological capability to produce and hear ultrasound, utilizing it for echolocation to hunt and navigate.
• The Hertz (Hz) is the standard SI unit of frequency, representing the number of cycles per second; thus, ultrasound involves over 20,000 vibrations every second.

 Additional Information

• Infrasound:
• Refers to sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz, which is the lower limit of human hearing.
• Sources include seismic waves from earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and ocean tides.
• Large mammals like elephants and rhinoceroses communicate using infrasonic signals over vast distances.
• Supersonic:
• This term describes the velocity of an object rather than its frequency. An object is supersonic if it travels faster than the speed of sound (approximately 343 m/s in air).
• When an aircraft reaches supersonic speeds, it produces a sonic boom due to the accumulation of shock waves.
• Tones:
• A tone is a sound that consists of a single, pure frequency. Most musical sounds are actually "notes," which combine a fundamental frequency with several harmonics.
• Practical Applications of Ultrasound:
• Medical Imaging: Utilized in sonography to visualize fetuses and internal organs without ionizing radiation.
• SONAR: Used by submarines and ships to detect underwater obstacles and measure the depth of the sea.
• Industrial Cleaning: High-frequency vibrations are used to remove contaminants from delicate electronic components and surgical instruments.

The correct answer is Flight acceptance hot testing of the CE20.

Key Points

• On March 14, 2025, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully conducted the flight acceptance hot testing of the CE20 cryogenic engine, marking a pivotal advancement in India's propulsion capabilities.
• This specific engine is identified for the LVM3-M6 mission, which is the sixth operational mission of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3).
• The test was carried out at the ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu, which is the primary facility for testing liquid propulsion systems.
• A major achievement of this session was firing the engine for a duration of 100 seconds under non-vacuum (sea-level) conditions, significantly exceeding previous limitations.
• The test utilized an innovative Nozzle Protection System (NPS), which allowed for longer firing durations without the risk of flow separation or thermal damage that typically occurs when testing high-area-ratio nozzles at sea level.
• Before this development, flight acceptance tests were typically conducted at the High-Altitude Test (HAT) facility with a maximum duration of 25 seconds due to the complexity of maintaining vacuum conditions.

 Additional Information

• CE20 Cryogenic Engine:
• It is India's first indigenous cryogenic engine to use a Gas Generator cycle, providing high thrust to the Cryogenic Upper Stage (C25) of the LVM3.
• It operates using Liquid Oxygen (LOX) as the oxidizer and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as the fuel, delivering the high specific impulse necessary for heavy-lift missions.
• The CE20 has been successfully human-rated for the upcoming Gaganyaan mission, demonstrating its high reliability and safety standards.
• Other Milestones in March 2025:
• On March 28, 2025, ISRO reached another milestone by conducting the first successful hot test of the Semi-cryogenic Engine Power Head Test Article (PHTA).
• The semi-cryogenic engine is designed to use Refined Kerosene (ISROSENE) and Liquid Oxygen, aiming to boost the payload capacity of the LVM3 from 4 tonnes to 6 tonnes for GTO missions.

Concept:

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has introduced a specific legal framework to address the long-standing issue of toxic and hazardous substance contamination in soil and water. These rules provide a systematic, time-bound procedure for handling sites that pose a risk to human health and the environment due to historical industrial activities or waste dumping.

Key Points:

• Notification: The rules were notified on July 24, 2025, under the powers conferred by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• Process Stages: The framework involves Identification (listing suspected sites), Determination (conducting preliminary and detailed assessments to confirm contamination levels), and Remediation (executing cleanup plans).
• Accountability: They incorporate the 'Polluter Pays' principle, holding the responsible party liable for the costs of restoration.
• Thresholds: Sites are declared 'contaminated' if hazardous substance concentrations exceed the response levels specified in the rules.

Important Provisions:

• The State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) and Pollution Control Committees (PCCs) are responsible for the technical assessment and declaration of these sites.
• A centralized online portal is used to maintain an inventory of suspected, probable, and confirmed contaminated sites.
• Exclusions include sites affected strictly by radioactive waste, mining operations, or marine oil spills, which are governed by other specific acts unless contaminants exceed the response levels defined in these new rules.

