General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• In India, particularly in states like West Bengal, Assam, and Odisha, the prevailing climatic conditions allow for the cultivation of three distinct crops of rice within a single agricultural year.
• The three varieties are identified based on their seasonal cycles and are locally named Aus, Aman, and Boro.
• Aman is the primary winter rice crop. It is typically sown during the onset of the Southwest Monsoon in June and July and harvested between November and December. It occupies the largest portion of the total rice area in the state.
• Aus is referred to as autumn rice. It is sown during the pre-monsoon period in May and June and harvested in the autumn months of September and October.
• Boro is known as summer rice. This variety is sown in the winter (November to January) and harvested in the summer (April to May). Its cultivation is heavily reliant on assured irrigation facilities during the dry season.
• The fertile alluvial soil and the hot, humid climate of the lower Gangetic plains in West Bengal provide the ideal environment for this intensive cropping pattern.

 Additional Information

• Rice (Oryza sativa):
• It is the staple food crop for a significant majority of India’s population and is primarily a Kharif crop.
• Growth requires high temperatures (above 25°C), high humidity, and annual rainfall exceeding 100 cm.
• West Bengal is consistently among the top producers of rice in India, contributing significantly to the national food security.
• Geographical Context of Other Options:
• In Manipur and Nagaland, rice is often grown using Jhum (shifting) cultivation or terrace farming in hilly terrains, where a single crop is more common due to topographical constraints.
• While Bihar is a major rice producer, the specific nomenclature and systematic triple-cropping of Aus, Aman, and Boro are most traditionally associated with the Bengal delta region.

The correct answer is Indian Statistical Institute (ISI).

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has introduced a draft bill to amend the Indian Statistical Institute Act, 1959, aiming to modernize the governance and administrative framework of the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI).
• The Indian Statistical Institute was established by the legendary statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis on December 17, 1931, and was later declared an Institution of National Importance by an Act of Parliament in 1959.
• As the institute approaches its centenary year in 2031, the government seeks to restructure its organizational hierarchy to enhance efficiency and accountability in its academic and research pursuits.
• A significant proposal in the draft bill includes the redesignation of the head of the institute from Director to Director General, bringing it in line with the leadership structure of other elite scientific and research organizations in India.
• The proposed legislation also focuses on reforming the ISI Council, which is the apex governing body, to improve the decision-making process and integrate modern management practices within the premier statistical body.

 Additional Information

• National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) and Central Statistics Office (CSO):
• The NSSO was previously responsible for conducting large-scale nationwide sample surveys on various socio-economic aspects.
• The CSO was the nodal agency for coordinating statistical activities and preparing National Accounts, including Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimates.
• In May 2019, the Government of India merged the NSSO and the CSO to form a unified National Statistical Office (NSO) under the MoSPI.
• Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• This ministry consists of two wings: the Statistics Wing (NSO) and the Programme Implementation Wing.
• It is responsible for the release of key economic indicators such as the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
• The ministry also monitors the progress of Central Sector Projects costing 150 crore rupees and above.

The correct answer is Puducherry.

Key Points

• The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 was enacted by the Parliament to provide for Legislative Assemblies and Councils of Ministers for certain Union Territories (UTs).
• This Act was a direct consequence of the 14^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, which introduced Article 239A to the Indian Constitution, allowing Parliament to create a local legislature for UTs.
• Puducherry (then Pondicherry) was officially granted its own legislature through this Act in 1963, shortly after its de jure transfer from French administration to India.
• The Legislative Assembly of Puducherry consists of 30 members chosen by direct election and up to 3 members nominated by the Central Government.
• Initially, the Act also provided legislatures for Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, and Goa, Daman and Diu, though most of these territories eventually achieved full statehood.

 Additional Information

• Delhi:
• While it has a legislature, it was not established by the 1963 Act. It was granted a Legislative Assembly through the 69^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991 and Article 239AA.
• The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 provides the legal framework for its governance.
• Chandigarh:
• Created as a Union Territory in 1966 via the Punjab Reorganisation Act to serve as a shared capital.
• It is governed by an Administrator and does not have its own legislature or Council of Ministers.
• Andaman & Nicobar Islands:
• Established as a Union Territory in 1956, it is administered directly by the President through a Lieutenant Governor.
• It remains a UT without a Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is Vijayanagara Empire.

