CDS General Knowledge 10 April 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

**CONCEPT:**​

• It is also a ratio between the distance of the image to the distance of the object from the lens.

$\Rightarrow m=\frac{h_i}{h_o}=\frac{v}{u}$

• If magnification is more than 1, the image is magnified and if it is less than one image is diminished.
• If magnification is positive, the image is erect, virtual and if it is negative, the image is inverted, real.

EXPLANATION:

• ​Magnification, m = +2 represents the case of an Enlarged image and hence it must be a Convex Lens.
• The image formed by a Convex lens is Erect and Virtual.
• Hence the image is erect, virtual, and larger than the object.

Additional Information

Important Note: A Positive magnification shows the image is virtual and erect (upright) and a negative one shows the image is real and inverted.

CONCEPT:

• Electrical Resistivity(ρ) is a fundamental and intrinsic property of any material that measures how strongly that material can resist the flow of electric current through it.
• SI unit of ρ is Ohm-metre (Ω m)
• ​It is the reciprocal of Electrical Conductivity.

EXPLANATION:

• From the table, it is clear that the resistivity of glass is much more than that of Nichrome and Silver.
• Between these two Nichrome has more resistivity than Silver.
• Hence, Silver < Nichrome < Glass is the correct sequence.

CONCEPT:

• Current through a wire is considered as the total charge flow through that wire per unit time.
• The SI unit of current is Ampere.
• The direction of the Current is always opposite to that of the flow of free electrons.
• When the current flows through a resistance, some power consumption takes place. For Example: to glow a bulb, to rotate a fan, etc.
• The flow of current depends upon the resistance inversely for a fixed voltage.

​$\Rightarrow I \propto \frac{1}{R}$

EXPLANATION:

• Short-Circuit is a case in which the flow of current takes place through a very low resistance such as a wire.
• In this case, the current does not face any restriction flowing through that low resistor or wire.
• As a result, Current flow increases abruptly.
• Hence, the current in the circuit increases heavily is the correct option.

SOLUTION:

• When an electric current passes through the winding of the motor, a magnetic field generates, and due to the presence of an external magnetic field because of the magnets used in the motor, a net force in the form of torque is experienced by the shaft of the motor.

• This torque rotates the shaft of the motor. The electric energy in this case is used to convert into mechanical and hence option (I) is correct.

• An electric generator works on the principle of Faraday's law in which a winding wire shaft is rotated in the presence of an external magnetic field that induces an electric current into the winding wire. Hence, option (II) is also correct.

• When an electric current passes through a circular coil, it behaves as a magnet with one of its faces being the North Pole and the other as the South Pole.

• If we draw field lines we see that the lines emit from one pole and enter the other. These lines are always parallel inside the coil. Hence, option (III) is also correct.

• In our household connection, we use the alternating current to run our appliances for which we use different color wires to differentiate between the LIVE, EARTH, and NEUTRAL wire.

• For the standard purpose, we use the BROWN color for LIVE wire, BLUE color for NEUTRAL, and GREEN color for EARTH. Hence, option (IV) is NOT correct.

CONCEPT:

• A Displacement is a vector whose length is the shortest distance from the initial or starting point to the final or endpoint.
• Its SI unit is meter (m).
• In the case of circular motion, after every complete revolution, the initial and final points are the same and hence Displacement becomes ZERO.

SOLUTION:

Given: Time is taken to complete a revolution, T = 30 sec, Total Time of the Journey, T_total = 3 min 45 sec = 225 sec.

• The total number of revolutions that had been made during this time is

$\Rightarrow n= \frac {225}{30}=7.5$

This means 7 complete revolutions and a half revolutions. 

• For complete revolutions, displacement = 0, and for the last half revolution displacement is equal to the diameter of the circular track hence Displacement = 200m.

Hence option (III) is correct.

CONCEPT:

• Newton's law of gravitation states that any two bodies having masses (m1 and m2) keeping at a distance (r) from each other exerts a Force of attraction on each other.
• This force is directly proportional to the masses of bodies and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

$\Rightarrow F \propto \frac{M_1M_2}{R^2} \Rightarrow F = \frac {GM_1M_2}{R^2}$

Where G = 6.674 × 10-11 m3Kg-1s-2 is a universal constant

• The dimension of the force is MLT-2 and the SI unit is Newton (N).

CALCULATION:

Given: Mass of the one body (M₁) = M, Mass of the another body (M₂) = 2M, initial distance = R, Final distance = 2R,F = Initial Force, F' = Final force

M₁ = M,  M2 = 2M, R^' = 2R

$\Rightarrow F \propto \frac{M_1M_2}{R^2}$

$F'=\frac{GM_1M_2}{R'^2} =\frac{G M_1(2M_2)}{(2R)^2}=\frac {2GM_1M_2}{4R^2}=\frac {1}{2}F$

Hence, the Force would be halved is the correct answer.

Explanation:

• Combustion is a chemical reaction in which a substance reacts quickly with oxygen and produces heat.
• The original substance is referred to as the fuel, and the source of oxygen is referred to as the oxidizer.
• The fuel can take the form of a solid, liquid, or gas.

The Combustion equation for glucose is given as follows;

C₆H₁₂O₆ +6O₂ → 6CO₂  + 6H₂O

From the above balanced equation we can see that,

For complete combustion of 1 mole of glucose we need 6 mole of oxygen gas.

Hence, The number of moles of oxygen gas used in the complete combustion of 1 mole of glucose is 6

Concept:

• The reaction in which the addition of oxygen to a substance or the removal of hydrogen from a substance takes place is called an oxidation reaction.

Explanation:

• The taste of butter changes if left for a longer period is an example of oxidation reaction.
• Butter is a dairy product that contains 80% fat.
• Butter oxidises when it reacts with oxygen in the air.
• It becomes rancid as a result of oxidation, i.e it gives foul smell and taste.
• A white substance is formed when an aqueous solution of barium chloride is mixed with sodium sulphate solution is not an example of an oxidation reaction.
• When barium chloride and sodium sulphate combine in an aqueous solution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed that is insoluble in water.
• These reactions are ionic in nature and involve double displacement.
• A reddish-brown powder that gets coated on articles made of iron is an example of an oxidation reaction.
• When new, iron articles are shiny, but after a while, they become coated with a reddish brown powder. This is commonly referred to as iron rusting. Thus, iron rusting is an oxidation reaction.
• Rust is a reddish-brown powder that forms when a metal is attacked by substances such as moisture, acids, and so on.
• Wine turns sour when exposed to the air is an example of an oxidation reaction. 
• It becomes sour due to aerobic bacteria that allow the wine's alcohol content to oxidise.

Explanation:

• Formic acid, also known as methanoic acid, is the simplest carboxylic acid.
• Chemical formula HCOOH.
• It is an important intermediate in chemical synthesis and can be found in nature, most notably in some ant stings.
• It is an anti-injected acid that causes a burning sensation.
• To neutralize the effect, a mild base such as baking soda or soap should be used.
• Methanoic acid is an unpleasant chemical found in certain ant species.
• This is toxic at high concentrations but extremely effective at low concentrations.
• Formic acid is used as a food preservative because it is antibacterial.

• He (Helium) is an inert gas. It has completely filled 2s orbital. The 'He' atom has an atomic weight of 4 grams.

Calculation:

Given that:

104g Helium 

• The formula to determine the number of moles is
• No. of Moles =  Molecular weight of He/Weight of He

Thus we can write-

4 grams of He occupy 1 mole.

104/4=26 moles.

26 moles of helium are present in 104g of He.

Explanation:

• Hydrocarbon fuel is the fuel that is derived from a hydrocarbon, which includes gasoline and jet fuel.
• Unsaturated hydrocarbons give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke while saturated hydrocarbons give a clean flame.
• Unsaturated hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons that have double or triple covalent bonds between adjacent carbon atoms.
• The colour of the flame is yellow because of the presence of unburnt carbon particles.

Thus, On burning hydrocarbon fuels, we see a yellow flame with lots of black smoke, which indicates that the fuel is made of unsaturated hydrocarbons.

Additional Information

• Saturated hydrocarbon is a hydrocarbon in which all the carbon-carbon bonds are single bonds.

Concept:

• In organic chemistry, a saturated compound is one that contains all of the single bonds between carbon atoms.
• Example: cycloalkanes. They have a general formula as C_nH_2n.
• Unsaturated compounds are organic compounds that contain at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms

Explanation:

• Cyclohexane is a saturated compound because it contains single bonds between carbon-carbon atoms.

• From the above structure, it is clear that six carbon atoms are arranged in a ring and each carbon atom is joined to two hydrogen atoms to complete its octet.

• Because all six carbon atoms are linked by a single bond, the compound is saturated.

• As a result, cyclohexane has 18 single bonds ( 6 carbon-carbon bonds and 12 carbon-hydrogen bonds) and 0 unsaturated bonds.

Thus, The number of saturated and unsaturated bonds in cyclohexane are 18 and 0 respectively.

Explanation:

• When non-metals are dissolved in water they produce acidic oxides.
• And most metals, give rise to basic oxides.
• The formation of H⁺ (aq) ions in solution causes a substance's acidic nature.
• The formation of OH^– (aq) ions in solution are responsible for a substance's basic nature.
• Non-metals do not react with water but the non-metal oxides do react with water and they produce acids.
• Non-metallic oxide dissolves in water to form an acid.
• CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃
• Carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) is an acid formed by the reaction of water (H₂O) with carbon oxide (CO₂).

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• GMO (Genetically Modified Organisms)
• Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism.
• The techniques of genetic engineering include
• the creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning, gene transfer, overcome this limitation and allow us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.
• In this technique, a gene from one organism is isolated and transferred to the cell of another organism. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A genetically modified organism (GMO) is an animal, plant, or microbe whose DNA has been altered using genetic engineering techniques. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Genes for insect resistance may spread from crop plants to wild plants. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are known as transgenic animals.
• To produce a transgenic animal the novel genes are inserted at a very early stage of development. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Concept:

• A tissue can be defined as a group of one or more types of cells having the same origin and specialized for specific functions along with the intercellular materials.
• These tissues are organized to form an organ like the stomach, lung, heart, and kidney.

