CDS General Knowledge 4 Sep 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• A bicameral legislature is a system of government in which the legislature comprises two houses.
• At the state level, the equivalent of Lok Sabha is the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly), and that of Rajya Sabha is Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council).
• One-third of the members of the Vidhan Parishad are elected every 2 years.
• At present, the states that have bicameral legislature in India are:
• Uttar Pradesh
• Bihar
• Maharashtra
• Karnataka
• Andhra Pradesh
• Telangana

Hence option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act

Key Points

• In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the Unnikrishnan JP vs State of Andhra Pradesh & Others held that Education is a fundamental right flowing from Article 21.
• Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) was set up, which encompassed the insertion of Article 21A.
• The 86th amendment to the constitution of India in 2002, provided the Right to Education as a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.
• The same amendment inserted Article 21A which made the Right to Education a fundamental right for children between 6-14 years.
• Amendment of article 51A - In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause (J), the following clause shall be added, namely:-
• (k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Additional Information

• 83th Amendment Act:
• Eighty-Third Amendment Act, 2000  provides that no reservation in Panchayats need be made for SCs in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The total population of Arunachal Pradesh is tribal and there are no SCs.
• It amends Article 243M by inserting Clause (3A) after Clause 3
• Article 243M – Clause 3A says that Nothing in article 243D, relating to reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes, shall apply to the State of Arunachal Pradesh.
• 84th Amendment Act:
• The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 extended the ban on readjustment of seats in Lok Sabha and state legislature for another 25 years (2026).
• 85th Amendment Act:
• ​Provided for ‘consequential seniority’ in the case of promotion by virtue of rule of reservation for the government servants belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes with retrospective effect from June 1995.

The correct answer is its acceleration.

Key Points

• An object that is moving only because of the action of gravity is said to be free-falling and its motion is described by Newton's second law of motion.
• ​Newton's second law of motion: The second law states that the acceleration of an object is dependent upon two variables - the net force acting upon the object and the mass of the object.
• The acceleration of the freely falling object is constant and equal to the acceleration due to gravity.
• During free fall of the object, gravitational force acts on the body in a downward direction always and so the acceleration of the object remains in a vertically downward direction which is constant with time.
• The most remarkable and unexpected fact about falling objects is that, if air resistance and friction are negligible, then in a given location all objects fall toward the center of Earth with the same constant acceleration, independent of their mass.
• The force of gravity causes objects to fall toward the center of Earth. The acceleration of free-falling objects is therefore called the acceleration due to gravity.
• g= 9.81 m/sec²

Concept:

• Lens are of two types:
• Concave Lens or diverging lens
• Convex Lens or converging lens
• When a light ray falls on a concave or convex lenses obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path.
• When a light ray falls parallel to the principal axis on concave or convex lenses, the reflected ray passes through a focus (F) on the principal axis.
• When a light ray passing through focus strikes concave or convex lenses, the reflected ray will pass parallel to the principal axis.
• Convex lens always forms real image while concave always forms virtual image.

Explanation: 

When the object is placed at the focus of the convex lens then the image formed will be larger in size, real & is located at infinity as we can see in the ray diagram given below.

Here 'F' denotes focus, 'C' denotes centre of curvature & AB is height of the object.

Additional Information

• The nature of the image is decided by the magnification (M) of the lens, $M = {v \over u}$  ; where v is the image distance & u is object distance.
• Lens formula ${1 \over v}-{1 \over u} = {1 \over f}$; where f is focal length of the lens.
• Focal length of convex lens is always positive & for concave lens is negative.
• Since object is real, so object distance is taken as negative.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Aperture of a convex lens:

• Aperture of a lens is the effective diameter of its light transmitting area.
• It gives the size of the mirror.
• Therefore, the brightness i.e. the intensity of the image formed by a lens which depends on the amount of light passing through the lens will vary as the square of the aperture of the lens.
• Mirrors whose aperture is much smaller than its radius of curvature, we use R=2f.
• The focal length will remain the same as it does not depend on the aperture of the lens.

Concept:

• Density is physical quantity & is defined as the unit volume of a substance.
• Its SI unit is kgm^-3
• The density of water at 4ºC is 1000 kgm-3
• Usually, water behaves like other liquids up to the temperature of 4ºC.
• But if we decrease the temperature its density decreases till it is converted into ice.
• Upon heating temperature rises which means the material will expand but water behaves differently upon heating in various temperature ranges.

Explanation: 

• When ice melts into liquid water, the density of the liquid increases. As we increase the temperatures, the molecules move faster and get further apart & thus the density decreases with an increase in temperature increases.
• At 0°C temperature, the water still contains many ice-like clusters. These clusters are free to move relative to each other, so water is still liquid.
• At 4 °C, the clusters start forming. The molecules are still slowing down and coming closer together, but the formation of clusters makes the molecules be further apart. Cluster formation is the bigger effect, so the density starts to decrease. Thus, the density of water is a maximum at 4 °C.
• Water shows anomalous behavior when its temperature is increased from 0ºC to 4ºC then its density will increase & it shows expansion. At 4ºC it shows maximum density but as we further increased its temperature, its density decreases.

The figure shown below gives a clear idea of this anomalous behavior of water.

Concept:

• The acceleration due to gravity (g) is the tendency of the planet to attract the mass towards its center.
• At the surface of the earth, g = 9.8 ms^-2
• At the center of the earth, its value is zero
• Acceleration due to gravity (g) varies with height above the earth's surface & depth below the earth's surface.

Explanation:

It is given by the formula, $g=\frac{GM}{R^2}$

where; G = 6.67 × 10^-11 m³kg^-1s^-2 (Gravitational Constant), M = Mass of the earth in kilogram, R = Radius of the earth in meters.

Clearly, we can see that 'g' depends upon both the mass as well as the radius of the earth.

Additional Information

• Variation of 'g' with height (h) is given by the relation, $g' = {GM \over (R+h)^2}$

           where h is the height above the earth's surface.

• Variation of 'g' with depth (d) is given by the relation, $g''=g(1-\frac dR)$
• where d is the depth below the earth's surface.
• In both the cases, we can clearly see that acceleration due to gravity decreases with height (h) & depth (d).

The correct answer is Nilgiris.

Key Points

Sholas:

• The temperate forests are called Sholas in the Nilgiris, Anaimalai and Palani hills.
• They occur only in the valleys where there is the least reach of the fog and mist.
• In general, mountains are covered in grasslands and trees never grow on the mountain tops.
• Finding the Shola forests (tropical forests) at an altitude above 2000 metres of sea-level is unique and curious.
• They are found only in South India in the Southern Western Ghats high altitude mountains in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu(Nilgiri).

Important Points

• Due to high isolation and unique climatic conditions, the Shola forests are characterised by high endemism.
• The species of plants and animals found here are native to this region and such species cannot be found anywhere else in the world. For example - Nilgiri Tahr.
• Shola tree species have one of the lowest regeneration rates. They do not get established very soon and are very sensitive to climatic change.
• These forests and grasslands are being cleared for agriculture and for the construction of hill stations.
• The shola forests have high water retention capacity than any other soil. They retain water from Monsoon and retained water is then slowly released in the year’s course and they form small streams.
• They are part of the world’s Biodiversity hotspots.

​

The correct answer is Peri-glacial.

Key Points

Pingos:

• Pingos are intrapermafrost ice-cored hills, ranging in height from 3 - 70 m.
• They are typically conical in shape and grow and persist only in permafrost environments, such as the Arctic and subarctic.
• A pingo is a periglacial landform, which is defined as a non-glacial landform or process linked to colder climates.
• Pingo is a dome-shaped hill formed in a permafrost area when the pressure of freezing groundwater pushes up a layer of frozen ground.
• It is estimated that there are more than 11,000 pingos on Earth.
• The Tuktoyaktuk peninsula area has the greatest concentration of pingos in the world with a total of 1,350 pingos.
• Modern pingos occur in the continental tundras and are generally restricted to latitudes of 65° to 75° N.
• The rupture of the overlying material at the top of the pingo exposes the ice to melting and may create a smaller crater and lake.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Drainage Pattern of River:

• It refers to the system of flow of surface water mainly through the forms of rivers and basins.
• The drainage system depends upon factors such as slope of land, geological structure, amount of volume of water and velocity of water.

Insequent (Discordant):

• A drainage pattern is described as discordant if it does not correlate to the topology (surface relief features) and geology of the area.
• In simple words, in a discordant drainage pattern, the river follows its initial path irrespective of the changes in topography.
• Discordant drainage patterns are classified into two main types: antecedent and superimposed.
• Usually, rivers in both these drainage types flow through a highly sloping surface.

Consequent:

• The rivers which follow the general direction of the slope are known as the consequent rivers.
• Most of the rivers of peninsular India are consequent rivers.
• For example, rivers like the Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery, descending from the Western Ghats and flowing into the Bay of Bengal, are some of the consequent rivers of Peninsular India.

Subsequent:

• A tributary stream that is formed by headward erosion along an underlying rock after the main drainage pattern (consequent river) has been established is known as a subsequent river.
• The Chambal, Sind, Ken, Betwa, Tons and Son meet the Yamuna and the Ganga at right angles. They are the subsequent drainage of the Ganga drainage system.

Resequent:

• A resequent river flows in the same direction as that of the initial consequent drainage.
• Resequent rivers originate at a much later stage (hence they are called resequent) in comparison to the master consequent rivers.

The correct answer is Hydration.

Key Points

Hydration:

• Hydration is the chemical addition of water that involves the rigid attachment of H+ and OH- ions to the atoms and molecules of a mineral.
• When rock minerals take up water, the increased volume creates physical stresses within the rock.
• For example, iron oxides are converted to iron hydroxides which are larger in volume.
• Hydration is reversible, and continued repetition of this process causes fatigue in the rocks and may lead to their disintegration.
• The volume changes in minerals due to hydration will also help in physical weathering through exfoliation and granular disintegration.

