CDS General Knowledge 14 Nov 2021 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Concept:

Convex or Converging Lens

• A lens is a transparent medium that is bounded by spherical surfaces.
• The converging lens converges parallel rays of light falling on it on its focus.
• A convex lens is an example of a converging lens.
• The following diagram represents the various image position with different object positions.

The correct answer is parallel straight lines.

Key Points

• The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• This pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicates that the strength of the magnetic field is the same at all points.
• When current passes through the wires, a magnetic field is produced.
• Solenoid behaves like a permanent bar magnet.
• Whose south and north poles are the ends from where magnetic field lines are coming in and out, respectively.

Important Points

• There are two types of solenoid: finite and infinite solenoid.
• A finite solenoid is the one whose length is finite and the infinite is the one whose length is infinite such that the end effects are negligible.
• The magnetic field lines are parallel to the axis of the long infinite solenoid and the magnetic field does not vary along the length.
• The magnetic field almost seems to be a straight line.
• A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in a cylinder’s shape is called a solenoid.
• The field pattern is identical to that of a magnetic field around a bar magnet.
• The solenoid’s one end acts as a magnetic north pole, while the other acts as a magnetic south pole.
• Within the solenoid, the field lines are in the form of parallel straight lines.
• It means that the magnetic field within the solenoid is the same at all points.
• That is, the field within the solenoid is uniform.

The correct answer is to slow down and bend towards the normal.

Key Points

Refraction

• It is the bending of light rays after entering a medium where its speed is different.
• Due to the refraction of light, when a ray of light passes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, bends towards the normal boundary between the two media. The amount of bending depends on the indices of refraction of the two media.
• A ray of light traveling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows down and bends towards the normal. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• When it travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it speeds up and bends away from the normal.
• The angle of refraction or the amount of bending of light depends on the refractive index (μ) of the two media.
• When light passes through a low refractive index, like air (faster medium or optically rarer medium) to a high refractive index, like glass(slower medium or optically denser medium), its speed decreases and bends towards the normal.
• When light passes through a high refractive index, like glass (slower medium or optically denser medium) to a low refractive index, like air (faster medium or optically rarer medium) its speed increases and bends away from the normal.

Explanation:

• At a given temperature, the resistance (R) of a conductor depends on its length (L), area of cross - section (A) and the material it is made of.
• The resistance is given by:

R = (ρ x L)/A

• If the length of the wire is halved then the resistance of the wire will decrease to half. Hence, the Current will increase to double. So the ammeter reading gets doubled.

​

Important Points

Various Instruments and their application is given in the following table:

The correct answer is Larger while standing than while lying.

Key Points

• The force acting on a unit area of a surface is called pressure. $Pressure = {Force \over Area}$
• The unit of pressure is Pascal.
• From the above expression, we can see that pressure is indirectly proportional to the area.

Important Points

• When we stand on loose sand our feet go deep into the sand.
• But when we lie on the sand our body does not sink into the sand that much, this proves that the pressure is inversely proportional to area.
• Hence larger the area of contact, the smaller will be the pressure on the sand.
• And smaller the area of contact, the larger will be the pressure on the sand.
• Therefore, the effect of the pressure of a human body on the sand is Larger while standing than while lying. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

CONCEPT:

Distance:

• The measurement of how much any object moved is called distance.
• It is a scalar quantity.

Displacement:

• The minimum distance between two points is called the displacement of the object.
• It is a vector quantity.

CALCULATION:

Given:

The diameter of the circular track, D = 100 m

One complete round takes, t = 20 s

Distance to be covered in 1 min 20s

Length of circular track = 2πR = πD = 3.14 × 100 = 314 m

Number of rounds completed by the athlete in 1 min 10 s = $\frac{{70}}{{20}} = 3.5$

Distance covered in 1 min 20 sec = 3.5 × 314 = 1099 m

• The displacement of the athlete after 3 complete rounds in 60 sec is zero and after three rounds he is able to complete half of the track in the remaining time, therefore, the displacement is equal to the diameter of the circular track i.e. 100 m.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

• A universal indicator
• It is a blend of pH indicator solutions designed to identify the pH of a solution over a wide range of values.
• There are several different formulas for universal indicators, but most are based on a patented formula developed by Yamada in 1933.
• A common mixture includes thymol blue, methyl red, bromothymol blue, and phenolphthalein.
• It is a mixture of many different indicators which give different colors at different pH values or concentrations of hydrogen ions in solution. Hence, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• It is used to obtain an idea of how acidic or basic a substance is. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• When an acid or base solution is added to the universal indicator, it produces a new color which is used to find the pH value of the acid or the base solution by matching the color with the colors on the pH color chart.
• When a drop of a universal indicator is added to the test tube containing water, it shows a green color. This shows that the distilled water has pH = 7.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points

• Allotropy
• It is the property of some chemical elements to exist in two or more different forms, or allotropes when found in nature. There are several allotropes of carbon.
• Diamond
• It is a well-known allotrope of carbon that exhibits hardness and high dispersion of light.
• It is the hardest known natural mineral and finds applications in cutting, drilling, and jewelry, and as a potential semiconductor material.
• It is a poor conductor of electricity due to the absence of valence electrons but a good conductor of heat.
• Graphene
• It is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in one plane; layers of graphene make up graphite.
• It is a material of interest due to its high electron mobility and its possible applications in electronics.
• Graphite
• ​Graphite is covalently bonded with three surrounding carbon atoms thus has valence electron that makes them electric conductors.
• • It is a good conductor of heat and electricity. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Fullerenes
• It is a class of carbon allotropes in which carbon takes the form of a hollow sphere, ellipsoid, or tube.
• This class of materials includes carbon nanotubes, buckyballs, and the newly discovered nanobuds.
• Fullerene has a valence electron since one electron remains unbonded while they make pentagons and hexagons.

The correct answer is 0.025%.

Key Points

• Carbon (C)
• It is a nonmetallic chemical element in Group 14 of the periodic table.
• Although widely distributed in nature, carbon is not particularly plentiful.
• It makes up only about 0.025 percent of Earth’s crust, yet it forms more compounds than all the other elements combined. This property of carbon is called catenation. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• On a weight basis, carbon is 19th in order of elemental abundance in Earth’s crust, and there are estimated to be 3.5 times as many carbon atoms as silicon atoms in the universe.
• Only hydrogen, helium, oxygen, neon, and nitrogen are atomically more abundant in the cosmos than carbon.
• Carbon is the cosmic product of the burning of helium, in which three helium nuclei, atomic weight 4, fuse to produce a carbon nucleus, atomic weight 12.

Additional Information

• | Earth's Crust | Entire Earth | | --- | --- | | Oxygen-47% | Iron-35% | | Silicon-28% | Oxygen-30% | | Aluminium-8% | Silicon-15% | | Iron-5% | Magnesium-13% | | Magnesium-4% | Nickel-2% | | Calcium-2% | Sulphur-2% | | Pottassium-2% | Calcium-1% | | Sodium-2% | Aluminium-1% | | Others-2% | Others-1% |

Additional Information

• | Crust | - It is the outermost solid part of the earth, normally about 8-40 km thick. - It is brittle in nature. Nearly 1% of the earth’s volume and 5% of the earth’s mass are made of the crust. - The thickness of the crust under the oceanic and continental areas is different. - Oceanic crust is thinner (about 5kms) as compared to the continental crust (about 30kms). | | --- | --- | | Mantle | - The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. - The discontinuity between the crust and mantle is called the Mohorovich Discontinuity or Moho discontinuity. - The mantle is about 2900kms in thickness. - Nearly 84% of the earth’s volume and 67% of the earth’s mass is occupied by the mantle. - The major constituent elements of the mantle are Silicon and Magnesium and hence it is also termed as SIMA. | | Core | - It is the innermost layer surrounding the earth’s center. - The core is separated from the mantle by Guttenberg’s Discontinuity. - It is composed mainly of iron (Fe) and nickel (Ni) and hence it is also called NIFE. - The core constitutes nearly 15% of the earth’s volume and 32.5% of the earth’s mass. |

The correct answer is Cupric carbonate.

Key Points

• Upon exposure to air, the copper metal gains a green color. The formation of green color is due to corrosion.
• During monsoon, copper metal, upon exposure to the atmosphere forms a mixture of hydroxide and carbonate of copper.
• This mixture is obtained due to the reaction of copper metal with water (from moisture present in the air) and oxygen and carbon dioxide gases (present in the atmosphere).
• The surface of copper metal is coated with a green layer, which contains hydroxide and carbonate of copper.
• The mixture of hydroxide and carbonate of copper can also be called basic carbonate.
• Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air to form green-colored copper carbonate. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The green color of copper appears because of the corrosion of copper due to reaction with oxygen and carbon dioxide for copper carbonate.
• The reaction is
• 2Cu + CO₂ + H₂O + O₂ → Cu(OH)₂ + CuCO₃

Important Points

• Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air.
• Silver articles react with sulfur in the air to form a coating of silver sulfide.

