General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Anglo-Indians.

Key Points

• The 104^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 was enacted to amend Article 334 of the Constitution of India, which regulates the period of reservation for certain communities in the legislatures.
• The amendment extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for another 10 years, until January 25, 2030.
• Significantly, the Act did not extend the provision for the nomination of members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
• Under Article 331, the President of India previously had the power to nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if they were not adequately represented.
• Similarly, under Article 333, the Governor of a State could nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assembly.
• As this provision was not renewed by the 104^th Amendment, the special representation for Anglo-Indians effectively ceased on January 25, 2020.

 Additional Information

• Anglo-Indian Definition:
• According to Article 366(2), an Anglo-Indian is a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India.
• The Union Government justified the removal of their nomination by stating that the community has integrated well and their population does not necessitate reserved seats.
• Legislative Context:
• The amendment was introduced as the 126^th Constitutional Amendment Bill in December 2019 and received the President's assent in January 2020.
• The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes continue to enjoy seat reservations based on their population proportion to ensure political inclusivity in the world's largest democracy.

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

• Odissi is one of the eight pre-eminent Classical Dance forms of India, originating in the coastal state of Odisha.
• It traces its roots to the Maharis, who were female temple dancers dedicated to the service of Lord Jagannath in the Puri Temple.
• The dance is deeply spiritual and often draws its lyrical content from the Geeta Govinda, written by the poet Jayadeva, which depicts the Madhura Bhakti or the divine love between Radha and Lord Krishna.
• The technique of Odissi is built upon two fundamental postures: Tribhanga (the three-bend position of the body) and Chauka (a square-like stance that symbolizes Lord Jagannath).
• Archaeological evidence of this dance form dates back to the 2^nd century BCE, as seen in the bas-reliefs of the Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves near Bhubaneswar.

 Additional Information

• Karam
• It is a Tribal Folk Dance performed during the Karam Festival in states like Odisha, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh.
• The dance is a tribute to Karam Devta, the God of Power, Youth, and Youthfulness, seeking blessings for a good harvest.
• Dalkhai
• This is the most popular Folk Dance of the Western Odisha region, particularly Sambalpur.
• It is traditionally performed by young women during festivals like Dussehra and Bhaijiuntia, accompanied by instruments like the Dhol, Mahuri, and Tamki.
• Ghumura Dance
• A traditional folk dance from the Kalahandi district of Odisha, it was historically classified as a War Dance.
• It is named after the Ghumura, a unique skin-covered clay pitcher used as a percussion instrument.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• Population density is defined as the number of individuals living per unit of geographical area, usually calculated as persons per square kilometer.
• Among the given options, India exhibits one of the highest population densities in the world, with recent estimates placing it at approximately 464 to 480 persons per square kilometer.
• The high density in India is primarily driven by its massive population of over 1.4 billion people residing on a land area of about 3.28 million square kilometers.
• Countries like Russia, Canada, and Australia, despite having massive landmasses, have relatively small populations, resulting in extremely low population density figures compared to South Asian nations.

 Additional Information

• Russia:
• It is the largest country in the world by area, but its population density is only about 8.4 people per sq km.
• Large regions like Siberia remain sparsely populated due to extreme climatic conditions.
• Canada:
• The second-largest country globally has a density of approximately 4 people per sq km.
• Most of the population is concentrated in a narrow band near the United States border.
• Australia:
• With a density of roughly 3.3 people per sq km, it is one of the least densely populated sovereign states.
• The arid interior (Outback) is largely uninhabitable, forcing urbanization along the fertile coastal fringes.
• India’s Regional Variation:
• Within India, states like Bihar and West Bengal have densities exceeding 1,000 persons per sq km, while the Indo-Gangetic Plain remains one of the most crowded regions on Earth due to fertile soil and water availability.

The correct answer is Exfoliation.