Explanation:

• Due to an accident, the delicate lining of the mouth and the oesophagus of a person is injured. In this case, Squamous epithelium tissues will be affected.
• The Squamous (Squama-scale) is formed of a single layer of closely fitted, flattened, polygonal cells, which form bulges on the cell surface.
• Squamous epithelium tissues are found in the lining of the mouth, oesophagus, and including blood vessels and the alveoli of the lungs.
• Function: Simple squamous epithelium performs the function of protection, excretion, gas exchange and secretion of coelomic fluid.

Additional Information

Smooth muscle: 

• Smooth muscles are found in the posterior part of oesophagus, stomach, intestine, lungs, urinogenital tract, etc.
• The smooth muscles help in the peristalsis which occurs in the tubular viscera.

Cuboidal epithelium:

• It is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells.
• The simple cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in the ducts of glands, tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys, ovaries, etc.
• The main function of this epithelium is protection, secretion absorption, excretion, and gamete formation.

Striated muscle:

• The striated muscles form about 40% of total body weight.
• These muscles are attached and bring about the movement of the various bones of the skeleton.

Concept:

• Every living cell is covered by a thin, elastic, transparent, semi-permeable and regenerative membrane called cell membrane also called plasma membrane or plasmalemma.
• The cell membrane separates the internal environment of the cell from the external environment.
• This membrane helps in regulating the entrance and exit of molecules into and out of the cell.

Explanation:

It is made up of cellulose. (incorrect)

• Cell membrane is made up of a phospholipid bilayer. Phospholipids are lipids that contain a phosphate group.
• There is one hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails on the phospholipids. Proteins are embedded in the lipid bilayers.

It is a permeable structure for all substances. (incorrect)

• A permeable membrane allows all substances to pass freely through it. The plasma membrane, on the other hand, is composed of lipids arranged in a bilayer that allows only hydrophobic substances to pass through it and is selectively permeable in nature.

It is flexible and enables the cell to engulf many materials. (correct)

• The plasma membrane is made up of organic molecules known as lipids and proteins that are flexible.
• The flexibility of the cell membrane also allows the cell to take in food and other materials from its surroundings.

It does not allow diffusion of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide. (incorrect)

• Only the smallest molecules, such as water, carbon dioxide, and oxygen, can pass freely through cell membranes.

Explanation:

• Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants produce their own food.
• Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is taken in by leaves through stomata and used to make carbohydrates, primarily glucose and starch, during this process.
• When the glucose is in excess it is stored in the form of starch. It is stored in the roots, leaves, tubers, and bulbs.
• During the process, oxygen is released.
• The presence of starch (glucose) in leaves indicates the occurrence of photosynthesis. Starch is also a carbohydrate.
• It is a unique process on the earth. The solar energy is captured by the leaves and stored in the plant in the form of food.
• Photosynthesis occurs only in the green parts of plants, primarily the leaves.

Additional Information

• Respiration:
• Respiration is defined as a metabolic process in which an organism's living cells obtain energy by taking in oxygen and emitting carbon dioxide as a result of the oxidation of complex organic substances.
• Degradation:
• Degradation is a process in which the value of the biophysical environment is affected by a variety of human-caused processes that act on the land.
• Mineral absorption:
• Mineral absorption, also known as mineral uptake, is the process by which minerals enter cellular material.

Concept:

• Vitamins are organic substances that we need in sufficient quantities to maintain good health.
• Our body, however, cannot synthesize them. Therefore, we need to consume natural sources such as fruits and vegetables. Vitamins are divided into two groups water-soluble vitamins (Vitamins of B group and Vitamin C) and fat-soluble vitamins (Vitamins A, D, E, and K).

Explanation:

• Rickets is a condition in which children's bones soften and weaken as a result of a severe and long-term vitamin D deficiency.
• Vitamin D is needed for the absorption of calcium ions from the duodenum walls into the bloodstream and also maintains calcium levels in the body.
• A few foods, such as canned salmon with bones and egg yolks, naturally contain trace amounts of vitamin D.
• Vitamin D can also be obtained through fortified foods and sun exposure.
• Vitamin D is a key component in the formation of strong bones.

Additional Information

The correct answer is  A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, and D - 1.

Concept:

• All living tissues in the body require oxygenated blood to survive.
• The heart is the body's pumping organ that is constantly active and requires an uninterrupted supply of oxygenated blood.
• Arteries are the blood vessels that carry blood from the heart to different body parts.
• Veins are another type of blood vessel that brings blood from different body parts to the heart, i.e, carry blood toward the heart.

Explanation:

• Pulmonary arteries:
• The pulmonary arteries are responsible for transporting impure or deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
• Capillaries:
• Capillaries are the blood vessels that connect the arteries to the veins. The arteries transport oxygen-rich blood to the capillaries, where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
• The waste-rich blood is then delivered by the capillaries to the veins for transport back to the lungs and heart.
• Coronary arteries:
• The coronary arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood to the heart muscles.
• The heart muscle, like all other tissues in the body, requires oxygen-rich blood to function.
• Pulmonary veins:
• Pulmonary veins work in the opposite direction of pulmonary arteries, collecting oxygenated blood and transporting it from the lungs back to the heart.
• The veins connect to form larger veins. Each lung has two pulmonary veins that carry blood to the top left chamber of the heart, known as the atrium.

The correct answer is Option 1 (The shorter wavelength infrared radiations from the Sun can enter into the greenhouse while longer wavelength infrared radiations from the ground and the plants inside the greenhouse cannot pass back out through the glass).

Explanation:

• A greenhouse is a glasshouse designed to help plants survive in relatively colder climates around the world.
• The incident solar radiation enters the greenhouse and is absorbed by the plants and surfaces inside, whereas much of the outgoing infrared radiation cannot pass through the glass and remains trapped inside the greenhouse, resulting in warmth.
• The earth is also referred to as a greenhouse because it absorbs much of the visible spectrum heat from the sun, while greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and methane retain some of the infrared radiation emitted by the earth.
• Since glass is opaque to infrared radiations (thermal region), it partly reflects and partly absorbs these radiations.
• Greenhouse gases (CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, chlorofluorocarbons or CFCs) allow the solar radiations to enter but prevent the escape of heat radiations of longer wavelength.
• This mechanism keeps the energy of the sun trapped in the greenhouse.

CONCEPT:

• The Weight of a body is the Force that a planet exerts on that body towards its center.
• Weight depends upon the acceleration due to gravity (g) of that planet as W = mg where m is the mass of the body.
• Its SI unit is Newton.

​Calculation:

Given:

W_E = 9 N, gP = 9.gE

$\Rightarrow \frac{W_E}{W_P}=\frac{g_E}{g_P}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{9}{W_P}=\frac{g_E}{9g_E}$

W_P = 9 × 9

W_P = 9W_E

Hence, The weight would become 9 times is the correct answer.

Concept:

• Refraction of Light: When a ray of light is traveling from one transparent medium to another, it bends its path. This phenomenon is called refraction.
• When the light changes its medium, its speed, and wavelength changes.

​

Where i is the angle of incidence, r is the angle of refraction.

Atmospheric Refraction

• The air at different levels has different optical densities.
• So, different layers of air act as different optical mediums, and refraction occurs when light travels from one such layer to another.
• The twinkling of stars happens due to this phenomenon.

Explanation:

Twinkling of stars:

• The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth's surface.
• The atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position.
• The star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon.
• This apparent position of the star is not stationary but keeps on changing slightly since the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not stationary.
• As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers – the star sometimes appears brighter and at some other time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

• So, the cause of the twinkling of stars is 'refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices' the phenomenon is also known as refraction of light.

Additional Information

• Early sunrise and later sunset appear due to atmospheric refraction.
• The blue color of the sky is the result of the scattering of light by dust particles.
• Dispersion of light by water droplets causes rainbow formation.

CONCEPT:

• A convex lens is a spherical surface Lens that helps in converging all the light at a single point.
• An image formed is erect and virtual. Enlarged if the object is placed between lens and 2F and otherwise Diminished.
• The focal length of the Convex Lens is Positive.
• The relation between the distance of the image, object, and focal length is

​$\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}$,

where f is focal length, v is the distance of the image, and u is the distance of the object.

• The magnification is given as,

$\Rightarrow m=\frac{-v}{u}=\frac{h_{I}}{h_{o}}$    

Where h_I = height of the image and h_o = height of the object

SOLUTION:

Given: f = 15 cm, v = -u

$\frac{1}{15}=\frac{1}{-u}-\frac{1}{u} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{15}=\frac{-2}{u} \Rightarrow u=-30~cm$

• Hence, the object should be placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens.

Explanation:

• It is mainly composed of methane gas. (correct)
• Biogas is a mixture of inflammable gases (methane, sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, etc) produced by microbial activity that can be used as a fuel
• It is a non-renewable source of energy. (incorrect)
• Biogas is a naturally occurring and renewable energy source that is produced by the breakdown of organic matter.
• It is preferred over other conventional energy fuels because it is a cleaner fuel, has no foul smell and can be used as a source of energy as it is inflammable.
• It is formed by the decomposition of cow dung in the absence of oxygen. (correct)
• It is formed by the decomposition of excreta (dung) of cattle in the absence of oxygen.
• It burns without smoke and leaves no residue. (correct)
• Biogas is an excellent fuel because it contains up to 75% methane. It produces no smoke and produces no residue, unlike wood, charcoal, and coal burning.
• Biogas is used as a fuel for cooking and lighting.