Final Answer: The rules that define the process of identification, determination, and remediation of contaminated sites are the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025.

The correct answer is Widow Remarriage Association.

Key Points

• Mahadev Govind Ranade, often hailed as the Socrates of Maharashtra, was a distinguished Indian scholar, social reformer, and a judge of the Bombay High Court.
• He founded the Widow Remarriage Association in 1861 (also known as Punarvivahottejak Mandali) to promote the welfare of widows and encourage their remarriage, following the Hindu Widows Remarriage Act of 1856.
• Ranade was a primary leader of the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay, which focused on social reforms such as the education of women and the abolition of the caste system and child marriage.
• He established the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha in 1870, an organization aimed at representing the interests of the peasantry and acting as a mediator between the people and the British Government.
• He was a founding member of the Indian National Congress (1885) and initiated the Indian National Social Conference in 1887, which addressed social issues on a national platform.
• Known as the Father of Indian Economics, he advocated for state intervention to foster industrialization and economic growth in India.

 Additional Information

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828 in Calcutta.
• It was the first major reform movement in Hinduism, advocating for monotheism and the abolition of Sati.
• Arya Samaj:
• Established by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875 in Bombay.
• It promoted the infallible authority of the Vedas and introduced the Shuddhi movement to bring back converts to the Hindu fold.
• Indian National Congress:
• Founded in December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay.
• The organization was founded by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British civil servant, with Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee serving as its first President.

The correct answer is To attract foreign investment.

Key Points

• The 1991 Economic Reforms were launched to tackle a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, where foreign exchange reserves had dropped to levels barely sufficient for two weeks of imports.
• Tax incentives, such as tax holidays and reduced corporate tax rates, were designed to lower the cost of entry for Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) and Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs).
• The primary objective was to encourage the inflow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to supplement domestic capital, which was insufficient to fund industrial growth and infrastructure development.
• These incentives were intended to facilitate the transfer of advanced technology and modern managerial practices from developed nations to the Indian industrial sector.
• By attracting foreign capital, the government aimed to modernize the manufacturing sector and make Indian products more competitive in the global market.

 Additional Information

• Liberalization:
• Involved the dismantling of the License-Permit Raj, allowing private players to enter sectors previously reserved for the government.
• Reduced the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) and cash reserve ratio (CRR) to increase the lending capacity of banks.
• Globalization:
• Aimed at integrating the Indian economy with the World Economy by reducing import tariffs and export duties.
• Encouraged the convertibility of the rupee on the current account to facilitate smoother international trade.
• Privatization:
• Focused on the disinvestment of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to improve efficiency through private ownership and management.
• Shifted the government's role from a producer to a regulator and facilitator of economic activity.

The correct answer is Article 43.

Key Points

• Article 43 of the Indian Constitution mandates that the State shall endeavor to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organization, a living wage and conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life for all workers.
• This article covers all categories of workers, including those in the agricultural and industrial sectors, ensuring they have full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities.
• The concept of a living wage is more comprehensive than a minimum wage, as it aims to provide for the basic requirements of a family, including food, clothing, housing, and education for children.
• Furthermore, Article 43 specifically mentions the promotion of cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas, reflecting the Gandhian Principles within the Directive Principles of State Policy.

 Additional Information

• Article 41:
• Directs the State to ensure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.
• Article 42:
• Requires the State to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
• Article 47:
• Focuses on the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health.
• It also includes the endeavor to bring about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs.

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

• In February 2025, India and France strengthened their long-standing bilateral ties by signing a joint declaration to establish a partnership focused on Advanced and Small Modular Nuclear Reactors (SMRs).
• The agreement was formalized between India's Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the French Commissariat à l’énergie atomique et aux énergies alternatives (CEA).
• The partnership aims to facilitate technical cooperation, joint research, and development of low-carbon nuclear technologies to support industrial decarbonization and energy security.
• This initiative is a critical component of the Horizon 2047 roadmap, which outlines the strategic cooperation between the two nations for the next 25 years.
• The focus on Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) highlights a shift towards more flexible, cost-effective, and safer nuclear power solutions compared to traditional large-scale reactors.