Additional Information

Hydrolysis:

• In biological hydrolysis, a water molecule is consumed to affect the separation of a larger molecule into component parts.
• In biological hydrolysis pure water reacts with silicate or carbonate minerals resulting in the complete dissolution of the original mineral (dissolution weathering).
• Biological hydrolysis is an important reaction in controlling the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere and can affect climate.

Oxidation and Reduction:

• ​In weathering, oxidation means a combination of a mineral with oxygen to form oxides (rusting in case of iron) or hydroxides. Red soils appear red due to the presence of iron oxides.
• Oxidation occurs where there is ready access to the atmosphere and water.
• The minerals most commonly involved in this process are iron, manganese, sulphur etc.
• When oxidised minerals are placed in an environment where oxygen is absent, reduction takes place.
• Such conditions usually exist below the water table, in areas of stagnant water and waterlogged ground.

Carbonation:

• Carbonation refers to reactions of carbon dioxide to give carbonates, bicarbonates, and carbonic acid.
• Carbonation weathering is a process in which atmospheric carbon dioxide leads to solution weathering.
• As rain falls, it dissolves small amounts of carbon dioxide from the air, forming a weak acid that can dissolve some minerals like limestone (calcium carbonate) (solution weathering).
• When carbonic acid reacts with limestone, it produces calcium bicarbonate, which is partially soluble in water (dissolution weathering).
• Caves are formed when underground water containing carbonic acid travels through blocks of limestone, dissolves out the limestone, and leaves empty pockets (caves).

The correct answer is Mesozoic era.

Key Points

The Indian desert (Marusthali):

• Rajasthan Plains are occupied by Thar or the Great Indian Desert.
• This plain is an undulating plain rwave like whose average elevation is about 325 m above mean sea level.
• The desert region is called Marusthali and forms a greater part of the Marwar plain.
• It has a few outcrops of gneisses, schists and granites which proves that geologically it is a part of the Peninsular Plateau. It is only at the surface that it looks like an aggradational plain.
• In general, the eastern part of the Marusthali is rocky while its western part is covered by shifting sand dunes.
• The eastern part of the Thar Desert up to the Aravali Range is a semi-arid plain known as Rajasthan Bagar.
• It is drained by a number of short seasonal streams originating from the Aravali and supports agriculture in some patches of fertile tracts.
• Luni is an important seasonal stream which flows into Rann of Kuchchh. The tract north of the Luni is known as thali or sandy plain.
• This region extends over 62,000 sq. km, north of the Luni river.
• It is believed that this region during the Mesozoic era, was under the sea and this belief is made strong by the pieces of evidence found at the wood fossils park at Aakal, marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer.
• These wood fossils were as old as 180 million years.
• The south half of Marusthali forms a never-ending bowl, framed by flat-topped hills of sand, rocks, and limestone.
• The north part has ridden closely packed with coarse sand.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

Charvaka (Brihaspati):

• It is Unorthodox  (Heterodox) Schools of Indian Philosophy.
• Charvaka school, also called Lokayata Philosophy, is a philosophical Indian school of materialists who rejected the notion of an afterworld, karma, liberation (moksha), the authority of the sacred scriptures, the Vedas, and the immortality of the self.
• According to Charvaka there is no other world. Hence, death is the end of humans & pleasure is the ultimate object in life.
• It is also known as the Lokayata Philosophy-the philosophy of masses.
• Brihaspati laid the groundwork for this school, which was supposed to be one of the first to develop a philosophical theory.
• The Charvaka School was a major proponent of the materialistic approach to salvation.
• Because it was aimed at the common people, the philosophy was quickly dubbed Lokayata, or something derived from the common people.
• Later texts refer to two Charvaka schools—Dhurtta and Sushikshita, but details are lacking.
• The former apparently held that only the four element —earth, water, air, and fire—existed.
• They understood the body as composed of a combination of atoms and rejected the idea of a soul.
• Sushikshita Charvaka, on the other hand, accepted the idea of a soul that was distinct from the body.
• However, this soul was not eternal—it was destroyed when the body was destroyed. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

Terms were used to denote Muslims:

• It is a noteworthy fact that the Sanskrit texts and inscriptions of these six centuries rarely referred to the Muslims in religious terms.
• Instead, ethnic or regional terms were generally employed to refer to them.
• They included terms such as Turushka, Tajika, Mlechchha, Parasika, Yavana, Hammira, Gori, Turaka, Matanga and Garjanaka. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Only in Veraval inscription of the time of Vaghela Arjunadeva, issued in the year 1264, one finds the term Musalmaana used to denote the Muslims.
• Between fifteenth and seventeenth centuries too, Yavana, Shaka and Turushka were used but new words like Pathana, Mugil, Sultana and Patrishaha also made their appearance.
• Interestingly, Allavadina (Alauddin Khilji) was referred to as Dillishwar and Yavana and his soldiers were called Turushka.
• There are ample references in the Sanskrit texts of this period to the forging of political alliances between Yavana rulers and local or regional rulers who too were described not as Hindus but by their family names like Kakatiyas or Pandyas.

Additional Information

Kardamaka:

• A new dynasty, called the Bhadramukhas or Kardamaka dynasty, was established by the "Satrap" Castana. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
• The date of Castana is not certain, but many believe his reign started in the year 78 CE, thus making him the founder of the Saka era.
• Castana was satrap of Ujjain during that period.

The correct answer is Dholavira.

Key Points

Dholavira:

• The ancient city of Dholavira is an archaeological site at Kachchh District, in the state of Gujarat, which dates from the 3rd to mid-2nd millennium BCE.
• Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer.
• It is located on Khadir bet island in the Kachchh Desert Wildlife Sanctuary in the Great Rann of Kachchh.
• It is one of the most remarkable and well-preserved urban settlements in South Asia.
• It was discovered in 1968 by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi.
• After Mohen-jo-Daro, Ganweriwala and Harappa in Pakistan and Rakhigarhi in Haryana of India, Dholavira is the fifth largest metropolis of Indus Valley Civilization (IVC).
• The site contains ruins of an ancient IVC/Harappan city. It comprises two parts: a walled city and a cemetery to the west of the city.
• The walled city consists of a fortified Castle with attached fortified Bailey and Ceremonial Ground, and a fortified MiddleTown and a Lower Town.
• A series of reservoirs are found to the east and south of the Citadel.

Important Points

• Unlike other Harappan antecedent towns normally located near to rivers and perennial sources of water, the location of Dholavira in the island of Khadir bet.
• Artifacts that were found here include terracotta pottery, beads, gold and copper ornaments, seals, fish hooks, animal figurines, tools, urns, and some imported vessels.
• Remains of a copper smelter indicate Harappans, who lived in Dholavira, knew metallurgy.
• It is believed that traders of Dholavira used to source copper ore from present-day Rajasthan and Oman and UAE and exported finished products.
• It was also a hub of manufacturing jewellery made of shells and semi-precious stones, like agate and used to export timber.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Cavalry warfare in India:

• A stirrup is a light frame or ring that holds the foot of a rider, attached to the saddle by a strap, often called a stirrup leather.
• Stirrups are usually paired and are used to aid in mounting and as a support while using a riding animal (usually a horse).
• Between the late 6th century AD and early 7th century AD, during the invasion of Central Asia by the Avars marks the spread of stirrups from China to Europe.
• A pair of first century BC, double bent iron bars, approximately 17cm in length, with curvature at each end, excavated from a grave near Junapani, in the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh have been postulated as either full foot stirrups or bridle bits.
• The iron stirrup made it possible for the armoured warrior to sit firmly on horse without falling off. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The iron stirrup also allowed a cavalry charge with lances held tightly to the body, without the rider being thrown off by the shock of impact. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

​

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The British policy towards Afghanistan:

• Throughout the 19th century, the British rulers of India were concerned that Russia would attack India via Afghanistan and the country's northwestern border.
• As a result, they desired to keep Russia at a safe distance from the Indian border.
• From a geographical standpoint, Afghanistan was placed in a critical position for the British.
• It could be used as a forward base outside of India's borders to monitor Russia's potential military threat while also promoting British commercial interests in Central Asia.
• Afghanistan's politics have been in flux since the early nineteenth century.

The British policy towards Afghanistan in the first half of the 19th century:

• In the early nineteenth century, increased Russian influence in Persia replaced British influence and thwarted an English scheme for establishment of a new route by River Euphrates to India.
• Especially after the Treaty of Turkomanchai (1828), the English got alarmed about possible Russian plans regarding India.
• Soon, there was a search for a scientific frontier from the Indian side.
• The British wanted to weaken and end Russian influence in Afghanistan, but they did not want a strong Afghanistan.
• They wanted to keep her a weak and divided country which they could easily control.
• Passes of the north-west seemed to hold the key to enter India. The need was felt for Afghanistan to be under control of a ruler friendly to the British.
• Auckland who came to India as the governor-general in 1836, advocated a forward policy.
• This implied that the Company government in India itself had to take initiatives to protect the boundary of British India from a probable Russian attack.
• This objective was to be achieved either through treaties with the neighbouring countries or by annexing them completely.
• This prompted the British government to go ahead with the forward policy, and a Tripartite Treaty (1838) was entered into by the British, Sikhs and Shah Shuja (who had been deposed from the Afghan throne in 1809 and had been living since then as a British pensioner at Ludhiana).

The correct answer is Turkey.

Key Points

• The United Nations on 1 June 2022 granted Turkey’s request to change its name from Turkey to Turkiye.
• Turkey began the move to change its internationally recognised official name in English to Turkiye in December 2021.
• The country called itself Turkiye in 1923 after its declaration of independence.