Explanation:

• The stomach is a thick-walled bag. Its shape is like a flattened J and it is the widest part of the alimentary canal.
• It receives food from the food pipe at one end and opens into the small intestine at the other.
• The inner lining of the stomach secretes mucous, hydrochloric acid and digestive juices.
• In stomach, hydrochloric acid kills many bacteria that enter along with the food and makes the medium in the stomach acidic and helps the digestive juices to act.
• The digestive juices break down the proteins into simpler substances.

The correct answer is Lichen.

Key Points

Concept:

• Litmus is a water-soluble solution that can be used to determine whether a solution is acidic or basic.
• It indicates whether the solution is acidic or basic.

Explanation:

• Litmus is found in many species of Lichens like Lecanora Tartarea and Roccella Tinctoria.
• The Netherlands is one of the world's leading producers of litmus paper.
• Crushing and grinding of lichens are done in the process of extracting litmus solution from them.
• Lichen is a multicellular organism originates from algae or cyanobacteria.
• The lichens aid in the preparation of the litmus solution.
• Uses of Litmus:

1. Litmus is primarily used to determine whether a solution is acidic or basic.
2. Under acidic conditions, blue litmus paper turns red.
3. Under basic circumstances, red litmus paper turns blue.
4. Water-soluble gases are also tested with wet litmus paper.

Additional Information

• Protozoa:
• Protozoa are microscopic unicellular eukaryotes with a complex internal structure and a wide range of metabolic functions.
• Virus:
• Virus is a small, simple infectious agent that can only multiply in living cells of animals, plants, or bacteria.
• Saccharomyces:
• It is also known as baker's yeast, which is a single-celled fungus used in the production of bread and other wheat-based products.

The correct answer is Dissolution of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in rain.

Explanation:

• Normally rainwater has a pH of 5.6 due to the presence of H⁺ ions formed by the reaction of rainwater with carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere.
• Acid rain occurs when the pH of rainwater falls below 5.6.
• Acid rain is the process by which acid from the atmosphere is deposited on the earth's surface.
• Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur which are acidic in nature can be blown by wind along with solid particles in the atmosphere and finally settle down either on the ground as dry deposition or in water, fog and snow as wet deposition.
• Acid rain is harmful to agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and washes away nutrients needed for their growth.
• It causes respiratory ailments in human beings and animals.

Explanation:

• Mutation is defined as the sudden inheritable change in the genetic material.
• Mutation in a virus is caused due to a change in its genetic material.
• Every living organism on the planet has its own genetic material that contains information about the organism's multiplication, development, and behaviour.
• The genetic material of most organisms is DNA, whereas some viruses have RNA as their genetic material.
• Mutants are organisms that undergo these changes in their genetic material.
• During the mutation process in viruses, genetic materials are subjected to molecular processes in order to obtain functional protein products. These proteins aid in all aspects of organism growth and development.
• In one such process, genetic materials attempt to replicate themselves. They make some mistakes while copying, which cause changes in the resulting proteins.

Additional Information

Characteristics of genetic material:

• It should be able to generate its own replicas (by the process of replication).
• It should be chemically or structurally stable.
• It should be able to undergo slow and gradual changes called mutations which result in evolution.
• It should be able to store genetic information which is inherited.
• It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'.

Concept:

Fungi Kindom:

• The kingdom fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms.
• They show a great diversity in morphology and habitat.
• There are about 100000 species in this kingdom.

Explanation:

• Yeast belongs to the kingdom of fungi. It is a eukaryotic unicellular fungus which is used in bread making.
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly known as baker's yeast.
• Baker's yeast comes in a variety of forms, including active dry, fresh (or cake), liquid, and instant.
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae, a type of budding yeast that can ferment sugar into carbon dioxide and alcohol, is widely used in the bread making and brewing industries.

Additional Information

• Protista:
• Kingdom Protista includes all single-celled eukaryotes but the boundaries of this kingdom are not well-defined.
• They are mostly aquatic organisms, some protists also live in the bodies of animals as parasites.
• Monera:
• Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes such as bacteria, mycoplasma, Actinomycetes and cyanobacteria.
• They are simplest and most primitive, unicellular prokaryotes.
• Protozoa:
• Kingdom Protozoa are free-living or parasitic single-celled eukaryotes.
• They feed on organic matter such as other microorganisms or organic tissues and debris.

Explanation:

Fungi Kindom:

• The kingdom fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms.
• They show a great diversity in morphology and habitat.
• There are about 100000 species in this kingdom.
• The fungal body is an assemblage of long, extremely fine, almost transparent threads called hyphae.
• Numerous hyphae are twined around one another to form mycelium.
• Fungal hyphae are thin, tubular, transparent threads formed by many fungi or filaments filled with protoplasm and covered by a wall.
• The hyphae in fungi are of following types:

1. Aseptate hyphae:

• In aseptate hyphae, core walls or septate are not formed at the time of nuclear division.
• Such hyphae are multinucleate.

2. Septate hyphae:

• In this type, core walls or septate form after the nuclear division.
• The cells may have one, two or many nuclei.

The correct answer is London.

Key Points

• Rapid urban growth is a recent phenomenon.
• Until recent times, few settlements reached the population size of more than a few thousand inhabitants.
• The first urban settlement to reach a population of one million was the city of London by around. A.D. 1810 By 1982 approximately 175 cities in the world had crossed the one million population mark. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Presently 48 percent of the world’s population lives in urban settlements compared to only 3 percent in the year 1800.

Additional Information

• London
• It is situated on the bank of the River Thames.
• It is the capital and the largest city in the United Kingdom.
• Trent and Wye are rivers situated in the UK.
• Paris
• It is the capital of France and is located on the Seine river.
• Paris is famous for art, fashion and culture.
• The Seine is an important waterway in the Paris Basin in the north of France. Seine is about 777 KM in length.
• Gangola flows in northeastern parts of Nigeria the River and its tributaries are seasonal in nature.
• Dong nai River flows through 11 provinces of Vietnam and it originated from the Central highlands in South Vietnam.
• New York
• New York is a state in the Northeastern United States.
• New York City is renowned for the concentration of high-rise buildings, commonly known as "the skyscrapers".
• Washington D.C.
• It is also known as the "​City of Magnificent Buildings" because of the large and beautiful buildings it is called so.

The correct answer is Bwhw.

Key Points

• Koeppen’s Classification of Climatic Regions of India is a classification based on mean annual and mean monthly temperature and precipitation data.

• Classification of Indian Climate:

• | Code | Meaning | Region | | --- | --- | --- | | Amw | Monsoon type with the short dry winter season | The western coastal region, south of Mumbai | | As | Monsoon type with a dry season in high sun period | Coastal Tamil Nadu and adjoining areas of Andhra Pradesh | | Aw | Tropical Savanah type | Most parts of the peninsular plateau | | BShw | Semi-arid Steppe type | Rainshadow areas of Western Ghats, a large part of Rajasthan and contiguous areas of Haryana and Gujarat | | BWhw | Hot desert type | Most of western Rajasthan | | Cwg | Monsoon type with dry winters | Most parts of the Ganga Plain, eastern Rajasthan, Assam, and in Malwa Plateau | | Dfc | Cold, Humid winters type with shorter summer | Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam | | Et | Tundra Type | Mountain areas of Uttarakhand | | E | Polar Type | Higher areas of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh |

• Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is the North Atlantic Ocean.

Key Points

• Bermuda Islands
• It is a self-governing British overseas territory in the western North Atlantic Ocean.
• It is an archipelago of 7 main islands and about 170 additional (named) islets and rocks, situated about 650 miles (1,050 km) east of Cape Hatteras (North Carolina, U.S.).
• It is located off the east coast of the United States.
• The nearest landmass is Cape Hatteras, North Carolina, about 640 miles (1,030 km) west-northwest.
• It is the oldest remaining British overseas territory, settled by England a century before the Acts of Union that created the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
• Bermuda is neither geologically nor spatially associated with the West Indies, which lie more than 800 miles (1,300 km) to the south and southwest.
• The archipelago is about 24 miles (40 km) long and averages less than 1 mile (1.6 km) in width.
• The main islands are clustered together in the shape of a fishhook and are connected by bridges.
• The largest island is Main Island, 14 miles (22.5 km) long and 1 mile wide.
• The Peak, at 259 feet (79 metres) on Main Island, is the highest point and the capital is Hamilton.

Mistake Points

• ​Caribbean Sea
• The Caribbean Sea is a tropical sea in the Western Hemisphere, part of the Atlantic Ocean, southeast of the Gulf of Mexico. Hence, the Bermuda triangle is not the part of Caribbean Sea.
• The Caribbean Sea is bordered by Venezuela, Colombia, and Panama to the south, Central American countries (Costa Rica, Nicaragua, Guatemala, Honduras, and Belize) on the west; with the Greater Antilles (Cuba, Jamaica, the Dominican Republic, and Puerto Rico) on the north and the Lesser Antilles on the east.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• According to the ISFR 2021, the forest cover in the Lakshadweep is 27.10 sq. km. which is 90.33 percent of its geographical area.
• About 82 percent of the landmass is covered by privately owned coconut plantations. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.
• The top five states in terms of forest cover as a percentage of total geographical area are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%), and Nagaland (73.90%).

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEF&CC) released the biennial India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021 on January 13, 2021.
• The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares, which is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.
• India has a robust scientific system for biennial assessment of forest cover, and inventory of forests as well as trees outside forests by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), an organisation under the MOEF&CC.
• The ISFR 2021 is the seventeenth report in the series and looks at the growing stock in forests and trees outside forests, bamboo resources, carbon stock, and several other parameters.
• A total of 17 states/union territories’ have above 33% of the geographical area under forest cover.
• Out of these states and union territories, five namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya have more than 75% forest cover.
• Twelve states and union territories namely Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Goa, Kerala, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Assam, Odisha, have forest cover between 33% to 75%.

The correct answer is 1921 - 1951.

