CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The Kanaganahalli site is located on the left bank of the Bhima River in Chitapur taluk of Kalaburagi, Karnataka.
• Excavations at the site have revealed the remains of a large stupa, known as the Maha Stupa, which is believed to have been constructed between the 1st and 3rd centuries AD.
• The site was accidentally discovered in 1986 during the excavation of the Chandralamba temple complex at Sannati.
• The Kanaganahalli archaeological site is an important source of information about the spread of Buddhism in South India.
• Evidence of carved relief depictions of Emperor Ashoka with his queen and attendants has been found at this site.

Additional Information

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is directly under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture and is the lead institution for archaeology.
• It is an autonomous institution.
• It is charged with preserving the cultural heritage of our nation.
• Its focus is on the conservation of physical and tangible heritage accumulated in ancient monuments and archaeological sites.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The strength of a volcano is measured by the Volcanic Explosive Index. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Volcanic Explosive Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosiveness of volcanic eruptions based on factors like volume of ejected material, eruption cloud height, and other characteristics.
• Iceland and Philippines were created by volcanic activity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both Iceland and the Philippines are geologically active regions formed by volcanic activity. The islands in these regions were primarily shaped through volcanic eruptions and tectonic movements.
• Volcanic soils are rich, deep, and fertile and allow intensive agriculture to take place. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Volcanic soils can indeed be rich and fertile due to the minerals and nutrients present in the volcanic ash and rock. This fertility often allows for productive agricultural practices in volcanic regions.
• So, all three statements are accurate, indicating that option 4) 1, 2, and 3 is the correct answer.

Based on the characteristics provided, the cloud type that matches these descriptions is option 2) Cumulonimbus.

• Born through convection: Cumulonimbus clouds are formed through strong vertical convection currents.
• Produces hail, thunder, and lightning: These clouds are known for producing intense weather conditions such as hail, thunderstorms, and lightning.
• Large cauliflower-shaped towers with anvil tops: Cumulonimbus clouds often have towering, cauliflower-shaped structures with flat, spreading tops that resemble an anvil.

Therefore, based on the given characteristics, Cumulonimbus fits the description provided.

The correct answer is Scatter graph.

Key Points

• ​According to the given information, a Scatter chart would be most suitable for the presentation of stored data.
• A scatter graph is ideal for visualizing the relationship between two variables.
• It plots individual data points on a two-dimensional plane, with one variable represented on the x-axis and the other on the y-axis.
• Each data point represents a combination of values for both variables, allowing for direct observation of any patterns or correlations between them.
• This type of graph is particularly useful when analyzing the relationship between continuous or numerical data sets, such as population size and number of services.

Additional Information

• Pie charts:
• These are suitable for representing proportions within a set of data, not for showing relationships between two different sets.
• Bar Charts:
• Bar charts are useful for comparing categories or groups against each other, such as comparing the number of services provided by different regions.
• However, they may not clearly display the relationship between two continuous variables.
• Triangular graphs:
• ​Triangular graphs, or ternary plots, are used for three variables that add up to a constant.
• They may not be suitable for comparing two variables such as population size and number of services.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

India has a total of 7516.1 km of coastline which touches 13 states and Union Territories. 

Key Points

• Gujarat has a coastline of 1600 kilometers alone.
• The coastlines that follow Gujarat in the longest length of coastline in rank wise orders are-

Therefore, Gujarat has the largest coastline.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Visakhapatnam​ Port:
• Visakhapatnam Port is one of 13 major ports in India and the only major port in Andhra Pradesh.
• It is India's third-largest state-owned port by volume of cargo handled and the largest on the Eastern Coast.
• It is located midway between the Chennai and Kolkata Ports on the Bay of Bengal.
• It is an example of a landlocked harbor. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Deendayal Port (Kandla Port):
• Kandla is a port on the Gulf of Kachch of the Arabian sea.
• Kandla was constructed in the 1950s as the chief seaport serving western India.
• Kandla is a tidal port. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Kandla Port was renamed as Deendayal Port in 2017 under the Indian Ports Act, of 1908.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

According to Forest Survey 2021 & 2011, forest with there area as follow-

• Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Very Dense Forests (VDF):
• The Lands with forest cover having a canopy density of 70% and more are called Very Dense Forests (VDF).
• Moderately Dense Forests (MDF):
• The Land with forest cover having a canopy density of 40-70% is called the Moderately Dense Forest (MDF).
• Open Forests (OF):
• The Lands with forest cover having a canopy density of 10-40% are called Open Forests.
• Scrubs:
• The degraded forest lands which have a Canopy density of less than 10% are called Scrubs.

Important Points

• According to the report, India's total forest and tree cover is now spread across 80.9 million hectares, which is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.
• The total tree-and-forest cover in the country includes an increase of 1,540 square kilometres of forest cover and 721 sq km of tree cover compared to the 2019 report.
• The top five states in terms of increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km), Telangana (632 sq km), Odisha (537 sq km), Karnataka (155 sq km), and Jharkhand (110 sq km).

the correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• National Education Policy, 2020:
• It is based on the recommendations of the Kasturirangan and T.S.R. Subramanian committees.
• It seeks to promote multilingualism in schools and colleges.
• It proposes an academic bank of credits to enable transfers of credits between institutions.
• The Union Cabinet has approved the new National Education Policy 2020 with an aim to introduce several changes in the Indian education system – from the school to the college level.
• Its aims at making “India a global knowledge superpower”.
• The two earlier education policies were brought in 1968 and 1986.
• The National Education Policy as submitted by the Kasturirangan Committee submitted an education policy that seeks to address the following challenges facing the existing education system:
• Quality
• Affordability
• Equity
• Access
• Accountability
• By 2025, at least 50% of learners through the school and higher education system shall have exposure to vocational education, for which a clear action plan with targets and timelines will be developed.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Vocational education will be integrated in the educational offerings of all secondary schools in a phased manner over the next decade.
• Towards this, secondary schools will also collaborate with ITIs, polytechnics, local industry, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Skill labs will also be set up and created in the schools in a hub and spoke model which will allow other schools to use the facility.
• Higher education institutions will offer vocational education either on their own or in partnership with industry and NGOs. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index 2020-21 has been developed in India in collaboration with the United Nations.
• NITI Aayog launched its index in 2018 to monitor the country's progress on the targets through data-driven assessment and foster a competitive spirit among states and union territories in achieving them.
• Kerala retained its position at the top of the rankings in the third edition of the index with 75 points, followed by Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh, both with 72 points.
• At the other end of the scale, Bihar, Jharkhand and Assam were the worst-performing states.

Additional Information

​The 17 goals under the Sustainable Development Goals are as mentioned below:

Key Points Article 51 

• Article 51 of the Constitution of India lists the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are guidelines for the government on how to promote the welfare of the people. One of the Directive Principles is to promote international peace and security. This can be done by:
• Encouraging settlement of international disputes by arbitration
• Fostering respect for international law
• Cooperating with other nations for the promotion of world peace
• The use of UN peacekeeping forces is not mentioned in Article 51. This is because the UN peacekeeping forces are not a part of the Indian government. They are a multinational force that is deployed by the UN Security Council to help resolve international disputes.
• The other options are all mentioned in Article 51.
• Option 1, "Promote international peace and security," is the main objective of the Directive Principles.
• Option 2, "Maintain just and honourable relations between nations," is a necessary condition for promoting international peace and security.
• Option 4, "Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration," is a specific way to promote international peace and security.

The correct answer is Fidel Castro.

Key Points

• Fidel Castro was not in the main leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in its initial phase.
• Fidel Castro was in fact a prominent leader during the formative phase of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).
• The Non-Aligned Movement was established in 1961 and Cuban leader Fidel Castro played an important role in this movement.

Additional Information

• Non-Aligned Movement
• It was formed during the Cold War as an organization of states that did not wish to formally associate themselves with the United States or the Soviet Union but wished to remain independent or neutral.
• The first NAM summit took place in September 1961 in Belgrade, Yugoslavia.
• The Non-Aligned Movement was founded and its first conference (Belgrade Conference) was held in 1961 under the leadership of Josip Broz Tito of Yugoslavia, Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt, Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana and Sukarno of Indonesia.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

Organisation of Production in Medieval India:

• Craft production was organised in villages as well as qasbas. There also existed imperial Karkhanas.
• In rural areas, artisans produced articles of daily use.
• Various records show that the balutas were never employed by separate families. Rather they were servants of the village as a whole. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The village artisans and servants in these regions were called balutedars. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This system was more organized in Deccan and Maharashtra. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Important Points

• Though agriculture formed the occupation of the bulk of the people, a variety of crafts also existed on a significant scale in rural as well as urban areas of the country.
• These crafts included textile, pottery making, dyeing, sugar making, metal works, paper making, woodwork, arms and armour manufacturing, ship-building, chemical works etc.
• The textile production was one of the most widely practiced crafts of medieval India.
• The Indian weavers produced four major types of fabric - cotton, silk, woollen, and mixed coarse cotton.
• Bengal, Lahore, Agra, Awadh, Patna, Fatehpur Sikri and Gujarat etc. were prominent cotton textile production regions.
• Kashmir, Lahore and Agra were major shawl and carpet making centres.
• Apart from manufacturing, Bengal and Gujarat were renowned for the export of textile goods.