Key Points

• Exfoliation is a form of mechanical weathering that is particularly dominant in arid and semi-arid regions where the diurnal range of temperature (the difference between maximum day and minimum night temperatures) is extremely high.
• During the day, intense solar radiation causes the outer layers of the rock to heat up and expand. Because rocks are poor conductors of heat, this thermal expansion does not penetrate deep into the interior, creating internal differential stress.
• At night, as temperatures plummet, these surface layers contract rapidly. The repeated cycle of thermal expansion and contraction over thousands of years weakens the structural integrity of the rock's surface.
• Eventually, the outer shells or 'skins' of the rock break away in thin, concentric sheets. This process is frequently referred to as onion-skin weathering due to the way the rock peels in layers.
• This phenomenon is common in granitic rocks and often results in the formation of large, rounded landforms known as exfoliation domes, such as those found in the Sierra Nevada mountains or the Enchanted Rock in Texas.

 Additional Information

• Carbonation
• It is a chemical weathering process where carbon dioxide from the atmosphere reacts with rainwater to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).
• This weak acid reacts with calcium carbonate in rocks like limestone and marble, converting them into soluble calcium bicarbonate, which is then washed away.
• Oxidation
• This occurs when oxygen in the atmosphere or water reacts with certain minerals, particularly those containing iron.
• The process transforms ferrous iron into ferric iron (rusting), which weakens the rock structure and gives it a characteristic reddish-brown or yellowish hue.
• Solution
• This is the simplest form of chemical weathering where certain minerals are directly dissolved in water.
• It is highly effective on rock salt (halite) and gypsum, where the mineral ions are separated and carried away in a liquid state, leaving voids in the rock.

The correct answer is Mark I.

Key Points

• The Harvard Mark I, also known as the Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator (ASCC), was the first large-scale electro-mechanical computer. It was conceived by Howard Aiken and designed and built by IBM in 1944 at Harvard University.
• Unlike modern electronic computers that use transistors or early electronic ones that used vacuum tubes, the Mark I relied on mechanical components like switches, relays, rotating shafts, and clutches to perform calculations.
• It was a massive machine, measuring approximately 51 feet in length and 8 feet in height, weighing nearly 5 tons. It utilized punched paper tape for inputting instructions and punched cards for data.
• The machine was capable of performing the four basic arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division) and could handle complex trigonometric and logarithmic functions.
• While it was significant for its automation and scale, its speed was limited by its mechanical parts; for instance, it took about 0.3 seconds for addition and 6 seconds for multiplication.

 Additional Information

• ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer):
• Completed in 1945 by John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert, it was the first general-purpose electronic digital computer.
• It was significantly faster than the Mark I because it used over 18,000 vacuum tubes instead of mechanical relays.
• UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer I):
• Released in 1951, it was the first commercial electronic computer produced in the United States.
• It was famous for predicting the outcome of the 1952 Presidential Election.
• EDVAC (Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer):
• An early electronic computer that implemented the stored-program concept proposed by John von Neumann.
• It used binary system arithmetic rather than the decimal system used by ENIAC.

The correct answer is Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Krishna River is the second-largest east-flowing peninsular river in India, originating in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar in the Satara district of Maharashtra.
• The river flows for a total length of approximately 1400 kilometers and eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal on the east coast at Hamsaladeevi.
• The Krishna Basin extends over an area of nearly 258,948 square kilometers, representing about 8% of India's total geographical area.
• The drainage basin is shared among the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh. Historically and in most geographical contexts, Andhra Pradesh includes the region of the present-day Telangana state.
• Statistically, the basin area is distributed with approximately 26.8% in Maharashtra, 43.8% in Karnataka, and the remaining 29.4% in the combined territory of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

 Additional Information

• Major Tributaries:
• The Tungabhadra is the largest tributary of the Krishna, formed by the junction of the Tunga and Bhadra rivers.
• Other significant tributaries include the Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Bhima, Musi, and Munneru.
• Other River Basins:
• Narmada and Tapi: These rivers primarily flow through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat, but they are west-flowing rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea.
• Mahanadi: This river basin mainly covers the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, distinct from the Krishna system.
• Godavari: Often called the Vriddha Ganga, its basin is the largest in peninsular India and borders the Krishna basin to the north.