Key Points

• The decades 1921-1951
• It is referred to as the period of steady population growth. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate.
• At the same time, better transport and communication systems improved distribution systems.
• The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to a higher growth rate than in the previous phase.
• This was impressive in the backdrop of the Great Economic Depression, the 1920s, and World War II.

Additional Information

• The period from 1901-1921
• It is referred to as a period of the stagnant or stationary phase of growth of India’s population, since in this period growth rate was very low, even recording a negative growth rate during 1911-1921.
• Both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the rate of increase low.
• Poor health and medical services, illiteracy of people at large, and an inefficient distribution system of food and other basic necessities were largely responsible for high birth and death rates in this period.
• The decades 1951-1981
• It is referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of the population in the country.
• The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 percent.
• It is in this period, after the Independence, that developmental activity was introduced through a centralized planning process and the economy started showing up ensuring the improvement of the living conditions of people at large.
• Consequently, there was a high natural increase and a higher growth rate.
• From the post-1981 till present
• The growth rate of the country’s population though remained high, has started slowing down gradually.
• A downward trend in crude birth rate is held responsible for such population growth.
• This was, in turn, affected by an increase in the mean age at marriage, improved quality of life particularly education of females in the country.

The correct answer is Geothermal energy.

Key Points

• Manikaran geothermal field
• It extends from the Harihar temple at the entrance of the village to the confluence of the Parbati River with the Brahmaganga Nala.
• It is located in the Parvati Valley on the river Parvati, in the Kullu District of Himachal Pradesh. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• At Manikaran, thermal springs generally emerge either from joints in quartzites or through the overburden of the terrace gravel deposits.
• The hot springs in Manikaran have been used for recreational purposes.
• The springs are in the form of spouts and pools, with temperatures as much as 96°C.
• Bubbling activity is also noticeable in some springs.

Additional Information

• Important geothermal energy sites in India 
• Tattapani in Chhattisgarh
• Puga in Jammu & Kashmir
• Cambay Graben in Gujarat
• Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
• Surajkund in Jharkhand
• Chhumathang in Leh District, Ladakh

The correct answer is John Maynard Keynes.

Key Points

• John Maynard Keynes
• He organized the idea of deficit financing as compensatory spending meant to solve the problem of unemployment and depression. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Modern economists prescribe deficit financing for developmental purposes.

Important Points

• Deficit Financing 
• It can be defined as the practice where the government spends more money than it receives as revenue, the difference being made up by borrowing or minting new funds.
• It can happen when the total income of the government (revenue account + capital account) falls below its total expenditure.
• The government resorts to withdrawing money from its cash deposited in the RBI or orders the RBI to print new currency notes or borrows money from the public in the form of bonds and other securities.
• The deficit is financed by borrowing loans from the central bank, commercial banks, and even state governments through Ad-hoc Treasury Bills.

Additional Information

• Adam Smith 
• He was a Scottish economist and also known as the Father of economics or the Father of Capitalism.
• Adam Smith's work includes
• The Theory of Moral Sentiments(1759)
• An Inquiry into Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations. (1776)
• Economics is a social science concerned with the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services. It studies how individuals, businesses, governments, and nations make choices about how to allocate resources.
• Alfred Marshall.
• The general principles of pricing were given by Alfred Marshall.
• Principles of Economics is an economics textbook by Alfred Marshall, first published in 1890.
• The Theory of Supply and Demand was given by Alfred Marshall in 1890.
• The Theory of Demand and Supply is a central concept in the understanding of the Economic system and its function.
• The quantity demanded of a good or service is the amount that consumers plan to buy during a particular time period, and at a particular price.
• Milton Friedman.
• ​The 'natural rate of unemployment hypothesis' was advocated by Milton Friedman.
• According to this hypothesis, a minimum level of unemployment was important to prevent a continuous rise in inflation levels.
• This would ensure lesser demand in the market because of the decreasing purchasing power capacity of the potential workforce, which is still unemployed.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Functions of the Environment:
• The environment performs four vital functions
• It supplies resource
• It assimilates waste
• It sustains life by providing genetic and biodiversity and
• **It also provides aesthetic services like scenery etc. **Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The environment is able to perform these functions without any interruption as long as the demand for these functions is within its carrying capacity.
• This implies that the resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment.
• ​When this is not so, the environment fails to perform its third and vital function of life sustenance, and this results in an environmental crisis.

Additional Information

• Environment
• It is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources.
• It includes all the biotic and abiotic factors that influence each other.
• While all living elements like birds, animals and plants, forests, fisheries etc. are biotic elements. Abiotic elements include air, water, land, etc.
• Rocks and sunlight are examples of abiotic elements of the environment.
• A study of the environment then calls for a study of the inter-relationship between these biotic and abiotic components of the environment.

The correct answer is Dada Bhai Naroji.

Key Points

• Pre-Independence Poverty Estimation:
• Dadabhai Naoroji in his book, “Poverty and unBritish Rule in India” made the earliest estimation of the poverty line. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• He estimated ₹16 to ₹35 per capita per year.
• The poverty line proposed by him was based on the cost of a subsistence or minimum basic diet (rice or flour, dal, mutton, vegetables, ghee, vegetable oil, and salt).

Important Points

• Poverty Estimation:
• A common method used to estimate poverty in India is based on income or consumption levels.
• If the income or consumption falls below a given minimum level, then the household is said to be Below the Poverty Line (BPL).
• Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s task force through the calculation of the poverty line based on the data captured by the National Sample Survey Office.

Additional Information

• Romesh Chandra Dutt
• He is considered a national leader of the pre-Gandhian era and was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji and Justice Ranade.
• Better known as R.C Dutt, he was a civil servant, a political and economic thinker and writer, and a Bengali Literature personality, he is renowned for both his professional and literary careers.
• Prof. Vijayendra Kasturi Ranga Varadaraja Rao
• He was a multifaceted personality – Economist, Educationist, an Administrator, and an Institution builder.
• After collegiate education in Bombay, he obtained a Ph.D. in Economics from Cambridge in 1936.
• Mahadev Govind Ranade
• He was born in 1842 in Nashik district Maharashtra.
• He passed his law degree and then was appointed as a judge and then became a judge at Bombay HC.
• He was a distinguished Indian scholar, social reformer, and author.
• He was one of the founding members of the Prarthana Samaj and propounded against prevalent social evils.

The correct answer is Physical capital.

Key Points

• Physical Capital
• Tools, machines, buildings:
• Tools and machines range from very simple tools such as a farmer’s plough to sophisticated machines such as generators, turbines, computers, etc. Tools, machines, and buildings can be used in production over many years, and are called fixed capital.
• Raw materials and money in hand:
• Production requires a variety of raw materials such as the yarn used by the weaver and the clay used by the potter.
• Also, some money is always required during production to make payments and buy other necessary items.
• Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital.
• Unlike tools, machines, and buildings, these are used up in production.
• Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Human capital
• It is meant the stock of people equipped with education, skills, health, etc.
• It has now been found that the rate of growth achieved in developed countries cannot be wholly explained by the increases in physical capital and advances in technology.
• Working capital
• Production requires a variety of raw materials such as the yarn used by the weaver and the clay used by the potter.
• Also, some money is always required during production to make payments and buy other necessary items.
• Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital. Unlike tools, machines, and buildings, these are used up in production.

The correct answer is Land.

Key Points

• Non-farming activities
• The Rural Non-Farm Sector (RNFS) encompasses all non-agriculture activities like mining and quarrying, household and non-household manufacturing, processing, etc.
• According to different international studies on India’s labour market, between 2011 and 2015, the number of agriculture jobs fell by 26 million while non-farm ones rose by 33 million.
• The top four sectors contributing to the non-farm jobs between the financial years 2011 and 2015 are Trade and Hospitality(15.6 percent), Construction(14.3 percent), Transport(5.7 percent), and Education and Health(1.6 percent).
• At present, the non-farm sector in the village is not very large.
• Out of every 100 workers in the rural areas in India, only 24 are engaged in non-farm activities.
• Though there is a variety of non-farm activities in the villages.
• The number of people employed in each is quite small.
• Unlike farming, non-farm activities require little land. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• People with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• MGNREGA Scheme:
• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, earlier known as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in 2005 to augment employment generation and social security in India.
• The scheme is a demand-driven wage employment scheme, which functions under the Ministry of Rural Development.
• Every adult member of a household in a rural area with a job card is eligible for a job under the scheme.
• The scheme envisages providing 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to adult member volunteers for unskilled manual work. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.
• It covers all districts of India except the ones with a 100% urban population.
• This is implemented only in rural areas of India. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• There is also a provision for additional 50 days of unskilled wage employment in drought/natural calamity notified rural areas.
• As per Section 3(4) of the MGNREGA, the States may make provisions for providing additional days beyond the period guaranteed under the Act from their own funds.
• Today, women account for 56% of the MGNREGA workers. Unlike minimum wages, under MGNREGA, equal wages are paid to both men and women. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

The correct answer is Health Emergency.

Key Points

• Emergency provisions
• It is contained in Part XVIII of the constitution, from articles 352 to 360.
• These provisions have been included to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the constitution.
• During an emergency, the central government becomes powerful and states are in complete control of the union.
• The federal structure becomes unitary without a formal amendment to the constitution.
• Types of classification
• National Emergency Article 352
• An emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is famously referred to as National Emergency.
• President rule or State Emergency Article 356
• This emergency is imposed due to the failure of the constitutional machinery.
• It is known as ‘President’s rule’, ‘State emergency’, or 'Constitutional emergency’.
• Financial Emergency Article 360
• This is imposed when there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India.
• Therefore, Health Emergency is not mentioned as a form of Emergency in the Constitution of India. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Point

• Money Bill
• Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the Money Bills.
• It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
• The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
• The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure.
• The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or
• Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
• The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason
• That it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• Article 110 further clarifies that in cases where a dispute arises over whether a bill is a money bill or not, the Lok Sabha Speaker’s decision on the issue shall be considered final.