The correct answer is John Lawrence.

Key Points

• In 1863, during the British colonial rule in India, the Viceroy of India John Lawrence decided to shift the summer capital of the British Raj to Shimla.
• The idea behind the move was to escape the scorching heat of the Indian plains during the summer months.
• Shimla remained the summer capital of British India until India gained independence in 1947.

Additional Information

• Lord Dalhousie served as Governor-General of India from 1848–1856.
• Lord Dalhousie took possession of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh on February 13, 1856, accusing him of misrule.
• The first attempt towards railway construction in India was made by Lord Dalhousie in 1853 AD. It was laid between Bombay and Thane during the time of Dalhousie.
• For the first time during his tenure, a separate Public Works Department was created.
• Lord Mayo (1869–1872)
• Establishment of Indian Statistical Survey.
• Establishment of Agriculture and Commerce Department.
• Lord William Bentinck (1828–1835): The following various events occurred during his tenure as Governor-General:
• Abolition of Sati and other cruel rites (1829).
• Suppression of Thuggee (1830).
• Charter Act of 1833.
• The Resolution of 1835, and educational reforms and the introduction of English as an official language.

Narayan Surve is the author of Maze Vidyapeeth, the famous poem about the life of the working class of Bombay.

Key Points

• Narayan Surve was a Marathi poet and activist who is best known for his poem "Maze Vidyapeeth" (My University).
• The poem is a powerful and moving account of the life of the working class in Bombay, and it has been praised for its realism, its empathy, and its revolutionary spirit.
• Surve was born into a poor family in Bombay in 1924.
• He was orphaned at a young age and had to fend for himself on the streets.
• He worked as a labourer and a rickshaw puller, and he experienced firsthand the poverty and exploitation of the working class.
• Surve's experiences in the working class informed his poetry.
• He wrote about the struggles of the working class with compassion and understanding.
• He also wrote about the need for revolution to create a more just and equitable society.
• "Maze Vidyapeeth" is one of Surve's most famous poems.
• It is a long poem that tells the story of a young man from a poor family who grows up to become a worker in Bombay.
• The poem describes the harsh realities of life for the working class in Bombay, including poverty, exploitation, and violence.
• The poem also expresses the hope that the working class can overcome its oppression and create a better world.
• The young man in the poem eventually becomes a union leader and fights for the rights of the working class.
• He is eventually killed by the police, but his death inspires others to continue the fight for justice.
• "Maze Vidyapeeth" is a powerful and moving poem that gives voice to the struggles of the working class.
• It is a poem that is still relevant today, and it continues to inspire people to fight for a better world.

The correct answer is Radhakanta Deb.

Key Points

• Radhakanta Deb founded the Dharma Sabha in Calcutta in 1830.
• The organisation was founded primarily to combat current social reform initiatives led by figures like Raja Ram Mohun Roy and Henry Derozio.
• The impetus for the formation of the organization came from a new law enacted by colonial British rule that outlawed the practice of sati in the country.
• The goal of the new organization was to overturn the law, which some Hindus saw as an intrusion by the British into the religious affairs of the indigenous people.
• The Dharma Sabha campaigned against the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856, submitting a petition with nearly four times the number of signatures as Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar's plea for it.
• Despite the objections and the fact that it was regarded a flagrant violation of Hindu norms at the time, Lord Dalhousie himself finished the measure, which was then passed by Lord Canning.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

• The United Nations General Assembly at its 75th session in March 2021 declared 2023 the International Year of Millets (IYM 2023). Hence option 3 is correct
• FAO is the lead agency for celebrating the Year in collaboration with other relevant stakeholders.
• Millets can grow on arid lands with minimal inputs and are resilient to changes in climate.
• They are therefore an ideal solution for countries to increase self-sufficiency and reduce reliance on imported cereal grains.

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates.

Key Points

• United Arab Emirates leg spinner Karthik Meiyappan took his first hat-trick of the T20 World Cup 2022 by sending back three Sri Lankan batsmen in the first-round match.
• The ICC Men's T20 World Cup is a Twenty20 international cricket tournament, organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) since 2007.

Additional Information

• ICC Men's T20 World Cup:
• The United States and West Indies will co-host the 2024 edition.
• India and Sri Lanka will jointly host the 2026 edition.
• Australia and New Zealand will co-host the 2028 edition.
• The 2030 edition will be co-hosted by the United Kingdom and Ireland.

The correct answer is It is formed primarily as a nuclear weapon overseer.

Key Points

• The Wassenaar Arrangement is an international export control regime that was established to contribute to regional and international security and stability by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in the transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.
• It is not primarily focused on nuclear weapons but rather on conventional arms and dual-use technologies.
• The arrangement aims to prevent the destabilizing accumulation of these items and technologies and to ensure they are not used for the development or enhancement of military capabilities that could undermine regional and global security.
• There are 42 participating nations in the Arrangement.
• India is the current Chairman of the Wassenaar Arrangement. The Chair of the Wassenaar Arrangement is a position that rotates annually among participating states.
• India joined the Wassenaar Arrangement in 2017.

Additional Information

• Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) for control of nuclear-related technology.
• Australia Group (AG) for the control of chemical and biological technology that could be weaponized.
• Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) for the control of rockets and other aerial vehicles capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction.

The correct answer is P. T. Usha.

Key Points

• Pilavullakandi Thekkeparambil Usha, known as P. T. Usha, nicknamed Payyoli Express, is a retired Indian track and field athlete.
• She has been associated with Indian athletics since 1979.
• She is often called the "Queen of Indian Track and Field".
• Terminologies used in Athletics are Relay, Photofinish, Track, Lane, Hurdles, Shotput, Discus Throw, Hammer Throw, Triple Jump, High Jump, Cross Country, etc.

Additional Information

• Hima Das is the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in a track event at the IAAF World U20 Championships.
• She is an Indian sprinter from the state of Assam. It has been nicknamed Dhing Express.
• Dutee Chand is very famous in the field of athletics.
• She is a sprinter and competes in 100 meters events.
• Shiny Kurisingal Wilson is a retired Indian athlete.
• She has been a National Champion in 800 metres for 14 years.

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1.

Key Points

Sahitya Akademi Awards 2022:

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Award is given in the field of literature.
• This award is given annually by the Sahitya Akademi (National Literary Academy of India), New Delhi.
• It is given in 24 languages including Hindi and English.
• The objective of the award is to recognize and promote excellence in Indian writing and acknowledge new trends.
• Makhanlal Chaturvedi was the first prize recipient in the Hindi category in the year 1955.
• RK Narayan was the first recipient in the English category in the year 1960.

Explanation: 

• During exercise, our muscles require energy to contract and relax. This energy is primarily derived from glucose, which is broken down through a process called glycolysis. Glycolysis produces a molecule called pyruvate, which is then used to generate ATP, the energy currency of the cell.
• However, during intense exercise, the demand for energy can outstrip the supply of oxygen to the muscles. In this situation, the body switches to a different metabolic pathway called anaerobic respiration, which produces ATP without using oxygen.
• One of the byproducts of anaerobic respiration is lactic acid. Lactic acid is produced when pyruvate is converted into lactate by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. Lactic acid can build up in the muscles during intense exercise, leading to a decrease in pH and a sensation of burning or cramping in the muscles.

Therefore, when a sprinter feels cramps and pain in the thigh muscles after a run. This is due to accumulation of lactic acid.

Thus, the correct answer is option (1)

Key Points

• The leaf plucked from the plant on a sunny day has chlorophyll pigments that give the leaf its green colour.
• Chlorophyll is the primary pigment involved in photosynthesis, which converts light energy into chemical energy in plants.
• The given experiment is for a starch test of a leaf.

Explanation:

• When the leaf is placed in boiling water, the high temperature denatures and breaks down the chlorophyll pigment, causing it to lose its green colour.
• The boiling water also softens the leaf and breaks down its cell walls, allowing the alcohol to penetrate more easily.
• The leaf is then immersed in boiling alcohol, which is a solvent that can dissolve the pigments in the leaf.
• The alcohol extracts the chlorophyll that has been denatured by the boiling water.
• The alcohol helps in removing the green colour, turning the leaves white.
• Finally, the leaf is treated with iodine solution, which reacts with starch that is produced by plants during photosynthesis.
• The iodine solution reacts with the starch to produce a blue-black colour.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Concept:

• Osmosis is a special type of diffusion process.
• Osmosis is the process of the movement of a solvent through a semi-permeable membrane from a low solute concentration to a higher solute concentration.
• There are two types of osmosis - Exosmosis and Endosmosis.
• Exosmosis - It involves the migration of the solvent outside the cell. Cells become flaccid during exosmosis.
• Endosmosis - It involves the migration of the solvent inside the cell. Cells become turgid during endosmosis.
• The direction of the flow of water (solvent) in a cell during osmosis is dependent on the type of solution it is placed in.

Important Points

​Hypotonic solution - 

• It refers to a lower osmotic concentration or solute concentration.
• When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the solvent from the solution enters the cell by a process called endosmosis.
• This leads to the swelling of the cell, making the cell turgid.

Hypertonic solution - 

• This refers to a higher osmotic concentration of the solution.
• When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the solvent from the cell moves outside the cell by exosmosis.
• This causes the cell to shrink and become flaccid.