The correct answer is Kannauj.

Key Points

• The Maukhari Dynasty rose to power in the mid-6^th century AD following the decline of the Gupta Empire. While the Guptas ruled from Pataliputra, the Maukharis established their political base at Kannauj (ancient Kanyakubja), marking a significant shift in the geopolitical center of North India.
• The decline of Pataliputra was accelerated by the Huna invasions and the shifting course of the Ganges, which impacted its trade and strategic dominance. Kannauj emerged as the new focal point because of its elevated, defensible position in the Ganga-Yamuna Doab.
• Under rulers like Ishanavarman and Grahavarman, the Maukhari dynasty transformed Kannauj into a city of immense wealth and political prestige, often referred to as Mahodaya.
• By the time of Harshavardhana (7^th century AD), Kannauj had completely eclipsed Pataliputra, becoming the imperial capital of North India. This transition set the stage for the Tripartite Struggle in the subsequent centuries.

 Additional Information

• Thanesar
• Located in modern-day Haryana, it was the original capital of the Pushyabhuti Dynasty.
• Harshavardhana was the ruler of Thanesar before he united his kingdom with the Maukhari kingdom and moved his capital to Kannauj.
• Allahabad (Prayag)
• Historically known as Prayagraj, it was a vital religious and administrative site during the Gupta period, famous for the Prayag Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription) of Samudragupta.
• Patna (Pataliputra)
• Served as the capital for the Mauryas and the Guptas for centuries but lost its status as the 'imperial city' to Kannauj after the 6^th century.
• Tripartite Struggle
• This was a long-term conflict between the Gurjara-Pratiharas, Palas, and Rashtrakutas specifically to gain control over Kannauj, illustrating its supreme status in early medieval India.

The correct answer is To reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy.

Key Points

• The Energy Conservation Act (EC Act) was enacted by the Government of India in 2001 and came into force on March 1, 2002, to provide a legal framework for efficient energy use.
• The central objective of the Act is to reduce the energy intensity of the Indian economy, which measures the amount of energy consumed per unit of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• It established the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) as a statutory body under the Ministry of Power to implement and manage energy conservation policies and programs.
• The Act empowers the government to identify Designated Consumers (heavy industries) and mandate energy audits and the appointment of certified Energy Managers.

 Additional Information

• Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE):
• Responsible for the Standards and Labeling (S&L) scheme, which provides Star Ratings for appliances like ACs and refrigerators to guide consumers on energy efficiency.
• Introduced the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) to set minimum energy standards for new commercial buildings.
• Launched the Perform, Achieve, and Trade (PAT) scheme, a market-based mechanism to enhance energy efficiency in energy-intensive industries through tradable Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts).
• Key Amendments:
• The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022 expanded the scope to include Renewable Energy mandates for industries and introduced a Carbon Credit Trading Scheme to help India meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.
• Impact on Emissions:
• While the primary goal is intensity reduction, the Act inherently helps in lowering CO2 emissions and mitigating climate change by reducing the overall demand for power generated from fossil fuels.

The correct answer is Mahalanobis heavy-industry model.

Key Points

• The Second Five-Year Plan, which spanned from 1956 to 1961, was based on the economic framework developed by the renowned Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis.
• The Mahalanobis model shifted the focus of Indian planning from agriculture to rapid industrialization, specifically prioritizing the development of heavy and basic industries.
• The core philosophy of this model was that investment in capital goods (such as steel, chemicals, and machine-building) would provide the necessary infrastructure for long-term economic growth and self-reliance.
• Under this plan, the Public Sector was assigned a leading role in the economy to drive industrial expansion and achieve a Socialistic Pattern of Society, as envisioned during the Avadi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1955.
• Five major Steel Plants were established during this period with foreign assistance, including those at Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela.