The correct answer is Roasting.

Key Points

• Roasting
• The process of strong heating of sulfide ores in the presence of excess air to convert them into metal oxides is known as Roasting. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It is easier to obtain metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulfides and carbonates.
• Hence, before reduction, the metal sulfides and carbonates must be converted into metal oxides.
• Calcination is defined as the process of converting ore into an oxide by heating it strongly.
• The ore is heated below its melting point either in absence of air or in limited supply.
• Both Roasting and calcination are processes used in the refinement of ores and extraction of metals.

Additional Information

• Smelting: 
• The process of obtaining a metal either as an element or as a simple compound from its ore by heating beyond the melting point in the presence of oxidizing agents such as air and coke is known as smelting.
• Copper is the first metal to be smelted followed by tin, lead, and silver.
• To achieve the high temperatures required for smelting, furnaces with forced air drafts are used.
• In modern copper smelting, a reverberatory furnace is used.
• Calcination
• It is defined as the process of converting ore into an oxide by heating it strongly.
• The ore is heated below its melting point either in absence of air or in limited supply.
• This method is commonly used for converting carbonates and hydroxides to their respective oxides.
• During calcination, moisture and volatile impurities are also removed.
• Calcination can also be described as a thermal process that is used to convert ores and other solid materials by bringing about a thermal decomposition.
• In calcination, the reaction most of the time occurs at or above the thermal decomposition temperature.
• Incineration
• It is an alternative method; most commonly used where there is a large-scale accumulation of waste and when treating bulky heterogeneous waste needed a treatment.

The correct answer is Pb and Sn.

Key Points

• The mixture of two metals, or metal with a non-metal, produces a strong compound called an alloy.
• They can be heat resistant, stainless, conductors, resistant to corrosion, hard, ductile, magnetizable, etc.
• They are generally more useful compared to a normal metal. This is because of their special chemical and physical properties.
• For example, the alloy of lead and tin is called solder which is mainly used in welding electrical wires.
• This is because of its low melting point and good conducting nature, it is used to join wires to leads of components such as switches and printed circuit boards.
• Solder is a fusible metal alloy made up of 60% tin and 40% lead. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• These tin and lead are melted with a heated iron above 600 degrees Fahrenheit and are then cooled down to obtain solder.

Additional Information

• | Alloy | Composition | | --- | --- | | Brass | Cu+Zn | | Stainless Steel | Fe+Cr+Ni | | Bronze | Cu+Sn | | Solder | Pb+Sn | | Steel | Fe+C | | German Silver | Cu+Zn+Ni |

The correct answer is Decrease in the available energy at higher trophic levels.

Key Points

• According to the 10 percent law, the amount of energy decreases at each trophic level, and hence the number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.
• The 10% Rule means that when energy is passed in an ecosystem from one trophic level to the next, only ten percent of the energy will be passed on.
• A trophic level is the position of an organism in a food chain or energy pyramid.
• Reymond Lindeman gave ten percent of the energy transfer law or Lindeman’s trophic efficiency rule in food chains.
• The 10 percent energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next successive trophic level according to this rule.
• During energy transfer and respiration, the majority of the energy is lost.
• The maximum energy is in the first trophic stage.
• All ecosystems are characterized by two basic features- the unidirectional flow of energy and the cycling of materials.
• At each trophic level, most of the energy available is utilized for life processes and only ten percent of the available energy is passed on to the next level.
• Because only ten percent of the available energy can be passed on to the next trophic level, the higher trophic levels have substantially less energy content and the number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is 1: 1.

Key Points

• '​Pure' plants refer to the homozygous condition in plants and 'hybrid' refers to the heterozygous plants.
• Homozygous - It is the condition in which the pair of alleles determining a phenotype is identical, either both dominant (TT) or both recessive (tt).
• Heterozygous - It is the condition where 2 different types of alleles are present, one dominant and one recessive (Tt).
• When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt), the F1 generation produces heterozygous tall (Tt) plants.
• Upon selfing the F1 generation, that is, crossing two heterozygous tall plants, the following numbers of the F2 generation are obtained phenotypically:
• Three tall plants and one short plant
• Whereas, genotypically, the following ratio is obtained:
• One pure tall plant, two heterozygous tall plants, and one pure short plant.
• Therefore, considering the genotype, the ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in the F2 generation is 1:1. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Mistake Points

• Please note here that the question asks about the ratio of "pure" tall plants to short plants in F2 generation.
• The usual ratio of 3:1 is for "all" tall plants to short plants.
• Pure Tall plants : Hybrid Tall plants : Short/Dwarf plants = TT : Tt : tt = 1:2:1
• Therefore, Pure tall : Pure short = 1:1

The correct answer is All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.

Key Points

• Variations
• It refers to divergence among individuals of a group or divergence of the individual from other individuals of the same species which do not result from sex, age, or nutritional status.
• Mutations, random inheritable changes in structure, and the number of DNA molecules in reproductive cells of organisms generate genetic variations among individuals of a population.
• These random variations are acted upon by natural selection that favors only those which confer survival and/or reproductive advantage to the individuals over others.
• All variations in a species do not have equal chances of survival. Some of the variations may be so drastic that the new DNA copy cannot work with the cellular apparatus it inherits. Such, a newborn cell dies soon. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Depending on the nature of variations, the different individuals will have different kinds of advantages.
• Variations result from the change in genetic composition. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Advantageous variations are selected by environmental factors. This leads to evolution and speciation.
• In asexual reproduction, the variations that occur due to sexual reproduction are absent but may occur due to mutations. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Variants can be selected by environmental factors. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• Accumulation of these adaptive variations in lineages over generation makes them better adapted to existing environmental conditions.
• Accumulation of adaptive changes in a population’s genetic makeup through successive generations leads to evolution.
• As irrespective of the random nature of mutations, natural selection favors only adaptive variations i.e. the nonadaptive/ negative variations are not favored.
• As crossing over during gametogenesis and random fusions of gametes during syngamy produce maximum variations by sexual reproduction.

The correct answer is A group of organisms of one species, living in the same area at the same time.

Key Points

• An organism
• It describes an individual. An organism is a single, living thing and can be an animal, a plant, or a fungus. Organisms grow and respond to their environment.
• A population
• It is a term we use to describe multiple individuals or organisms of a single species that live within a particular geographic area. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• For example, there may be one population of painted turtles in one state and another population of painted turtles 250 miles away in another state.
• A community
• It is the term used to describe two or more populations of different species that occupy the same space at the same time.
• For example, you could talk about the community of Yellowstone National Park that is made up of numerous animals such as elk, bighorn sheep, coyotes, porcupines, different species of frogs, and fish and insects, and so forth.
• An ecosystem 
• It is the term used to describe both the biotic (living) and abiotic (nonliving) factors in a system.
• The ecosystem in the image below is made up of birds, frogs, fungi, plants, mammals, bacteria, water, the run, the rocks, the soil, and so forth.
• A biome
• It is the term used to describe organisms that occupy a certain area.
• Biomes are determined by the primary vegetation type, the climate of the area, and geographic location.
• The plants and animals in a biome share common traits that are specific to the individual biome those plants and animals inhabit.
• A biosphere
• It is the term used to describe the combination of every ecosystem on the planet. Our biosphere is Earth.
• The biosphere includes all living beings and their relationships.

The correct answer is Oxygenated blood reaches the left side of the heart from the lungs.

Key Points

• Heart
• It is at the center of the circulatory system, which is a network of blood vessels that delivers blood to every part of your body.
• Blood carries oxygen and other important nutrients that all body organs need to stay healthy and to work properly.
• The heart is divided into two separate pumping systems, the right side, and the left side.
• The right side of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from your veins and pumps it to your lungs, where it picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide.
• The left side of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from your lungs and pumps it through your arteries to the rest of your body.
• The heart has four separate chambers that pump blood, two on the right side and two on the left.
• The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body and pumps it to the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve.
• The right ventricle pumps the oxygen-poor blood to the lungs through the pulmonary valve.
• The left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle through the mitral valve.
• The left ventricle pumps the oxygen-rich blood through the aortic valve out to the rest of the body.
• Double circulation
• It is a pathway followed by blood in which travels throughout the different organs of the body through the veins and arteries.
• This type of circulation is carried out in humans.
• It is the most effective circulation wherein blood flows in two pathways:
• The systematic pathway is involved in carrying oxygenated blood travels from the left side of the heart to all other body parts wherein exchange of nutrients, gases, etc occur, carrying the deoxygenated blood back again to the right side of the heart. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The pulmonary pathway is involved in carrying deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs wherein gaseous exchange occurs in the lungs making the blood oxygenated

The correct answer is Yeast, mushroom, bread mold.