Isotonic solution - 

• This is when the solute concentration of the cell and the solution it is placed in are the same.
• In this case, there is no movement of solvent.
• Thus, there is no change in the diameter of the cells.

In the given case, the RBCs are placed in an isotonic solution, and so there will be no change in size of the RBCs.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Concept:

• Bile is secreted by the hepatic cells of the liver.
• It moves through the hepatic duct into the gall bladder, where it is stored and concentrated.
• It is later secreted into the small intestine along with the pancreatic juice through the common hepato-pancreatic duct.

Important PointsOption 1 - INCORRECT

• The bile is composed of:
• Bile pigments - Bilirubin and biliverdin.
• Bile salts
• Cholesterol
• Phospholipids
• It does not contain any enzyme.

Option 2 - CORRECT

• It helps in emulsification of fats, meaning they help in breakdown of fats into minute micelles.
• Fat digestion is carried out by lipase, which is activated by bile.

Option 3 - CORRECT

• The food is churned in the stomach in acidic medium to form chyme.
• This chyme is neutralized by bile in the duodenum part of small intestine.

Option 4 - CORRECT

• Bile is secreted along with pancreatic juice, which is itself alkaline in nature.
• The alkaline medium is essential in the small intestine for the activities of pancreatic and other enzymes.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Blood pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the blood vessels.
• It is generally measured in arteries.
• The instrument used for measuring blood pressure is called a sphygmomanometer.
• Arterial blood pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of arteries.
• The blood pressure of an individual is normally written as 120/80, which represents SP/DP or systolic pressure/diastolic pressure.
• Blood pressure is calculated during both ventricular contraction and relaxation.
• Systolic Pressure (SP):
• This is the pressure exerted on arterial walls during ventricular contraction.
• Normal SP for a healthy individual is considered to be 120 mmHg.
• Diastolic Pressure (DP):
• The pressure exerted on arterial walls during ventricular relaxation.
• Normal DP for a healthy individual is considered to be 80 mmHg.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Concept:

• To calculate the distance of the cliff from the person, we need to consider the time it took for the sound to travel from the person to the cliff and back as an echo.
• The sound traveled from the person to the cliff, and then the echo traveled back to the person.
• So the total time it took for the sound to travel is twice the time it took to hear the echo.

Calculation:

Given that

The echo was heard 5 seconds after the firecracker burst, we can determine the time it took for the sound to travel from the person to the cliff and back as 5 seconds divided by 2, which is 2.5 seconds.

T = 2.5 sec

Using the formula:

Distance = Speed × Time, we can calculate the distance of the cliff from the person:

Distance = 340 m/s × 2.5 s = 850 meters

Therefore, the distance of the cliff from the person is approximately 850 meters.

The correct answer is option (4)

Explanation:

Statement 1

• This statement is incorrect. The microphone does not convert sound directly to a mechanical signal.
• It typically uses a transducer (such as a condenser or a dynamic element) that converts sound waves into an electrical signal.

Statement 2

• This statement is correct. The primary function of a microphone is to convert sound waves into an electrical signal.
• This electrical signal can then be processed and transmitted through various electronic devices.

Statement 3

• This statement is incorrect. The speaker does not convert a mechanical signal to sound. Instead, it converts an electrical signal into sound waves.
• The electrical signal passes through the speaker's voice coil, which interacts with a magnet, causing the speaker cone to vibrate and produce sound.

Statement 4

• This statement is correct. The speaker converts an electrical signal into sound.
• It receives the electrical signal from the audio source (such as a mobile phone), and through the interaction of the voice coil and the magnet, it generates sound waves that can be heard by the listener.

The correct statements are:

The microphone converts sound to an electrical signal.

The speaker converts an electrical signal to sound.

**The correct answer is option (4)**​

Concept:

Energy

• The rate of doing work is known as energy.
• Energy is the product of power and time.
• The unit of energy is Joule or kWh.

E = P × t

where, E = Energy

P = Power

t = Time

Calculation:

Given,

Rating of each electric bulb(P) = 100 W

Time = 10 hrs per day.

Number of days = 3

So, the total time it work = 3 × 10 = 30 hrs

E = P × t

= 100 × 30

= 3000 Wh

= 3 kWh

= 3 unit

The correct answer is option (1)

Concept:

• The area under the velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration gives the net displacement of the particle.
• In physics, displacement refers to the change in position of an object or particle.
• It is a vector quantity that indicates both the magnitude (distance) and direction of the change.
• When a particle undergoes uniform acceleration, its velocity changes at a constant rate.
• The velocity-time graph represents the velocity of the particle as a function of time. The area under this graph, between two specific time points, represents the displacement of the particle during that time interval.

The correct answer is option (2)

Additional Information

• If the velocity-time graph is a straight line segment, the area under the graph is a trapezoid.
• The base of the trapezoid is the time interval, and the height is the average velocity during that interval. The formula for the area of a trapezoid is given by:

Area = (1/2) × (sum of parallel sides) × (height)

In this case, the parallel sides are the initial and final velocities of the particle, and the height is the time interval. Therefore, the area under the velocity-time graph is:

Area = (1/2) × (initial velocity + final velocity) × (time interval)

This area represents the displacement of the particle during the given time interval.

Concept:

Power of Lens:

• The inverse of the focal length is known as the power of the lens.
• It shows the bending strength for the light ray of the lens.
• P is the power of lens and f is the focal length of the lens.

The unit of power of a lens is Dioptre (D) when the focal length of the lens is taken in meter (m).

Calculation:

Given that f = 10 cm = 0.1 m

P = 1 / f = 1 / 0.1 = 10 D

The correct answer is option (3)

All three statements regarding burning of magnesium ribbon in air are correct:

1. When magnesium ribbon burns in air, it reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide (MgO), which is a white powder. 2.  Burning of magnesium ribbon is an example of a combustion reaction, where a substance reacts with oxygen to release heat and light.
2. During the burning of magnesium ribbon, heat and light are produced as a result of the exothermic reaction between magnesium and oxygen.

Explanation: 

Combination reaction:

A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as a combination reaction.

• For example, Calcium oxide( CaO) reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime (calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)₂) releasing a large amount of heat as follows;

CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(aq)

In this reaction, calcium oxide and water combine to form a single

product, calcium hydroxide.

A solution of slaked lime produced by the reaction above is used for white washing walls. Thus, statement (2) is correct and statement (1) is incorrect.

Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls which is given as follows,

Ca(OH)₂(aq) + CO₂(g) → CaCO₃(s)  ; thus statement (3) is incorrect.

Calcium hydroxide called 'slaked lime' is an inorganic compound is the this statement is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2) i.e. statement 2 and 4

Explanation:

Decomposition Reaction:

A reaction in which a single reactant breaks down to give simpler products is called as a decomposition reaction.

And when a decomposition reaction is carried out by heating, it is called thermal decomposition.

The decomposition of lead nitrate using heat is an example of thermal decomposition reaction which is as follows;

\(Pb(NO_{3}){2}(s)\overset{heat}{\rightarrow};PbO(s)+4NO{2}(g);+O_{2}(g)\)

In the above reaction, brown fumes of NO₂ gas is produced along with colourless oxygen gas.

Therefore, in the correct answer is option (4) i.e. statements 2 and 4 only.

Explanation:

Rusting of iron:

Rusting is an oxidation reaction of iron. Iron reacts with oxygen and water to form rust which is iron oxide.

The process of rusting can be represented by the following equation as follows;

Iron (Fe) + Oxygen (O₂, from the air) + water (H₂O) → rust (iron oxide Fe₂O₃)

For rusting, the presence of both oxygen and water (or water vapour) is essential.

Opening of soda bottle: This is not an oxidation reaction. When a soda bottle is opened, the gas inside is released due to the decrease in pressure. There is no oxidation or reduction of any substance involved in this process.

Rancidity: Rancidity is a type of oxidation reaction that occurs in fats and oils. When fats and oils are exposed to air, the double bonds in the fatty acid molecules react with oxygen in the air to form peroxides, which further break down into aldehydes, ketones, and other compounds. These compounds have a rancid odor and taste.

Combustion: Combustion is a type of oxidation reaction in which a fuel reacts with oxygen to produce heat and light. Examples of combustion reactions include burning of wood, coal, and gasoline.

Therefore, the correct answer is Opening of soda bottle, which is not an oxidation reaction.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Assam is often referred to as the "Land of Red River" (Brahmaputra) and "Blue Hills" (referring to the hills of the Eastern Ghats).
• Assam is known for its diverse geographical features and contains three physiographic divisions: the Brahmaputra Valley, the Barak Valley, and the Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills.
• Assam covers approximately 2.39 percent of the total geographical area of India.

Additional Information

• India, a country of astonishing diversity, boasts six distinct geographical divisions:
• North Mountain
• Vast plains of India
• Peninsular Plateau
• Coastal Plain
• Island
• Desert

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Telangana came into existence as the 29th state of India on 2 June 2014.
• The Telangana region was part of Hyderabad State from 17 September 1948 to 1 November 1956, until it was merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh.
• Telangana is surrounded by Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh in the north, Karnataka in the west and Andhra Pradesh in the south and east.