 Additional Information

• Harrod-Domar Model:
• This model served as the foundation for the First Five-Year Plan (1951−1956).
• It emphasized increasing the rate of savings and focused primarily on the agricultural sector and irrigation projects to address food shortages.
• Neo-classical minimal-state model:
• This economic perspective advocates for free markets and limited government intervention, which was contrary to the state-led industrialization strategy of the Second Plan.
• Economic Targets:
• The Second Plan aimed for a 25 percent increase in the national income to raise the standard of living.
• It also saw the establishment of the Atomic Energy Commission in 1958, led by Homi J. Bhabha.

The correct answer is Amulya Malladi.

Key Points

• The Mango Season is a critically acclaimed novel written by Amulya Malladi, first published in 2003.
• The story revolves around the protagonist, Priya Rao, an Indian woman who has been living in the United States for seven years and returns to her home in Hyderabad, India, for a visit.
• The narrative explores the complexities of modern India, focusing on the tension between traditional family values and the personal independence gained by living abroad.
• The central conflict involves Priya Rao trying to find the right moment to reveal to her conservative family that she is engaged to an American man named Nick.
• The book is set during the sweltering Indian summer, using the mango season as a metaphorical backdrop for the ripening of secrets and the stifling nature of societal expectations.
• Amulya Malladi is a prominent Indian-American author known for her poignant portrayal of the immigrant experience and contemporary Indian life.

 Additional Information

• Other authors mentioned in the options include:
• Sandhya Menon: A New York Times bestselling author famous for young adult contemporary novels such as When Dimple Met Rishi.
• Sara Desai: An author known for writing contemporary romance and romantic comedy novels, including The Marriage Game and The Dating Plan.
• Alka Joshi: The celebrated author of the Jaipur Trilogy, which began with the international bestseller The Henna Artist, set in 1950s India.
• Amulya Malladi's other notable literary works include A Breath of Fresh Air, The Song of the Cuckoo Bird, and A House for Happy Mothers.

The correct answer is Monocotyledonous.

Key Points

• In Monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short-lived and is soon replaced by a large number of roots that originate from the base of the stem.
• These roots constitute the fibrous root system, which forms a dense network of thin, moderately branching roots that spread out near the soil surface.
• This system is essential for providing firm anchorage to the plant and ensuring efficient absorption of water and minerals from the upper layers of the soil.
• Common examples of plants exhibiting this characteristic include Wheat, Maize, Rice, Barley, and various types of Grasses.
• Unlike the taproot system, the fibrous system does not have a single dominant central axis; instead, all roots are approximately equal in thickness and length.

 Additional Information

• Dicotyledonous
• These plants typically possess a taproot system.
• The primary root is a direct elongation of the radicle and persists throughout the plant life, giving rise to lateral roots like secondary and tertiary roots.
• Examples include Mustard, Gram, and Pea plants.
• Gymnosperms
• Most Gymnosperms generally have a taproot system.
• In some genera, roots have symbiotic associations, such as Mycorrhiza in Pinus or coralloid roots in Cycas associated with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.
• Pteridophytes
• In Pteridophytes, the primary root is ephemeral (short-lived).
• It is replaced by adventitious roots that arise from the rhizome or stem, providing necessary nutrients to the sporophyte.

The correct answer is Pherozeshah Mehta.

Key Points

• Pherozeshah Mehta (1845−1915) was a prominent political leader and lawyer from Bombay who served as a founding member of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• He belonged to the Moderate faction of the Congress, which dominated the organization during its early years from 1885 to 1905.
• Mehta presided over the sixth session of the Indian National Congress held in Calcutta in 1890.
• Known as the Lion of Bombay, he was a key figure in the Bombay Municipal Corporation and advocated for reforms through constitutional means, such as petitions and dialogues with the British government.
• The Moderates, including leaders like Mehta, believed in the British sense of justice and focused on achieving administrative and legislative reforms rather than immediate self-rule.