Key Points

• Yeast, Mushroom, and Bread mold has a saprophytic mode of nutrition.
• They break down complex organic substances by secreting digestive enzymes outside their body and then, absorb simple molecules as nutrients. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Important Points

• Saprotrophic nutrition
• It is the organisms that the first digest then ingest.
• It is the process of animals feeding on dead and decaying substances or organisms for getting energy, food, and nutrition.
• Organisms that follow saprophytic nutrition are called saprotrophs.
• They are the recycler of nutrients.
• They release specific enzymes that act on complex organic matter and break them into smaller and simpler particles that are easily consumable by the organism.
• Major examples of saprotrophs include bacteria, fungi, and fungus-like organisms like slime mold, Penicillium, and  Escherichia coli.
• Organisms like - Mushrooms, Yeast, and Bread molds are saprophytic. They break down food outside the body and absorb the simpler digested particles.
• Green plants are autotrophic in nature.
• Paramecium, Amoeba are organisms having a holozoic mode of nutrition.
• Custca, Tapeworm, and Lice are parasitic organisms.

Concept:

• The sound waves propagate through the air in different frequencies, among this human ears can only sense the sound of bandwidth 20 Hz-20 kHz.
• Sound waves with a frequency greater than audible waves are known as Ultrasonic waves.
• The wavelength of this wave can be defined as displacement made when a wave complete its one oscillation
• And the relation between wavelength (λ), frequency (n) and velocity (v) can be given as

v = n × λ

$T=\frac{d}{v}$

Calculation:

Given:

Frequency (n) = 4 kHz, Wavelength, λ = 30 cm = 0.3 m, Distance, d = 2.4 × 10³ m

The velocity of sound in air v = n × λ = 4 × 10³ × 0.3 = 1.2 × 10³

$T=\frac{d}{v}=\frac{2.4 \times 10^3}{1.2 \times 10^3}=2$ sec

Concept:

Power consumed by bulb is given by

P = V.I

Calculation:

Given:

V = 110 V, I = 0.2 amp

P = VI = 110 × 0.2 = 22 W

Explanation:

Refraction: 

• When a ray of light passes from one medium to another it suffers a change in direction at the boundary of two media is called refraction.
• The change in direction because the speed of light travels at different speeds in different mediums. The Refractive Index of a medium defines that it is denser or rarer

• Snell’s law of refraction: “The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a constant, for the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media”. ​

$\frac{{Sin;i}}{{Sin;r}} = ;\frac{{{n_2}}}{{{n_1}}}=constant$

Where n2 and n1 are the refractive indexes of the two mediums 2 and 1 respectively.

Concept:

Equations of Motion

The equations of motion establish the relationship between acceleration, time, distance, initial speed, and final speed for a body moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration.

The equations are

v = u + at - (1)

$s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2$ - (2)

v2 = u2 + 2as - (3)

v is final velocity, u  is initial velocity, t is time, a is acceleration, s is the distance travelled. 

Calculation:

Given: 

initial speed u = 0 (started from rest)

Final speed v = 20 km/hr 

time t = 10 minutes= 1/6 hr 

acceleration a = ?

20 = 0 + a × 1/6 

a = 120 km/h2

The correct answer is Mg > Al > Zn > Fe.

Key Points 

• The Reactivity series of metals refers to the arrangement of metals in the descending order of their reactivities.
• ​Features of Reactivity series:
• The metals at the top of the reactivity series are powerful reducing agents since they are easily oxidized and get corroded very easily.
• The reducing ability of the metals grows weaker while traversing down the series.
• The electro positivity of the elements also reduces while moving down the reactivity series of metals.
• All metals that are found above hydrogen in the activity series liberate H2 gas upon reacting with dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4.
• Metals that are placed higher on the reactivity series have the ability to displace metals that are placed lower from their salt solutions.

Additional Information

• Cesium  is the most reactive metal in the periodic table.
• It is a rare metal than other alkali metals.
• It is silvery gold, soft, and ductile.

Important Points 

• Cesium, Gallium, and Mercury are the only three metals that are liquid at or around room temperature.

The correct answer is Methanoic acid.

Key Points

• Nettle is an herbaceous plant that grows in the wild.
• Nettle leaves have stinging hair, which causes painful stings when touched accidentally.
• This is due to the methanoic acid secreted by them.
• A traditional remedy is rubbing the area with the leaf of the dock plant, which often grows beside the nettle.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• A Base is a substance which:
• Is bitter in taste.
• Turns red litmus paper into blue.
• Gives hydroxyl ions (OH–) in aqueous solution.
• Can accept a proton.
• Can donate electrons.
• Oxides and hydroxides of metals are bases.
• All bases do not dissolve in water.
• An alkali is a base that dissolves in water. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• Alkalis are soapy to touch, bitter, and corrosive. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• All alkalies are bases but all bases are not alkalies because all bases are not soluble in water. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The pH of a solution is the negative logarithm of the concentration of hydrogen ions on a mole per liter.

Explanation:

If we see how hydrogen chloride gas is prepared, we will see that the gas is usually passed through a guard tube (also known as a drying tube) containing anhydrous calcium chloride. The reason behind why anhydrous calcium chloride is used in guard tubes is because it is considered as a very good drying agent.

Additional InformationA drying tube or guard tube is a tube-like piece of apparatus used to house a disposable solid desiccant, wherein at one end the tube-like structure terminates in a ground glass joint for use in connecting the drying tube to a reaction vessel, for the purpose of keeping the vessel free of moisture

Iron is a nutrient that is not available in fertilizers.

Key Points

• Fertilizers are chemical substances supplied to crops to increase their productivity.
• The fertilizers contain the essential nutrients required by plants, including nitrogen, potassium, and phosphorus.

Insect:

• They can be defined as a class of arthropods (like bugs or bees) having a well-defined head, thorax, and abdomen.
• They generally have three pairs of legs, and typically one or two pairs of wings.
• The bodies of insects have segments or divisions, so they appear to have a series of notches cut into them.
  

Earthworm:

• They can be defined as a family (Lumbricidae) of numerous widely distributed hermaphroditic worms that move through the soil by means of setae and feed on decaying organic matter.
• An earthworm has a streamlined body with no antennae or fins or arms or legs.
• This streamlined shape is an adaptation to living in narrow burrows underground and the need to move easily through the soil. An earthworm has circular muscles that surround each body segment
  

Conclusion:

• Now from the above-mentioned definitions of insect and earthworm, we can clearly say that one characteristic that confirms it is an insect is that the animal had jointed legs.
• Another characteristic that distinguishes insect and earthworm is the pair of wings (may or may not be) but here we have to choose from the options provided itself hence option 1 is the correct answer.

Key Points

• Animals belonging to the phylum Chordata are basically characterized by the presence of a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, and paired pharyngeal gill slits.
• These are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, coelomate with the organ-system level of organization.
• The notochord is a flexible, rod-shaped structure that is found in the embryonic stage of all chordates. It is located between the digestive tube and the nerve cord and provides support.
• The blood vascular system is present and it is closed type.
• They possess a post-anal tail and a closed circulatory system.
• Common Examples are- Branchiostoma, Ascidia, Lizards.

Explanation:

Phylum Chordata can be divided into 3 sub-phyla -

1. Urochordata - 

• Notochord is present only in larval tail
• Examples - Ascidia, Doliolum.

2. Cephalochordata - 

• Notochord extends from head to tail and is present throughout life.
• Example - Branchiostoma.

3. Vertebrata - 

• Notochord is present in the embryonic stage and is replaced by a vertebral column in adult.
• Examples - Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, mammals.
• Urochordata and Cephalochordata are together known as Protochordata and they are exclusively marine animals.
• Therefore, chordates except the vertebrates will have all the given features, which indicates the Protochordates.

Therefore, the correct answer is Protochordata.

• Intercalary meristems are found at the base of the leaves.
• It helps in the elongation and growth of plants in nodes and internodes (stems and leaves) and also allows the stem and leaves (grasses) to grow longitudinally.
• The intercalary meristems are present in monocots at the base of the primordium leaf.
• It allows the petiole to extend their leaves above the surface of the water.
• This increase in petiole length is caused by the intercalary meristem activity.

The correct answer is U.S.A.

Key Points

• ​The USA is an indestructible union of indestructible states, neither the Union can destroy any State, nor the State can destroy the Union.
• ​The US Constitution was finalized in a convention held on September 17, 1787, which required its ratification by a minimum of nine States, for it to be enforced.
• By the end of July 1788, eleven States had ratified it and the Constitution was put into operation on 13th September 1788.
• America has adopted the doctrine of the dual ship in respect of its Constitution and citizenship. It has two Constitutions, one, for America as a whole and another for each State.
• The American Constitution is described as a truly Federal Constitution. It was ratified by 50 Independent States.