The correct answer is Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Rani mentioned visiting four lakes: Loktak, Barapani, Kolleru, and Pulicat. 
• Loktak - Manipur
• Barapani - Meghalaya
• Kolleru - Andhra Pradesh
• Pulicat - Tamil Nadu
• Therefore, the correct combination of states would be Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• For the purpose of census 2011, a person aged seven and above,
• Who can both read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A person, who can only read but cannot write, is not literate. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In the censuses prior to 1991, children below five years of age were necessarily treated as illiterates.

Additional Information

• The results of 2011 census reveal that there has been an increase in literacy in the country.
• The literacy rate in the country is 74.04 per cent, 82.14 for males and 65.46 for females.
• Kerala retained its position by being on top with a 93.91 per cent literacy rate, closely followed by Lakshadweep (92.28 per cent) and Mizoram (91.58 per cent).
• Bihar with a literacy rate of 63.82 per cent ranks last in the country preceded by Arunachal Pradesh (66.95 per cent) and Rajasthan (67.06 per cent).

The correct answer is 2 and 6.

Key Points

• The Tropic of Cancer, an imaginary line of latitude located at 23.5 degrees north of the equator, passes through the following coastal and landlocked states in India:
• Coastal States: The Tropic of Cancer passes through two coastal states in India:
• Gujarat (Jasdan)
• West Bengal (Krishnanagar)
• Landlocked States: The Tropic of Cancer passes through six landlocked states in India:
• Rajasthan (Kalinjarh)
• Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur)
• Chhattisgarh (Sonhat)
• Jharkhand (Lohardaga)
• Tripura (Udaipur)
• Mizoram (Champhai)
• Therefore, it passes through a total of Eight states in India—two coastal states and six landlocked states.

The correct answer is Rapid growth of aggregate demand outweighing supply.

Key Points

• Rapid growth of aggregate demand outweighing supply is a classic scenario that can lead to inflation.
• When demand for goods and services increases at a rate faster than the economy's productive capacity, it puts pressure on resources, and sellers may respond by raising prices.
• This is known as demand-pull inflation, and it is a common explanation for periods of rising prices in an economy.
• Factors such as increased consumer spending, government expenditure, or investment can contribute to a surge in aggregate demand.
• If the supply side of the economy cannot keep pace with this increased demand, inflationary pressures may arise.

Additional Information

• Sluggish growth of aggregate demand can lead to a different economic concern known as deflation, rather than inflation.
• A reduction in the money supply can contribute to deflationary pressure in an economy. When the money supply shrinks, it can lead to a decrease in aggregate demand, less spending, and a possible fall in prices.
• High levels of unemployment can be the result of a variety of economic factors, and are often associated with economic decline or recession.

The correct answer is The Rampa Rebellion, 1879-1880.

Key Points

• The rebellion in which the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rose up against the local overlord of the prominent Mansabdar family is known as the Rampa Rebellion (1879-1880).
• The Rampa Rebellion took place in the Rampa region of Andhra Pradesh, India in the early 18th century.
• Tribal chiefs, mainly from the Koya and Konda tribes, rebelled against the oppressive rule of the local zamindar (landlord), who belonged to the mansabdar family.
• This rebellion was one of the many regional rebellions against feudal exploitation during that period.

Additional Information

• The Gudem rebellion, also known as the Gudem Ryotu Kuli Sangham, was a tribal peasant rebellion that occurred in 1886 in the Gudem hills of Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. This rebellion was an important tribal movement against the British colonial administration and local landlords.
• The Telangana armed struggle (1946–1951) was an important chapter in the history of the Indian independence movement and involved violent resistance against feudal landlords and the ruling Nizam of Hyderabad in the region of Telangana (now part of the Indian state of Telangana). ,

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• Brazil has won the FIFA World Cup the most number of times.
• Brazil has won this title 5 times.
• Brazil won its first title in 1958.
• Italy is the most successful team in FIFA after Brazil.
• Italy won 4 titles.

Additional Information

• The 2022 FIFA World Cup: 
• It took place in Qatar.
• It was the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world.
• The tournament was won by Argentina.
• International Federation of Association Football​ (FIFA):
• Founded: 1904
• Headquarters: Zurich, Switzerland

The correct answer is Dominique Lapierre.

Key Points

• The famous novel "City of Joy" was written by Dominique Lapierre.
• The book was first published in 1985 and is set in the slums of Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), India.
• It was adapted as a film by Roland Joffé in 1992.
• Calcutta has been nicknamed the "City of Joy" after this novel, although the slum was based on an area in its twin city, Howrah.

Additional Information

Some of the important books:

The correct answer is Purnima Devi Barman.

Key Points

• UN Environment Programme's 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category was presented to Dr. Purnima Devi Burman.
• She is a wildlife biologist and the leader of the "Hargila Army", a women-led conservation movement dedicated to saving the Greater Adjutant Stork from extinction in Assam, India.
• Dr. Burman's innovative approach combines ecological restoration with income generation for local communities, demonstrating a sustainable and community-driven model for environmental conservation.

Additional Information

• Ela Bhatt was the founder of the Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA), a trade union representing self-employed female textile workers in India. His successful leadership of SEWA brought him national and international recognition.
• Amit Dasgupta was appointed as an Honorary Member in the General Division of the Order of Australia (AM) for his service to Australia-India bilateral relations.
• Vanshika Parmar is a resident of Nadaun, Hamirpur and is the first girl from the state to become Miss Earth India 2022 at the age of 19.

The correct answer is Maha Upanishad.

Key Points

• The theme of India's G20 presidency—"Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" or "One Earth, One Family, One Future"—is taken from the ancient Sanskrit text of the Maha Upanishad.
• Guest countries- India has invited Bangladesh, Egypt, Mauritius, the Netherlands, Nigeria, Oman, Singapore, Spain and UAE as guest countries during its G20 presidency.

Additional Information

• The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum that includes 19 countries and the European Union (EU).
• The G20 was established in 1999 in response to several world economic crises.

List of G20 Summits

The correct answer is Surya Kiran.

Key Points

• The 16th edition of the India-Nepal joint training exercise “Surya Kiran-XVI” between India and Nepal will be conducted from 16 to 29 December 2022 at Nepal Army Battle School, Saljhandi (Nepal).
• India and Nepal aim to enhance interoperability in jungle warfare and counter-terrorism operations and HADR in mountainous areas under the UN mandate.

Additional Information

Some of the important Indian bilateral army exercises are as below:

The correct answer is 4:00 p.m. 

Important Points

Longitudes are imaginary lines circling the globe, used to measure time, with the Prime Meridian (0° longitude) standardized as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT or UTC). The Earth is revolving 360 degrees each day (24 hours). That means in one hour, the Earth revolves by 15 degrees.

• If it is 10:00 a.m. at Greenwich Mean Time (0°), the time at any other longitude can be calculated by taking into account these 15 degrees per hour.

Therefore, at 90° E longitude, being East, it would be ahead of Greenwich time.

• 90°/15° = 6 hours

Hence, the time at 90° E longitude would be 10:00 a.m. GMT + 6 hours = 4:00 p.m.

So the correct option is: 4:00 p.m.

The correct answer is Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn.

Key Points

• The gas giants of our solar system are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
• These four large planets, also called jovian planets after Jupiter, reside in the outer part of the solar system past the orbits of Mars and the asteroid belt.

Additional Information

• Terrestrial Planets (Inner Planets):
• Mars: Often called the "Red Planet," Mars has a thin atmosphere and surface features like valleys, canyons, and polar ice caps.
• Earth: The only known planet to support life, Earth has a diverse environment with oceans, continents, and a life-sustaining atmosphere.
• Venus: Similar in size and composition to Earth, Venus has a thick atmosphere, mostly composed of carbon dioxide.
• Mercury: The closest planet to the Sun, Mercury is a small, rocky planet with a thin atmosphere.
• There is a category of celestial objects known as "dwarf planets."
• Pluto, formerly considered the ninth planet, was reclassified as a dwarf planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) in 2006.

The correct answer is Alluvial.

Key Points

• The characteristics described correspond more to alluvial soils.
• It is formed by the accumulation of sediment carried by rivers and streams. These generally contain a mixture of sand, silt and clay.
• It contains considerable amounts of potash, phosphoric acid and lime. Alluvial soils are often fertile due to the minerals deposited by running water.
• Alluvial soils can be classified based on their age and the processes that led to their formation. 
• Two different types of alluvial soils develop in the upper and middle Gangetic plains.
• They are Khadar and Bhangar.
• Khadar is new alluvium and is deposited annually by floods, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silt.
• Bhangar represents a system of old alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains.

Additional Information

• Laterite Soil:
• Composition: Rich in iron and aluminum oxides.
• Texture: Variable texture.
• Properties: Poor fertility, may harden when dry.
• Arid soils are associated with dry regions.
• These soils have unique characteristics influenced by the arid climate.
• Characteristics of Arid soils are - Low Organic Content, High Mineral Content, Low Fertility, High Salinity, Coarse Texture, Poor Water-Holding Capacity.
• Black Soil (Regur Soil):
• Composition: Rich in clay, with a dark color.
• Texture: Heavy and sticky when wet.
• Properties: Highly fertile, good for agriculture.

Explanation:

Statement 1

• It states that in a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal, or natural gas are used to generate electricity.
• This is accurate because thermal power stations primarily rely on the combustion of fossil fuels to produce heat energy.