Key Points

• Hampi, situated on the southern bank of the Tungabhadra River in the state of Karnataka, served as the magnificent capital of the Vijayanagara Empire from 1336 to 1565 AD.
• The empire was founded by two brothers, Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, belonging to the Sangama Dynasty, who established a stronghold against the expansion of the northern Sultanates.
• The city reached its cultural and territorial peak during the reign of Krishnadevaraya (1509–1529 AD), who is considered the most powerful ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty.
• Hampi was renowned globally for its architectural brilliance, featuring massive fortifications, complex Dravidian-style temples, and innovative urban planning including aqueducts and markets.
• The prosperity of the city came to a violent end in 1565 following the Battle of Talikota, where a coalition of Deccan Sultanates (Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmednagar, and Bidar) defeated and subsequently plundered the capital.
• In recognition of its historical and architectural significance, UNESCO designated the group of monuments at Hampi as a World Heritage Site in 1986.

 Additional Information

• Gupta Empire:
• Often referred to as the Golden Age of India (4^th to 6^th century CE), its primary capital was located at Pataliputra (modern-day Patna).
• Known for advancements in Sanskrit literature, astronomy, and the decimal system.
• Mughal Empire:
• An empire of Central Asian origin established by Babur in 1526.
• The empire’s prominent capitals included Agra, Fatehpur Sikri, and Shahjahanabad (Old Delhi).
• Maurya Empire:
• Founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 322 BCE, it was the first pan-Indian empire.
• Its administrative center and capital was Pataliputra, and it is most famous for the reign of Ashoka the Great.
• Virupaksha Temple:
• One of the oldest structures in Hampi, dedicated to Lord Shiva, which remained an active place of worship even after the city was abandoned.

The correct answer is System software.

Key Points

• System software is a comprehensive category of computer programs designed to operate and control the computer hardware directly while providing a platform for application software to run.
• It serves as the fundamental intermediary layer between the physical circuitry of the machine and the end-user, ensuring that hardware resources like the Central Processing Unit (CPU), Random Access Memory (RAM), and storage units are managed efficiently.
• The primary role of system software is to handle low-level tasks such as memory management, process scheduling, and file system organization, which are essential for the overall stability and performance of the computer.
• By providing standardized Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) and system calls, it allows developers to create software that can interact with complex hardware without needing to know the specific technical details of the underlying components.
• This software type typically initiates during the booting process and remains active in the background throughout the entire computing session to monitor system health and resource allocation.

 Additional Information

• Application Software:
• These are end-user programs developed to perform specific, non-computing tasks such as word processing, spreadsheet management, or web browsing.
• Unlike system software, these programs interact mostly with the Operating System rather than the hardware directly.
• Utility Software:
• A subset of system software focused on the optimization, configuration, and maintenance of the computer system.
• Common examples include antivirus software, disk defragmenters, and backup utilities that help keep the system running securely and smoothly.
• Driver Software:
• Also known as device drivers, these are specialized components of system software that act as translators between the Operating System and external peripherals.
• They allow the OS to recognize and utilize hardware like graphics cards, printers, and scanners by providing specific instruction sets.

The correct answer is Process Management.

Key Points

• Process Management is the fundamental function of an Operating System (OS) responsible for managing the execution of multiple tasks, ensuring that the Central Processing Unit (CPU) is utilized efficiently.
• The specific task of allocating CPU time is known as CPU Scheduling. The OS uses a Short-term Scheduler to select which process in the 'Ready' state will be executed next by the processor.
• The concept of sharing CPU cycles among various users or programs emerged with the development of Multiprogramming and Time-Sharing Systems in the 1960s, specifically with systems like Multics and IBM OS/360.
• To manage this, the OS maintains a Process Control Block (PCB) for each process, which contains essential data like the Process State, Program Counter, and CPU Registers.
• When switching from one process to another, the OS performs a Context Switch, saving the current state of the running process and loading the saved state of the next process to be executed.
• Modern operating systems like Linux utilize advanced algorithms such as the Completely Fair Scheduler (CFS) to ensure that every process gets a fair share of processor time, minimizing latency and starvation.