 Additional Information

• Subhas Chandra Bose:
• A radical nationalist who served as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1938 and 1939.
• He later formed the All India Forward Bloc and organized the Indian National Army (INA) to secure independence through armed struggle.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• A primary leader of the Extremist faction within the Congress who famously declared, Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.
• He advocated for Swadeshi, Boycott, and mass mobilization, moving away from the Moderate approach of constitutional agitation.
• Bhagat Singh:
• A revolutionary leader and a key member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• He believed in revolutionary socialism and was involved in the 1929 bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly to protest against repressive British laws.

The correct answer is Tehran.

Key Points

• The 3^rd Trilateral Consultations between India, Iran, and Armenia were held on September 8, 2025, in Tehran, the capital of Iran.
• The meeting was co-chaired by Anand Prakash (Joint Secretary, Ministry of External Affairs, India), Mohammad Reza Bahrami (Director General for South Asia, Iran), and Anahit Karapetyan (Head of Asia-Pacific Department, Armenia).
• The consultations followed the first meeting held in Yerevan (April 2023) and the second meeting held in New Delhi (December 2024), establishing a regular annual diplomatic rhythm.
• Discussions primarily focused on regional connectivity, specifically the progress of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) and the utilization of the Chabahar Port.
• The parties expressed satisfaction with the progress of decisions made in previous rounds and agreed to hold the fourth round of consultations in Armenia in 2026.

 Additional Information

• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
• A 7,200-km-long multi-mode transport network connecting India to Russia and Europe via Iran and the Caucasus.
• It serves as a strategic alternative to the traditional route through the Suez Canal, significantly reducing transit time and costs.
• Chabahar Port:
• Located in Iran's Sistan-Balochistan province, it is a key hub for India to access Central Asia and Eurasia, bypassing Pakistan.
• India and Iran signed a 10-year contract in May 2024 for the operation of the Shahid Beheshti Terminal at the port.
• Crossroads of Peace Initiative:
• An Armenian project aimed at modernizing regional infrastructure and connecting the Caspian Sea, the Mediterranean, and the Persian Gulf.

The correct answer is Diaspora's contribution to a Viksit Bharat.

Key Points

• The 18^th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) convention is scheduled to be organized from January 8 to 10, 2025.
• The official theme for the 2025 event is 'Diaspora’s contribution to a Viksit Bharat', emphasizing the strategic role of the overseas Indian community in realizing the vision of a developed India by 2047.
• For the first time, the convention will be held in Bhubaneswar, the capital of Odisha, showcasing the state's cultural heritage and investment potential to the global Indian community.
• The event serves as a primary platform for the Ministry of External Affairs to engage with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) to strengthen their bonds with their roots.
• The Youth Pravasi Bharatiya Divas will also be held in partnership with the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports on the inaugural day of the convention.

 Additional Information

• Background of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD):
• The day is celebrated on January 9 to commemorate the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to Mumbai in 1915.
• Since 2015, the format was revised to celebrate the convention once every two years (biennial) rather than annually.
• Previous Themes and Editions:
• The 17^th PBD was held in Indore, Madhya Pradesh in 2023, with the theme 'Diaspora: Reliable partners for India’s progress in Amrit Kaal'.
• The 16^th PBD was conducted virtually in 2021 due to the pandemic, with the theme 'Contributing to Atmanirbhar Bharat'.
• Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA):
• It is the highest honor conferred by the President of India as part of the PBD Convention to recognize the exceptional contributions of the diaspora in various fields.

The correct answer is Welby Commission.

Key Points

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent moderate leader of the Indian National Congress and founder of the Servants of India Society, traveled to England in 1897 to present evidence before the Welby Commission.
• The Welby Commission, formally known as the Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure, was established in 1895 by the British government to investigate the administration and management of military and civil expenditure in India.
• Representing the Deccan Sabha, Gokhale provided a sophisticated critique of the British financial policy, highlighting the systemic economic drain of Indian wealth and the unfair tax burden placed upon the Indian population.
• He argued that India was being forced to pay for British imperial interests, particularly through Home Charges and high military spending, which hindered domestic developmental progress.
• His testimony was instrumental in exposing the fiscal injustices of the British Raj and emphasized the urgent need for Indian representation in the decision-making processes regarding the country's finances.