The correct answer is Petrol.

Key Points

• Goods and Service Tax (GST)
• It is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
• It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
• It was launched in India on 1 July 2017 as a comprehensive indirect tax for the entire country.
• It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax comprehensive because it has subsumed almost all the indirect taxes except a few state taxes.
• It is paid by the consumers and is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.
• It is of three types i.e. 
• CGST to be levied by the Centre,
• SGST to be levied by the States and
• IGST is a tax levied on all Inter-State supplies of goods and/or services.
• All these taxes are levied at rates mutually agreed upon by the Centre and the States.
• The GST Council headed by the Union Finance Minister is the governing and key decision-making body for GST.
• The following goods are not covered under GST:
• Petrol, high-speed diesel, aviation turbine fuel, crude oil. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Electricity
• Alcohol used for human consumption
• Natural Gas

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

• Estimates Committee
• The origin of this committee can be traced back to the pre-independence era to the standing finance committee set up in 1921.
• As mentioned in the then-finance minister John Mathai's speech presenting the 1950-51 budget, the first estimate committee in the post-independence era was formed in 1950 on his advice.
• The Estimate Committee had 25 members at first, but that number increased to 30 in 1956.
• It is a type of financial commitment in the constitution of India. It is one of the permanent standing committees. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• All the 30 members are from Loksabha only
• Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
• Members are elected every year from amongst Loksabha members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus all parties get due representation in the committee.
• No minister can be a member of the estimates committee
• The Chairman of the Estimates committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Loksabha from amongst its members
• The chairman appointed invariably belongs  to the ruling party.
• The Railway Convention Committee
• It is an ad-hoc Committee. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• It consists of 18 members. Out of these, 12 members are from Lok Sabha nominated by the Speaker and 6 members are from Rajya Sabha nominated by the Chairman.
• By convention, the Minister of Finance and the Minister of Railways are members of the Committee.
• Besides this, Ministers of State in the Ministry of Finance and Ministry of Railways respectively are also its members.
• The main function of the Committee is to review the Rate of Dividend payable by the Railways undertaking to General Revenues as well as other ancillary matters in connection with the Railway Finance vis-a-vis the General Finance and make recommendations thereon.
• The Railway Convention Committee, 1949 was the first Committee after independence.
• This Committee and subsequent Committees confined themselves to determining the rate of dividend payable by Railways to General Revenues.
• Since 1971 the Railway Convention Committees have been taking up subjects for examination and report which have a bearing on the working of Railways.

The correct answer is Radical Socialism.

Key Points

• Socialism in India
• Socialism is not a perfect state, but rather an effective movement attempting to meet demands for equality, liberty, and honourable efficiency.
• In India, socialism arose as a new religion, allied with anti-colonialism, and thus rounded off the sharp edges of western socialism, transforming India's political situation into a progressive phenomenon.
• The congress socialist party, which was founded in 1934 as a major political instrument, has faced ideological challenges on several occasions.
• Masani joined the Swatantra party, Ashok Mehta returned to Congress, and J.P. Narayan devoted himself to the Bhoodan movement, so Achyut Patwardhan, a distinguished comrade in arms, left politics in the middle of his life, leaving a significant intellectual vacuum in the socialist movement.
• The role of Nehru was one of the major issues that harmed the prospects of socialism in India.
• He was at the top of Congress, and he kept infusing socialist ideology into Congress's programmes, effectively taking the wind out of the socialists' sails.
• The term "socialist" was added to the Indian Constitution's preamble in the 42nd amendment.
• Landlordism has been abolished in India in order to pave the way for Socialism.
• To accelerate progress toward Socialism and strengthen parliamentary democracy, a comprehensive policy of social reorganization has been implemented in the form of Panchayat Raj, Co-operative Farming, and Community Development Projects.
• Forms of Indian socialism
• Democratic Socialism
• Communitarian Socialism
• Nehruvian Socialism
• Therefore, Radical Socialism is not a form of Indian socialism. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• BRICS
• It is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The BRICS Leaders’ Summit has convened annually.
• BRICS does not exist in form of an organization, but it is an annual summit between the supreme leaders of five nations.
• The Chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S.
• BRICS cooperation in the past decade has expanded to include an annual programme of over 100 sectoral meetings.
• Together, BRICS accounts for about 40% of the world’s population and about 30% of the GDP (Gross Domestic Product), making it a critical economic engine.
• It’s an emerging investment market and global power bloc.
• The acronym "BRICS" was initially formulated in 2001 by economist Jim O'Neill, of Goldman Sachs, in a report on growth prospects for the economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China – which together represented a significant share of the world's production and population.
• In 2006, the four countries initiated a regular informal diplomatic coordination, with annual meetings of Foreign Ministers at the margins of the General Debate of the UN General Assembly (UNGA).
• This successful interaction led to the decision that the dialogue was to be carried out at the level of Heads of State and Government in annual Summits.

Additional Information

• ​BRICS 14th Summit will be hosted by China.
• The 13th Summit of BRICS took place on 9th September 2021.
• India was the host of the 13th BRICS Summit.
• It was the third time, India has hosted the summit, the first being in 2012 and the other in 2016.
• 1st BRICS Summit was held in Russia.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key PointsIndian Federalism:

• India is a federal system but with more tilt toward a unitary system of government.
• It is sometimes considered a quasi-federal system as it has features of both a federal and a unitary system.
• Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states, ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states.
• The word federation is not mentioned in the constitution.
• The supremacy of the constitution. The constitution is the supreme law in India.
• Federal Features of the Indian Union-
• Governments at two-level centres and states.
• There are three lists given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution which give the subjects each level has jurisdiction in-
• Union List
• State List
• Concurrent List
• The basic structure of the constitution is indestructible as laid out by the judiciary, the constitution is the supreme law in India.
• Independent judiciary the constitution provides for an independent and integrated judiciary.
• States are given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31 for a different states.
• Residuary powers (Article 248) vest with the Centre.
• The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states, unlike the American federation. Hence, Option 1 is not correct.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Sanchi stupa 
• Art historians identified the scene depicted in the gateways as a scene from the Vessantara Jataka.
• They often try to understand the meaning of sculpture by comparing it with textual evidence.
• Many symbols like empty seats, wheels, and trees were used to indicate the different teachings of Buddhism in Sanchi stupa.
• For instance, the empty seat was meant to represent the mahaparinibbana.
• Wheel stood for the first sermon of Buddha.
• Other sculptures at Sanchi were perhaps not directly inspired by Buddhist ideas. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• These figures included beautiful women swinging from the edge of the gateway holding into a tree, like, Shalabhanjika was a woman whose touch caused trees to flower and bear fruit.
• There are other images in Sanchi stupa. Depiction of animals like elephants, horses, monkeys, and cattle were found there.
• Animals were used as symbols of human attributes, e.g. elephants were depicted to signify strength and wisdom.
• There is a motif in Sanchi stupa of Gajalakshmi surrounded by lotuses and elephants, which seems to be sprinkling water on her as if performing an Abhisheka or consecration. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• It has been identified by some historians as Maya, the mother of Buddha while others identify her with a popular Goddess Gajalakshmi (Goddess of good fortune).
• According to the legends, Buddha was born under a sala tree. Henceforth the tree and the tribhanga i.e. tri-bent pose was considered auspicious. According to the Avadanasatakam, a Buddhist text, a festival called Salabhanjika Parva was celebrated.
• Salabhanjikas became part of the temple architecture, especially in the corner brackets. The Salabhanjika from Sanchi holds the tree laden with fruits. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is 1865.

Key Points

• Telegraph in India
• Telegraph communication between India and England was opened in 1865 by the Persian Gulf line. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Telegraph services in India date back to 1850, the first telegraph line, though only experimental was established between Calcutta and Diamond Harbour.
• The British East India Company started using the telegraph in 1851 and till 1854 telegraph lines were laid across the country.
• In 1854, the telegraph service was opened to the public and the first telegram was sent from Mumbai to Pune on this very day in 1854.
• Telegraph service thrived in India even after Alexander Graham Bell patented the telephone in 1876.
• From 1850 till 1902, the telegrams were sent through cable lines, but in 1902, the Indian system went wireless.
• Telegraph service was one of the major reasons why the British could quell the 1857 revolt.
• The telegraph service allowed the British to mobilize their troops swiftly which undid the plans of the rebellions.

Mistake Points

• In 1854, the telegraph service was opened to the public and the first telegram was sent from Mumbai to Pune on this very day in 1854.
• Since it was sent within the territory of India hence 1854 is not the correct answer.

The correct answer is Basavanna.

Key Points

• Virashaiva Movement in Karnataka
• The Virasaiva or Lingayata movement was developed by Basavanna a minister of the Chalukya king Bijjala Raya of Kalyana (1157-68 AD).
• There is every reason to believe that it came into existence one or two centuries earlier through the activities of some Brahmana Saiva reformers.
• Basavanna used his political power and position in furthering the cause of this movement which was as much a social reform as a religious one. In the tenets of this school, Visistadvaitavada played an important part.
• Virasaivism means the Saivism of the stalwarts or heroic Saivism.
• The name serves to distinguish the Virasaivas from the three other classes of Saivas viz the samanya Misra and the Suddha-Saivas.
• The first two of these classes worship Siva alone.
• The Linga they wear on their person distinguishes the Virasaivas from the Suddhasaivas.
• Hence the name 'Lingayats' is also applied to them and the cult itself is called Lingayata.
• The Virasaivas philosophy is called Saktivisistadvait a term which means the non-duality of God (viz, Parasiva) as qualified by power or Sakti.
• There is no duality between the soul and the Lord God and soul are in an inseparable union through the inalienable power called Sakti.