 Additional Information

• Memory Management:
• This function involves managing the Primary Memory (RAM). It keeps track of which parts of memory are currently in use and by whom.
• It performs Memory Allocation and Deallocation, ensuring processes do not interfere with each other's address spaces through techniques like Paging and Segmentation.
• Device Management:
• The OS manages Input/Output (I/O) devices such as printers, disks, and monitors using Device Drivers.
• It acts as an intermediary between the hardware and the software, managing I/O Queues and Interrupts.
• File Management:
• This involves the management of Secondary Storage. It handles File Creation, Deletion, and Directory Structures.
• It implements Access Control lists to protect data and maintains the File Allocation Table (FAT) or New Technology File System (NTFS) structures.

The correct answer is Railways.

Key Points

• Railways serve as the principal mode of transportation for freight in India, particularly for heavy and bulky goods over long distances, due to their immense load-bearing capacity and cost-efficiency.
• The Indian Railways network is one of the largest in the world, spanning over 68,000 kilometers, which allows for the seamless movement of materials between mineral-rich zones and industrial hubs.
• Bulk commodities like coal, iron ore, cement, food grains, and fertilizers constitute the majority of the freight traffic, as rail transport can carry massive volumes in a single trip compared to other modes.
• From a technical perspective, a single freight train can carry a load equivalent to approximately 70 to 100 trucks, making it far more energy-efficient and reducing the logistics cost per tonne-kilometer for the national economy.
• The development of Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFC), such as the Eastern and Western DFCs, has been specifically designed to increase the speed and efficiency of heavy goods movement across the country.

 Additional Information

• Waterways:
• While scientifically the cheapest mode of transport, Inland Waterways in India are limited by the navigability of rivers and seasonal water levels, currently carrying a much smaller share of bulk freight compared to rail.
• Roadways:
• Best suited for short to medium distances and providing door-to-door service, but they become economically unviable for extremely heavy bulk goods over long stretches due to high fuel consumption.
• Airways:
• The most expensive mode, utilized primarily for perishable goods, high-value electronics, or emergency supplies, and is unsuitable for heavy industrial raw materials.

The correct answer is 44^th Amendment.

Key Points

• The Right to Property was originally established as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f), which guaranteed citizens the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, and Article 31, which provided protection against the compulsory acquisition of property.
• The 44^th Amendment Act, 1978, enacted by the Janata Party Government led by Morarji Desai, deleted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from the list of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• The amendment inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution, which states that 'no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law', thereby restoring it as a Legal Right or Constitutional Right.
• As a result of this change, a citizen cannot directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 for the enforcement of the right to property, although they can still seek remedies through the High Courts under Article 226.
• This shift allowed the state to implement land reforms and acquire private property for public purposes more effectively, provided such actions are backed by valid legislation.

 Additional Information

• 42^nd Amendment Act (1976):
• Commonly referred to as the Mini-Constitution, it introduced significant changes including the addition of Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble.
• It also established Fundamental Duties for citizens under Part IV-A (Article 51A).
• 48^th Amendment Act (1984):
• This amendment was specifically concerned with the extension of President's Rule in the state of Punjab beyond the normal one-year period due to internal disturbances.
• 46^th Amendment Act (1982):
• Addressed legal complexities regarding the Sales Tax on the transfer of property in goods involved in the execution of works contracts and the delivery of goods on hire-purchase.

The correct answer is Introduction of the Enfield rifle with cartridges feared to contain animal fat.

Key Points

• The immediate cause of the 1857 Uprising was the introduction of the Enfield P-53 Rifle, which required a new type of greased cartridge.
• To load the rifle, sepoys had to bite off the ends of these cartridges, which were rumored to be lubricated with tallow (cow fat) and lard (pig fat).
• This caused massive outrage as the cow is sacred to Hindus, while the pig is considered unclean in Islam; hence, both communities felt their religious sentiments were being intentionally violated by the British East India Company.
• The first major sign of resistance occurred in Barrackpore on March 29, 1857, when Mangal Pandey of the 34^th Native Infantry attacked his officers, leading to his execution on April 8, 1857.
• The full-scale mutiny eventually erupted on May 10, 1857, at the military station in Meerut, from where the soldiers marched to Delhi to proclaim Bahadur Shah Zafar as their leader.