Additional Information

• Turkey, officially the Republic of Turkey, is a transcontinental country located mainly on Anatolia in Western Asia, with a portion on the Balkans in Southeast Europe.
• Lake Van is the largest lake in Turkey and the second largest in the Middle East.
• Turkey:
• Speaker: Mustafa Şentop
• Capital: Ankara
• Currency: Turkish lira
• President: Recep Tayyip Erdoğan​

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The SWIFT (The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication):

• It is formally known as the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT).
• It is a trusted messaging system for banks and other financial institutions around the world.
• It doesn’t settle any money itself, but provides instruction messages for just how to give and receive specific funds.
• It is controlled by the central banks of the G10 countries, the European Central Bank, and the National Bank of Belgium.
• Prior to SWIFT, the only reliable means of message confirmation for international funds transfer was Telex.
• There are about 11,000 member banks in 200 countries and territories that use SWIFT.
• An important component of the SWIFT messaging system is the SWIFT code.
• Each bank that participates in the system is assigned this code, which identifies the bank, the country it’s in, where it’s located in the country, and, optionally, the branch.
• When a bank is a member of SWIFT, its instruction messages are cleared as secure immediately, so the transactions happen quickly.

Important Points

• Iran and North Korea are already out of the SWIFT platform.
• Recently, the US and the European Commission have excluded several Russian banks from the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) messaging system to counter Russia’s war over Ukraine.

The correct answer is Diesel-electric submarines.

Key Points

• ​Project 75 is a programme by the Indian Navy that envisaged building six Scorpene-Class attack submarines.
• The Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) is manufacturing six Scorpene submarines with technical assistance from the Naval Group of France.
• The submarines include:
• INS Kalavari.
• INS Khanderi.
• INS Kharanj.
• INS Vela.
• INS Vagir.
• INS Vagsheer.
• The submarines under Project-75 Scorpene-Class are powered by diesel-electric propulsion systems.

Important Points

• The Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders on 20 April 2022, launched INS Vagsheer, the last of the six submarines under Project 75.
• The submarine was launched by Defence Secretary Ajay Kumar.
• Named after sandfish, a deadly deep water sea predator of the Indian Ocean, the first submarine 'Vagsheer' was commissioned in December 1974.
• It was decommissioned in April 1997.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

Speaker of Lok Sabha:

• The Office of the Speaker in India is a living and dynamic institution that deals with the actual needs and problems of Parliament in the performance of its functions.
• Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
• The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms).

List of Lok Sabha Speakers:

• Hence, all of them were Speakers of Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is option 1.

Mistake Points

• Note: This is a new Question-Type in which the number of correct pairs is asked instead of the correct pair itself.
• Therefore option 1 is correct and not option 3.

Key Points

Schedules of the Indian Constitution:

• Indian Constitution originally had eight schedules.
• Four more schedules were added by different amendments, now making a total tally of twelve.

• Hence, only pair 3 is correctly matched.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Article 21A of the Constitution of India:

• The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002, provided Right to Education as a fundamental right in Part-III of the Constitution.
• It inserted Article 21A which made Right to Education a fundamental right for children between 6-14 years. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• It provided for a follow-up legislation Right to Education Act 2009.

Article 26 of the Constitution of India:

• This Article provides that every religious denomination has the following rights, subject to morality, health, and public order. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
• The right to form and maintain institutions for religious and charitable intents.
• The right to manage its own affairs in the matter of religion.
• The right to acquire the immovable and movable property.
• The right to administer such property according to the law.

Article 30 of the Constitution of India:

• Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
• It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”
• While Article 30 and Article 29 of the Constitution do not specify 'minorities' in India, it is classified into religious minorities and linguistic minorities. Hence, option 3 is correct.

​Article 32 of the Constitution of India:

• Referred to as the ‘heart and soul of the constitution’ by Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar, Article 32 is a fundamental right envisaged under Part III of the Constitution of India.
• Article 32(3) empowers the parliament to confer the power to issue orders, directions, and writs to any other court within the local jurisdictional limits of India. Hence, option 4 is not correct.

The correct answer is Gravitational pull by Sun and Moon.

Key Points

• The primary forces that influence the currents are:
• heating by solar energy;
• wind
• gravity
• Coriolis force, hence
• The secondary forces that influence the currents are:
• Temperature difference;
• Salinity difference

Important Points

Factors affecting Ocean Currents:

• Density
• Varying density caused by temperature and salinity in oceans led to vertical currents in oceans.
• Air pressure and wind
• Monsoon winds are responsible for the seasonal reversal of ocean currents in the Indian Ocean.
• Further influence of atmospheric pressure and insolation causes variation in winds movements which affects ocean currents eventually.
• Rotation of Earth
• The Coriolis effect is a result of the rotation of the earth.
• Coriolis force causes the matter to move right in the northern hemisphere and left in the southern hemisphere.

The correct answer is Geyserites.

Key Points

Sedimentary Rocks:

• Sedimentary rocks are formed by lithification ― consolidation and compaction of sediments.
• Hence, they are layered or stratified of varying thickness. Example: sandstone, shale etc.
• Sediments are a result of denudation (weathering and erosion) of all types of rocks.
• Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are classified into:
• mechanically formed — sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess.
• Organically formed — geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal. Hence option 4 Is correct.
• Chemically formed — limestone, halite, potash.

Mechanically Formed Sedimentary Rocks:

• They are formed by mechanical agents like running water, wind, ocean currents, ice, etc.
• Arenaceous sedimentary rocks have more sand and bigger sized particles and are hard and porous.
• They form the best reservoirs for liquids like groundwater and petroleum. E.g. sandstone.
• Argillaceous rocks have more clay and are fine-grained, softer, mostly impermeable (mostly non-porous or have very tiny pores). E.g. claystone and shales are predominantly argillaceous.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

Inversion of temperature:

• Under normal conditions, temperature usually decreases with increase in altitude in the troposphere at a rate of 1 degree for every 165 metres. This is called normal lapse rate.
• But on some occasions, the situations get reversed and the temperature starts increasing with height rather than decreasing. This is called temperature inversion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a reversal of the normal behavior of temperature in the troposphere. Under this meteorological phenomenon a layer of warm air lies over the cold air layer.
• It is caused in stac atmospheric conditions while some times, it occurs due to horizontal or vertical movement of air.
• Temperature inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless.

​​​Favourable Conditions for Temperature Inversion:

• Long winter nights
• Loss of heat by terrestrial radiation from the ground surface during night may exceed the amount of incoming solar radiation.
• Cloudless and clear sky.
• Loss of heat through terrestrial radiation proceeds more rapidly without any obstruction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Dry air near the ground surface
• Slow movement of air
• Snow covered ground surface
• It results in maximum loss of heat through reflection of incoming solar radiation.
• This regular temperature inversion in the high Arctic is caused by the lack of surface heating by the Sun, which stays below the horizon during the winter (the Polar Night), and the continuous loss of heat from the surface (through emission of infrared radiation).
• Hence, temperature inversion is common phenomenon at the poles. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• Tsomgo Lake is situated in Sikkim.
• It is also known as Changu Lake.
• This lake is a glacial lake near the capital Gangtok.
• The world's third-highest mountain, Kanchenjunga, regarded as the guardian deity of Sikkim.
• Sikkim is a part of the Eastern Himalayas, one of the 18 Biodiversity hotspots in the world.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

Geographical differences between Eastern Coast and Western Coast of India:

• From the above table, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Key Points

Coral Reefs of India:

• Being one of the most ancient and dynamic ecosystems of the world, coral reefs have been necessary to sustain life in the oceans.
• Due to the warm, tropical region in India, corals thrive in the Indian Ocean.
• These reefs not only provide sanctuary to a vast ecosystem but also protect the coastlines from eroding.
• India is recorded to have around 7,517 km of coastline but only 6,100 km represents the mainland coastline.
• The three major types of coral reefs found in India are fringing, barrier and atolls.
• Coral reefs in India are found in many areas including the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Andaman & Nicobar, and Lakshadweep Islands.
• The Gulf of Kutch in the northwest has some of the most northern reefs in the world.
• Patches of coral reefs are also found in Ratnagiri, Malvan, and Redi, south Bombay, and at the Gaveshani Bank located in the west of Mangalore.

Important Points

The correct answer is Acceptance of deposits.

Key Points 

• Functions of Commercial Banks
• ​Bank refers to a financial institution where we deposit our savings, withdraw our money in case of emergency, and take loans.
• The banker is under obligation to repay the money to the depositor as and when demanded by the depositor.
• The depositor can withdraw his money through cheques, drafts, etc.
• The Agency functions can be divided under the following heads:
• Accepting deposits - Commercial banks accept deposits from their customers in the form of saving, fixed, and current deposits. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Providing loans - One of the main functions of commercial banks is providing credit to organizations and individuals, and profit from the earned interest

Important Points

• Secondary Functions:
• Collection of cheques, bills, and drafts
• Payment of interest, installments of loans, insurance premiums, etc.
• Purchase and sale of securities
• Collection of interest, dividend, etc
• Transfer of funds through demand drafts, mail transfer, etc
• Purchase and sale of foreign exchange.

The correct answer is M3.