 Additional Information

• Hunter Commission:
• The first Hunter Commission (1882) was appointed by Lord Ripon to look into the state of primary and secondary education in India.
• The second Hunter Commission (1919), officially the Disorders Inquiry Committee, was formed to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar.
• Fraser Commission:
• Appointed in 1902 under the leadership of Andrew Fraser during Lord Curzon's tenure, this commission focused on comprehensive Police reforms.
• It recommended improvements in the training, salary, and structural organization of the Indian Police to curb corruption and inefficiency.
• Raleigh Commission:
• Formed in 1902 and headed by Thomas Raleigh, it was tasked with examining the condition and prospects of universities in India.
• Its findings led to the enactment of the Indian Universities Act of 1904, which increased government control over higher education institutions.

The correct answer is Article 353.

Key Points

• Article 353 of the Constitution of India explicitly outlines the Effect of Proclamation of Emergency. It details how the administrative and legislative machinery of the country shifts from a federal to a more unitary structure during a National Emergency.
• Under Article 353(a), the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to any State regarding the manner in which the State's executive power is to be exercised. This essentially brings the State administration under the total control of the Central Government.
• Under Article 353(b), the legislative power of Parliament is expanded. It gains the authority to make laws on subjects mentioned in the State List (List II), which are normally under the exclusive jurisdiction of the States.
• The 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 further expanded the scope of Article 353, allowing the executive directions and legislative power of the Union to extend to States other than the one where the Emergency is specifically in operation, provided the security of India is threatened.

 Additional Information

• Article 350:
• Pertains to the Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances.
• It ensures every person has the right to submit a representation in any language used in the Union or the State.
• Article 256:
• Deals with the Obligation of States and the Union.
• It stipulates that the executive power of every State shall be exercised to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament.
• Article 252:
• Describes the power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent.
• If the legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions requesting Parliament to regulate a matter in the State List, Parliament can enact such a law for those specific States.

The correct answer is Service conditions of public servants.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, inserted a new Part XIV-A into the Constitution of India, titled as Tribunals.
• This Part consists of two main articles: Article 323A and Article 323B, which provide for the establishment of specialized quasi-judicial bodies to reduce the burden on traditional courts.
• Article 323A specifically empowers the Parliament to provide for the adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunals of disputes and complaints regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts.
• The authority extends to public servants at the Union level, State level, local authorities, and any corporation owned or controlled by the Government of India.
• In pursuance of Article 323A, the Parliament enacted the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which led to the setting up of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and State Administrative Tribunals (SAT).

 Additional Information

• Article 323B:
• This article deals with Tribunals for other matters. It allows both the Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for specific subjects such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, industrial and labour disputes, and ceiling on urban property.
• It also covers elections to Parliament and State Legislatures; however, the option specifying states only is incorrect as it encompasses both levels of government.
• Mini-Constitution:
• The 42^nd Amendment is widely known as the Mini-Constitution because it brought the most widespread changes to the Indian Constitution during the Emergency under the Indira Gandhi government.
• It was based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Judicial Review:
• The 42^nd Amendment attempted to limit the power of Judicial Review and the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts and the Supreme Court, but many of these restrictions were subsequently removed by the 43^rd and 44^th Amendment Acts.

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

• The 2025 United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) is scheduled to take place in Nice, France, from June 9 to 13, 2025.
• This high-level conference is being co-hosted by the governments of France and Costa Rica to drive global ocean action.
• The primary mandate of the conference is to support the implementation of Sustainable Development Goal 14 (SDG 14), which focuses on Life Below Water and the sustainable management of marine resources.
• France and Costa Rica launched the preparatory process through the One Ocean Science Congress and high-level diplomatic engagements to ensure the adoption of a transformative Ocean Declaration in 2025.
• The summit aims to address critical threats such as ocean acidification, plastic pollution, and the loss of marine biodiversity through international cooperation.