 Additional Information

• While the greased cartridges were the trigger, other underlying causes contributed to the revolt:
• General Service Enlistment Act of 1856: This act mandated that all recruits of the Bengal Army must be willing to serve overseas, which many Upper-caste Hindus believed would lead to a loss of caste (crossing the Kala Pani).
• Doctrine of Lapse: Introduced by Lord Dalhousie, this policy allowed the British to annex princely states like Jhansi, Satara, and Nagpur if the ruler died without a natural male heir.
• Religious Reforms: The abolition of Sati (1829), the Widow Remarriage Act (1856), and the activities of Christian Missionaries were viewed as direct interference in Indian social and religious customs.
• Economic Exploitation: Heavy land revenue demands and the destruction of local handicrafts led to widespread rural distress.

The correct answer is Prakrit.

Key Points

• Ashokan Inscriptions: The majority of the edicts issued by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka (reigned c. 268−232 BCE) were composed in Prakrit. These inscriptions were strategically placed across the Indian subcontinent to propagate his philosophy of Dhamma in the vernacular language of the common people.
• Hathigumpha Inscription: King Kharavela of the Chedi Dynasty (Mahameghavahana) of Kalinga inscribed his achievements in the Hathigumpha Inscription at Udayagiri, Odisha. This 17-line record is written in Prakrit using the Brahmi script.
• Language vs. Script: It is essential to note that while the language was Prakrit, the scripts varied. Most inscriptions used Brahmi, but in the northwestern regions, Kharoshthi, Greek, and Aramaic were also employed to reach local populations.
• Administrative Use: During the 3^rd and 2^nd centuries BCE, Prakrit served as the primary language for royal proclamations and administrative records, preceding the dominance of Classical Sanskrit in later centuries.

 Additional Information

• Pali
• Commonly associated with the Theravada Buddhist canon and the Tipitaka.
• While linguistically related to Prakrit, it was not the formal language used in the Ashokan or Kharavela inscriptions.
• Sanskrit
• The use of Sanskrit in royal inscriptions became prominent later, notably with the Junagadh Rock Inscription of Rudradaman I around 150 CE.
• It eventually became the court language during the Gupta Empire.
• Evolution of Writing
• The Brahmi script used in these Prakrit inscriptions is the ancestor of most modern Indian scripts, including Devanagari, Bengali, and Tamil.

The correct answer is Printed Circuit Board.

Key Points

• A Printed Circuit Board (PCB) is a rigid structure that physically supports and electrically connects electronic components using conductive pathways, tracks, or signal traces etched from copper sheets.
• In the context of a Computer System, the most significant PCB is the Motherboard (also known as the mainboard or system board), which serves as the backbone for connecting the Central Processing Unit (CPU), Random Access Memory (RAM), and all other internal hardware.
• PCBs are typically manufactured using a non-conductive substrate material, most frequently FR-4, which is a flame-retardant fiberglass-reinforced epoxy laminate.
• The primary function of a PCB is to ensure a stable electrical connection between components like transistors, capacitors, and microprocessors, while providing a compact and reliable layout for complex circuitry.
• The production of PCBs involves a process called photolithography or chemical etching to remove unwanted copper, leaving only the required circuit traces that define the electronic architecture of the device.

 Additional Information

• Structural Layers of a PCB:
• Solder Mask: The outermost layer (typically green) that protects the copper traces from oxidation and prevents solder bridges during component assembly.
• Silkscreen: A layer of ink traces used to print labels, component identifiers (reference designators), and logos for easier maintenance and repair.
• Process Control Block:
• In the domain of Operating Systems (software), the acronym PCB can also refer to a Process Control Block, which is a data structure used by the Kernel to store information about a specific active process.
• Evolution of Circuitry:
• Before PCBs, circuits were built using point-to-point wiring, which was highly susceptible to short circuits and mechanical failure as complexity increased. The transition to PCBs allowed for the miniaturization of modern laptops, smartphones, and high-performance servers.

The correct answer is Non-volatile and larger in storage capacity.

Key Points

• Secondary memory, frequently referred to as auxiliary memory or external storage, is designed to store data and programs permanently. Unlike primary memory, it is not directly accessible by the Central Processing Unit (CPU); instead, data must be loaded into the Random Access Memory (RAM) via Input/Output channels before execution.
• A fundamental attribute of secondary memory is that it is non-volatile. This ensures that all stored information, including the Operating System (OS), software applications, and personal files, remains intact even after the computer is powered down or in the event of a power failure.
• Secondary memory devices offer a vastly larger storage capacity compared to main memory. While RAM typically ranges from 4 GB to 64 GB in modern personal computers, secondary storage solutions such as Hard Disk Drives (HDD) and Solid State Drives (SSD) commonly provide capacities ranging from 256 GB to several terabytes (TB).
• In the memory hierarchy, secondary storage is positioned below primary memory because it is significantly slower in terms of data access speed but much more cost-effective per gigabyte of storage, allowing for the mass retention of data.