Key Points

• Money supply, like money demand, is a stock variable.
• The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point of time is called money supply.
• RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply which is M1, M2, M3 and M4. They are defined as follows
• M1 = CU + DD
• M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
• M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
• M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates).
• CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
• M1 and M2 are known as narrow money while M3 and M4 are known as broad money.
• These measures are in decreasing order of liquidity.
• M1 is most liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4 is least liquid of all.
• M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Goa has become the first state in the country to provide 100 percent tap water connections covering 2.30 lakh households.
• The State of Punjab and the UTs of Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu have also crossed the milestone of covering 75% of rural homes with assured tap water supply.
• The Union Territory of Puducherry has become the fourth State/UT after Goa, Telangana and Andaman & Nicobar Islands to provide assured tap water supply to every rural home under Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)

Additional Information

• Jal Jeevan Mission
• ​JJM envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
• It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• The fund sharing pattern between the Centre and states is 90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern States, 50:50 for other states, and 100% for Union Territories.
• The total allocation to the scheme is over Rs. 3 lakh crore.
• It also encompasses prioritizing provision of FHTCs in quality affected areas, villages in drought prone and desert areas, Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) villages, etc.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The central government proposes to replace 29 existing labour laws with four Codes.
• The objective is to simplify and modernise labour regulation.
• The Labour Codes which were passed in both the Houses of the Parliament and received Presidential Assent are as follows:
• Code on Wages
• Industrial Relations Code
• Social Security Code
• Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code
• The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 
• ​​The code aims to consolidate and amend the laws regulating the occupational safety, health and working conditions of the persons employed in an establishment.
• This Code replaces 13 existing Laws:
• ​ The Factories Act, 1948, The Mines Act, 1952, The Dock Workers (Safety, Health and Welfare) Act, 1986, The Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996, The Plantations Labour Act, 1951, The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970.

Additional Information 

• Labour falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution.
• Therefore, both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws regulating labour.​

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points

• Life expectancy at any age is the average number of additional years a person is expected to live at current mortality trends.
• Life expectancy at birth is the age a person is expected to live up to.
• Estimates of life expectancy are based on death rates estimated through the Sample Registration System (SRS), an ORGI survey conducted to provide mortality and fertility estimates.
• Data:
• India has seen an improvement in overall life expectancy at birth to 69 years, with women expected to live for 70.4 years and men for 67.8 years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• According to the latest Sample Registration Survey (SRS) for 2013-17,
  

the overall life expectancy grew from 68.7 years in 2012-16, when life expectancy for women was 70.2 years and that for men was 67.4 years.

• Life expectancy for women was 73.70 years in urban centres and 69 in rural areas while the comparative figures for men were 71.20 years and 66.40 years, respectively.
• Life expectancy at birth increased by 0.3 years for rural India to 68.3 years in 2015-19.
• For urban India, which has always had a higher life expectancy, the increase was bigger (0.4 year). Urban Indians were expected to live up to 73 years. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• India’s life expectancy at birth has reached up to 69.7 during 2015-2019.
• Data suggests that high under-five mortality and infant mortality could be one of the reasons that, India finds it difficult to increase life expectancy at birth.

The correct option is 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Kisan Drones
• The Kisan drone will have an unmanned tank filled with insecticides and nutrients.
• The drones are expected to have a high capacity of 5 to 10kg.
• The drone will spray the same amount of pesticide on about one acre of land in just 15 minutes.
• It will save time, will require less effort and spraying will be done uniformly.
• They will also be used to carry vegetables, fruits, fish, etc to the markets from the farms.
• These items will be supplied directly to the market with minimal damage, consuming lesser time, and resulting in more profits for farmers and fishermen.
• Kisan Drones will be used to boost the agricultural sector in the country.

Mistake Points

• The use of Kisan Drones will be promoted for crop assessment, digitization of land records, and spraying of insecticides and nutrients but not spraying weedicides.​ Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The government banned the import of drones to encourage their manufacturing in India (Drone Shakti Scheme).
• In January, 2022 revised guidelines of the “Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization” (SMAM) scheme was issued in a move aimed at making drones more accessible to the farmers.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Modi on June 6, 2022, launched Jan Samarth Portal for credit-linked government schemes.
• It is a one-stop digital portal linking government credit schemes.
• PM also inaugurated the Iconic Week Celebrations of the Ministry of Finance and the Ministry of Corporate Affairs on 6 June 2022.
• The Iconic week (June 6-11,2022) is being celebrated as part of the ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’.

Additional Information

• It is the first of its kind platform, connecting beneficiaries directly to the lenders.
• It ensures end-to-end coverage of all the linked schemes.
• Jan Samarth Portal is a unique digital portal, that will link 13 Credit Linked Government schemes on a single platform.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points 

• The first liquid mirror telescope in the country and the largest in Asia - was commissioned atop Devasthal, a hill in Uttarakhand.
• It will now keep a watch on the overhead sky to identify transient or variable objects such as
• Supernovae, gravitational lenses, space debris, and asteroids.
• The Indian Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) will help in surveying the sky making it possible to observe several galaxies.

Additional Information

• It is built by astronomers from India, Belgium, and Canada, the novel instrument employs a 4-meter-diameter rotating mirror made up of a thin film of liquid mercury to collect and focus light.
• It is located at an altitude of 2,450 metres at the Devasthal Observatory campus of Aryabhatt Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India in Nainital district, Uttarakhand.
• Devasthal Observatory now hosts two four-meter class telescopes - the ILMT and the Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT).
• The telescope was designed and built by the Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems (AMOS) Corporation and the Centre Spatial de Liege in Belgium.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

National Tribal Research Institute:

• As a part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Shri Amit Shah inaugurated the National Tribal Research Institute in New Delhi.
• The National Tribal Research Institute will be a premier national-level institute.
• It will become a nerve centre of tribal concerns, matters and issues in academic, legislative and executive fields.
• There are 26 Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) supported by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India.
• The National Tribal Research Portal facilitates the Tribal Research Institute (TRIs), Centre of Excellence (CoEs) & Research Institutes recognised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Functions of National Tribal Research Institute:

• It will network and collaborate with reputed research institutes, organisations, universities, resource centres and academic bodies.
• The institute will monitor projects of Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs), research scholars of NFS and Centres of Excellence (CoEs).
• It will also set up norms to improve in quality of research and training.

The correct answer Shooting.

Key Points

• Avani Lekhara is from Jaipur, Rajasthan.
• As 19-year-old Avani Lekhara won the gold medal in women’s 10 m air rifle Standing event in the SH 1 category at the Tokyo Paralympics.
• She became the first Indian woman to win a gold medal at the Paralympics.
• Avani shot 249.6 points in the R2 women’s 10m air rifle SH1 category for a Paralympic Record and equal the World Record.
• In the final, she led from the start and edged out China’s Zhang C and Ukraine’s I Shchetnik in the medal series to win the gold.
• Avani has won many World Cup medals since 2017 including a Silver with a Junior World Record in R2 at the WSPS World Cup 2017, bronze at the WSPS World Cup Bangkok 2017, silver in the WSPS World Cup in Osijek, Croatia 2019 and silver in the WSPS World Cup Al-Ain 2021. She won the Tokyo Paralympics quota in February 2019 in the UAE.
• In 2012, the whole Lekhara family met with an accident on their way to Dholpur from Jaipur.
• The then 11-year-old Avani suffered a spinal cord injury and was paralysed below the waist.

The Correct Answer is Sulphuric acid.

Key Points

Key facts about Venus are as follows:

• Venus’s clouds are laced with toxic sulfur dioxide, and its surface temperature is 500°C.
• Venus year is identical to 225 days even as a Venus day is identical to 243 days.
• An afternoon on Venus is longer than a year.
• The atmosphere of Venus is made up mainly of carbon dioxide, and thick clouds of sulfuric acid completely cover the planet.
• These opposed situations are due to a runaway greenhouse impact on Venus.
• Venus is also known as Morning or Evening Star.
• Venus rotates backward which means that on Venus the Sun rises in the west and sets in the east.
• Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the Sun and the Moon and sometimes looks like a bright star in the morning or evening sky.

Important Points

• Venus is included with the aid of using a thick layer of so-called sulfuric acid clouds.
• Venus is a rocky planet and is about equal length because of the earth. product of rocky crust and mantel and an iron center.
• Its surroundings particularly are composed of carbon dioxide, which's an effective greenhouse gas and makes the planet a warm oven with temperatures as much as 470°C.
• There are thick clouds of sulfuric acid throughout its sky.

The correct answer is Trypsin and Amylase.

Key Points

Enzymes:​

• Enzymes are proteins made from amino acids.
• It is made up of hundreds and thousands of amino acids stringed together in a very specific and unique order.
• Digestive enzymes are the enzymes that break down polymeric macromolecules into smaller building blocks to facilitate their absorption by the body.

Examples of Digestive Enzymes: 

• Amylase – helps in breaking down large starch molecules, this enzyme is produced in the mouth.
• Pepsin – helps in breaking down proteins, this is produced in the stomach.
• The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by the highly concentrated hydrochloric acid.
• HCl provides the acidic pH (pH 1.8) optimal for pepsins. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Trypsin – helps in breaking down proteins, this is produced in the pancreas.
• Pancreatic lipase – helps in breaking down fats, once again this enzyme is produced in the pancreas.
• Ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease – help in breaking down DNA and RNA, this enzyme is also produced in Pancreas.

Important Points

Amylase:

• Amylase is defined as a digestive enzyme that breaks starch into small carbohydrate molecules.
• This enzyme is produced in two areas. Firstly, salivary glands in our mouth generate salivary amylase that starts the process of digestion by breaking down starch and converting it into maltose and smaller carbohydrate.
• Cells in the pancreas also produce a different type of amylase, known as pancreatic amylase that travels via a duct to reach the small intestine.
• Pancreatic amylase finishes the digestion of carbohydrates, producing glucose.
• Amylase is found to be stable over a wide range of pH values (5.0 to 10.5) with an optimal pH for the enzymatic activity of 7.0.

Trypsin:

• Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active TRYPSIN, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
• The intestinal mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secrete mucus.
• The secretions of the mucosa along with the secretions of the goblet cells constitute the intestinal juice.
• The mucus along with the bicarbonates from the pancreas protects the intestinal mucosa from acid as well as provides an alkaline medium (pH 7.8) for enzymatic activities.