Statement 2

• It explains the process of electricity generation in a thermal power station.
• It mentions that fuels are burned to heat water and convert it into steam.
• The steam then passes through a turbine, which spins and generates electricity.
• This explanation corresponds to the basic principle of a thermal power station, where the heat energy from burning fuels is utilized to produce steam, which in turn drives a turbine to generate electricity.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and statement 2 provides an accurate explanation for statement 1.

The correct answer is option (3)

Key Points

• The Indus river basin is one of the largest river basins in the world and covers an area of around 1.16 million square kilometers.
• The basin is mainly located in Pakistan and India, with parts of it also extending to China and Afghanistan.
• In India, the basin covers the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
• The Indus river, which is the main river in the basin, originates in Tibet and flows through India and Pakistan before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
• The basin is home to a large population and is an important agricultural and industrial region in both India and Pakistan.

​

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is the second-highest ranking law officer in the country, subordinate only to the Attorney General.
• Assists the Attorney General in representing the Union of India in all legal matters before the Supreme Court and other courts.
• Acts independently on assigned cases and provides legal advice to the government on various issues.
• The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
• The post of the SGI is not a constitutional post. Hence, option 3 is correct answer.

Additional Information

​​Responsibilities:

• Arguing cases on behalf of the Union of India in the Supreme Court and other high courts.
• Advising the government on legal matters related to legislation, policy, and international agreements.
• Drafting legal documents and opinions.
• Supervising Additional Solicitor Generals and other law officers.

Appointment and Tenure:

• Appointed by the President of India, on the recommendation of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
• Term of office is three years, but can be reappointed with the approval of the ACC.
• Current Solicitor General:
• As of today, December 29, 2023, Tushar Mehta is the Solicitor General of India. He was first appointed in 2017 and reappointed in 2020.

Mistake Points

• Statement 1 given in the question was wrong, Attorney-General of India is the Government's chief legal advisor. Hence we have modified that statement.

The correct answer is The Estimates Committee.

Key Points

• The Estimates Committee has 30 members and all these members are from Lok Sabha(Lower House).
• There is no representation from the Rajya Sabha (Upper House).
• It is constituted to scrutinize the functioning of Government Ministries and departments in terms of allocation of Funds.
• All the recommendations made by the committee are advisory and stand non-binding for the Parliament.
• Public Accounts Committee is formed every year with not more than 22 members.
• Out of 22 members, 15 members are from Lok Sabha and 7 members are from Rajya Sabha.
• None of the members of this committee are allowed to be ministers in the Government.
• The chairperson of this committee is appointed by Lok Sabha Speaker.
• Committee on Public Undertakings also consists of 22 members from both houses of the Parliament.
• 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
• It is constituted by the Parliament of India to examine the reports and accounts of the Public Sector Undertakings.
• Departmentally Related Standing Committee (DRSC) on Finance consists of 31 members.
• Out of these 21 are from Lok Sabha and not more than 10 from Rajya Sabha.
• The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members – 20 elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members according to the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote and 10 elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members.

Explanation

• The President of India is the ceremonial head of state of the Republic of India.
• Acts as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
• Plays an integral role in the law-making process as bills passed by the Parliament become law only after receiving the President's assent.
• Holds certain discretionary powers to be used during unforeseen circumstances, such as returning a bill for reconsideration or imposing President's rule in a state.

Eligibility Criteria:

• Citizenship: Must be a citizen of India.
• Age: Must be 35 years of age or older.
• Mental State: Must be of sound mind and not be insolvent or bankrupt.
• Office of Profit: Should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the government of any state or under any local or other authority.
• Residency: Must have been a resident of India for at least 14 years (however, this is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, but it's inferred from the requirement that the President should not be a non-resident Indian).
• No Criminal Record: Ideally should not have any criminal records. Though it's not a constitutional requirement, it is generally understood that the person should be of high moral character.

The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament, as well as the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories. The tenure of the President is 5 years, but they can be re-elected for subsequent terms.

The correct answer is 26th January, 1950.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship for the whole of India.
• The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with matters relating to acquisition, determination, and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
• Every person who was at the commencement of the Constitution (26 January 1950) domiciled in the territory of India, and
• who was born in India
• Either of whose parents were born in India
• Who has been ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years, became a citizen of India.

Additional Information

• ​The date 26 November 1949 has great historical significance for India as it marks the adoption of the Constitution of India.
• On this day, the Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution, which came into force on January 26, 1950, replacing the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India.
• 15 August 1947 is an important date in the history of India because it is the day when India got independence from British rule.
• On 14 August 1947, Pakistan came into existence as a separate nation, marking the end of British rule in the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• According to the National Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog:
• A woman (15 to 49 years) or a man (15 to 54 years) is
  

considered undernourished if their Body Mass Index (BMI) is below 18.5 kg/m².

• It is to be noted that even if a single member of the
  

household is identified as undernourished, the entire

household is treated as deprived of nutrition. 

• This is owing to two primary reasons:
• the unit of analysis is the household, and
• the indicator for nutrition operates within the implicit principle of shared positive or negative externality, wherein the debilitating effects of undernourishment on one household member will have a direct or indirect effect on other members of the same household.

Important Points

• Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is published annually by the UN Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.

The correct answer is Kakatiya

Key Points

Rayagajakesari and Dayagajakesari are titles of the Kakatiya dynasty. The title Daya Gaja Kesari was given to the first Kakatiya king Prataparudra. In the Kakatiya dynasty coins were inscribed with this title. Raya-gaja-kesari title belongs to Rudrama Devi, she inherited this title from her father.

The correct answer is Kudumiyamalai.

Key Points

• Kudumiyamalai was a musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE.
• The Pallava inscription at Kudumiyaan Malai mentions Rudracharya, a great musician.
• ​The inscriptions were written on the rocks of the cave temple.
• It is a famous musical inscription as it gives musical notes in seven classical ragas.

Additional Information

• Ennayiram
• The Chola kings took great interest in establishing educational institutions around the temples.
• The Ennairam inscription provides important details about the colleges that existed at these places.
• Apart from Vedas and epics, subjects like mathematics and medicine were also taught in these institutions.
• Uttaramerur 
• ​The Uttarmerur Inscription is a 1,100-year-old inscription from Tamil Nadu, made during the reign of the Chola king Parantaka I, which describes the processes of village self-governance.
• Siyyamangalam
• Siyamangalam is a small village in Vandavasi taluk of Tiruvannamalai, Tamil Nadu.
• It is believed that the famous Buddhist master and philosopher Dignagar (6th century CE) was born in Siyamangalam.

The correct answer is Trade permit.

Key Points

• Dastak was a trade permit mostly issued to European traders by East India Company officials.
• The Mughal emperor Farrukh Siyar Farman decreed in 1717 and allowed the East India Company to enter the kingdom.
• In the mid-18th century, the British East India Company enjoyed and abused the benefits of dastak (free duty-free passes).
• These passes are preventing the East India Company from paying taxes during trade, due to which the local traders of Bengal have suffered losses.
• In 1757, Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-Daula snatched these rights which ultimately resulted in the Battle of Plassey.

Additional Information

• The Portuguese (1498) were the first company that came to India with Vasco da Gama, who discovered the sea route to India through the Cape of Good Hope (Africa).
• The Dutch East India Company came in 1595.
• The British East India Company came to India in 1600.
• The Danish East India Company came to India in 1616.
• The French East India Company was the last company to come to India in 1664.

The correct answer is Textile production.

Key Points

• The 'Dadni' system was mainly related to textile production.
• The Mughal Empire saw significant growth in trade and commerce, and the Dadni system was one of the methods by which credit was provided to merchants and artisans.
• This system allowed money to be advanced to artisans, who would then produce goods for merchants, with the borrowed money being placed on ships sailing to a particular destination as material.

Additional Information

• Kamiyati system:
• Under this system prevalent in Bihar and Orissa, people of the Kamiya caste, who used to farm as serfs, served their masters for the rest of their lives in exchange for the amount of interest paid on the loans received.
• Tinkathia tradition:
• In this practice prevalent in the Champaran (Bihar) region, farmers had to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of the land as per contracts with the English planters.
• Hali system:
• Under this practice prevalent in the western region of India, mainly Surat (Gujarat), Hali zamindars considered their owners as protectors of their property and themselves.
• Girmitiya system:
• In this practice, which started in the third decade of the 19th century, Indian workers had to work abroad for 5 or 7 years under an agreement.
• This agreement was called Girmit and this practice was called Girmitiya system.

The correct answer is  Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy 

 Key PointsContractionary monetary policy typically involves increasing interest rates to curb inflation or slow down an overheating economy. By increasing interest rates, borrowing costs become higher, which tends to reduce spending and investment. This can also attract foreign investment due to higher returns, leading to the appreciation of the currency.

Expansionary fiscal policy, on the other hand, involves increasing government spending and/or cutting taxes to stimulate the economy. This can lead to higher economic growth. However, when combined with contractionary monetary policy, the increase in interest rates can still attract foreign investment, contributing to the currency's appreciation. This combination also manages the inflation that could result from the expansionary fiscal policy, making the combination a balanced approach for managing an economy.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy, as it unambiguously helps raise interest rates and can lead to currency appreciation

The correct answer is crowding out.