Important Points

• India
• According to Dr B R Ambedkar India is an "indestructible Union of destructible states".
• Article 1(1) of the constitution of India says that "India, that is Bharat, shall be Union of States".
• The word Union was deliberately chosen in place of Federation to indicate that Indian Union is not the result of an agreement between states (which can be broken at whim) and its component states have no freedom to secede from it.
• But on the other hand, there is a situation of the destructible nature of the state as seen in the context of Article 3.
• Thus, while states can be broken, reorganized by the alternation of boundaries, the country is a union that cannot be broken.
• Central Government can change the name, boundaries of the states without their permission also.
• State formation process
• A bill for forming a new state or reorganization can be introduced in any house of the Parliament after the recommendations of the President.
• The President will send the bill to the concerned state assembly for their feedback. The feedback of the state will not have any effect on legislation.
• The bill has to be passed with a simple majority in both houses to become a law. It is not considered a constitutional amendment process.

The correct answer is Francis Fukuyama.

Key Points

• Francis Fukuyama
• He wrote the book The End of History and the Last Man. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• He is an American writer and political theorist, perhaps best known for his belief that the triumph of liberal democracy at the end of the Cold War marked the last ideological stage in the progression of human history.
• His first major work, The End of History and the Last Man (1992) earned international acclaim and was widely read by both the mainstream public and academics.
• His thesis was introduced as a magazine article in 1989 when communism in eastern Europe was collapsing.
• He posited that Western-style liberal democracy not only was the victor of the Cold War but marked the last ideological stage in the long march of history.

Additional Information

• | Daniel Bell | The End of Ideology | | --- | --- | | Abraham Lincoln | 16th president of USA | | Anthony Giddens | Theory of structuration |

The correct answer is Guwahati High Court has no Bench.

Key Points

• Allahabad High Court
• It became the seat of Government of North-Western Provinces and a High Court was established in 1834 but was shifted to Agra within a year.
• In 1868 it shifted back to Allahabad.
• The former High Court was located at the Accountant General’s office at the University of Allahabad complex. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It was originally founded as the High Court of Judicature for the North-Western Provinces at Agra on 17 March 1866 by the Indian High Courts Act 1861 replacing the old Sadr Diwani Adalat.
• The seat of the court is at Allahabad. Allahabad High Court maintains a permanent circuit bench at Lucknow, the administrative capital of the state.
• The maximum number of serving judges is 160, the highest in India.
• Madhya Pradesh High Court Gwalior Bench
• Subsection (2) of section 51 of the States Reorganization Act, 1956, permanent benches of the High Court of Madhya Pradesh at Indore and Gwalior were established. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Rajasthan High Court 
• Rajasthan High Court was established on 21 June 1949 under the Rajasthan High Court Ordinance, 1949.
• The high court has its principal seat at Jodhpur and a bench at Jaipur. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Guwahati High Court 
• It has the largest number of Benches. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
• The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati in Assam.
• The Kohima bench for Nagaland state.
• The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state.
• The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state.
• Former benches, now full-fledged high courts:
• The Imphal bench(established on 21 January 1972)
• (Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
• The Agartala bench established on 24 January 1972)
• (Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
• The Shillong bench established on 4 September 1947)(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)​

The correct answer is Holding the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women.

Key Points

• The constitution of India has provided (in article 102) that a member of parliament will be disqualified for membership if:
• He holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament)
• He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
• He is an undischarged insolvent.
• He has ceased to be a citizen of India.
• He is disqualified under any other law by parliament
• He must not be a director or managing personnel in a company/organization in which government has at least 25% share.
• Voluntary acquisition of citizenship of a foreign country.
• Voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party which gave him a ticket to contest and win.
• Votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs, unless such voting or abstention has been condoned by the political party within fifteen days.
• A member elected as an independent candidate shall be disqualified if he joins any political party after his election.
• However, a nominated member is allowed to join a political party provided he joins such political party of his choices within six months. After that period, joining a political party would lead to defection and disqualification.
• Section 3 in The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 talks about Certain offices of profit not to disqualify, and The National Commission for Women constituted under section 3 of the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 is one of them.
• Therefore, Holding the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women is not a condition for the disqualification of a Member of Parliament. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Granville Austin.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• It is described in Part 4 of the Indian constitution from articles 36 to 51.
• DPSPs are taken from the Constitution of Ireland (1937).
• DPSPs build a vast social, economic and political program for a welfare state.
• DPSPs are different from the Fundamental Rights by their nature which means they (DPSP) are not enforceable by the courts.
• Various Views about DPSP
• Dr. B R Ambedkar
• ​He mentioned these principles as 'Novel Features’ of our Constitution.
• Granville Austin
• He thought of these principles as those which would help further the goals of social exclusion and revolution. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• These principles act as signposts indicating what has been achieved and what still has to be achieved; they provide criteria to judge the performance of the rulers; they help induce the governments to work for the welfare of the people.
• K. C. Wheare
• It is a manifesto of aims and aspirations.
• K.T. Shah
• He said it is a cheque payable by the bank concerned at its own convenience.
• Srinivasan
• He held the view that these principles combine rather incongruously the modem with the old, and provisions suggested by reason and science with provision based purely on sentiment and prejudice.
• B.N. Rau
• He was the advisor of the Constituent Assembly had said that these principles are ‘moral precepts for the authorities of the state” and that “they have an educative value’.

The correct answer is Yamuna.

Key Points

• The shortest train route from Bengaluru to New Delhi is 2276 km with main stations are Dharmavaram Junction, Kurnool Town, Kacheguda, Balharshah, Nagpur, Bhopal, and Jhansi.
• Yamuna River System
• ​Originating 6387 meters above the mean sea level from the Yamunotri Glacier at the Bandarpoonch peak in the Uttarkashi district of the state of Uttarakhand, this river flows through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh and covers the Union Territory of Delhi as well.

Mistake Points

• Since it flows alongside the New Delhi Railway station and not through it, therefore D will not cross the Yamuna river. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

​

Additional Information

• Narmada
• It is the largest west-flowing river of the peninsular region flowing through a rift valley between the Vindhya Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south.
• It rises from the Maikala range near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh.
• It drains a large area in Madhya Pradesh besides some areas in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• The river near Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh) forms the DhuanDhar Falls.
• There are several islands in the estuary of the Narmada of which Aliabet is the largest.
• Godavari River System
• Often referred to as Vridha Ganga or Dakshin Ganga, Godavari runs the second-longest course in India and is about 1450 km long.
• This river originates at Trimbakeshwar, which is near Nasik and Mumbai in the state of Maharashtra, which is only 380 km away from the Arabian Sea.
• It flows in the southeast direction across central and south India through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Orissa, and Andhra Pradesh and flows out in the Bay of Bengal.
• Krishna River System
• One of the longest rivers in India at about 1300 km long, the Krishna River originates at Mahabaleshwar in the state of Maharashtra, and traditionally the origin of the river is through a spout from the mouth of a cow statue in the ancient temple of Lord Mahadev.
• It passes through Sangli and reaches the Bay of Bengal at Hamsaladeevi in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• This river mainly passes through the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Mizoram
• It is the land of the Mizo people.
• It is one of the Seven Sister States (of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura) in North Eastern India, sharing borders with the states of Tripura, Assam, Manipur.
• The State has more north-south extensions.
• The State has an international border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
• Mizoram became the 23rd state of India on 20 February 1987. Its capital is Aizawl.
• Aizawl, the scenic capital of Mizoram, is a religious and cultural center of the Mizos.
• Aizawl is the largest city in the state of Mizoram. It is one of the remotest capitals, perches precariously on the steep slopes of a sharp ridge, straddling the watershed between the Tlawng and the Tuirial river valleys.
• The tropic of cancer passes through Aizawl.
• The whole state of Mizoram was a part of Assam until 1972 when it was made a Union Territory. Until 1987, there were insurgency problems in the region. When Mizoram was declared as a state, all problems of terrorism and demands for freedom subsided.
• Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Ladakh.