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

Urea:

• Urea is a nitrogenous compound formed in the liver.
• It has a chemical formula of CH₄N₂O.
• It is also known as Carbamide or Ureophil.
• This compound is the final end product of protein metabolism.
• It is a waste product and has no physiological function.
• It dissolves in blood and the kidney excretes it in urine.
• This organic compound has two NH₂ groups connected by a functional group carbonyl.
• Urea dissolves in water and is non-toxic.
• It is colourless and has no smell.
• It is widely used as an important raw material in industries and commonly used in fertilizers.

Important Points

• Liver
• The liver is responsible for converting ammonia to urea.
• It synthesizes urea to eliminate ammonia from the human body.
• The extra amino acids from protein digestion are transported to the liver from the small intestine and follow the following steps
• It begins with transamination, a procedure performed on the amino acids, releasing ammonia.
• As ammonia is very hazardous to the body, it cannot accumulate.
• In a process known as the ornithine cycle, liver cells combine carbon dioxide and ammonia to generate the less harmful chemical urea.
• The urea and water are then delivered to the kidneys through the bloodstream.
• The kidneys filter blood, and water-soluble urea is expelled in the urine.

The correct answer is Anaemia.

• The deficiency of iron in the diet causes anaemia.

Key Points

• Anaemia is a condition that is caused by a deficiency of iron in the body.
• Haemoglobin is an iron-rich protein that is present in the blood and is responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissue.
• Due to lack of iron, there is a decrease in the level of haemoglobin because of which, oxygen cannot be properly circulated throughout the body.

Additional Information

• Scurvy:
• ​It is caused due to a deficiency of Vitamin C.
• Vitamin C is also known as Ascorbic acid. It acts as an antioxidant.
• It is an essential nutrient for the body as it is involved in tissue repair and enzyme-related functions.
• Ascorbic acid or Vitamin C is primarily present in citrus fruits like lemon, orange, guava.
• Early symptoms of scurvy include weakness, feeling tired, and sore arms and legs.
• Rickets:
• It is caused due to deficiency of vitamin D.
• Rickets is a childhood disorder of the bones where the bones become soft and prone to fractures.
• It is also caused due to a lack of calcium and phosphate in the body. Weak bones can lead to bone deformities.
• Vitamin D largely comes from exposing the skin to sunlight.
• Cholera:
• Cholera is caused by a bacteria.
• It spreads through contaminated food and water.
• It can be prevented by eating properly cooked food and drinking boiled water.
• Name of bacteria: Vibrio Cholerae

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Given:

• ​Mass of object (m)= 10 Kg
• Uniform velocity (v)= 10 m/sec

Linear momentum:

• Linear momentum= mass x velocity
• Linear momentum= 10 x 10 = 100 Kg.m/sec.
• Unit conversion= multiply and divide the unit by second.
• 100 (kg.m/sec²). sec
• We know that, 1 kg.m/sec² = 1 Newton
• Hence, Linear momentum = 100 Newton.sec (N.S)

​The kinetic energy of the object:

• $Kinetic ~Energy= \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2}\times 10\times10^2$
• K.E.= 500 J

The correct answer is 0.5 A.

Key Points

Given:

• For DC, V = 10 V.
• When the capacitor connected to a DC circuit, is fully charged, it acts as an open circuit and no charges deposit on the positive terminal of the capacitor.
• In AC circuits, the capacitor keeps on charging and discharging.
• Hence, the capacitor will block the Direct current. Therefore, there will be no impact of R1 in this circuit.
• Hence, resistance R2 and R3 will be in series connection.
• Equivalent Resistance, R= R2 + R3
• R= 10 + 10 = 20 Ohm
• We know that, V = IR
• $I = \frac{V}{R}= \frac{10}{20} = 0.5 A$

Concept:

• Pitch tells us about the frequency of a sound that means the highness or lowness of the sound.

Explanation:

From the above diagram, we can see that Higher is the frequency, high will be the pitch & lower is frequency, low will be the pitch.

Additional Information

• Sound waves are the longitudinal waves.
• Loudness determines the strength of the sound wave at a place or how strong is the sound wave.
• It is directly dependent upon the amplitude of sound waves & increases with the amplitude of sound wave.
• Since amplitude is related to intensity then Loudness of sound is given by the formula,
• L₂ - L₁ =10log₁₀(${I \over Io}$) ; where I is the intensity of sound at a point & I_o = 1× 10¹² Wm^-2.
• Loudness is a relative term that's why we have taken the difference.

The correct answer is Ammeter.

Key Points

Additional Information

• Some other devices and their uses are as below-

The correct answer is R/4.

Key Points

Electrical resistance:

• The electrical resistance of an electrical conductor is the opposition to the passage of an electric current through that conductor.
• The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the area of the cross-section of the wire.
• That is the resistance of the wire decreases as the diameter of the wire increases and the resistance of the wire increases as the diameter of the wire decreases.
• Area of a cross-section of the wire = $πr^2 =~\frac{π}{4} \times d^2$
• Where d= diameter of the wire
• The resistance of the conductor is given as $R = ρ\times\frac{l}{A} = ρl~\times\frac{4}{\pi d^2}$
• Where, ρ = Resistivity (Ohm)
• A = Area of a cross-section of the wire.
• If we double the diameter, Resistance will be reduced by 4 times. (Resistance is inversely proportional to the square of the diameter)
• As both wires are made up of the same material, Resistivity ρ will be constant.
• If R is the Resistance of wire 1 with length l and diameter d, then the Resistance of another wire 2 with length l and diameter 2d will be R/4.

The correct answer is Digital Communications Commission.

Key Points

• Digital Communications Commission:
• The Telecom Commission was set up by the Government of India via a resolution in 1989 with administrative and financial powers of the Government of India to deal with various aspects of Telecommunications.
• The Government, re-designated the ‘Telecom Commission’ as the ‘Digital Communications Commission’ in 2018.
• The Digital Communications Commission consists of a Chairman, four full-time members, who are ex-officio Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications and four part-time members who are the Secretaries to the Government of India in the concerned Departments.
• The Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications is the ex-officio Chairman of the Digital Communications Commission.
• The Digital Communications Commission is responsible for:
• Formulating the policy of the Department of Telecommunications for approval of the Government;
• Preparing the budget for the Department of Telecommunications for each financial year and getting it approved by the Government; &
• Implementation of Government policy in all matters concerning telecommunication.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The James Webb Space Telescope is the world's most powerful and complex space observatory ever built and launched into space. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) led the development of James Webb Space Telescope in collaboration with the European Space Agency and Canadian Space Agency. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The James Webb Space Telescope was launched on December 25, 2021, from Kourou, French Guiana. It arrived at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange Point in January 2022.

Additional Information

• James Webb Space Telescope:
• James Webb Space Telescope showed the most detailed images of the universe that mankind has ever seen.
• After James Webb Space Telescope shared the stunning visuals, it has now sent new images that were taken in our solar system.
• The images are of the largest planet in our solar system, Jupiter, and its moon.
• NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope is primarily designed to conduct infrared astronomy that is expected to enable a broad range of investigations across the fields of astronomy and cosmology.

The correct answer is Sugar industry.

Key Points

Ethanol Blending:

• First laid out in 2018, the policy had initially targeted the year 2030 to achieve 20% ethanol blending petrol, which was brought forward by five years to 2025-26.
• It is a matter of pride for India that the country has one of the fastest-growing ethanol programs in the world. The current ethanol blending has exceeded 10% in India.
• Ethanol also produces just half the greenhouse gas emissions as compared to carbon-based gasoline products and thus has a central role to play in helping India realize its ambitions to decarbonize its economy.

Sugar industry:

• Ethanol can be produced from a number of sources, including corn, barley, rice and sorghum.
• But most of India’s ethanol is produced from sugarcane, with molasses-based distilleries making up 426 core litres of the overall production capacity, according to NITI Aayog.
• India’s sucrose (sugar) production has reached 40 million tonnes against the consumption of 27 million so 13 million tonnes of excess sugar can be diverted for the production of ethanol as against 4.5 million tonnes being done currently.
• This excess production is being exported now. India's exports are likely to touch 11 million tonnes this year.
• The government of India is rolling out incentives to boost ethanol production, surplus sugar production can be redirected to the manufacture of ethanol, allowing it to be used up and, more crucially, monetised.
• Once technology allowing ethanol to be blended with diesel, which is already being developed, is introduced, it has the potential to unleash even greater gains for the sugar industry.

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Key Points

e-RUPI:

• It is a cashless and contactless method for digital payment.
• It is a Quick Response (QR) code or SMS string-based e-voucher, which is delivered to the mobile of the users.
• The users will be able to redeem the voucher without needing a card, digital payments app, or internet banking access, at the service provider.
• It connects the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service providers in a digital mode without any physical interface.
• The mechanism also ensures that the payment to the service provider is made only after the transaction is completed.
• The system is pre-paid in nature and hence, assures timely payment to the service provider without the involvement of any intermediary.
• To receive e-RUPI on mobile phones, beneficiaries do not need a smart phone with an Internet connection. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Beneficiaries can receive e-RUPI even without having a bank account. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The RBI has hiked the cap on e-Rupi prepaid digital vouchers from Rs 10,000 to Rs 1 lakh and enabled the instrument for multiple transactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Water.

Key Points

Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV):

• Recently, the Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways launched the world's most advanced technology, Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV) Toyota Mirai.
• This is a first-of-its-kind project in India which aims to create a Green Hydrogen-based ecosystem in the country by creating awareness about the unique utility of Green Hydrogen and FCEV technology.
• It will promote clean energy and environmental protection by reducing dependence on fossil fuels and thereby make India 'Energy Self-reliant' by 2047.
• Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV), powered by Hydrogen is one of the best Zero Emission solutions.
• It is completely environment friendly with no tailpipe emissions other than water.
• Tailpipe emissions: Emission of something such as gas or radiation into the atmosphere.
• Green Hydrogen can be generated from renewable energy and abundantly available biomass.
• An MoU was also signed by Toyota Kirloskar Motor Pvt Ltd and the International Centre for Automotive Technology (ICAT) for a pilot project to evaluate the vehicle’s performance on Indian roads and climatic conditions.
• Introduction and adoption of technology to tap into the Green hydrogen’s potential will play a key role in securing a clean and affordable energy future for India.