Key PointsCrowding Out Effect

• This refers to a phenomenon where increased borrowing by the government to meet its spending needs causes a decrease in the number of funds that are available to meet the investment needs of the private sector.
• In other words, when the government is increasing its expenditure, private expenditure comes down. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Sometimes, the government adopts an expansionary fiscal policy stance and increases its spending to boost economic activity.
• This leads to an increase in interest rates. Increased interest rates affect private investment decisions.
• A high magnitude of the crowding-out effect may even lead to lesser income in the economy.
• With higher interest rates, the cost for funds to be invested increases and affects their accessibility to debt financing mechanisms.
• This leads to lesser investment ultimately and crowds out the impact of the initial rise in the total investment spending.

Important Points

• Pump priming
• It is the action taken to stimulate an economy, usually during a recessionary period, through government spending, and interest rate and tax reductions.
• The term pump priming is derived from the operation of older pumps; a suction valve had to be primed with water so that the pump would function properly.
• Dumping:
• Dumping in the financial world occurs when a company or a country exports its products at a price lower than its domestic price.
• Exporters dump to compete with the producers and sellers in the importing country.
• Dumping enables consumers in the importing country to obtain access to goods at an affordable price.
• However, it can also destroy the local market of the importing country, which can result in layoffs and the closure of businesses.
• The World Trade Organization (WTO) and European Union(EU) regulate dumping by putting tariffs and taxes on trading partners.

The correct answer is 3 only.

Key Points

• Some of the objective of the NITI Aayog:
• To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors, and strategies with the active involvement of States in the light of national objectives.
• The vision of the NITI Aayog will then provide a framework ‘national agenda’ for the Prime Minister and the Chief Ministers to provide impetus to.
• To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States continuously, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
• To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
• To design strategic and long-term policy and program frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy.  The lessons learned through monitoring and feedback will be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections.

Additional Information

• The Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution – NITI Aayog on January 1, 2015, with an emphasis on a 'bottom up' approach to envisage a vision of maximum governance, minimum government, reflecting the spirit of 'cooperative federalism'. was given.
• Structure of NITI Aayog:
• Chairman: Prime Minister
• Vice President: To be appointed by the Prime Minister
• Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories.
• Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, consisting of the Chief Minister and Lieutenant Governor, chaired by the Prime Minister or his nominee.
• Ad-hoc Membership: 2 members in ex-officio capacity on rotation basis from leading research institutions.
• Ex-officio membership: A maximum of four from the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
• Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure in the post of Secretary to the Government of India.
• Special Invitees: Experts with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime Minister.

The correct answer is Tendulkar Committee.

Key Points

• ​In December 2005, the Planning Commission constituted an expert group under the chairmanship of Professor Suresh D. Tendulkar to review the methodology of poverty estimation.
• The Tendulkar Committee submitted its report in December 2009 and calculated the poverty line and poverty ratio for 2004–05.
• According to the Tendulkar method, the poverty line is expressed in terms of MPCE (monthly per capita consumption expenditure) based on a mixed reference period.
• The respective proportions for rural and urban areas in 2004–05 were 41.8% and 25.7% and 37.2% for the country as a whole.

Additional Information

• Lakdawala Committee:
• The committee was constituted in the year 1993 and was headed by Professor D T Lakdawala.
• According to the Lakdawala Committee, the poor cannot meet these average energy requirements.
• This committee defined the poverty line based on household per capita consumption expenditure.
• The committee used CPI-IL (Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers) and CPI-AL (Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Workers) to estimate the poverty line.
• VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971) conducted the first systematic assessment of poverty in India based on National Sample Survey (NSS) data.
• Alagh Committee (1979):
• ​The task force constituted by the Planning Commission under the chairmanship of YK Alagh constructed poverty lines for rural and urban areas based on nutritional requirements and related consumption expenditure.
• Poverty estimates for subsequent years were to be calculated by adjusting the price level for inflation.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Sub Mission under National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)
• Institutional Training: Enhance the quantity, quality, and reach of training programs and outcomes.
• Infrastructure
• Convergence
• Trainers
• Overseas Employment: Ensure that Indian youth receive training at global standards to enhance their employability abroad.
• Sustainable Livelihoods
• Leveraging Public Infrastructure: It aims to maximize the use of existing public infrastructure to expand skill development initiatives across India.

Additional Information

• The Union Cabinet approved the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) on 1 July 2015.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi officially launched it on World Youth Skills Day on 15 July 2015.
• This initiative includes the following:
• National Skill Development Mission.
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).
• National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
• Skill Loan Scheme.

The correct answer Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The features of Poshan Abhiyaan are as follows:
• POSHAN Abhiyaan is a comprehensive scheme that monitors, supervises, targets and guides nutrition-related interventions across ministries.
• Poshan Abhiyaan monitors various schemes that contribute to eliminating malnutrition in India.
• The nutrition campaign will focus on maternal nutrition, infant and young child feeding norms and treatment protocols.
• Mass movement and multi-sector intervention are the two main components of Poshan Abhiyaan.
• It encourages Anganwadi workers (AWWs) to use IT-based tools at the community level.
• The Poshan Tracker app is designed for Anganwadi workers and Anganwadi centers to enter beneficiaries' data into forms.
• It encourages states and union territories to meet their targets.
• It sets up Nutrition Resource Centers (NRCs) to increase public nutrition awareness through various social activities and audits.
• To ensure that all Anganwadi centers are equipped with smartphones and Growth Monitoring Devices (GMDs) such as infantometers, stadiometers, mother and child weighing scales, the Ministry has revised technical specifications and guidelines for replacement of GMDs by States. Have been issued.

Additional Information 

• Poshan Abhiyaan, or National Nutrition Mission, is a multi-ministerial convergence mission that began on March 8, 2018, to improve the nutritional status of children under six years of age, adolescent girls, pregnant women and lactating mothers promptly.
• This is supported by the National Nutrition Strategy of NITI Aayog, which aims to achieve "Kuposhyan Mukt Bharat" or malnutrition-free India by 2022.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Certiorari means to be certified.
• For the issuance of the writ of certiorari, the following conditions must be fulfilled:
• The existence of an officer or a tribunal having the judicial authority as per the law to decide on the cases affecting the rights of people.
• Such an officer or the tribunal must have acted- 
• in excess of judicial power, or
• without requisite jurisdiction, or
• in violation of the principles of natural justice.

Additional Information

• There are five types of Writs - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto which are provided by the Supreme Court under Article 32. The High Court can issue other writs under Article 226.
• Habeas Corpus: The writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
• Mandamus: This writ of command is issued by the supreme or high court when any government, court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.
• Certiorari: The writ of certiorari can be issued by the supreme or high court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
• Prohibition: It is popularly known as 'Stay Order'.
• Quo-Warranto: It is a writ issued to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled.

The correct answer is Justice H. L. Dattu.

Key Points

• The Chief Justice of India, who ordered the formation of a special bench called 'Social Justice Bench', was Justice H.L. Dattu.
• The Social Justice Bench was established in the Supreme Court of India during the tenure of Justice Dattu and was dedicated to addressing issues related to social justice, including matters relating to the deprived and marginalized sections of society.
• The objective of the Social Justice Bench is to expedite the hearing of cases related to social justice and ensure timely justice for deprived and vulnerable groups.

Additional Information

• The Supreme Court (SC) consists of the Chief Justice and 33 other judges appointed by the President of India.
• The first Chief Justice of India was Sir Harilal Jekisundas Kania.
• The current Chief Justice of India is Dhananjay Y Chandrachud.
• The Supreme Court of India came into existence on 26 January 1950 and is located at Tilak Marg, New Delhi.
• On 28 January 1950, two days after India became a sovereign democratic republic, the Supreme Court was inaugurated.

The correct answer is Sachindranath Sanyal.

Key Points

• Sachindranath Sanyal was an Indian independence activist and a prominent figure in the revolutionary movements against British colonial rule in India.
• He is best known for his association with the revolutionary organization Anushilan Samiti and for his role in the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925.
• The book "Bandi Jivan" was written by Sachindranath Sanyal.

Additional Information

• Rash Behari Bose:
• Rash Behari Bose was a revolutionary leader and played a key role in the Indian independence movement.
• He was associated with the Ghadar Party and later the Indian National Army (INA) led by Subhas Chandra Bose.
• Veer Savarkar:
• Veer Savarkar, also known as Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, was a freedom fighter, poet, and political leader.
• He is credited with popularizing the term "Hindutva" and was a strong advocate of Hindutva ideology.
• Aruna Asaf Ali:
• Aruna Asaf Ali was a prominent freedom fighter known for her participation in the Quit India Movement.
• She played a significant role in the Indian National Congress and later became the first woman to be elected as the Mayor of Delhi.

The correct answer is Punjab and Sind.