Key Points

• Ladakh
• It is also known as the Land of Passes
• It is the largest in the area among the regions of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh with an area of 95,876 km2.
• The region is administered by India as a union territory.
• Latitude and longitude coordinates are 34.209515º N, 77.615112º E. Hence, M wants to visit Ladakh.
• It is a small district and a part of the Jammu and Kashmir area in the northernmost part of India.
• It is bordered by the Chinese Tibet Autonomous Region to the east, the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh to the south, both the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Pakistan-administered Gilgit-Baltistan to the west and the southwest corner of Xinjiang across the Karakoram Pass in the far north.
• The Indus River and its major tributaries, the Shyok-Nubra, Chang Chenmo, Hanle, Zanskar, and Suru-dras rivers, drain the region. Glacio-fluvial processes aided by freeze-thaw weathering have formed the high-altitude landscape of Ladakh.
• It has an extremely harsh environment and is one of the highest and driest inhabited places on earth. Ladakh’s climate is referred to as a “cold desert” climate due to its combined features of arctic and desert climates.
• The entire area is nearly devoid of vegetation with the exception of valley floors and irrigated areas, due to the following factors:
• These include wide diurnal and seasonal fluctuations in temperature, from -40°C in winter to +35°C in summer, and extremely low precipitation, with an annual 10 cm to 30 cm primarily from snow.
• ​

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points

• According to census 2011 around 41 percent of India's is below the age of 20 years. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Half the population is in the 20-59 age group while 9 percent is above the age of 60.
• According to the data, Muslims in the country has the highest proportion of children and teenagers among all religions. While 47 percent of the children and teenagers are Muslims, 40 percent are Hindus and 29 percent are Jains.
• In August last year, the census data on religion had shown that the Muslim community had registered a moderate 0.8 percent growth to touch 17.22 crore in the 10-year period between 2001 and 2011, up from 13.8 crores, while the Hindu population had shown a decline by 0.7 percent at 96.63 crores during the period.
• The group is regarded as the youthful population with high potential and beneficial for the country as a demographic dividend.  Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The growth rate of population in the decade 2001-2011 was 17.7 percent.
• Compared to the overall sex ratio, adolescent (10–19)  sex ratio since 1961 has been low – with the lowest at 882 in 2001 to the highest at 898 during Census 2011. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is J.

Key Points

• Density of India
• The records of population density 2011 of India state that the density 2011 has increased from a figure of 324 to that of 382 per square kilometer, which is considerably higher than the average population density of the world 2011, which are 46 per square kilometer.
• Records reveal that along with the wide difference in the population density of the world, there are also a lot of differences in the population density of the various states of India.
• While the National Capital Region area of Delhi possesses the highest population density in 2011 among the states of India having a statistic of 11,297 per square kilometer, the state of Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest record of population density having just 17 per square kilometer.

Additional Information

• | State | Area Sq. Km | Density 2011 | | --- | --- | --- | | Arunachal Pradesh | 83,743 | 17 | | Assam | 78,438 | 398 | | Meghalaya | 22,429 | 132 | | Nagaland | 16,579 | 119 |

• Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

• Samudragupta (335-380 A.D.)
• He was the son of Chandragupta I.
• He assumed the Vikramanka and Kaviraja titles.
• Harishena was the court poet of Samudragupta.
• Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti) was issued by Samudragupta and was composed by Harishena.
• In Samudragupta's prashasti the poet praised him in glowing terms. According to this prashasti, Samudragupta was a great warrior who won victories in battles.​ Hence,  Option 3 is correct.
• It was composed in Sanskrit.
• Panini was a Sanskrit grammarian who gave a comprehensive and scientific theory of phonetics, phonology, and morphology.
• Banabhatta was the court poet of  Harshvardhana and he composed the Harshacharita which gives an account of Harsha’s life and deeds.
• He has been called the “Napoleon of India” by V.A Smith because of his wide military conquests.
• During the southern campaign, Virasen was known as the commander-in-chief of Samudragupta.
• He also carried out the sacrifice of Ashvamedha. One of his coins, therefore, refers to him as "the Ashvamedha restorer."
• He was a devotee of Vishnu though a follower of the Brahmanical religion. He allowed the Buddhist King Meghavarman (King of Cylon) to create Bodh Gaya's monasteries.

The correct answer is E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.

Key Points

• Self-Respect Movement
• It was a spirited social movement aimed at decimating the contemporary Hindu social order in its totality and creating a new, rational society without caste, religion, and god.
• It was an egalitarian principles agitation that broadcasted the ideologies of breaking down the Brahminical hegemony, equal rights for the backward classes and women in the society, and revitalization of the Dravidian languages like Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, and Malayalam.
• The Self-Respect movement was started by Ramaswamy Naicker in 1925 with S. Ramanathan. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker is commonly known as Periyar. He was a highly influential person in Tamil Nadu.
• This is also called the Dravidian Movement, the self-respect movement was basically demanding equal rights for the backward cast, and the main focus of this movement was women's rights.
• Many present-day political parties in Tamil Nadu, such as Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) and All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) owe their origins to the Self-respect movement.

The correct answer is Alexander Cunningham.

Key Points

• Taxila or Takshashila University
• It was an early Hindu and Buddhist center of learning.
• According to scattered references that were only fixed a millennium later, it may have dated back to at least the fifth century BC.
• It was an ancient city in India founded in 1000 BCE.
• The city was a great seat for learning and produced some illustrious historical figures like Kautilya who wrote Arthashastra, Panini- the compiler of 'Ashtadhyayi' the Sanskrit grammar, Charaka the great Ayurvedic healer, and Jivaka who once treated Buddha.
• The renowned archaeologist Sir Alexander Cunningham rediscovered the ruins of Taxila in the mid-19th century by identifying a local site known as Sarai Kala with ancient Taxila.
• Before that, the location of the ancient city of Taxila, known from literary texts, was uncertain.
• The location of the ancient city of Taxila (Takshshila), mentioned in ancient Indian texts, was identified by Alexander Cunnigham. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The location of Taxila at the crossroads of mighty empires further was a reason for its fame and falling in the vicinity of ancient maritime route acted as a further booster.
• The geographic region also played a vital role in the vulnerability of Taxila as well. Darius, I of the Achaemenid Empire of Persia was the first to conquer Taxila in 518 BC. Later in 326 BC, Alexander the Great captured Taxila.
• After Ashoka, the city changed hands multiple times from Indo-Greeks of Bactria to Sakas and then by Parthians. Only during the reign of Kushanas, Taxila receives its glory due to patronization them.

The correct answer is Khema.

Key Points

• Bhadrabahu
• He was, according to the Digambara sect of Jainism, the last Shruta Kevalin in Jainism but Śvētāmbara believes the last Shruta Kevalin was Acharya Sthulabhadra but was forbade by Bhadrabahu from disclosing it.
• He was the last acharya of the undivided Jain sangha.
• He was the spiritual teacher of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya Empire.
• According to the Digambara sect of Jainism, there were five Shruta Kevalins in Jainism - Govarddhana Mahamuni, Vishnu, Nandimitra, Aparajita, and Bhadrabahu.
• Khema
• In the Dispensation of Gautama, Buddha Khema was born in a princely family at Sagala by the name of Khema. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The color of her complexion was that of gold.
• She was exceptionally beautiful. She married King Bimbisara of Magadha who was an enthusiastic supporter of the Buddha.
• She was reluctant, however, to visit the Buddha for fear that the Blessed One would moralize on the fleeting nature of beauty.
• Aacharya Haribhadra Suri
• He was a Svetambara mendicant Jain leader, philosopher, doxographer, and author.
• There are multiple contradictory dates assigned to his birth.
• According to tradition, he lived c. 459–529 AD.
• Siddhasena Divakara
• He was a Jain monk in the fifth century CE who wrote works on Jain philosophy and epistemology.
• He was like the illuminating lamp of the Jain order and therefore came to be known as Divakara Lamp-Maker.
• He is credited with the authorship of many books, most of which are not available.

The correct answer is the Inauguration of Banaras Hindu University (1916).

Key Points

• On 4 February 1916, Gandhiji’s made his first public appearance after returning from South Africa to BHU. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• He addressed the audience in BHU, mostly consisting of impressionable youths, princes, bedecked and bejeweled, etc.
• The Maharaja of Darbhanga was in the chair.

Important Points

• Banaras Hindu University is an internationally reputed temple of learning, situated in the holy city of Varanasi.
• This Creative and innovative university was founded by the great nationalist leader, Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya, in 1916 with the cooperation of great personalities like Dr. Annie Besant, who viewed it as the University of India.
• Banaras Hindu University was created under the Parliamentary legislation - B.H.U. Act 1915.

Additional Information

• Champaran Satyagraha
• In the Champaran district of Bihar, the cultivators were forced by Europeans to grow indigo.
• They could not grow the food they needed, nor did they receive adequate payment for the indigo.
• Gandhi went to Champaran with Rajkumar early in 1917 to launch satyagraha.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike
• In 1918, it was one of the initial movements led by Gandhi.
• In March 1918, under the leadership of Gandhi, there was a strike in the cotton mills.
• In this strike, Gandhi used the weapon of hunger strike.
• Rowlatt Satyagraha
• It was in response to the British government enacting the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act. Gandhiji called for a countrywide campaign against the Rowlatt Act.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points

• Patanjali 
• He was a sage in India, thought to be the author of many Sanskrit works.
• The greatest of these are the Yoga Sutras, a classical yoga text. T
• The author of the Mahabhaṣya, an ancient treatise on Sanskrit grammar and linguistics, based on the Aṣṭadhyayi of Paṇini. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• This Patanjali's life is dated to mid 2nd century BCE by both Western and Indian scholars.
• Patanjali’s Mahabhashya does not mention about Chanakya. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• This text was titled as a bhasya or commentary on Katyayana-Paṇini's work by Patanjali, but is so revered in the Indian traditions that it is widely known simply as Mahabhasya or "Great commentary".
• So vigorous, well reasoned, and vast is his text, that this Patanjali has been the authority as the last grammarian of classical Sanskrit for 2,000 years, with Paṇini and Katyayana preceding him.
• Their ideas on structure, grammar, and the philosophy of language have also influenced scholars of other Indian religions such as Buddhism and Jainism.