Additional Information

• Appar
• He is one of the four Tamil Samaya Acharyas**.**
• He was a contemporary of Sambandhar.
• Sambandar
• He is also referred to as Thirugnana Sambandar a Saiva poet-saint of Tamil Nadu who lived sometime in the 7th century CE.
• Sundarar
• He is also referred to as Chuntarar, Chuntaramurtti, Nampi Aruran, or Tampiran Tolan, was an eighth-century poet-saint of Tamil Shaiva Siddhanta tradition of Hinduism.

The correct answer is Colonel Colin Mackenzie.

Key Points

• Colonel Colin Mackenzie
• The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• An employee of the English East India Company, he prepared the first survey map of the site.
• Most of the initial information he received was based on the memories of priests of the Virupaksha temple and the shrine of Pampadevi.
• Subsequently, from 1856, photographers began to record the monuments which enabled scholars to study them.
• As early as 1836 epigraphists began collecting several dozen inscriptions found at this and other temples at Hampi.
• Colin Mackenzie was appointed as the first Surveyor General of India in 1815.

Additional Information

• James Prinsep
• He was the founding editor of the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
• He was known for deciphering the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts.
• James Renell
• He was an English Geographer known for constructing the first accurate map of India.
• William Jones
• Asiatic Society of Bengal, a scholarly society founded on Jan.15, 1784, by Sir William Jones.

The correct answer is Amuktamalyada.

Key Points

• Krishnadevaraya
• He was the most famous ruler of Vijayanagara and composed a work on statecraft in Telugu known as the Amuktamalyada.  Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• About traders, he wrote 
• A king should improve the harbours of his country and so encourage its commerce that horses, elephants, precious gems, sandalwood, pearls, and other articles are freely imported**.**
• Sailors who land in his country on account of storms, illness, and exhaustion are looked after in a suitable manner.
• Amuktamalyada describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka an avatar of Vishnu and Goda Devi aka Andal the Tamil Alvar poet and daughter of Periyalvar, at Srirangam.
• Krishnadevaraya was the king of the Vijayanagara Empire reigning between 1509 - 1530.
• He was the third ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty and presided over the Vijayanagara empire at its zenith.
• Krishnadevaraya built huge irrigation tanks and reservoirs for harvesting rainwater.
• He distributed the wealth he gained in wars to all major temples of South India for the purpose of constructing temple gateways (gopura), called 'Rayagopuram,' in his honour.

Important Points

• Krishnadeva Raya of the Tuluva dynasty was one of the most famous rulers of the Vijayanagar Empire.
• According to Domingo Paes, a Portuguese, “Krishnadeva Raya was the most feared and perfect king”.
• Krishnadeva Raya was a great scholar, who played a vital role in overseas trade in the south, he also built many irrigation canals.
• Krishna Deva Ray himself authored a Telugu work, Amukthamalyadha and Sanskrit works, Satyavadu Parinaya, Jambavati Kalyanam, and Ushaparinayam.
• He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara called Nagalapuram after his mother.
• He earned the title of “Andhra Bhoj and Kannada Rajya Rama Ramana”.

Additional Information

• The Rayavachakamu
• It is written by one of the governors of Krishna Deva Raya on his campaigns and mentions four kinds of forts:
• Giridurga (hill fort)
• Sthaladurga (land fort)
• Jaladurga (water fort)
• Vanadurga (forest fort)
• Pemmasani Ramalinga Nayudu is named as a commander and 'chief general' of the Vijayanagara emperor Krishnadevaraya.
• Jambavati Kalyanam​
• It describes the marriage of Jambavati, the daughter of the bear king Jambavan (yes the famous bear king who made Lord Hanuman realize his powers) with Lord Krishna.
• Jambavati is considered one of the ashtabharya (eight-principal queen consort) of Lord Krishna; third in significance after Rukmini and Satyabhama.
• This Sanskrit drama details the events as how Krishna met Jambavan while searching for the lost jewel of Satrajit, the duel between the two and finally the marriage of Lord Krishna with the bear-king's daughter Jambavati.

The correct answer is A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3.

Key Points

• | List I (Soil Type) | List-II (Salient Characteristic) | | | --- | --- | --- | | A. | Entisols | - Weakly developed soils with no horizons. - Entisols lack any other layer except for the A horizon. They are unaltered from their parents' rock. - This is a very diverse group of soils with one thing in common, little profile (horizon) development. - Includes the soils of unstable environments, such as floodplains, sand dunes, or those found on steep slopes. | | B. | Inceptisols | - Soils having weakly or quickly developed horizons. - These soils are in the beginning stages of soil profile development. - The differences between horizons are just beginning to appear. - Some colour changes may be evident between the emerging horizons, and the beginnings of a B horizon may be seen with the accumulation of small amounts of clay, salts, and organic material. | | C. | Histosols | - These soils have a very high quantity of organic matter in the upper layers. - Organic matter (20-30%) and are 40 cm thick. | | D. | Oxisols | - Oxisols are highly weathered and old soil with the subsurface horizon being highly oxidized. - Key processes include leaching and weathering. |

• Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Bajada.

Key Points

• Bajada
• The depositional feature is made up of alluvial material laid down by intermittent streams.
• A peripediment in a desert or semi-desert region is also known as Bajada. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is formed by the coalescence of alluvial fans.
• These fan-shaped deposits form from the deposition of sediment by a stream from the upland region onto flat land at the base of a mountain
• Bajadas are common in arid areas where a large quantity of sediment is deposited by flash floods.
• Bajadas frequently contain playa lakes.

Additional Information

• Inselbergs
• A monadnock or inselberg is an isolated hill, knob, ridge, outcrop, or small mountain that rises abruptly from a gently sloping or virtually level surrounding plain.
• Zeugen
• The Tabular masses having a layer of soft rocks lying beneath a surface layer of more resistant rocks.
• The difference in the erosional effect of the wind on soft & resistant rock surfaces, carve them into weird-looking ridge & furrow landscape.
• Playa
• Three unique landforms viz. pediments, bajadas and playas are typically found in bolsons.
• Small streams flow into bolsons, where water is accumulated. These temporary lakes are called playas.
• After the evaporation of water, salt-covered playas are called salinas.

The correct answer is Shield volcano.

Key Points

• Shield Volcanoes
• A shield volcano is characterized by gentle upper slopes (about 5^o) and somewhat steeper lower slopes (about   10^o).
• Shield volcanoes are composed almost entirely of relatively thin lava and are built by many layers over time and the layers are usually of very similar composition**. Hence, Option 1 is correct.**
• Most shields were formed by low viscosity basaltic magma that flows easily downslope away from the summit vent.
• The low viscosity of the magma allows the lava to travel downslope on a gentle slope, but as it cools and its viscosity increases, its thickness builds upon the lower slopes giving a somewhat steeper lower slope.
• Most shield volcanoes have a roughly circular or oval shape in map view.
• Very little pyroclastic material is found within a shield volcano, except near the eruptive vents, where small amounts of pyroclastic material accumulate as a result of fire fountaining events.
• They are not very steep but are far and wider. They extend to great height as well as distance.
• They are the largest of all volcanoes in the world as the lava flows to a far distance.
• The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples.
• ​

Additional Information

• Cinder Cone Volcanoes:
• Cinders are extrusive igneous rocks. A more modern name for cinder is Scoria.
• Small volcanoes.
• These volcanoes consist almost entirely of loose, grainy cinders and almost no lava.
• They have very steep sides and usually have a small crater on top.
• Composite Volcanoes:
• Composite volcanoes, also called stratovolcanoes, are cone-shaped volcanoes built from many layers of lava, pumice, ash, and tephra.
• Volcanologists call these “strato-” or composite volcanoes because they consist of layers of solid lava flows mixed with layers of sand- or gravel-like volcanic rock called cinders or volcanic ash.
• They are characterized by the eruption of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt.

The correct answer is salinity.

Key Points

• Isohalines
• It is used on maps to show the salinity of different places. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The average salinity of the ocean is 3.5% or 35 parts of salt in 1000 parts of water.
• The salinity of the Great Salt Lake, (Utah, USA), the Dead Sea, and the Lake Van in Turkey are 220, 240, and 330 respectively.
• The oceans and salt lakes are becoming saltier as time goes on because the rivers dump more salt into them, while freshwater is lost due to evaporation.
• The more frequently drawn isopleths include:
• Isotherm (equal temperature)
• Isobar (equal pressure)
• Isohyets (equal rainfall)
• Isonephs (equal cloudiness)
• Isohels (equal sunshine)
• contours (equal heights)
• Isobaths (equal depths)

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Foreign direct investment (FDI)
• It is an investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located in another country.
• FDI is different from foreign portfolio investment where the foreign entity merely buys equity shares of a company.
• The following include FDIs-
• Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India.
• Majority of foreign equity holding in Indian companies.
• Day to Day operations of the company.
• It is a major source of nondebt financial resources.
• Companies are exclusively financed by foreign companies.
• Therefore, A foreign entity setting up an educational institution in India is FDI. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• There are a few industries where FDI is strictly prohibited under any route. These industries are
• Atomic Energy Generation
• Any Gambling or Betting businesses
• Lotteries (online, private, government, etc)
• Investment in Chit Funds
• Nidhi Company
• Agricultural or Plantation Activities
• Trading in TDRs
• Cigars, Cigarettes, or any related tobacco industry

The correct answer is the Prices of inputs into production of the good.