 Additional Information

• Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
• These are advanced nuclear reactors with a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
• They are characterized by their modular design, allowing for factory fabrication and easier transportation to remote sites.
• SMRs offer enhanced safety features, such as passive cooling systems that do not require human intervention or external power.
• India-France Nuclear History:
• France was the first country to sign a Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement with India in 2008 after the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) waiver.
• The two countries are already collaborating on the Jaitapur Nuclear Power Project in Maharashtra, which aims to install six Evolutionary Power Reactors (EPRs) with a total capacity of 9.6 GW.
• The Strategic Partnership between India and France was established in 1998, covering defense, space, and nuclear energy.

The correct answer is Panchayats and Municipalities.

Key Points

• The State Election Commission (SEC) is a constitutional body created under the 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 to ensure the autonomous conduct of local government elections.
• According to Article 243K of the Constitution of India, the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats (Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, and Zilla Parishads) are vested in the State Election Commission.
• Similarly, Article 243ZA mandates that the SEC is responsible for conducting and supervising elections to Municipalities, including Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils, and Nagar Panchayats.
• The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the state, and their conditions of service and tenure are determined by state laws, providing them with a status equivalent to a High Court Judge regarding removal procedures.

 Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• Established under Article 324, the ECI is an independent constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes at the national and state levels.
• The ECI conducts elections for the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and State Legislative Councils.
• It is also the sole authority for conducting the elections of the President and Vice-President of India.
• Jurisdiction Differences:
• While the ECI manages parliamentary and legislative elections, it has no role in Panchayati Raj Institutions or Urban Local Bodies.
• The State Election Commission functions independently of the Election Commission of India for the specific purpose of Local Self-Government.

The correct answer is Sulphur dioxide.

Key Points

• Acid rain refers to any form of precipitation, including rain, snow, or fog, that contains elevated levels of nitric and sulphuric acids.
• The primary chemical responsible for this phenomenon is Sulphur dioxide (SO₂), which is released into the atmosphere through the combustion of fossil fuels (like coal and oil) in power plants and industrial boilers.
• Once in the atmosphere, SO₂ reacts with water vapor, oxygen, and other chemicals to form Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), which eventually falls to the ground as acid rain.
• While normal rainwater is slightly acidic with a pH value of about 5.6 (due to dissolved Carbon dioxide), acid rain typically has a pH value between 4.2 and 4.4.
• The environmental impact of acid rain includes the acidification of aquatic environments, damage to forest vegetation, and the chemical weathering of stone buildings and cultural monuments like the Taj Mahal.

 Additional Information

• Carbon monoxide (CO):
• A colorless, odorless, and highly toxic gas produced by the incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels.
• It does not directly contribute to acid rain but poses significant health risks by reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
• Ozone (O₃):
• Found in the troposphere, it acts as a secondary pollutant and a major component of photochemical smog.
• While it helps catalyze some atmospheric oxidation processes, it is not a direct precursor to acid rain formation.
• Ammonia (NH₃):
• An alkaline gas primarily emitted from agricultural activities, livestock management, and fertilizer use.
• In the atmosphere, it can act as a buffering agent to neutralize acidic compounds, though its deposition can still lead to soil and water issues.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Tholpavakoothu is a traditional ritualistic shadow puppetry art form that originated and is primarily practiced in the state of Kerala, specifically in the districts of Palakkad, Thrissur, and Malappuram.
• The name is a compound of three Malayalam words: Thol meaning leather, Pava meaning puppet, and Koothu meaning play or performance.
• It is traditionally performed in specially constructed permanent theaters called Koothumadams located within the premises of Bhadrakali temples, as an offering to the goddess.
• The performance is based on the Kamba Ramayana, the Tamil version of the epic written by the poet Kambar, spanning across 21 parts over 21 nights.
• The puppets are crafted from deer skin, meticulously perforated to create intricate patterns that project shadows onto a white cloth screen when illuminated by coconut-shell oil lamps (Chirathu).