Additional Information

• Patanjali is known more for his renowned Yoga Sutras, than his work on grammar.
• Dating it as 2nd century BCE, during the Maurya Empire (322–185 BCE). He has mentioned Chandragupta in his works.
• The Yogasutras is one of the most important texts in the Indian tradition and the foundation of classical Yoga. It is the Indian Yoga text that was most translated in its medieval era into forty Indian languages.
• The compiler of the Yoga Sutras, a text on Yoga theory and practice, and a notable scholar of Samkhya school of Hindu philosophy. He is variously estimated to have lived between the 2nd century BCE to 4th century CE, with more scholars accepting dates between 2nd and 4th century CE.
• Patanjali, author of a medical text called Patanjalatantra. He is cited and this text is quoted in many medieval health sciences-related texts, and Patanjali is called a medical authority in many Sanskrit texts such as Yogaratnakara, Yogaratnasamuccaya, and Padarthavijnana.
• Therefore, Patanjali's works have no mention of Kautilya.

The correct answer is Change in its price.

Key Points

• Demand 
• It is an economic principle referring to a consumer's desire to purchase goods and services and willingness to pay a price for a specific good or service.
• A demand curve is a graphic representation of the relationship between product price and the quantity of the product demanded.
• The price of the product does not lead to a shift in the demand curve.
• Income is not the only factor that causes a shift in demand.
• The other things that change demand include tastes and preferences, the composition or size of the population, the prices of related goods, and even expectations.
• A shift in the demand curve is when a determinant of demand other than price changes. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It occurs when demand for goods and services changes even though the price didn't.
• A shift in the demand curve is an unusual circumstance when the opposite occurs.
• The price remains the same but at least one of the other five determinants changes.

Additional Information

• Those determinants are: 
• ​Income of the buyer.
• Consumer trends and tastes.
• Expectations of future price, supply, needs, etc.
• The price of related goods.
• The number of potential buyers.
• Factors that cause a Demand Curve to Shift: 
• ​When the demand curve shifts, it changes the amount purchased at every price point.
• For example, when incomes rise, people can buy more of everything they want.
• In the short term, the price will remain the same and the quantity sold will increase.

The correct answer is the Value of the next best alternative that is given up.

Key Points

• Opportunity cost
• It is defined as the cost of the next best alternative foregone.
• It represents the sacrifices that people must make due to the scarcity of resources.
• Resources are limited but wants are unlimited, thus choices must be made.
• The opportunity cost of an activity is the value of the next-best alternative that must be forgone in order to engage in that activity. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Failure to ignore sunk costs. The only costs that should influence a decision about whether to take any action are those that we can avoid by not taking the action.
• Opportunity cost is the forgone benefit that would have been derived from an option not chosen.
• To properly evaluate opportunity costs, the costs and benefits of every option available must be considered and weighed against the others.
• Considering the value of opportunity costs can guide individuals and organizations to more profitable decision-making.
• If, for example, you spend time and money going to a movie, you cannot spend that time at home reading a book, and you can't spend the money on something else.

The correct answer is There was a stagnation in the spending on education as a percent of GDP.

Key Points

• The central government’s education budget reduced since 2014.
• Even as the government promises an increase in spending on education, the share of the union budget allocated to education fell from 4.14% in 2014-15 to 3.4% in 2019-20. In the 2019-20 budget, the share of the union budget allocated to education remains at 3.4%. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
• The combined expenditure of the Centre and the state governments in the social services sector increased to Rs 17.16 lakh crore during the financial year 2020-21, according to the Economic Survey.
• At Rs 17.16 lakh crore, the expenditure is 12 percent higher from Rs 15.31 lakh crore (revised estimate) in the financial year 2019-20.
• According to the Survey, the budget estimate (BE) on social services in 2020-21 by the general government (combined Centre and states) was at Rs 17.16 lakh crore, of which Rs 6.75 lakh crore was on education, Rs 3.51 lakh crore on health and Rs 6.90 lakh crore on other segments of the sector. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• The expenditure on the social services sector in 2019-20 fiscal was at Rs 15.31 lakh crore, of which Rs 6.13 lakh crore was on education, Rs 3.12 lakh crore on health, and Rs 6.06 crore on others, as per the Survey.
• Overall, India’s public health expenditure (sum of central and state spending) has remained between 1.2% to 1.6% of GDP between 2008-09 and 2019-20. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
• This expenditure is relatively low as compared to other countries such as China (3.2%), the USA (8.5%), and Germany (9.4%).
• In 2020-21, the Ministry received an allocation of Rs 67,112 crore.  This is an increase of 3.9% over the revised estimates of 2019-20 (Rs 64,609 crore).
• Under the Ministry, the Department of Health and Family Welfare accounts for 97% of the Ministry’s allocation, at Rs 65,012 crore.  Whereas, the Department of Health Research is allocated Rs 2,100 crore (3% of the allocation).

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• India’s Performance in UNDP’s Human Development Report - 2020
• Overall Performance: HDI value for 2019 is 0.645, which puts the country in the medium human development category, positioning it at 131 out of 189 countries and territories.
• Between 1990 and 2019, India’s HDI value increased from 0.429 to 0.645, an increase of 50.3%.
• Long and Healthy Life: Life expectancy for Indian’s at birth was 69.7 years in 2019, slightly lower than the South Asian average of 69.9 years.
• Between 1990 and 2019, India’s life expectancy at birth increased by 11.8 years.
• Access to Knowledge: The expected years of schooling in India were 12.2 years, compared with 11.2 years in Bangladesh and 8.3 years in Pakistan.
• Between 1990 and 2019, mean years of schooling increased by 3.5 years, and expected years of schooling increased by 4.5 years.
• A Decent Standard of Living: In terms of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, India at USD 6,681 fared better than some others in 2019, despite a fall over the previous year.
• India’s GNI per capita increased by about 273.9% between 1990 and 2019.

Additional Information

• India ranked 131 among 189 countries on the Human Development Index (HDI) for 2019, slipping two places from the previous year, according to the Human Development Report (HDR) 2020 released by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).
• The 2020 Report has introduced the planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index, which adjusts the standard Human Development Index (HDI) by a country’s per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint.
• The other indices that form the part of the Report are:
• Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI),
• Gender Development Index (GDI),
• Gender Inequality Index (GII) and
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
• Norway topped the index, followed by Ireland and Switzerland. Hong Kong and Iceland complete the top five.

The correct answer is Both gains; it is a win-win situation.

Key Points

• Voluntary exchange
• It is a type of transaction where two parties freely trade goods or services.
• This occurs in a market economy, which is a type of economy where both participants of an interaction gain a mutual benefit from it and are better off than when they started. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• For instance, if someone offers tutoring services to high school students, they're benefiting by earning money in exchange for their expertise.
• Likewise, high school student gains the knowledge they need to pass their exam.
• In market economies, the exchange of goods and services is free of government restriction, meaning businesses or individuals determine the prices for their products or services.
• Voluntary exchange is a term created by neoclassical economists to describe their primary assumption of trading. This has led to what is today referred to as a free market.
• Voluntary exchange is important because when participants feel they benefit from a transaction, they're more likely to complete it organically.
• Having a voluntary exchange can lead to a more efficient and profitable production for businesses.
• It also has the potential to encourage specialization since certain consumers may want niche items.
• Without government restrictions, a voluntary exchange can create fair competition in the marketplace.

The correct answer is Part-IV.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) Part-IV
• The source of the concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is the Spanish Constitution from which it came in the Irish Constitution.
• The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution.
• Constitutional Provisions: Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• Article 37 of the Indian Constitution States the application of the Directive Principles.
• These principles aim at ensuring socio-economic justice to the people and establishing India as a Welfare State.
• Article 50: The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. Hence, Option 1 is correct.​

Additional Information

• | Part | Subject | Articles | | --- | --- | --- | | Part I | The Union and its territory | Art. 1 to 4 | | Part II | Citizenship | Art. 5 to 11 | | Part III | Fundamental Rights | Art. 12 to 35 | | Part IV | Directive Principles | Art. 36 to 51 | | Part IVA | Fundamental Duties | Art. 51A | | Part V | The Union | Art. 52 to 151 | | Part VI | The States | Art. 152 to 237 | | Part VII | Repealed by Const. (7th Amendment) Act, 1956 | |

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Notwithstanding anything in Part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Unless Parliament by law otherwise provides, this article shall, after the expiration of a period of fifteen years from the commencement of this Constitution, have effect as if the words "or in English" were omitted therefrom.
• The minutes and reports of the Parliamentary Committees are invariably prepared and presented to the House both in Hindi and in English. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Eighth Schedule:
• It lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351.
• The Constitutional provisions related to the Eighth Schedule are:
• Article 344: Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President on the expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 351: It provides for the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
• However, It can be noted that there are no fixed criteria for any language to be considered for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.