The correct answer is Sindhi.

Key Points

Eighth Schedule:

• It lists the official languages of the Republic of India.
• Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351.
• Article 344: Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President on the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 351: It provides for the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
• However, It can be noted that there are no fixed criteria for any language to be considered for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
• Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• Languages added by Constitutional Amendments:

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Trade Guilds:

• These were professional bodies of jewellers, weavers, ivory carvers, or even salt-makers.
• They came together to control quality production, create sound business ethics, and maintain fair wages and prices, sometimes operated as a cooperative, and controlled the entry of newcomers by laying down high standards of craftsmanship and enforcing rules regarding apprenticeship.
• Each guild had its own chief, assisted by others.
• The shrenis were not necessarily restricted to a locality and were known to move from one town to another, over a period of time.
• Occasionally, shrenis (of merchants and artisans) came together in a joint organization, called the nigama, or the equivalent of a chamber of commerce and industry.

Manigramam and Nanadesi:

• Manigramam and Nanadesi were two such guilds.
• Manigiramam, or Manigramam, typically refers to a medieval merchant guild, organized by itinerant ethnic Indian traders, primarily active in south India.
• The Nanadesis were a guild of traders who organized themselves into one of the biggest trading associations at the time of the Hoysala Empire.
• These guilds traded extensively both within the peninsula and with Southeast Asia and China.
• The towns on the west coast were home to Arab, Persian, Chinese, Jewish, and Syrian Christian traders.
• Trade-in horses were primarily carried here. Slaves were also brought here for sale.

The correct answer is Colachel.

Key Points

Battle of Colachel:

• The battle of Colachel was fought on August 10, 1741, between the Indian kingdom of Travancore and the Dutch East India Company.
• The battle resulted in a famous victory for the Travancore forces, forever ending Dutch colonial endeavours in the Indian subcontinent.

Important Points

Marthanda Varma:

• Early 18th century Kerala was a collection of small kingdoms in perpetual war against each other.
• It was in the 1730s when the new ruler of Travancore, Marthanda Verma, adopted a policy of expansionism.
• He conquered several small kingdoms of Malabar which threatened the economic interests of the Dutch East India Company.
• The reason being Marthanda Varma and his vassals had little interest in honouring the contracts the Dutch had made earlier with the conquered states.
• In late 1739, the Dutch army at Malabar declared war on Travancore deploying soldiers from Ceylon. The Dutch army and their allies achieved many victories forcing the Travancore army at Kollam to retreat.
• On 26 November 1740, the Dutch sent a naval force to Colachel where they proceeded to bombard the town forcing its inhabitants to abandon it.
• In response, Marthanda Varma sent a force of 2000 to Colachel.
• The Dutch planned to occupy Colachel with the objective of taking Padmanabhapuram, Travancore’s capital.
• After taking Colachel, the Dutch started capturing nearby villages and plundered the region between Colachel and Kottar.
• Taking advantage of the shortage of Dutch troops, Marthanda Verma launched an offensive to take back Colachel.
• Then on 5 August 1741, a cannonball fired from the Travancore army hit a barrel of gunpowder inside the Dutch garrison which blew up the ammunition store as well as the food stores.
• Out of ammunition and food, the Dutch were forced to surrender on August 7 (although some historians considered 10 August as the official date of surrender).

The correct answer is Purva-Mimamsa.

Key Points

Darshanas:

• Apart from the Buddhist and Jaina texts which have already been mentioned, there is a voluminous Darshana (literally, ‘a way of looking at things’) literature belonging to the
• Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Purva Mimamsa, and Uttara Mimamsa schools.

​Purva Mimamsa:

• ​Mimamsa means exegesis, i.e., explanation, and the school of this name was devoted to Vedic exegesis.
• It aimed at explaining Vedic texts from the point of view of the nature and goals of sacrificial rituals.
• The Mimamsa school held the Vedas to be eternal and the authority on dharma.
• Purva Mimamsa focused on sacrificial acts, and Vedanta focused on knowledge and was based on an interpretation of the Upanishads.
• A key text was Badarayana’s Brahma Sutra or Vedanta Sutra, which belongs to about the same time as the Mimamsa Sutra.
• Noted scholars of Purva Mimamsa included Prabhakara and Kumarila Bhatta, who lived a little later, in the 7th century.
• In early Mimamsa doctrine, the gods were irrelevant; it was the sacrifice that was central.
• Later Mimamsakas acknowledged the existence of a supreme god.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Tolkappiyam:

• The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai .
• Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary works.
• Though it is a work on Tamil grammar, it also provides insights into the political and socio-economic conditions of the time.
• It is a unique work on grammar and poetics, in its three parts of nine sections each, deals with Ezhuttu(letter), Col (word) and Porul (subject matter).

Important Points

• Almost all levels of the human language from the spoken to the most poetic lie within the purview of Tolkappiyar’s analysis as he treats exquisitely poetic and epigrammatic statements on phonology, morphology, syntax, rhetoric, prosody and poetics.
• According to the traditional legend, the original grammar was called Agathiam written down by sage Agastya, but it went missing after a great deluge.
• Tolkappiyam refers to the Five-fold division of lands – Kurinji (hilly tracks), Mullai (pastoral), Marudam (agricultural), Neydal (coastal) and Palai (desert).
• Tolkappiyam also refers to four castes namely arasar(Ruling Class), anthanar, vanigar(carried on trade and commerce) and vellalar(Agriculturists).
• Ancient primitive tribes like Thodas, Irulas, Nagas and Vedars lived in this period.

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

Mahishmati:

• Mahishmati was an ancient kingdom in present-day central India.
• It was located in present-day Maheshwar in Madhya Pradesh, on the banks of the Narmada River.
• It is mentioned in several ancient texts and is said to have been ruled by the legendary Haihaya ruler Kartavirya Arjuna.
• Mahishmati was the most important city in the southern part of the Avanti kingdom and later served as the capital of the Anupa Kingdom.
• It was located to the south of Ujjayini, and north of Pratishthana, on the route connecting the two cities (according to Sutta Nipata).
• Patanjali mentions that a traveller starting out from Ujjayini saw the sunrise at Mahishmati.
• It is mentioned in several ancient texts and may have flourished as late as the 13th century, as indicated by a Paramara inscription.
• Several cities in Madhya Pradesh, located along the Narmada river, are claimed to be the ancient Mahishmati. These include:
• Mandhata or Omkareshwar
• Maheshwar
• Mandla

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

• PAC is one of the three Financial Parliamentary committees, the other two are the Estimates Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings.
• The Public Accounts Committee was introduced in 1921 after its first mention in the Government of India Act, 1919 also called Montford Reforms.
• It presently comprises 22 members (15 members elected by the Lok Sabha Speaker, and 7 members elected by the Rajya Sabha Chairman) with a term of one year only. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
• Until 1966 – ‘67, the chairman of the committee belonged to the ruling party. However, since 1967 a convention has developed whereby the chairman of the committee is selected invariably from the Opposition.
• The term of office of the members is one year. A minister can not be elected as a member of the committee.
• In case a member of any other Committee constituted by the Government is elected to the PAC, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether he should continue to be a member of the former Committee. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The committee examines public expenditure not only from a legal and formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of the economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses.

The correct answer is Singareni Collieries Company Limited.

Key Points

Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL):

• The present Company was incorporated on 23rd December 1920 under the Hyderabad Companies Act as a public limited company with the name 'The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL).
• The State of Hyderabad purchased the majority shares of the Company in 1945.
• From 1945 to 1949, Hyderabad Construction Co., Ltd., was acting as Managing Agent.
• In 1949 this function was entrusted to Industrial Trust Fund by the then Government of Hyderabad.
• The controlling interest of the Company devolved on the Government of Andhra Pradesh in 1956 pursuant to the reorganization of States.
• Thus, the SCCL became a Government Company **under the Companies Act in 1956.**​

Mistake Points

• Neyveli Lignite Corporation:
• ​NLC is formed in 1956 as a Government sponsored commercial concern.
• Coal India Limited:
• ​Coal India Limited (CIL) the state-owned coal mining corporate came into being in November 1975.
• Mahanadi Coalfields Limited:
• ​A public sector company named Coal Mines Authority Limited (CMAL) was formed in 1973 to manage non-coking mines.

The correct answer is Dhaleswari.

Key Points

Barak River:

• Barak River is one of the major rivers of South Assam.
• The 564 kilometres long river is part of the Surma-Meghna River System.
• It rises in the hill country of Manipur where it is the biggest and most important of hill country rivers.
• After Manipur, it flows through Mizoram and Assam.
• It later enters Bangladesh where it forks into Surma and Kushiyara rivers.
• Later, the river is called the Meghna and received the combined flow of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
• The sixth national waterway stretch is on this river.
• The important north bank tributaries of the Barak river are Jiri, Siri, Madhura, Jatinga and Larang, while the important south bank tributaries include Sonai, Ghagra, Katakhal, Dhaleswari, Singla and Longai.
• The Barak is among the richest rivers in the world as to aquatic biodiversity, as it contains more than 2,000 species of fish.
• The biomes are extremely rich in wildlife and also very diverse in the entire stretch of the Barak river.