 Additional Information

• Primary Memory (RAM):
• It is volatile, meaning it loses all data once the power supply is disconnected.
• It facilitates high-speed data transfer as it is directly connected to the CPU via the memory bus.
• Common Secondary Storage Devices:
• Magnetic Storage: Includes Hard Disk Drives (HDD) and Magnetic Tapes, which use magnetic fields to read and write data.
• Optical Storage: Includes CD-ROMs, DVDs, and Blu-ray Discs, which utilize laser technology for data retrieval.
• Flash Memory: Includes Solid State Drives (SSD), USB Flash Drives, and SD Cards, which are faster and more durable than traditional mechanical disks due to the absence of moving parts.
• Direct Memory Access (DMA): This is a feature that allows certain hardware subsystems to access main system memory independently of the CPU, but it does not apply to the CPU directly executing instructions from secondary storage.

The correct answer is Al₂(SO₄)₃.

Key Points

• The chemical formula of Aluminium Sulphate is determined using the valency or oxidation state of the constituent ions to ensure the resulting compound is electrically neutral.
• Aluminium (Al) is a group 13 element and typically forms a cation with a charge of +3 (Al³⁺), meaning it loses three electrons to achieve a stable octet.
• The Sulphate ion (SO₄) is a polyatomic anion consisting of one sulphur atom and four oxygen atoms, carrying a collective charge of -2 (SO₄²⁻).
• Applying the criss-cross method, the numerical value of the charge of the Aluminium ion (3) becomes the subscript for the Sulphate ion, and the numerical value of the charge of the Sulphate ion (2) becomes the subscript for the Aluminium ion.
• To balance the total charge: 2 × (+3) + 3 × (−2) = 0. Therefore, two aluminium atoms combine with three sulphate groups to form Al₂(SO₄)₃.

 Additional Information

• Properties and Characteristics:
• Molar Mass: The anhydrous form of Aluminium Sulphate has a molar mass of approximately 342.15 g/mol.
• Physical Appearance: It usually appears as a white crystalline solid or powder and is highly hygroscopic, meaning it readily absorbs moisture from the air.
• Solubility: It is highly soluble in water but virtually insoluble in ethanol. When dissolved in water, it undergoes hydrolysis to form an acidic solution.
• Industrial Uses:
• Water Purification: It acts as a coagulant, causing impurities to clump together (flocculation) so they can be easily filtered out.
• Paper Industry: Used as a sizing agent to adjust the paper's absorbency and improve its printability.
• Textile Dyeing: Functions as a mordant, helping dyes adhere to fabric fibers like cotton.

The correct answer is Bilateral Investment Treaty - BIT.

Key Points

• The Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) between India and Uzbekistan was signed on September 24, 2024, in Tashkent. This agreement represents a significant step in deepening economic cooperation and providing a secure legal framework for investors from both nations.
• The treaty was signed by the Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs of India, Nirmala Sitharaman, and the Deputy Prime Minister of Uzbekistan, Jamshid Khodjaev, during the Minister’s visit to attend the 9^th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) held in Samarkand.
• The BIT is designed to protect investments against non-commercial risks, ensuring fair and equitable treatment and protection from expropriation without adequate compensation. It replaces the previous Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) between the two countries.
• After both governments completed the necessary domestic ratification procedures, the treaty officially came into force in May 2025, establishing a predictable investment climate and facilitating greater capital flows into sectors like pharmaceuticals, information technology, and infrastructure.

 Additional Information

• Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT):
• This treaty is based on the 2015 Model BIT of India, which includes an Investor-State Dispute Settlement (ISDS) mechanism, requiring investors to exhaust local remedies for a specified period before moving to international arbitration.
• It aligns with India’s Connect Central Asia Policy, aimed at strengthening ties with resource-rich Central Asian Republics.
• Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):
• A CEPA is a comprehensive free trade agreement that covers trade in goods, services, and investment. India has signed such agreements with the UAE and Mauritius, but the agreement with Uzbekistan in 2024 was specifically a BIT.
• Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA):
• A DTAA is a tax treaty between two countries to avoid the same income being taxed twice. India and Uzbekistan already have a DTAA in place, which was originally signed in 1993 and subsequently updated.