Important Points

• Official Languages:
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
• Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• The Sindhi language was added by the 21^st Amendment Act of 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included in the 71^st Amendment Act of 1992.
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92^nd Amendment Act of 2003 which came into force in 2004.

The correct answer is It refers to the Government of India, Parliament of India, Governments, and or other authorities within the territory of India.

Key Points

• Article 12 defines the state in the following manner
• In this part, unless the context otherwise requires, "the State" includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Importance of the definition of State
• Ordinary laws are sufficient enough to protect against infringement of rights by individuals.
• But since the state is granted unlimited powers and authority, Individuals need constitutional protection from the acts of the state itself.
• For providing this protection, first, it needs to be clearly defined what comes under the definition of the state.
• Though the state has been defined under article 12 in clear words, most of the controversies arise due to its 4th category i.e. other authorities.
• The inclusion of an organization in the definition of state would make it amenable to the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

Rajya Sabha

• It is called the counsil of the states or the upper house of the Indian parliament.
• Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories.
• The present strength of Rajya Sabha, however, is 245, out of which 233 are representatives of the States and Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and 12 are nominated by the President.
• The members nominated by the President are persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art, and social service.
• The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
• The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.
• Consequent to the reorganization of States and the formation of new States, the number of elected seats in the Rajya Sabha allotted to States and Union Territories has changed from time to time since 1952.
• Number of Rajya Sabha Seats in All the Indian States

• Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Article 243 D.

Key Points

• Reservation of seats for women in Panchayats
• As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the Chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the Constitution are reserved for women. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The following states have made legal provisions for 50% reservation for women among members and Sarpanches: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Kerala, Maharashtra, Orissa, Rajasthan, Tripura, and Uttarakhand.

Additional Information

• Article 243 – Definitions.
• Article 243A – Gram Sabha.
• Article 243B – Constitution of Panchayats.
• Article 243C – Composition of Panchayats.
• Article 243D – Reservation of seats.
• Article 243E – Duration of Panchayats, etc.
• Article 243F – Disqualifications for membership.
• Article 243G – Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• Article 243H – Powers to impose taxes by, and Funds of, the Panchayats.
• Article 243I – Constitution of Finance Commission to review financial position.
• Article 243J – Audit of accounts of Panchayats.
• Article 243K – Elections to the Panchayats.
• Article 243L – Application to Union territories.
• Article 243M – Part not to apply to certain areas.
• Article 243N – Continuance of existing laws and Panchayats.
• Article 243O – Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

The correct answer is Sirat-i-Firuz Shahi.

Key Points

• The painted illustration of the moving of the Ashoka Pillar at Topra
• Topra, the combined name for the larger Topra Kalan and adjacent smaller Topra Khurd, is a Mauryan Empire-era village in Yamunanagar district of Harayana state in India.
• It lies 14 km west of Yamunanagar, 14 km from Radaur, and 90 km from Chandigarh.
• Situated in Pong valley is the original home of the Delhi-Topra Ashokan pillar, one of many pillars of Ashoka, that was moved from Topra to Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi in 1356 CE by Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1309-1388 CE).
• Transportation of the Topra pillar to Delhi. Sirat i-Firuz Shahi, 14th-century illustration. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The original inscription on the Delhi-Topra Ashokan obelisk is primarily in Brahmi script but the language was Prakrit, with some Pali and Sanskrit added later.
• The inscription was successfully translated in 1837 by James Prinsep.[2] This and other ancient lats (pillars, obelisk) have earned Feroz Shah Tughlaq and Delhi Sultanate fame for their architectural patronage.

The correct answer is Srirangam.

Key Points

• Srirangam Temple
• Srirangam is the foremost of the eight self-manifested shrines (Swayam Vyakta Kshetras) of Lord Vishnu. Therefore, This is a temple of the Vaishnavite tradition. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It is also considered the first, foremost, and the most important of the 108 main Vishnu temples (Divyadesams).
• This temple is also known as Thiruvaranga Tirupati, Periyakoil, Bhoologa Vaikundam, Bhogamandabam.
• In the Vaishnava parlance, the term KOIL signifies this temple only.
• The temple is enormous in size.
• The temple complex is 156 acres in extent.
• It has seven prakaras or enclosures. These enclosures are formed by thick and huge rampart walls which run round the sanctum.
• There are 21 magnificent towers in all prakaras providing a unique sight to any visitor. this temple lies on an islet formed by the twin rivers Cauvery and Coleroon.

The correct answer is Munis al Arwah.

• Jahanara Begum Sahib
• She was the eldest daughter of Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal.
• Together with her brother Dara Shikoh she was a disciple of Mullah Shah Badakhshi, who initiated her into the Qadiriyya Sufi order in 1641.
• Jahanara Begum made such progress on the Sufi path that Mullah Shah would have named her his successor in the Qadiriyya, but the rules of the order did not allow this.
• She wrote a biography of Moinuddin Chishti, the founder of the Chishtiyah order, titled "Mu’nis al-Arwāḥ", as well as a biography of Mullah Shah, titled Risālah-i Ṣāḥibīyah, in which she also described her initiation by him. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Her biography of Moinuddin Chishti is highly regarded for its judgment and literary quality. In it, she regarded him as having initiated her spiritually four centuries after his death, described her pilgrimage to Ajmer, and spoke of herself as a faqīrah to signify her vocation as a Sufi woman.
• Nizamuddin Auliya (Author of Fawaid al-fuad)
• Siyar-ul-Auliya by Syed Mohammad Mubarak Alvi
• Muraqqa-e-Dehli by Durga Quli Khan

The correct answer is Overthrow of alien rule.

Key Points

• Methods of Moderates
• The moderate phase was between 1885-1905.
• The national leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozshah Mehta, D.E. Wacha, W.C. Bonnerjea, S.N. Banerjea who dominated the Congress policies during the early period (1885-1905) were staunch believers in ‘liberalism’ and ‘moderate’ politics and came to be labeled as Moderates.
• The moderate political activity involved constitutional agitation within the confines of the law and showed slow but orderly political progress.
• The Moderates believed that the British basically wanted to be just to the Indians but were not aware of the real conditions.
• Create a strong public opinion to arouse consciousness and national spirit and then educate and unite people on common political questions.
• Persuade the British Government and British public opinion to introduce reforms in India on the lines laid out by the nationalists.
• They used the method of ‘prayer and petition’ and if that failed, they resorted to constitutional agitation.
• The Moderate leaders believed that political connections with Britain were in India’s interest at that stage of history and that the time was not ripe for a direct challenge to British rule.
• The overthrow of the alien rule was the method of extremist. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Vedas.

Key Points

• Dayananda Saraswati
• Dayananda Saraswati [1824-1883] was the first to give the call for Swarajya – "India for Indians" – in 1876.
• For his own inspiration, Swami Dayanand went to the Vedas which he regarded as infallible.
• He rejected all later religious thought if it conflicted with the Vedas.
• This total dependence on Vedas and their infallibility gave his teachings orthodox coloring.
• He was opposed to idolatry, ritual, and priesthood and particularly to the prevalent caste practices and popular Hinduism as preached by brahmins.
• ​Swami Dayanand met Keshub Chandra Sen, Vidyasagar, Justice Ranade, Gopal Hari Deshmukh, and other modern religious and social reformers.
• He took inspiration from the Vedas and considered them to be ‘India’s Rock of Ages, the infallible, and the true original seed of Hinduism. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• He gave the slogan “Back to the Vedas”.
• Dayananda’s slogan of ‘Back to the Vedas’ was a call for a revival of Vedic learning and Vedic purity of religion and not a revival of Vedic times.
• He accepted modernity and displayed a patriotic attitude to national problems.

The correct answer is Non-Cooperation Movement.