Key Points

• Demand of Goods
• It is an economic principle referring to a consumer's desire to purchase goods and services and willingness to pay a price for a specific good or service.
• A demand curve is a graphic representation of the relationship between product price and the quantity of the product demanded.
• Income is not the only factor that causes a shift in demand.
• The other things that change demand include tastes and preferences, the composition or size of the population, the prices of related goods, and even expectations.
• There is an inverse (negative) relationship between the price of a product and the amount of that product consumers are willing and able to buy.
• Consumers want to buy more of a product at a low price and less of a product at a high price. This inverse relationship between price and the amount consumers are willing and able to buy is often referred to as The Law of Demand.
• A shift in the demand curve is when a determinant of demand other than price changes.
• It occurs when demand for goods and services changes even though the price didn't.
• A shift in the demand curve is an unusual circumstance when the opposite occurs.
• The prices of complementary or substitute goods also shift the demand curve.
• When the price of a good that complements good decreases, then the quantity demanded of one increases and the demand for the other increases.
• The price remains the same but at least one of the other five determinants changes.
• Those determinants are: 
• ​Income of the buyer.
• Consumer trends and tastes.
• Expectations of future price, supply, needs, etc.
• The price of related goods.
• The number of potential buyers.
• Therefore, the prices of inputs into production do not affect the quantity of a product demanded by the consumer. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Infant mortality is the death of children under the age of one year.
• The infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths per 1,000 live births.
• Overall, infant mortality rates have significantly decreased all over the world.
• Globally, the infant mortality rate has decreased from an estimated rate of 65 deaths per 1000 live births in 1990 to 29 deaths per 1000 live births in 2018.
• Annual infant deaths have declined from 8.7 million in 1990 to 4.0 million in 2018.
• The mortality rate in the United States is 5.8.
• This rate is significantly higher than other comparable developed countries, but the reason is more complicated than raw statistics.
• In 2020, the infant mortality rate for China was 5.5 deaths per 1,000 live births.
• The infant mortality rate of China fell gradually from 76 deaths per 1,000 live births in 1971 to 5.5 deaths per 1,000 live births in 2020.
• In 2020, infant mortality rate for Sri Lanka was 5.9 deaths per 1,000 live births.
• Infant mortality rate of Sri Lanka fell gradually from 52.5 deaths per 1,000 live births in 1971 to 5.9 deaths per 1,000 live births in 2020.
• As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) has reduced from 37 per 1000 live births in 2015 to 30 per 1,000 live births in 2019 at National Level.
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is  1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Monopolistic competition
• It is a type of imperfect competition in which many firms offer products and services that are similar to each other but are not perfect substitutes.
• In a monopolistic competitive market:
• Many firms sell differentiated products. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Differentiated products can arise from characteristics of the good or service, the location from which the firm sells the product, intangible aspects of the product, and perceptions of the product.
• All firms have the same but a relatively low degree of market power.
• There are many firms offering similar but not identical products. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
• There is easy entry and exit of firms in the market. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• These firms have little power to set short supply and raise prices to increase profit.
• The firms are small relative to the total market as there are many firms present providing goods and services in the market.
• Heavy advertisement and marketing are done by the firms in this market.
• A large number of buyers and sellers. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Article 19(1)
• In the original text of the constitution, Art. 19 contained seven rights.
• Under the original Constitution Article 19(1)(f) and 31 provide for the protection of property rights that included acquiring and disposing of the property.
• Later they were repealed and Article 300A was inserted.
• Six rights under Art. 19 are protected against only state action and not private individuals.
• These rights are available only to the citizens not to foreigners or legal persons like companies or corporations, etc.
• The State is empowered to impose “reasonable” restrictions on the enjoyment of these six rights only on the grounds mentioned in the Art. 19 itself and not on any other grounds
• Article 19 (1) states:
• All citizens shall have the right
• a) To freedom of speech and expression
• b) To assemble peaceably and without arms
• c) To form associations or unions
• d) To move freely throughout the territory of India
• e) To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India and
• f) The right to acquire, hold and dispose of property Omitted by the 44th Amendment Act
• g) To practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Election Commission of India
• The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
• The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with elections and establishes a commission for these matters.
• The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950.
• Article 324 to 329 of the constitution deals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the member.
• Originally the commission had only one election commissioner but after the Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body.
• The commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
• The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
• The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
• Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Under Article 324 (6), the Governor of a State is constitutionally bound to provide support staff to the Election Commission if required. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Preamble
• It is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
• In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.
• The preamble basically gives the idea of the following things/objects:
• Source of the Constitution
• Nature of Indian State
• Statement of its objectives
• Date of its adoption
• The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru’s Objectives Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
• ‘Unity of the Nation’ was changed to ‘Unity and Integrity of the Nation’.
• Therefore, the word 'Unity and Integrity of the Nation’ was not mentioned in the Original Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Equality of status and equality of opportunity find mentioned in the Preamble. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Additional Information 

• The Original Preamble:
  

The Preamble, in its original form, was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on January 22, 1947. It was drafted to reflect the aspirations, ideals, and objectives of the people of India as they embarked on a journey towards a new democratic republic. The original Preamble stated:

"We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a sovereign, independent republic, and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social, economic, and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship; Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity of the Nation."

• Amendments to the Preamble:
  

The Preamble was amended only once, and the changes were introduced through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 during the period of the national emergency. The amendment sought to align the Preamble with the principles of the government of the time. The words "socialist" and "secular" were inserted to reflect the ideological framework that was being emphasized. The amended Preamble reads:

"We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a sovereign socialist secular democratic republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social, economic, and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship; Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation."

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties
• The Government is planning to assign its different Ministries with the task of spreading awareness about Fundamental duties among people.
• The idea of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of Russia.
• These were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Originally 10 in number, one more duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution (the sole Article in Part-IV-A).
• The fundamental duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they have also to be quite conscious of the duties they owe to their country, their society and to their fellow citizens.
• However, like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature.

Additional Information

• List of Fundamental Duties

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;

• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture.

• Since statement 3 talks about the unitary culture, hence it is incorrect.

• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;

• To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and

• To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).

• Therefore, To value and preserve a unitary national culture is not a part of Fundamental Duties. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.

Key Points

• Peasants and their lands
• The term which Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period most frequently used to denote a peasant was raiyat (plural, riaya) or muzarian.
• In addition, we also encounter the terms Kisan or Asami. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants – khud-kashta and pahi-kashta.
• The former were residents of the village in which they held their lands.
• The latter were non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis.
• People became pahi-kashta either out of choice
• for example when terms of revenue in a distant village were more favourable – or out of compulsion – for example, forced by economic distress after a famine.
• Peasant lands were bought and sold in the same way as the lands of other property owners.
• This nineteenth-century description of peasant holdings in the Delhi-Agra region would apply equally to the seventeenth century.
• The cultivating peasants (asamis), who plough up the fields, mark the limits of each field, for identification and demarcation, with borders of (raised) earth, brick and thorn so that thousands of such fields may be counted in a village.

Additional Information

• Majur
• Deep inequities on the basis of caste and other castelike distinctions meant that the cultivators were a highly heterogeneous group.
• Among those who tilled the land, there was a sizeable number who worked as menials or agricultural labourers (majur).

The correct answer is Binodini Dasi.

Key Points

• Binodini Dasi (1863-1941)
• She was a pioneering figure in Bengali theatre and worked closely with the dramatist and director Girish Chandra Ghosh (1844-1912) in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
• She was a remarkable personality and prime mover behind the setting up of the Star Theatre (1883) in Calcutta which became a centre for famous productions.
• She serialised her autobiography, Amar Katha (My Story) between 1910 and 1913. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• She exemplified the problem women faced in recasting their roles in society.
• She was a professional in the city, working in multiple spheres – as an actress, institution builder and author – but the patriarchal society of the time scorned her assertive public presence.

Additional Information

• Rashsundari Devi
• She is the first Bengali and the first Indian woman to write an autobiography.
• She is one of the earliest woman writers in Bengali literature.
• She was born in 1810 in the village of Potajia, now Pabna, Bangladesh.
• She is a renowned author of ‘Amar Jibon’ (My Life), which was published in 1876.
• Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
• Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain’s seminal science fiction short story ‘Sultana’s Dream’ depicted a feminist utopia, and was one of the first fictional works in India to do so.
• However, it never really received the fame and recognition that the work of later feminist authors did.
• Born in 1880 to a zamindar family in Pairabondh (now Bangladesh), Hossain lived a caged life under the watchful eye of her parents.
• Kailashbashini Debi’s
• Janaika Grihabodhur Diary was first serialized in the Bengali monthly Basumati in 1953.
• It has been reprinted in the second volume of Atmakatha (1982)

The correct answer is 2, 1, 3, 4.

Key Points

• Champaran Satyagraha :
• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement inspired by Gandhi and a major revolt in the Indian Independence Movement.
• It was a farmer's uprising that took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, India during the British colonial period.
• The farmers were protesting against having to grow indigo with barely any payment for it.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike:
• The Ahmedabad Mill Strike was an episode in Modern Indian History where workers of textile mills in Ahmedabad fought for economic justice when the mill owners discontinued their plague bonuses.
• Mahatma Gandhi undertook his first Huger strike on 15th March 1918.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike in February 1918 was one of the initial movements led by Gandhi at the beginning of the 20th century after his return from South Africa.
• Satyagraha Sabha
• It was founded by Mahatma Gandhi in February 1919.
• Satyagraha Sabha was founded in protest against the Rowlatt Act.
• Rowlatt is also known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919.
• The Rowlatt Act empowered the British Government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus.
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 
• The incident happened against the backdrop of protests against the Rowlatt Act and the subsequent arrest of Dr. Satyapal and Saifuddin Kichlew.
• To control the violence that emerged after the arrest of the two nationalists, restrictions were imposed on the movement of people and holding the demonstrations in Amritsar.
• But on the day of Baisakhi, April 13, 1919, thousands of people were unaware of the restrictions gathered at Jallianwala Bagh.
• General Dyer following the orders of Michael O'Dwyer (Lt. Governor of Punjab) directed the troops to surround the gathering and shoot the people without any warning.
• As a result, thousands of people were killed and injured.
• After this incident, Rabindra Nath Tagore renounced his Knighthood.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind and withdrew the Satyagrah against Rowlatt act.
• Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

• The Home Rule League
• It was launched by Tilak in April 1916 and by Annie Besant in September 1916.
• The objective of the Home Rule League was to achieve self Government and place Indian National Congress on par with the national party.
• Tilak had six branches headquartered in Delhi including Maharashtra, Karnataka, Berar, and Central provinces.
• Annie Besant provided leadership for the rest of the country and had nearly 200 branches.
• Tilak and Annie Besant worked in close cooperation between the leagues but avoided merging.
• It was based on the lines of the Irish Home Rule League.
• The Lucknow Pact
• It was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League at a joint session of both parties held in Lucknow in December 1916.
• The Lucknow Pact of 1916 is signed between Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
• As a result of this agreement, the Muslim League leaders agreed to join the Congress movement demanding Indian independence.
• The Lucknow Pact was seen as a beacon of hope for Hindu–Muslim unity.
• The Lucknow session of 1916 
• It was presided by Ambika Charan Majumdar.
• Ambica Charan Mazumdar was an Indian Bengali politician who served as the Indian National Congress president.
• The Lucknow Pact was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
• It was seen as a beacon of hope for unity between Hindus and Muslims.
• The Lucknow Pact also helped to establish friendly relations within the Indian National Congress between the two influential parties – the "extremist" faction headed by the Lal Bal Pal Trio (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal) and the "liberal" faction led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale until his death in 1915.
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3.