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

• The Planning Commission of India was established on 15 March 1950 through an executive resolution of the Government of India.
• It was created based on the recommendations of the Advisory Planning Board, which was constituted in 1946 under the chairmanship of K.C. Neogy.
• The organization functioned as an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning its existence was not defined by the Constitution of India nor created by an Act of Parliament.
• The Prime Minister of India served as the Ex-officio Chairman of the commission; Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was its first chairman, while Gulzarilal Nanda served as the first Deputy Chairman.
• Its primary mandate was to formulate Five-Year Plans to promote the balanced and effective utilization of the country's resources for economic development.

 Additional Information

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):
• Established on 1 January 2015, it replaced the Planning Commission to better serve the needs of a modern India.
• It serves as the premier policy Think Tank of the Union Government, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• Unlike the Planning Commission which followed a top-down approach, NITI Aayog emphasizes a bottom-up approach and the spirit of Cooperative Federalism.
• National Development Council (NDC):
• Formed on 6 August 1952, the NDC was the apex body responsible for the final approval of the Five-Year Plans prepared by the Planning Commission.
• The First Five-Year Plan:
• Launched in 1951 (covering the period 1951−1956), it was based on the Harrod-Domar model and focused primarily on the development of the agricultural sector.

The correct answer is 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 1976 during the Internal Emergency under the Indira Gandhi administration, is the most extensive amendment in the history of the Indian Constitution.
• This amendment is famously known as the Mini-Constitution because it introduced massive changes to the constitutional structure, including the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and Directive Principles.
• For the first and only time since the adoption of the Constitution, the Preamble was amended to include three new terms: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
• The insertion of the word Socialist was intended to emphasize the egalitarian goals of the Indian state, specifically Democratic Socialism, which aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease, and inequality of opportunity.
• The addition of Socialist formally aligned the Preamble with the Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly Article 39, which seeks the equitable distribution of material resources.
• Unlike the communistic socialism of the Soviet model, Indian Socialism is a Gandhian-Marxist blend that favors a mixed economy where the private and public sectors co-exist.

 Additional Information

• 38^th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975):
• Empowered the President to declare a state of Emergency that would be non-justiciable in a court of law.
• Ensured that Ordinances promulgated by the President or Governors could not be challenged in court.
• 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978):
• Enacted by the Janata Government to undo several controversial changes brought by the 42^nd Amendment.
• It removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a Legal Right under Article 300A.
• 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002):
• Inserted Article 21A, making Free and Compulsory Education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents and guardians.

The correct answer is Aw - Deciduous forests and tree-shredded grasslands.

Key Points

• BWh represents the Subtropical Hot Desert climate. The letter B stands for arid climates, W for desert (Wüste), and h for hot. This climate is characterized by high temperatures and extremely low precipitation, supporting xerophytic vegetation like cacti and thorny bushes rather than a dense evergreen canopy. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• ET stands for the Tundra climate within the Polar (E) group. In this climate, the average temperature of the warmest month is between 0°C and 10°C. The vegetation consists of mosses, lichens, and stunted shrubs, while tropical rainforests are associated with the Af climate. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Aw denotes the Tropical Savanna climate. It is defined by a distinct dry season (usually in winter) and a wet season. The vegetation comprises deciduous forests that shed leaves during the dry period and grasslands interspersed with trees (often referred to as savanna). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Cfa refers to the Humid Subtropical climate, characterized by hot, humid summers and mild winters with rainfall occurring throughout the year. Cold deserts (BWk) and permafrost (EF/ET) are found in much colder or more arid latitudinal zones. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Koeppen Climate Classification System: Developed by Wladimir Koeppen in 1884, it categorizes climates based on monthly and annual averages of temperature and precipitation.
• Group A (Tropical Humid): Tropical climates where the average temperature of every month is 18°C or higher.
• Af: Tropical Wet (Rainforest).
• Am: Tropical Monsoon.
• Aw: Tropical Wet and Dry (Savanna).
• Group B (Dry Climates): Regions where potential evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation.
• BSh: Semi-arid Steppe.
• BWk: Mid-latitude Cold Desert.
• Group C (Warm Temperate): Mid-latitude climates with mild winters; the coldest month average is between −3°C and 18°C.

The correct answer is Sushil Kumar.