 Additional Information

• Puppetry Traditions in Other States:
• Andhra Pradesh: Known for Tholu Bommalata, where puppets are large, multicolored, and translucent, creating vibrant shadows.
• Odisha: Known for Ravana Chhaya, which uses puppets made from a single piece of leather without jointed limbs, resulting in opaque, non-colored shadows.
• West Bengal: Famous for various string and rod puppetry forms like Putul Nautch and Danger Putul Nach, often performed during local fairs.
• Karnataka: Practices Togalu Gombeyaata, a shadow puppet form similar to those in Andhra Pradesh but with distinct regional stylistic variations.
• Tamil Nadu: Has a similar form called Tholpavai Koothu, which shares historical roots with the Kerala tradition but has evolved differently in its musical and linguistic execution.

The correct answer is Ecosystem.

Key Points

• An ecosystem is considered the structural and functional unit of nature because it encompasses the complex interactions between living organisms and their physical environment.
• The term was coined by A.G. Tansley in 1935 to describe a self-regulating and self-sustaining system.
• The structural features of an ecosystem consist of biotic components (producers, consumers, and decomposers) and abiotic components (temperature, light, water, and soil).
• The functional aspects of an ecosystem include energy flow, nutrient cycling, productivity, and decomposition, which ensure the continuity of life within a specific geographical area.
• Ecosystems can vary significantly in scale, ranging from a small pond or a single tree to vast biomes like tropical rainforests or the entire biosphere.

 Additional Information

• Environment:
• It refers to the sum total of all external conditions (physical, chemical, and biological) that surround and influence an organism.
• While it provides the setting for life, it lacks the specific internal functional cycles that define an ecosystem.
• Cell:
• The cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of life or living organisms, not of nature as a whole.
• All living things are composed of cells, and the study of these units is known as Cytology.
• Ecology:
• Ecology is the scientific study of the relationships and interactions between organisms and their environment.
• The concept was popularized by Ernst Haeckel in 1866, who defined it as the study of the economy of nature.

The correct answer is ET - Tundra climate.

Key Points

• The Tundra climate (ET) is a polar climate characterized by extremely cold temperatures where the warmest month has an average temperature between 0°C and 10°C.
• The defining soil characteristic of this region is permafrost, which refers to ground, including rock or soil, that remains at or below 0°C for at least two consecutive years.
• Due to the presence of permafrost and a very short growing season, deep-rooted trees cannot survive; instead, the landscape is dominated by low-lying vegetation such as mosses, lichens, and small sedges.
• In the Koppen climate classification, the ET designation is primarily found in the high latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere, covering the Arctic coastal fringes of North America, Eurasia, and the Antarctic Peninsula.
• The moisture levels in these regions are low, making it a polar desert, but the low evaporation rates allow the soil to remain moist or waterlogged during the brief summer thaw.

 Additional Information

• Cfb - Marine West Coast Climate:
• Characterized by mild winters and cool summers with high humidity and year-round precipitation.
• Supports dense temperate forests, including both deciduous and coniferous trees, primarily in Western Europe and the Pacific Northwest.
• Aw - Tropical Wet and Dry Climate:
• Also known as the Savanna climate, it features a distinct dry season during the winter months.
• The vegetation consists of tall grasses and scattered, drought-resistant trees like the Acacia or Baobab.
• BSh - Subtropical Steppe Climate:
• A semi-arid climate that serves as a transition zone between desert (BW) and more humid climates.
• It experiences high temperatures and erratic rainfall, supporting short-grass prairies and xerophytic shrubs.

The correct answer is Chandrapur and Bhandara.

Key Points

• Iron ore deposits in Maharashtra are geographically concentrated in two primary zones: the Eastern Vidarbha region and the South Konkan region.
• The Eastern Vidarbha belt includes districts such as Chandrapur, Gadchiroli, Gondia, and Bhandara, where minerals are found in ancient Metamorphic rock formations.
• In Chandrapur, high-grade Hematite iron ore is extracted from prominent localities such as Lohara, Asola, Dewalgaon, and Pipalgaon.
• Bhandara district contributes to the state mineral wealth with significant deposits located in areas like Khursipar and Pauni, often found in association with other metallic minerals.
• The iron ore in these regions is valued for its high iron content, typically ranging between 55% and 65%, making it suitable for industrial steel production.