Key Points

• Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• Indian Railway:
• Lord Dalhousie is known as the father of Indian Railways.
• The first railway minister of India was John Mathai.
• The first railway on the Indian sub-continent ran over a stretch of 21 miles from Bombay to Thane.
• The idea of a railway to connect Bombay with Thane, Kalyan, and with the Thal and Bhore Ghats inclines first occurred to Mr. George Clark, the Chief Engineer of the Bombay Government, during a visit to Bhandup in 1843.
• The first formal inauguration ceremony was performed in 1853.
• In the South, the first line was opened in 1856.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The Ten Degree Channel
• It is a channel that is split in the Bay of Bengal between The Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands.
• The two island sets together makeup Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Ten Degree Channel is the channel that separates Little Andaman and Car Nicobar. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The Channel is approximately 150 km wide, running essentially along with an east-west orientation. It is so named as it lies on the 10° line of latitude, north of the equator.
• The ten-degree channel is 150 km wide from north to south and 10 km long from east to west.

Important Points

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• It is a union territory of India consisting of 572 islands.
• It was earlier known as Emerald Island.
• Barren Island, located in the Nicobar Islands, is the only active volcano in India.
• The important mountain peaks in Andaman and Nicobar Islands are:
• Saddle Peak (North Andaman)
• Mount Diavolo (Middle Andaman)
• Mount Koyob (South Andaman)
• Mount Thuyler (Great Nicobar)

Additional Information

• Nine Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago.
• Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
• Hudson strait connects the Gulf of Hudson & Atlantic Ocean.
• Palk Strait connects Palk Bay & the Bay of Bengal.
• Duncan Passage separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) and Little Andaman.

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1.

Key Points

• | List I (Waterfall) | List II (State) | | | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | A. | Barkana | 1. | Karnataka | | B. | Dudhsagar | 2. | Goa | | C. | Duduma | 3. | Odisha | | D. | Kiliyur | 4. | Tamil Nadu |

• Hence, Option 2 is correct.

• Dudhsagar waterfall:

• Dudhsagar Falls is a four-tiered waterfall located on the Mandovi River in the Indian state of Goa.

• It is 60 km from Panaji by road and is located on the Guntakal–Vasco da Gama rail route about 46 km east of Madgaon and 80 km south of Belagavi.

• The falls are located in the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park among the Western Ghats.

• The waterfall forms the border between Karnataka and Goa states.

• The Barkana Falls, Sita River

• The Barkana Falls, formed by the Sita River, is a waterfall located near Agumbe in the Shimoga district of the state of Karnataka, India and the waterfall is among the ten highest waterfalls in India.

• This waterfall region is filled with water only during the rainy season.

• Barkana Falls is located at a distance of 10 kilometers from Agumbe and has a height of about 500 feet the area is surrounded by a thick forest of Western Ghats.

• Duduma Waterfall

• It is situated on the border of Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.

• This waterfall has its origin in the River Machkund.

• Machkund Hydro Electric Power Project is dependent on this waterfall.

• It is a collaborative project between the Government of Andhra Pradesh and the Government of Odisha.

• Kiliyur Falls

• It is a waterfall in the Shervaroyan hill range in the Eastern Ghats, Tamil Nadu, India.

• The waters overflowing the Yercaud Lake fall 91 m into the Kiliyur Valley.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• El Nino
• It is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
• It is the warm phase of a larger phenomenon called the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
• El Nino was first recognized by Peruvian fishermen off the coast of Peru for the appearance of unusually warm water.
• The Spanish immigrants called it El Nino, meaning “the little boy” in Spanish.
• El Nino soon came to describe irregular and intense climate changes rather than just the warming of coastal surface waters.
• The El Nino event is not a regular cycle, they are not predictable and occur irregularly at two- to seven-year intervals.
• Climatologists define these linked phenomena as El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
• Effects of El Nino
• The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation; Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Irregularities in the evaporation of seawater; Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The reduction in the number of plankton further reduces the number of fish in the sea. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• The easterly flow of the trade winds carries warm surface waters westward, bringing convective storms (thunderstorms) to Indonesia and coastal Australia. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Along the coast of Peru, cold bottom cold nutrient-rich water wells up to the surface to replace the warm water that is pulled to the west.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The President of India
• He/she is the head of the Indian state and is also the first citizen of India.
• Article 52 of the Indian Constitution mentions that there shall be a President of India.
• The incumbent President of India is Shri Droupadi Murmu who is the 15th President of India.
• A person, having held office as the President, shall be eligible for election to that office for the second term.
• The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected representatives of the government that form the government after being elected in the state assembly and national elections.
• The nominated members of both the houses and state legislatures are not allowed to vote in the presidential election. Hence, Option 3 is not correct.
• The President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of
• The elected members of both Houses of Parliament
• The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry vide 70th Amendment Act, 1992.
• According to Article 53, the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
• Prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions on authorities other than the President.

The correct answer is Article 78.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister of India
• The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government of India. According to Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints the Prime Minister.
• Article 78 states that the Prime Minister communicates all decisions made by the council of members to the President. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The President can also refer to issues for the consideration of the council of members.
• The executive branch is also the central advisor to the President of India and the head of the Council of Ministers.
• The Prime Minister can be a representative of either of the two houses in the Indian Parliament, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, however, he must be a representative of an ideological group or an alliance with a greater stake in Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

• Article 74 states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.
• Article 75 mentions three things: the President appoints the PM and other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the PM; Ministers hold their office during the pleasure of the President; the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• Article 81 is related to the composition of the House of the People.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Article 77
• All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
• Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President, and the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President.
• The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
• The Attorney General of India
• The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 (1) of the Constitution and holds office till the pleasure of the President of India.
• The person who is appointed as AG of India should be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. That means, he should be a citizen of India and a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or should be an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.
• 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003:
• Made the following provisions to limit the size of the Council of Ministers, debar defectors from holding public offices, and strengthen the anti-defection law:
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the CentralCouncil of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the LokSabha. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Important Points

• The President is bound to act according to the advice tendered by the council of ministers.
• Through the 42nd Amendment Act ( also known as mini-constitution ), The President was made bound by the advice of the council of ministers headed by the PM.
• Through the 44th amendment act, The President was empowered to return the matter to the council of ministers for reconsideration, but when returned after reconsideration, the President is bound to accept it.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others
• Naz Foundation filed the first major case, Naz Foundation vs.  Government of NCT of Delhi & Others against Section 377 in 2001.
• However, a two-judge Delhi High Court Bench dismissed the case in 2004, terming it as a mere academic challenge to the constitutionality of a legislative provision.
• The Supreme Court ordered Delhi High Court to hear the case again.
• As a result, in a landmark decision in 2009, the High Court decriminalized Section 377, ruling that consenting intercourse between two adults was not illegal.
• The verdict declared that Section 377 of IPC was violative of Articles 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
• The Supreme Court sought the Centre’s response to a plea alleging that despite the striking down of draconian Section 66A of the IT Act in 2015 by the apex court, police in various states were still invoking it in FIRs to clamp down on free speech on social media platforms.
• In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India judgement, Justices Rohinton F. Nariman and J. Chelameswar had observed that the weakness of Section 66A lay in the fact that it had created an offence on the basis of undefined actions: such as causing “inconvenience, danger, obstruction and insult”, which do not fall among the exceptions granted under Article 19 of the Constitution, which guarantees the freedom of speech.
• Vishakha vs. the State of Rajasthan
• The Supreme Court's ruling in Vishakha vs State of Rajasthan established detailed standards for dealing with the threat of sexual harassment at work.
• The Bhanwari Devi case, which opened the way for the Vishaka recommendations, is one of the most important cases in the field of women's protection.
• Shayara Bano vs. Union of India
• She filed a Writ Petition in the Supreme Court, asking to declare three Muslim practices unconstitutional: talaq-e-biddat, polygamy, and nikah-halala.
• She claimed that these actions were in violation of Articles 14, 15, 21, and 25 of the Constitution.
• On August 22, 2017, a legal ban was announced by the five-judge bench on the Triple Talaq by a 3:2majority.

The correct answer is Habeas Corpus.

Key Points

• Writ
• The Supreme Court (Article 32) and the High courts (Article 226) can issue various writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• The Parliament (Article 32) can also empower any other court to issue writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and also the quo-warranto.
• Habeas Corpus
• A Latin term that literally means ‘to have the body of’. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It is an order which is issued by the court to a person who has detained another person to produce the body of the latter before it.
• The court then examines the cause and the legality of the detention.
• It is the only writ that can be issued both against public authorities as well as private individuals.