Key Points

• Sushil Kumar is a former Indian freestyle wrestler who holds the distinction of being the first athlete from independent India to win two individual Olympic medals.
• He secured his first Olympic Bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics in the 66 kg freestyle category, ending a 56-year drought for India in Olympic wrestling since Kashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav won bronze in 1952.
• He achieved his second Olympic medal, a Silver, at the 2012 London Olympics, where he served as the flag bearer for the Indian contingent during the opening ceremony.
• In 2010, at the FILA World Wrestling Championships held in Moscow, he created history by becoming the first Indian wrestler to win a World Championship Gold medal.
• He was honored with India s highest sporting award, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (formerly Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna), in 2009 for his exceptional contributions to the sport.

 Additional Information

• Geeta Phogat:
• She is the first Indian female wrestler to win a Gold medal in wrestling at the Commonwealth Games (Delhi 2010).
• She was also the first Indian woman wrestler to qualify for the Olympic Games (London 2012).
• Col. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore:
• An acclaimed shooter who won India s first individual Silver medal at the Olympics post-independence during the 2004 Athens Games in the Double Trap event.
• He later transitioned into politics and served as the Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Bajrang Punia:
• A highly decorated freestyle wrestler who won the Bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in the 65 kg category.
• He holds the record for being the only Indian wrestler to win four medals at the World Wrestling Championships (one silver and three bronze).

The correct answer is ₹2,000 crore.

Key Points

• The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was established by the Government of India during the financial year 1995-96.
• The primary motive behind creating this fund was to provide low-cost credit to State Governments and State-owned corporations to help them complete ongoing rural infrastructure projects that were stalled due to a lack of resources.
• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the designated authority responsible for the administration and operational management of the RIDF.
• When the fund was launched under the RIDF I tranche in 1995-96, it began with an initial corpus of ₹2,000 crore.

 Additional Information

• Funding Mechanism:
• The corpus of the RIDF is generated from the shortfall in lending to the Priority Sector (specifically agriculture) by Scheduled Commercial Banks.
• Banks that do not meet their Priority Sector Lending (PSL) targets are required to contribute to the fund as per the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Scope and Coverage:
• Initially, the fund focused primarily on irrigation projects.
• Currently, it covers 39 eligible activities classified into three main categories: Agriculture and Related Sectors, Social Sector, and Rural Connectivity (roads and bridges).
• The Agriculture Sector accounts for a significant portion of the total sanctions, aiming to boost rural productivity and employment.
• Evolution of the Corpus:
• Since its inception with ₹2,000 crore, the annual allocation for the RIDF is announced in the Union Budget every year.
• The allocation has increased multi-fold over the years; for instance, the allocation for RIDF XXVII (2021-22) reached ₹40,000 crore to support rural growth.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• The Zabti system, also known as the Dahshala system, was the most organized land revenue mechanism introduced during the reign of Emperor Akbar around 1580-1582.
• The system was developed and implemented by Akbar's Finance Minister, Raja Todar Mal, who was a brilliant administrator previously associated with Sher Shah Suri.
• Under this method, the revenue was fixed based on the average yield of land and the prevailing prices over the preceding ten years.
• It required a systematic measurement of land using a standardized unit called the Ilahi Gaz and a measuring tool made of bamboo called the Tanab.
• Revenue was collected strictly in cash, which helped the Mughal state maintain a stable treasury and facilitated the expansion of the imperial military and administrative machinery.
• The system was prevalent in the core provinces of the Mughal Empire, including Agra, Delhi, Lahore, Allahabad, and Malwa, where the administration could maintain detailed records.

 Additional Information

• Land Classification: To ensure fair taxation, land was divided into four categories based on the frequency of cultivation:
• Polaj: Fertile land that was cultivated every year and never left fallow.
• Parauti: Land left fallow for a year or two to recover its natural fertility.
• Chachar: Land that remained uncultivated for three to four years.
• Banjar: Inferior land that remained out of cultivation for five years or more.
• Babar and Humayun: As the early Mughal rulers, they were primarily focused on territorial consolidation and military defense; hence, they did not establish a long-term administrative revenue framework like the Zabti.
• Aurangzeb: During his later reign, the agrarian system faced severe stress due to high revenue demands and the Jagirdari crisis, where the available land (Paibaqi) was insufficient to meet the grants required for the growing number of Mansabdars.