 Additional Information

• Portugal:
• Hosted the 2022 UN Ocean Conference in its capital city, Lisbon, in collaboration with Kenya.
• The 2022 conference resulted in the Lisbon Declaration, titled 'Our Ocean, Our Future, Our Responsibility', emphasizing science-based innovation.
• Costa Rica:
• As the co-host for the 2025 summit, it organized a precursor high-level event titled Immersed in Change in San José in June 2024.
• The country is a global leader in marine conservation and the Blue Economy, pushing for the protection of 30 percent of the world's oceans by 2030 (30x30 target).
• Sustainable Development Goal 14 (SDG 14):
• Adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• It targets the reduction of marine debris, the protection of coastal ecosystems, and the elimination of Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing.

The correct answer is Sere.

Key Points

• The term Sere refers to the entire sequence of biotic communities that replace one another in a given area over a period of time during the process of ecological succession.
• Ecological succession is defined as the orderly and predictable change in the species composition of a given area, eventually leading to a stable community.
• The individual transitional communities within a sere are referred to as seral stages or seral communities.
• In successive seral stages, there is typically an increase in the number of species, a change in the diversity of organisms, and an overall increase in the total biomass of the ecosystem.
• A Sere represents the complete chronological progression of life, starting from the first organisms to inhabit a bare area (the pioneer community) to the final, stable state (the climax community).
• These changes are driven by both biological factors (interaction between species) and physical factors (alterations in soil, light, and moisture conditions caused by the organisms themselves).

 Additional Information

• Climax Community:
• This is the final, relatively stable stage of ecological succession that is in near equilibrium with the regional climate.
• Unlike seral stages, the climax community remains essentially unchanged as long as environmental conditions are constant.
• Ecesis:
• This is a vital stage in the process of succession that involves the successful establishment of a species in a new area.
• It includes the germination, growth, and reproduction of the migrating species after they reach a new territory.
• Invasion:
• This represents the entire process of a species entering and establishing itself in a bare area (Nudation).
• It is comprised of three distinct steps: Migration (dispersal of seeds or spores), Ecesis (establishment), and Aggregation (increase in population density).

The correct answer is Enrichment of water with nutrients leading to excessive algal growth.

Key Points

• Eutrophication is a process characterized by the excessive enrichment of water bodies with minerals and nutrients, primarily Nitrates and Phosphates.
• These nutrients act as fertilizers, stimulating the rapid and dense growth of phytoplankton and algae on the water surface, a phenomenon known as an Algal Bloom.
• The dense algal layer prevents sunlight from reaching submerged aquatic plants, inhibiting their photosynthesis and leading to their death.
• When these algae eventually die, aerobic bacteria (decomposers) consume large quantities of Dissolved Oxygen (DO) to break down the organic matter.
• This massive consumption of oxygen leads to hypoxia (oxygen depletion), which creates dead zones where fish and other aquatic organisms cannot survive, ultimately causing a collapse of the aquatic ecosystem.

 Additional Information

• Biological Magnification (Biomagnification):
• This refers to the increasing concentration of persistent, non-biodegradable toxic substances, such as DDT or Mercury, at higher trophic levels in a food chain.
• Unlike eutrophication, which involves nutrient enrichment, biomagnification involves the accumulation of pollutants in the tissues of organisms.
• Sources of Nutrients:
• Agricultural Runoff: Excess chemical fertilizers washed into lakes and rivers.
• Sewage and Wastewater: Domestic and industrial waste containing phosphates from detergents.
• Types of Eutrophication:
• Natural Eutrophication: A slow, centuries-long process of a lake aging.
• Cultural (Anthropogenic) Eutrophication: Accelerated nutrient enrichment caused specifically by human activities.