Key Points

• Provincial elections were held in British India in the winter of 1936–37 as ordered by the Government of India Act 1935.
• Elections were held in 11 provinces – Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.
• In the 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight provinces – Bengal, Punjab and Sindh being the three exceptions.
• The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937. The Congress emerged in power in eight provinces – the exceptions being Punjab and Sindh.
• Of the total 11 provinces, Congress formed ministries in 8 provinces – Madras, UP, Bombay, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Assam and NWFP.
• In 2 provinces, Punjab and Sindh, the Congress was in alliance with regional parties.
• Muslim League was the largest party in Bengal, it did not have a majority. The Muslim League was unable to form a government in any province.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• After taking over the Indian National Army (INA) in 1943, Subhas Chandra Bose recruited a significant number of soldiers from among Indian prisoners of war, who had been captured by the Japanese in Southeast Asia during World War II. He saw an opportunity to form a force that could fight for India's independence from British rule and worked vigorously to expand the INA by inspiring these soldiers with the cause of freedom.. Hence, statement 1 is true.
• Rash Behari Bose handed over INA to Subhas Chandra Bose. It was revived under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose after his arrival in Southeast Asia in 1943.
• Subhas Chandra Bose introduced a women’s detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi. Hence, statement 2 is true.

Additional Information

• The Azad Hind Fauz was declared to be the army of Bose's Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind (the Provisional Government of Free India).
• Under Bose's leadership, the INA drew ex-prisoners and thousands of civilian volunteers from the Indian expatriate population in Malaya (present-day Malaysia) and Burma.
• This second INA (Bose's INA) fought along with the Imperial Japanese Army against the British and Commonwealth forces in the campaigns in Burma, in Imphal and Kohima, and later against the Burma Campaign of the Allies.
• On October 21, 1943, Subhash Bose formed the Provisional Government for Free India at Singapore with H.C. Chatterjee (Finance portfolio), M.A. Aiyar (Broadcasting), Lakshmi Swaminathan (Women Department), etc.
• The famous slogan- “Give me blood, I will give you freedom” was given in Malaya.
• This provisional government declared war on Britain and the United States and was recognised by the Axis powers. Recruits were trained and funds collected for the INA.
• The INA headquarters was shifted to Rangoon (in Burma) in January 1944, and the army recruits used to march from there with the war cry “Chalo Delhi” on their lips.
• On November 6, 1943, Andaman and Nicobar islands were given by the Japanese army to the INA; the islands were renamed as Shahid Dweep and Swaraj Dweep respectively.
• On July 6, 1944, Subhas Bose addressed Mahatma Gandhi as ‘Father of Nation’- from the Azad Hind Radio (the first person to call Gandhi, ‘Father of Nation’).
• One INA battalion commanded by Shah Nawaz was allowed to accompany the Japanese Army to the Indo-Burma front and participate in the Imphal campaign.
• However, the Indians received discriminatory treatment from the Japanese, which included being denied rations and arms and being made to do menial work for the Japanese units, and this disgusted and demoralised the INA units.

The correct answer is Alvars : Believed in devotion of Shakti.

Key Points

• The Alvars were Tamil poet-saints who were devoted to Lord Vishnu, not Shakti.
• They composed devotional hymns praising Lord Vishnu and are considered instrumental in the Bhakti movement in South India.
• Shakti is more commonly associated with the Shakta tradition, where the worship is focused on the divine feminine, often personified as various forms of the goddess.

Additional Information

• Some notable forms of Bhakti:
• Saguna Bhakti: This form of Bhakti involves worshiping a personal god with attributes (saguna), such as Vishnu, Shiva, or Devi. Devotees engage in rituals, prayers, and worship to connect with the divine in a more personalized way.
• Nirguna Bhakti: In contrast to Saguna Bhakti, Nirguna Bhakti involves worshiping the formless, attributeless aspect of the divine. Devotees focus on the abstract, transcendent nature of the ultimate reality, often represented by terms like Brahman.
• Shakta Bhakti: Devotees following Shakta Bhakti worship the divine feminine, often in the forms of Goddess Durga, Kali, Lakshmi, or Saraswati. Shaktism emphasizes the creative and nurturing aspects of the feminine divine.
• Vaishnav Bhakti: Devotees of Vishnu engage in Vaishnav Bhakti, worshiping him in various forms such as Rama and Krishna. This tradition includes various sects like the followers of Ramanuja, Madhva, and Chaitanya, each with its unique practices.
• Shaiva Bhakti: Devotees of Shiva follow Shaiva Bhakti, worshiping Lord Shiva as the supreme deity. They may focus on different aspects of Shiva, such as the meditative and ascetic Rudra or the benevolent Nataraja.
• Smartism: This form of Bhakti is associated with the Smarta tradition, which encourages the worship of multiple deities, including Vishnu, Shiva, Devi, Ganesha, and Surya, among others.
• Alvar and Nayanar Bhakti: Alvars and Nayanars were poet-saints in Tamil Nadu who contributed to the Bhakti movement. Alvars were devoted to Lord Vishnu, while Nayanars were devoted to Lord Shiva.
• Guru Bhakti: Some forms of Bhakti emphasize devotion to a spiritual teacher or guru. Devotees believe that by surrendering to the guru, they can attain spiritual enlightenment.

The correct answer is Krishna and Tungabhadra.

Key Points

• The two rivers that flow in the area between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara Hampi are the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers.
• During the reign of Harihara I in Vijayanagara, the empire extended from the Konkan coast on the western end to Nellore and Cuddapah on the eastern end.
• ​Krishna River:
• It originates in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar in Satara district of Maharashtra.
• It is the major source of irrigation in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• Left bank tributaries - Bhima, Dindi, Peddavagu, Musi, Paleru, Munneru.
• Right bank tributaries - Kudali (Niranjna) Venna, Koyna, Panchganga, Dudhaganga, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Tungabhadra.

Tungabhadra River:

• The Tungabhadra River rises from the Karnataka state and flows through Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana states.
• The ancient name of the river Tungabhadra was Pampa.
• The Historic city 'Hampi' is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
• The Tungabhadra River is formed by the confluence of the Tunga River and the Bhadra River at Koodli, Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Hampi: 
• Hampi is an ancient village in the Indian state of Karnataka.
• Hampi's name is derived from that of the local mother goddess, Pampadevi.

The correct answer is Assam Rifles.

Key Points

• The Assam Rifles is the only paramilitary force in India that operates under a dual control structure.
• It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) as well as the operational control of the Indian Army.
• The Assam Rifles came into being in 1835, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’.

Additional Information

• ​The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is one of the premier central armed police forces of India (under the Ministry of Home Affairs) for internal security.
• Originally formed as the Crown Representatives Police in 1939, it is one of the oldest central paramilitary forces.
• After independence, the force was renamed the Central Reserve Police Force by an Act of Parliament on 28 December 1949.
• Central Industrial Security Force (CISF): Provides security cover to nuclear installations, space installations, airports, ports, power plants, sensitive government buildings, and historical monuments.
• Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP): ITBP is a specialized mountain force and most of the officers and men are professionally trained mountaineers and skiers.

The correct answer is Ahom.

Key Points

• The Ahom people are an ethnic community native to the Assam region of northeastern India.
• The Ahom dynasty, originally from the Shan region of present-day Myanmar, ruled the state of Assam for several centuries.
• The Ahom dynasty, which established its rule in Assam in the 13th century, had a profound impact on the socio-cultural landscape of the region.

Additional Information

• The Bhil is an ethnic group mainly found in the Indian states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and parts of Andhra Pradesh. They are primarily associated with central and western India.
• The Gond people are an Adivasi group predominantly found in central India, including states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and parts of Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and West Bengal
• The Adi is an ethnic group in the northeastern state of Arunachal Pradesh. The Adi people are among the major tribes in Arunachal Pradesh and have their own distinctive culture, language, and traditions.

The correct answer is Zimbabwe.

Key Points

• The Zimbabwe men's national cricket team is also known as the Chevrons.
• The Chevrons refers to the stylized V-shaped graphic featured on the team's uniform and flag.

Additional Information

• The Australian national cricket team is often informally referred to as the "Baggy Greens" (due to their traditional green caps) or simply as the "Aussies."
• The New Zealand national cricket team is commonly known as the "Black Caps." The term "Kiwis" is also used informally, referencing the national bird of New Zealand, the kiwi.
• The term "Dutch" is used for the Netherlands national cricket team. They are often referred to as the "Oranje" or the "Dutch Lions," reflecting the national color and a symbol of strength.

Concept:

• Conservation of biodiversity refers to the protection, upliftment, restoration and management of natural resources (flora and fauna).
• The following are the objectives of biodiversity conservation:
• Conservation of species diversity.
• Sustainable use of biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem.
• The conservation strategies can be of 2 types:
• In-situ - conserving the species in its own natural habitat. E.g. - National Parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, Tiger Reserves.
• Ex-situ - conserving the species outside its habitat. E.g. - Botanical gardens, Zoos, gene banks, Seed banks.
• National park is an area set aside by a national government for the preservation of the natural environment.
• They are large protected areas meant for the conservation of plants and animals.
• Most of the time, human intervention in these areas is not allowed and they are kept well protected.

Important Points

• The Kuno National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh.
• It is also a wildlife sanctuary that has been selected for reintroduction of Cheetahs in India.
• Cheetahs have been extinct in the country for about 70 years.
• A total of 8 Namibian Cheetahs, 5 females and 3 males, were brought to India in order to revive their population in India.
• Though one of them has died, one other has given birth to 4 cubs in the national park.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is Klaus Hasselmann. 

Key Points

• The Nobel Prize in Physics 2022 was awarded jointly to Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, and Anton Zeilinger "for experiments with entangled photons, establishing the violation of Bell inequalities and pioneering quantum information science".
• In 2021, the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann (jointly) for their research on climate models and to Giorgio Parisi for his work on the interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems.