 Additional Information

• Sindhudurg District:
• Located in the Konkan region, it is a major producer of iron ore, particularly in the Redi area, which facilitates easy export through its coastal proximity.
• Deccan Trap Basalt:
• Regions like Aurangabad, Jalna, Pune, and Thane are largely covered by Basaltic lava flows, which are generally devoid of significant metallic mineral deposits like iron ore.
• Industrial Importance:
• The availability of Iron Ore along with Coal in the Vidarbha region has led to the establishment of several Sponge Iron plants and Steel industries in Chandrapur.
• Manganese and Coal:
• The Nagpur-Bhandara belt is also internationally recognized for the production of Manganese, while the Wardha Valley is the primary source of Coal in the state.

The correct answer is BIRSA 101.

Key Points

• BIRSA 101 is India’s first indigenous CRISPR-Cas9 based gene therapy specifically designed to provide a curative treatment for Sickle Cell Disease (SCD).
• Launched in November 2025, the therapy represents a major breakthrough in India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in the field of advanced biotechnology and genomic medicine.
• The therapy was developed through a collaborative research effort led by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), aimed at making expensive gene treatments affordable for the Indian population.
• The treatment mechanism involves harvesting the patient’s own hematopoietic stem cells, using CRISPR technology to edit the HBB gene or induce fetal hemoglobin (HbF), and then re-infusing them to produce healthy red blood cells.
• The naming of BIRSA 101 pays tribute to the tribal leader Birsa Munda, reflecting the therapy's primary target demographic, as Sickle Cell Disease disproportionately affects Scheduled Tribes across the tribal belt of India.

 Additional Information

• Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
• It is an inherited genetic blood disorder where red blood cells become rigid and sickle-shaped, leading to anemia, organ damage, and vaso-occlusive crises.
• India has the second-highest global burden of SCD, with a high prevalence in states like Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Chhattisgarh.
• CRISPR Technology:
• Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR) serves as a molecular scissor to edit DNA with high precision.
• It utilizes a guide RNA to identify the target genetic sequence and the Cas9 enzyme to execute the cut, allowing for the correction of genetic mutations.
• National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission:
• Announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 and launched in July 2023, the mission aims to eliminate the disease as a public health threat by 2047.
• The mission focuses on universal screening of approximately 7 crore people in the age group of 0−40 years in 17 high-burden states.

The correct answer is Combining emissions, energy use and expert-reviewed climate policy data.

Key Points

• The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025 is an independent monitoring tool that evaluates the climate protection performance of 63 countries and the European Union, which together account for more than 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
• The assessment framework is divided into four distinct categories with specific weightings: Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%).
• The GHG Emissions indicator tracks current emission levels, recent trends, and the alignment of national 2030 targets with the Paris Agreement goal of limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
• The Climate Policy component is unique because it incorporates qualitative data through expert-reviewed assessments provided by approximately 450 climate and energy experts from non-governmental organizations and think tanks.
• The index uses a standardized methodology to provide a comparable score for each country, determining whether their progress is Very High, High, Medium, Low, or Very Low.

 Additional Information

• Publication and Authorship:
• The index is published annually by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and the Climate Action Network (CAN) International.
• The CCPI 2025 report was officially released during the COP29 summit held in Baku, Azerbaijan.
• Methodological Limitations of Other Approaches:
• Renewable Energy statistics only: This metric alone is insufficient as it does not account for the total carbon footprint or energy efficiency.
• Forest Cover and National Targets: While important for carbon sequestration, forest data is not a primary pillar of the CCPI, which prioritizes energy-related emissions and systemic decarbonization.
• Opinion Polls: Public sentiment is not a factor in the CCPI; it relies strictly on hard data from the International Energy Agency (IEA) and professional policy critiques.