Additional Information

Brahmaputra River:

• Left bank Tributaries – Dhansiri, Lohit, Dibang
• Right Bank Tributaries– Subansiri, Kameng, Manas, Sankosh.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

While travelling from Bikaner (Rajasthan) to Konark (Odisha) by Road, you cross 4 states: Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

• Bikaner:
• The city of Bikaner lies within the Western Desert Region of the state of Rajasthan.
• The scarcity of water has affected the vegetation of the area.
• Similar to other desert areas, mostly cactus and thorny bushes grow in this region.
• The soil type of the area is basically alkaline. Saline soil with a calcareous base is also seen in Bikaner.​
• ​Eastern Rajasthan:
• ​The tropical thorn forests are found in Eastern Rajasthan.
• The vegetation here is too scarce and with tall trees laid against the sparse ground where there is a lack of grass.
• Babool tree, ber tree, wild date palm, Khair tree, neem, khejri tree, palas tree, etc. are some of the important trees of the tropical thorn forests.
• In these trees, the leaves are thick and also small to minimize evaporation.
• ​Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh:
• ​Tropical Deciduous Forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of the Himalayas, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha.
• Deciduous Forests are Found in regions that record rainfall between 100-200 cm.
• Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of these forests.
• Konark:
• ​​Konark is located along the eastern coast of Odisha.
• Mancagroove forests are found along the eastern coast of Odisha.
• Bhitarkanika Mangroves is the second largest mangrove forest in India is Bhitarkanika in Odisha created by the two river deltas of River Brahmani and Baitarani.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• The term Karewas was firstly used by Godwin Austin in 1859 and later on by Lydekker in 1878 for unconsolidated to semi-consolidated sand clay conglomerate sequence.
• Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. These are unconsolidated lacustrine deposits.
• Lacustrine means “associated with lakes”.
• Jhelum river forms lacustrine deposits.
• A succession of plateaus is present above the Plains of Jhelum and its tributaries. These plateau-like terraces are called ‘Karewas’ or ‘Vudr’ in the local language.
• Karewas were formed during the Pleistocene Period (1 million years ago) when the entire Valley of Kashmir was under water. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Due to the rise of Pirpanjal, the drainage was impounded and a lake of about 5000 sq. km area was developed, thus a basin was formed.
• Subsequently, the lake was drained through Bramulla gorge.
• The deposits left in the process are known as karewas. Hence statement 2 is correct.​
• Karewa deposits have different soil and sediments such as sand, clay, silt, shale, mud, and lignite. Hence, these are very useful for agricultural and horticultural activities.
• Karewa formations are useful for the cultivation of-
• Zafran (a local variety of Saffron in Kashmir valley),
• Almonds,
• Walnuts, and
• Apples. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is ​Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Dam (Srisailam Hydel Project) is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Mahabubnagar District, Telangana and Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh near Srisailam temple town.
• It is the 2^nd largest capacity working hydroelectric station in the country.
• It is 512 m (1,680 ft) long, 145 meters (476 ft) maximum height, and has 12 radial crest gates.
• It has a reservoir of 616 square kilometers.
• Andhra Pradesh is well known globally for its variety of rocks and minerals and is called Ratna Garbha.
• The state has the largest deposits of quality chrysotile asbestos in the country. 
• Asbestos is the generic commercial designation for a group of naturally occurring mineral silicate fibers of the serpentine and amphibole series. It includes the serpentine mineral chrysotile (also known as ‘white asbestos).
• Chrysotile (white asbestos) is the most commonly used form of asbestos. It can be found today in the roofs, ceilings, walls, and floors of homes and businesses.
• Other important minerals found in the state are copper ore, manganese, mica, coal, and limestone.

Important Points

• ​Andhra Pradesh is situated on the country’s southeastern coast.
• It is the 8^th largest state in the country covering an area of 160,205 sq. km.
• The state has the second longest coastline of 974 km (605mi) among all the states of India, after Gujarat.
• It borders Telangana in the northwest, Chhattisgarh in the north, Odisha in the northeast, Karnataka in the west, Tamil Nadu in the south, and the water body of the Bay of Bengal in the east.
• Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 commonly called Telangana Act is an Act of the Indian Parliament proclaiming the bifurcation of the Andhra Pradesh state into two states, Telangana and residuary Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is Electricity, gas, water supply, and other utility services.

Key Points​

• In 2020-21, electricity, gas, water supply, and other utility services were the only sub-sector that had experienced positive growth of 1.8 percent. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Electricity, Gas, Water Supply & Other Utility Services, whose GVA grew 14.3% in Q1 of 2021-22, compared to a 9.9% fall last year, was the only sector along with Agriculture, Forestry, and Fishing, to recover beyond the pre-pandemic levels of 2019-20.
• The contribution of mining and quarrying to India's gross value added (GVA) is 1.58% during the year 2020–2021 (April–September) as compared to 2.02% in the year 2019–2020.  Its real GVA growth rate for 2020-21 was -9.2.
• Financial, real estate, and professional services saw the real GVA growth rates in 2020-21 to -1.4.
• Public administration, defence, and other services such as education, health, and recreation grew 5.8% but remained 5% lower than the pre-pandemic level. Its real GVA growth rate for 2020-21 was -4.1.​

Additional Information

• ​As per the System of National Accounts (SNA), gross value added, is defined as the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption and is a measure of the contribution to GDP made by an individual producer, industry, or sector.
• At its simplest, it gives the rupee value of goods and services produced in the economy after deducting the cost of inputs and raw materials used.
• As part of the data on GVA, the NSO provides both quarterly and annual estimates of output, measured by the gross value added.
• The sectoral classification provides data on eight broad categories that span the gamut of goods produced and services provided in the economy. These are:
• Agriculture, Forestry, and Fishing;
• Mining and Quarrying;
• Manufacturing;
• Electricity, Gas, Water Supply, and other Utility Services;
• Construction;
• Trade, Hotels, Transport, Communication, and Services related to Broadcasting;
• Financial, Real Estate and, Professional Services;
• Public Administration, Defence, and other Services.

The correct answer is The borrower should not refuse to offer a collateral.

Key Points

• Microfinance is a way in which loans, credit, insurance, access to savings accounts, and money transfers are provided to small business owners and entrepreneurs in underdeveloped parts of India.
• Microfinance is a form of financial service which provides small loans and other financial services to poor and low-income households, hence it is an economic tool designed to promote financial inclusion which enables the poor and low-income households to come out of poverty, increase their income levels and improve overall living standards.
• The beneficiaries of microfinance are those who do not have access to traditional financial resources.
• Interest rates on microloans are generally higher than that on a traditional personal loan as the amount of the loan is small. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Features of microfinance:
• The borrowers are generally from low-income backgrounds. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Loans availed under microfinance are usually of small amounts, i.e., microloans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The loan tenure is short.
• Microfinance loans do not require any collateral. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• These loans are usually repaid at higher frequencies.
• The purpose of most microfinance loans is income generation.
• The end result of microloans should be to have its recipients outgrow smaller loans and be ready for traditional bank loans.

The correct answer is ​NBFCs cannot give loans.

Key Points

• A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956.
• It is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the Government or local authority or other marketable securities of like nature.
• That includes leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business.
• But that does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
• NBFCs lend and invest, therefore their operations are similar to those of banks. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Nevertheless, there are a few differences, as listed below:
• NBFCs are unable to accept demand deposits. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• NBFCs are not part of the payment and settlement system, so they are unable to issue checks drawn on themselves. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Unlike banks, NBFC depositors do not have access to the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation's deposit insurance facility. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• ​NBFCs provide various banking and non-banking services to the concerned people.
• The Reserve Bank of India does not assume any responsibility or guarantee for the company's current financial soundness, for the accuracy of any of the company's statements, representations, or opinions, or for the return of deposits/discharge of liabilities
  

The correct answer is Rubber products.

In News

• The combined Index of Eight Core Industries stood at 137.1 in February 2022, which increased by 5.8 percent (provisional) as compared to the Index of February 2021.
• The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)** released the Index o**f Eight Core Industries (ICI) for the Month of February 2022.
• ICI measures combined and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz-
• Coal
• Crude Oil
• Natural Gas
• Refinery Products
• Fertilizers
• Steel
• Cement and
• Electricity.
• Rubber products are not among the eight core industries. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
• **The production of Coal, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Steel, Cement, and Electricity industries increased in February 2022 over the corresponding period of last year.**​

Additional Information

• ​Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period. 
• Base Year for IIP is 2011-2012.
• It is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics, and Programme Implementation.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• MSME (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise) term was introduced by the Government of India in agreement with the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006.
• MSME is initiated and managed under the Ministry of MSME (MoMSME) are entities engaged in the production, manufacturing, processing, or preservation of goods and commodities.
• MSME definition**-**
• Micromanufacturing and services units-  Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover.
• Small units- Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover.
• Medium units- Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover.​
• MSMEs have propelled India to new heights due to their low investment requirements, flexibility in operations, and ability to develop suitable native technology.

Additional Information

• ​Importance of MSMEs
• As India strives to become a $5 trillion economy, the MSME ministry aims to raise its contribution to GDP by up to 50% by 2025.
• MSMEs employ about 12 crore people, making them the second-largest source of jobs after agriculture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It contributes about 6.11% of GDP from manufacturing and 24.63% of GDP from service activities, with about 45 lakh units across the country.
• They account for approximately 45% of India's total exports.
• MSMEs are an important sector of the Indian economy and have contributed immensely to the country’s socio-economic development.
• MSMEs not only play a crucial role in providing large employment opportunities at comparatively lower capital cost than large industries but also help in industrialization of rural & backward areas. Hence statements 2 and 3 are also correct.
• It helps in reducing regional imbalances, assuring more equitable distribution of national income and wealth.

The correct answer is Methanoic Acid.