Additional Information

• The Nobel Prize is a set of prestigious international awards given annually in several categories, including Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, Peace, and Economic Sciences.
• The prizes were established by the will of Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor, engineer, and industrialist, in 1895.
• Among the recipients till now, 12 are Indians (five Indian citizens and seven of Indian ancestry or residency).
• Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian citizen to be awarded and also the first Asian to be awarded in 1913.
• Mother Teresa is the only woman on the list of recipients.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

• The sudden response to peripheral nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily, is called reflex action.
• The reflex action occurs without conscious thoughts and involves a part of the central nervous system.
• Components of a Reflex Arc:
• Receptor → Detects the stimulus (e.g., skin receptors sense heat when you touch something hot).
• Sensory neuron (afferent neuron) → Carries the message from the receptor to the spinal cord.
• Interneuron (association neuron) → Present in the spinal cord; processes the information and connects sensory to motor neurons.
• Motor neuron (efferent neuron) → Sends signals from the spinal cord to the effector organ.
• Effector (muscle or gland) → Produces the response (e.g., muscle contracts to withdraw hand).
• Some examples of reflex action are, a sudden withdrawal of a body part that comes in contact with objects such as extremely hot, cold, or pointed; sudden blinking of eyes when an insect comes very close to the eyes; sneezing due to the irritants of the nasal passages, etc.
• It helps the organisms to respond quickly to an adverse situation that could have caused bodily harm.
• Reflex arc - is the nervous pathway that is involved in a reflex action.
• The components of a reflex arc include receptor organs, sensory neurons, nerve center, associated neurons, motor neurons, and effector neurons.

Important Points

• The reflex arc comprises at least one afferent or sensory neuron and one efferent or motor neuron.
• These neurons are appropriately arranged in a series.
• Receptors are the muscle spindles or the sensory organs.
• The receptor receives signals from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via sensory neuron into the relay neuron of spinal cord.
• The motor neuron carries signals from the CNS to the effector.
• So, in a reflex action the reflex arc is formed by:

Receptor - Sensory neuron - Relay neuron in spinal cord - Motor neuron - Effector

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Concept:

• Endocrine glands are the ductless glands that secrete hormones.
• The human endocrine system consists of a number of endocrine glands such as the hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, pancreas, etc.
• These glands secrete the hormones into the blood, from where they are transported to the target organs or tissues.

Important Points

• The thyroid gland consists of 2 lobes, located on either side of the trachea.
• It consists of some follicular cells, which are responsible for the synthesis of 2 hormones:
• Tetraiodothyronine (T4) - It is also known as thyroxine.
• Triiodothyronine (T3)
• As the name suggests, iodine is an important component of thyroxine and is required for normal biosynthesis of T3 and T4.
• Deficiency of iodine in the diet leads to a condition called hypothyroidism.
• This is often accompanied by goitre, where the thyroid glands enlarge.
• Hypothyroidism during pregnancy may cause several developmental defects in the foetus:
• stunted growth or cretinism
• mental retardation
• low intelligence quotient
• abnormal skin
• deaf-mutism

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is Asha Parekh.

Key Points

• Asha Parekh is a renowned film actress, director and producer, and an accomplished Indian classical dancer.
• Asha Parekh started her career as a child artist and later became one of the leading actresses in the Hindi film industry during the 1960s and 1970s.
• She was honored with the Padma Shri, one of the highest civilian awards in India, in 1992.
• Asha Parekh was the first female chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification (Censor Board) of India. She held the post from 1998 to 2001
• For her contribution to the field of cinema, she was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2020.

Additional Information

• In 1968, Vyjayanthimala was awarded the Padma Shri by the Government of India.
• Waheeda Rehman:
• Padma Shri (1972)
• Padma Bhushan (2011)
• Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2023)
• Alda Sinha (born 11 November 1936), better known by her stage name Mala Sinha, is a former Indian actress who has worked in Hindi, Bengali and Nepali films.

The correct answer is New York.

Key Points

• The United Nations 2023 Water Conference – formally known as the 2023 Conference for the Mid-Term Comprehensive Review of the Implementation of the United Nations Decade for Action on Water and Sanitation (2018-2028) – took place on 22-24 March 2023 in New York held at the United Nations Headquarters, co-hosted by the Government of Tajikistan and the Kingdom of the Netherlands.
• The U.N. recognized that we are not doing enough to meet SDG 6, which aims to provide clean water and sanitation for everyone by 2030.
  

UN 2023 Water Conference's theme, is "Our watershed moment: uniting the world for water".

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• To bring sustainable development in the mainstream United Nations (UN) launched the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and SDGs.
• This universal, integrated and transformative agenda aims to spur actions that will end poverty and build a more sustainable world over the next 15 years.
• There are 17 goals and 169 targets specific targets to be achieved by 2030. Reaching the goals requires action on all fronts – governments, businesses, civil society and people everywhere all have a role to play.
• SDGs are not legally binding.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Tomb of Sand is a 2018 Hindi-language novel by Indian author Geetanjali Shree.
• It was translated into English by U.S. translator Daisy Rockwell.
• "Tomb of Sand" was the first book written in an Indian language to be awarded the International Booker Prize.

Additional Information

• The International Booker Prize is awarded annually for a single book, translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
• The International Booker Prize began life in 2005 as the Man Booker International Prize.
• This prize aims to encourage more reading of quality fiction from all over the world and has already had an impact on those statistics in the UK.
• The vital work of translators is celebrated, with the £50,000 prize money divided equally between the author and translator.
• Each shortlisted author and translator also receive £2,500.
• Novels and collections of short stories are both eligible.

The correct answer is Indonesian.

Key Points

• Garuda Shakti is a bilateral exercise between special forces of the armies of India (Para Special Force) and Indonesia.
• It started in 2012, in India.
• It is conducted as part of military diplomacy between the Indian and Indonesian Army alternatively in India and Indonesia.
• The eighth edition of Exercise Garuda Shakti focuses on enhancing understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the Special Forces of both armies.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits.

Key Points

• Raising interest rates on savings and fixed deposits is a monetary policy tool that falls under the broader category of tight monetary policy.
• By raising interest rates, the government aims to reduce consumer spending and borrowing, which in turn can help control inflation.
• Higher interest rates make savings more attractive, discourage borrowing, and may reduce spending in the economy.
• This measure is often used by central banks to address inflationary pressures.

Additional Information

• Increasing non-plan expenditure on defence, police and other sectors is generally an expansionary fiscal policy measure rather than a tool to combat inflation.
• Providing more subsidies on exports is not a commonly used measure to tackle inflation. Providing subsidies on exports is often considered an expansionary policy because it encourages and supports the export sector, contributing to economic growth rather than addressing inflationary pressures.
• Reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR) is generally considered an expansionary monetary policy tool rather than a measure to combat inflation.
• The cash reserve ratio is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to keep as reserves with the central bank.

The correct answer is deflation.

Key Points

• Deflation:
• It is a persistent decline in the general price level of goods and services.
• Deflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation.
• Deflation is a persistent decline in the general price level of goods and services in an economy.
• It is the opposite of inflation and can lead to reduced spending and investment.
• Deflation can result from factors like decreased demand, excess production capacity, or a contraction in the money supply.

Additional Information

• Inflation: It is a sustained increase in the general price level in an economy.
• Stagflation: A situation in which inflation rates are high, economic growth slows, and unemployment remains persistently high.

The correct answer is Years of schooling.

Key Points

• The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) includes the following indicators:
• Years of schooling
• Child mortality
• Nutrition
• Electricity access
• Improved sanitation
• Improved drinking water sources

Additional Information

• Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistical tool used to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.
• It was first developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq in the year 1990.
• It combines 4 major indicators-
• Life expectancy
• Expected years of schooling
• Mean years of schooling
• Gross National Income per capita for standard of Living
• The Human Development Index (HDI) is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) annually.

The correct answer is structural unemployment.

Key Points

• Unemployment caused by changes in technology or changes in demand for specific products or industries is usually called "structural unemployment".
• Structural unemployment is the result of the mismatch between the skills and qualifications of workers and the requirements of available job opportunities.

Additional Information

• Frictional unemployment occurs when individuals are in the process of transferring between jobs or are looking for a job.
• This is a natural part of the labor market as people enter or re-enter the workforce and look for jobs that match their skills and preferences.
• Cyclical unemployment is linked to the economic business cycle and results from fluctuations in overall economic activity.
• During economic downturns or recessions, businesses may cut back on production, leading to layoffs and unemployment.
• Disguised unemployment refers to a situation where individuals are employed but their contribution to overall productivity is minimal or unnecessary.
• In other words, these workers appear to be employed, but their presence in the workforce does not result in any meaningful increase in output.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was launched in 2003 by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• The main objective of the scheme is to correct the regional imbalance in the availability of affordable and reliable tertiary health services in the country.
• There are two components under PMSSY:
• Establishment of institutions like All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS).
• Upgradation of Government Medical Colleges or Institutes

Additional Information

• The AIIMS Act was passed by the government to facilitate the creation of AIIMS institutes.
• As per the Act, all AIIMS institutes are designated as Institutes of National Importance and operate autonomously under the Ministry of Health.