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

• In December 2025, the Lucknow Police Commissionerate introduced dedicated Closed User Group (CUG) mobile numbers for Mission Shakti Centre in-charges across all police stations in the city.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to eliminate communication barriers, allowing women to bypass the main station landlines and directly reach the officer-in-charge of women-centric help desks.
• This move ensures that women can report incidents, seek help, or track their complaints with greater privacy and accountability, as these numbers are permanently assigned to the Mission Shakti desk.
• The initiative is part of the broader Mission Shakti Phase 5.0, a flagship program of the Uttar Pradesh Government designed to enhance women's safety, dignity, and self-reliance through localized police intervention.
• By providing these dedicated numbers, the Lucknow Police aim to ensure 24/7 accessibility and improve the response time of the Mission Shakti teams during emergencies.

 Additional Information

• Mission Shakti:
• Launched by the Government of Uttar Pradesh under the leadership of CM Yogi Adityanath, it focuses on the three pillars of Suraksha (Safety), Samman (Dignity), and Swavalamban (Self-reliance).
• It involves various stakeholders including the Department of Home, Women and Child Development, and the Education Department to create a safe environment for women and girls.
• Lucknow Police Commissionerate:
• Lucknow transitioned to a Commissionerate System in January 2020 to streamline law and order and provide more magisterial powers to senior police officers.
• Other women-safety initiatives in the city include Pink Booths, dedicated Pink Patrol scooters, and the 1090 Women Power Line.
• CUG (Closed User Group):
• These are mobile connections provided to government officials where the SIM card and number are linked to a specific designation rather than an individual, ensuring continuity of service during transfers.

The correct answer is Hindustan Republican Association in United Provinces.

Key Points

• The Kakori Train Robbery, also known as the Kakori Conspiracy, took place on August 9, 1925, at Kakori, a village near Lucknow in the then United Provinces.
• The operation was orchestrated by the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), a revolutionary organization founded in October 1924 at Kanpur by Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.
• Revolutionaries including Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad, and Sachindra Bakshi intercepted the 8-Down train traveling from Shahjahanpur to Lucknow.
• The primary objective of the robbery was to seize British government treasury funds to purchase weaponry and finance revolutionary propaganda aimed at achieving independence through armed struggle.
• The incident led to the Kakori Conspiracy Case, resulting in the execution of Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Roshan Singh, and Lahiri in December 1927.

 Additional Information

• HSRA (Hindustan Socialist Republican Association):
• Established in September 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi.
• It was a transformation of the HRA led by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev, adopting Socialist ideals.
• Ghadr Party:
• Founded in 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna.
• It aimed to ignite a pan-Indian revolution among Indian expatriates and soldiers to end British rule.
• Anushilan Samiti:
• A secret revolutionary society active in Bengal and Bihar during the early 20^th century.
• Prominent leaders included Pramathanath Mitra, Aurobindo Ghosh, and Barindra Kumar Ghosh, focusing on militant nationalism.

The correct answer is 74^th Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 1992 and effective from June 1, 1993, provided constitutional recognition to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
• It inserted Part IX-A into the Constitution of India, encompassing Articles 243-P to 243-ZG, which details the structure and powers of municipalities.
• The Act introduced the 12^th Schedule, which lists 18 functional items placed under the purview of municipalities, such as urban planning, public health, and fire services.
• It mandated the creation of three types of municipalities based on population: Nagar Panchayats for transitional areas, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas, and Municipal Corporations for larger urban areas.
• The legislation ensures democratic continuity by requiring elections every five years and provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and at least one-third of seats for women.

 Additional Information

• 73^rd Amendment Act:
• Enacted in 1992, it granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for rural governance.
• It added Part IX and the 11^th Schedule, which contains 29 functional items.
• 86^th Amendment Act:
• Passed in 2002, it made education a Fundamental Right under Article 21A for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• It also updated the Directive Principles (Article 45) and added a new Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(k)).
• 42^nd Amendment Act:
• Known as the Mini-Constitution, it was enacted in 1976 during the National Emergency.
• It added the terms Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble and introduced Fundamental Duties via Part IVA.