Key Points

• Nettle sting and bee-sting have methanoic acid commonly called formic acid (HCOOH).
• The leaves and young stems of this herbaceous plant are fitted with stinging hairs tipped with formic acid and other irritants.
• If touched, these needle-like hairs inject the stinging acid into the skin, triggering a burning, tingling sensation and an itchy rash.

So, the nettle leaves contains methanoic acid that causes pain and irritation.

Additional Information

• Tartaric Acid:
• It is a white crystalline organic acid found in many fruits including grapes, tamarind, apricots, avocados and banana.
  

It naturally develops in the process of winemaking.

It is mostly used with baking soda as a flavouring agent to enhance foods.

• Hydrochloric Acid:
• Chemical formula:- HCI
• It is also known as Muriatic acid.
• It is the colorless solution of hydrogen chloride (aqueous form) having a pungent smell.
• It is a component of gastric acid for digestion in humans and most animals.
• ​Sulphuric Acid:
• Chemical Formula- H₂SO₄.​​
• Used in making fertilizers, pigments, dyes, drugs, explosives, detergents, and inorganic salts and acids.

The correct answer is Mild base.

Key Points

Milk of Magnesia:

• Magnesia milk is an alkaline (basic) suspension of water and a creamy, suspended form of Mg(OH)₂ or magnesium hydroxide.
• It is used to neutralise excess stomach acid as an antacid.
• It is a weak base and is available in the form of liquid or tablets in medical stores.
• This is a compound formed by two ions magnesium cation and hydroxyl anion, so it is a basic compound, therefore, the pH of milk of magnesia is 10.5.
• Milk of magnesia is a medium basic compound because its pH is not so high and not so low.
• The name “milk” is used because of its milky appearance.

​Properties of Milk of Magnesia:

• The molar mass of this chemical compound is equal to 58.3197 grams per mole.
• Under standard conditions, this compound exists as a white solid that does not have any characteristic odour.
• The melting point of this compound can be approximated at 350 degrees Celsius. However, it is important to note that this compound begins undergoing decomposition at this temperature gradient.
• Milk of magnesia is not very soluble in water.
• Magnesium hydroxide crystallizes in a hexagonal crystal lattice.

Concept: 

• Thermal conductivity is nothing but the measure of the ability of the material to transfer heat when its temperature is raised.
• It is an intrinsic property.
• Metals which are having higher value of thermal conductivity & are referred to as good conductor of heat.
• The S.I unit of thermal conductivity is Wm-1K-1

Explanation: 

• Thermal conductivity of any material is decided by two factors.
• Motion of free electrons
• Lattice vibrations
• In case of solids, since atoms or molecules are tightly packed & it is more difficult for the electrons to flow even at higher temperature & hence it's thermal conductivity decreases with temperature.
• Given below is the data table for thermal conductivity.
• Clearly we can see that silver & copper have greater value of thermal conductivity as compared to remaining elements.
• Hence both these metals silver & copper are the good conductor of heat.

Additional Information

• Transfer of heat is dependent upon the movement of molecules that results in increase in molecular velocity & hence thermal conductivity.
• Thermal conductivity of gases increases with increasing temperature but for liquids, it decreases with temperature because of expansion & increasing separation between the molecules.
• If we increase the temperature, there is change in the electronic properties of metals due to which number of free electrons & hence lattice vibration increases.

The correct answer is Sonorous.

Key Points

Metallic Properties:

• Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.
• Metals are malleable and can be easily converted into thin sheets.
• Metals are ductile, which means they can be drawn into wires.
• They produce a ringing sound, which is why they are called sonorous. 
• Hence they are used in making school bells.
• They have a very high density.
• Metals have high melting points.
• Metals are rigid solids.
• Most of the metals react with oxygen to form metal oxides.
• This is one of the reasons that metals get corroded.
• Oxides of metals are basic in nature.
• Metal oxides react with acids very easily.
• Examples of metals:- Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Iron, etc.

Important Points

Non-Metallic Properties:

• Non-metals are dull in appearance.
• They are brittle and thus, shatter when hammered.
• They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
• They don't show the property of ductility, which means they can't be drawn into wires.
• They are not malleable or can't be changed into sheets.
• They have low densities.
• They can be solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.
• They don't produce rich sound when hit on any surface or they are not sonorous.
• Non-metals do not react with acids.
• They are generally light in weight.
• Non-metal oxides are molecular substances that form acidic solutions.
• They tend to form anions of oxyanions in an aqueous solution.
• They do not have any lustre or shine in themselves.
• Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.
• Non-metal oxides react with bases and form the salt.
• Examples of non-metal:- Hydrogen, Chlorine, Nitrogen, Carbon, etc.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

Tincture of Iodine:

• The tincture of iodine is also a mixture of Iodine (I) and Ethyl alcohol (C₂H₅OH) and Water.
• The tincture of iodine is a powerful antiseptic. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• 2-3% solution of iodine in the alcohol-water mixture is called a tincture of iodine.
• It is prepared by dissolving Iodine in a mixture of Ethanol and Water. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• A tincture of Iodine is used to disinfect the region of any cut or wound in the body.
• It is also referred to as a weak iodine solution and it can destroy both bacteria and viruses. Hence, statement 3 is correct.​

Additional Information

​Iodine:

• Iodine with the symbol ‘I’ is a dark grey or purple blackish nonmetallic element with atomic number 53 in the Periodic Table.
• It is the least reactive and most electropositive halogen, even though it can form compounds with many elements.
• It is mainly found on Earth as the water-soluble iodide in brine pools and oceans.

Ethyl Alcohol/Ethanol:

• Ethanol is commonly known as alcohol.
• It is a constituent of all alcoholic beverages namely beer, wine, whisky, some cough syrups, digestive syrups etc.
• In industries, alcohol is produced by the fermentation of sugar present in molasses.

The correct answer is Mg2+.

Key Points

• Atoms and ions which contain the same number of electrons are called isoelectronic.
• For example, O^2–, F^– , Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ have the same number of electrons (10).
• Their radii would be different because of their different nuclear charges.
• The cation with the greater positive charge will have a smaller radius because of the greater attraction of the electrons to the nucleus.
• Anion with a greater negative charge will have a larger radius.
• In this case, the net repulsion of the electrons will outweigh the nuclear charge and the ion will expand in size.

Additional Information

• | Atom | State | No. of Electrons | | --- | --- | --- | | Chlorine | Cl | 17 | | Cl^- | 18 | | | Magnesium | Mg | 12 | | Mg²⁺ | 10 | | | Sulphur | S | 16 | | S^2- | 18 | | | Phosphorus | P | 15 | | P^3- | 18 | | | Potassium | K | 19 | | K⁺ | 18 | |

• Hence Mg2+ is not isoelectronic with Cl-.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Plant Cells:

• Plant cells are eukaryotic cells that vary in several fundamental factors from other eukaryotic organisms.
• Both plant and animal cells contain a nucleus along with similar organelles.
• One of the distinctive aspects of a plant cell is the presence of a cell wall outside the cell membrane.

Nucleus:

• The nucleus is a membrane-bound structure that is present only in eukaryotic cells.
• The vital function of a nucleus is to store DNA or hereditary information required for cell division, metabolism and growth.
• Nucleolus: It manufactures cells’ protein-producing structures and ribosomes.
• Nucleopore: Nuclear membrane is perforated with holes called nucleopore that allow proteins and nucleic acids to pass through.

Chloroplasts:

• They are green-coloured plastids, which comprise green-coloured pigments within the plant cell and are called chlorophyll.
• Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae.
• They are the food producers of plants.
• These are found in mesophyll cells located in the leaves of plants.
• They contain a high concentration of chlorophyll that traps sunlight.
• Chloroplast has its own extra-nuclear DNA and therefore is semiautonomous, like mitochondria.
• They also produce proteins and lipids required for the production of chloroplast membranes.
• In addition to the inner and outer membranes of the envelope, chloroplasts have a third internal membrane system, called the thylakoid membrane.

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The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• Glycogen is a polysaccharide carbohydrate which is stored in the body of animals or human beings.
• Whenever our body requires glucose (energy), glycogen breaks down to glucose with the help of the enzyme.
• It is present in the liver, brain and muscles.
• Whereas starch is a polysaccharide carbohydrate stored in plants.

Important Points

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Photosynthesis:

• Photosynthesis is a process by which phototrophs convert light energy into chemical energy, which is later used to fuel cellular activities. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• The chemical energy is stored in the form of sugars, which are created from water and carbon dioxide. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
• Photosynthesis definition states that the process exclusively takes place in the chloroplasts through photosynthetic pigments such as chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, carotene and xanthophyll.
• All green plants and a few other autotrophic organisms utilize photosynthesis to synthesize nutrients by using carbon dioxide, water and sunlight.
• The by-product of the photosynthesis process is oxygen.
• Chlorophyll is a green pigment found in the chloroplasts of the plant cell and in the mesosomes of cyanobacteria.
• This green colour pigment plays a vital role in the process of photosynthesis by permitting plants to absorb energy from sunlight.
• Photosynthesis is a reduction process that involves the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates. Hence, option 4 is correct and 3 is incorrect.
• The process of photosynthesis occurs in two stages:
• Light-dependent reaction or light reaction
• Light independent reaction or dark reaction
• Photosynthesis also applies to other organisms besides green plants.
• These include several prokaryotes such as cyanobacteria, purple bacteria and green sulfur bacteria.
• These organisms exhibit photosynthesis just like green plants.
• The glucose produced during photosynthesis is then used to fuel various cellular activities.

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

• Lack of protein in the diet causes Kwashiorkor. Protein is found in every cell of the human body.
• Protein is needed in the human body's diet to repair and regenerate cells.
• This is how a healthy human body regenerates cells on a regular basis.
• Protein is particularly necessary for growth in children and during pregnancy.
• When the body is deficient in protein, growth and regular bodily functions slow down, and kwashiorkor develops.