Key Points

• Non-Cooperation Movement
• ​On 1 August 1920, Non-Cooperation Movement was announced formally.
• This was a bereaved day when early in the morning, the news of the death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak arrived.
• Gandhi and a crowd of around 2 Lakh people paid their respect to this “Maker of Modern India”, The Movement started with strikes and processions all over India.
• It was the Rowlatt Satyagraha that made Gandhiji a truly national leader.
• Embodied by its success, Gandhiji called for a campaign of “non-cooperation” with British rule.
• Indians who wished colonialism to end were asked to stop attending schools, colleges, and law courts, and not pay taxes.
• In sum, they were asked to adhere to a “renunciation of (all) voluntary association with the (British ) Government”. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• On 4 September 1920, Congress met at Calcutta in a special session.
• This special session was presided by Lala Lajpat Rai. In this session, Gandhi wrongly projected that if the Non-cooperation movement gets successful, Swaraj could be attained in one year. This was something immediately repudiated by CR Das.
• In December 1920, Congress met once again in the Nagpur Session.
• This time the differences of CR das had melted away.
• He moved the main resolution of Non-cooperation. A program of the surrender of titles, the boycott of schools, courts, and councils, the boycott of foreign goods, the promotion maintenance of Hindu-Muslim unity, and strict non-violence was adopted.
• Nagpur Session 1920 At the Nagpur session in December 1920, some crucial changes were made in the organization of the Congress, so that it becomes a real political party.
• These changes were mooted by Gandhi, but they confused Jinnah and Jinnah left the party, a beginning of the division that later would make him Qaide-i-Azam of Pakistan.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• The Indian Standard Time (IST) :
• The Indian Standard Time is calculated from 82°30’E meridian passing through Mirzapur.
• It does not take into account daylight saving time along with other seasonal factors. India has only one-time zone.
• Indian Standard Time is +5.30 Hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Indian Standard Time (IST) is the time zone observed throughout India. Hence statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct.
• Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5′ E longitude in the city of Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh.
• From the values of longitude, it is quite discernible that there is a variation of nearly 30 degrees, which causes a time difference of nearly two
  

hours between the easternmost and the westernmost parts of our country.

• Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is the mean solar time at the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London, reckoned from midnight.
• Daylight saving time is the practice of advancing clocks during warmer months.
• Daylight Saving Time (DST) was used briefly during the China–India War of 1962 and the Indo-Pakistani Wars of 1965 and 1971.

The correct answer is Ladakh.

Key Points

• Khardung La
• It is a mountain pass in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The pass on the Ladakh Range is north of Leh and is the gateway to the Shyok and Nubra valleys.
• Locally, it is also known as "Khardong La" or "Khardzong La".
• The elevation of Khardung La is 5,359 m.
• It is incorrectly claimed by some locals as the highest vehicle-accessible pass in the world.
• It is historically important as it lies on the major caravan route from Leh to Kashgar in Central Asia.
• About 10,000 horses and camels used to take the route annually.
• It is strategically important to India as it is used to carry supplies to the Siachen Glacier.
• Nubra Valley
• The Nubra Valley acts as the gateway to the strategically important Siachen Glacier and Karakoram Pass.
• The Karakoram Pass on the northwest side connects the valley with Xinjiang, China.
• The Nubra River is a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India.
• It is a tributary of the Shyok River (a part of the Indus River system) and originates from the Siachen Glacier.
• Monasteries in Ladakh
• The rugged terrain of Ladakh is dotted with innumerable monasteries or gompas as the majority of its population practice Buddhism as their religion.
• These monasteries not only attract visitors for religious and cultural significance but also architectural splendor.
• Old scriptures, thangkas, murals, and other relics effortlessly capture the attention of visitors.
• Most Famous Monasteries of Ladakh
• Thiksey Monastery
• Karsha Monastery
• Hemis Monastery
• Alchi Monastery
• ​Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The southwest monsoon arrives in two branches called the Bay of Bengal branch and the Arabian Sea branch.
• The Arabian Sea side monsoon creates a low-pressure area on the Thar Desert.
• It is quite stronger than the Bay of Bengal side monsoon.
• The Arabian Sea Branch of the Southwest Monsoon first hits the Western Ghats of the coastal state of Kerala, India, thus making this area the first state in India to receive rain from the Southwest Monsoon.
• During the South-West Monsoon, Tamil Nadu remains dry because it is located in a rain shadow area.
• The advance of the monsoon is much faster in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea.
• Punjab-Haryana plains are almost equidistant from both the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. Further, direction of both branches of the monsoon winds is oriented towards the Punjab, Haryana plain and this area receives rainfall both from the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea monsoons. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Soil.

Key Points

• USDA Soil Classification System:
• The classification of soils aims at the broadest taxonomic level (USDA system) and to identify dominant environmental factors that contribute to soil formation at this level on a regional basis.
• The most general level of classification in the USDA system of Soil Taxonomy is the Soil Order.
• All of the soils in the world can be assigned to one of just 12 orders, Entisols, Inceptisols, Andisols, Mollisols, Alfisols, Spodosols, Ultisols, Oxisols, Gelisols, Histosols, Aridisols, and Vertisols. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Soil orders are frequently defined by a single dominant characteristic affecting soils in that location, e.g., the prevalent vegetation (Alfisols, Mollisols), the type of parent material (Andisols, Vertisols), or the climate variables such as lack of precipitation (Aridisols) or the presence of permafrost (Gelisols).
• Also significant in several soil orders is the amount of physical and chemical weathering present (Oxisols, Ultisols), and/or the relative amount of Soil Profile Development that has taken place (Entisols).

Additional Information

• | Soil Categories
  as per the US Dept. of Agriculture | Characteristics | | --- | --- | | a. Entisols | Little, if any horizon development | | b. Inceptisols | Beginning of horizon development | | c. Mollisols | Soft, grassland soils | | d. Oxisols | Extremely weathered, tropical soils |

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Contour Bunding and Contour Ploughing
• It is the form of Sustainable agriculture.
• Sustainable agriculture aims at developing, using, and maintaining new and more efficient ways of farming that ensure that the present food and textile needs of society are met without compromising the future generation’s needs.
• Contour plowing is a farming practice that involves plowing the land along contour lines.
• It refers to planting across the slope rather than along it.
• The planting is done perpendicularly to the slope instead of being done in a parallel manner.
• This creates contour lines. Contour lines prevent tillage erosion and reduce the formation of gullies during heavy rainfall.
• Contour Ploughing is parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope.
• Contour Bunding involves the construction of banks along with the counters, it controls the flow of water and reduces soil erosion.
• Therefore, Contour Ploughing and contour bunding are related to the hilly area. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Contour plowing is a very effective soil erosion prevention technique.
• It decreases by a huge margin all the negative consequences associated with soil erosion such as reduced crop productivity, flooding, lower effective reservoir water levels, worsened water quality, and habitat destruction.
• Contour farming is the most effective when used with other sustainable agriculture techniques such as strip cropping, terrace (agriculture) farming, and the use of a cover crop.
• Contour Bunding is a similar technique but has a wide range of applications besides farming. It is used to collect the rainwater so that it is not lost as runoff.
• It is also used to prevent erosion of soil by wind and also to provide a better surface area for the crops to grow.

The correct answer is All returning migrants.

Key Points

• Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan
• The Government of India has decided to launch a rural public works scheme ‘Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan’ through video-conferencing from village Telihar in Khagaria district of Bihar on 20^th June 2020.
• The scheme will empower and provide livelihood opportunities to the returnee migrant workers and rural citizens who have returned to their home states due to the Covid-19 induced lockdown. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• This campaign will work in mission mode for 125 days with an outlay of Rs. 50,000 crore.
• A total of 116 districts across six states, namely Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, and Odisha (where maximum migrant workers have returned) have been chosen for the campaign.
• These districts are estimated to cover about 2/3 of such migrant workers.
• The chosen districts include 27 Aspirational Districts.
• Aspirational Districts are those districts in India which are affected by poor socio-economic indicators.
• These are aspirational in the context, that improvement in these districts can lead to the overall improvement in human development in India. It is a NITI Aayog’s Programme.

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2.

Key Points

• The Lorenz Curve
• It indicates income distribution.
• It is a graphical representation of the distribution of wealth or of income.
• It was developed in 1905 by Max O. Lorenz to represent the inequality of wealth distribution.
• The Phillips curve
• It is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship.
• The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less unemployment.
• However, the original concept has been somewhat disproven empirically due to the occurrence of stagflation in the 1970s, when there were high levels of both inflation and unemployment.
• Engel Curves
• It is the locus of all points representing the quantities demanded of the goods at various levels of income.
• In microeconomics, an Engel curve describes how household expenditure on a particular good or service varies with household income.
• The Laffer Curve
• It describes the relationship between tax rates and total tax revenue, with an optimal tax rate that maximizes total government tax revenue.
• Typically, it has an inverted-U shape.
• Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Market for soaps.

Key Points

• Monopolistic competition
• It occurs when an industry has many firms offering products that are similar but not identical.
• Therefore, the market for soaps in India is an example of a typical example of monopolistic competition. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It is a market in which there is one producer, it is devoid of competition and there are no close substitutes. e.g. Indian railways or any other relevant example.
• Unlike a monopoly, these firms have little power to curtail supply or raise prices to increase profits.
• Firms in monopolistic competition typically try to differentiate their products in order to achieve above-market returns.
• Heavy advertising and marketing are common among firms in monopolistic competition and some economists criticize this as wasteful.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST)
• It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
• The GST is paid by consumers, but it is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.
• It is applicable to the ‘supply’ of goods or services as against the old concept on the manufacture of goods or on sale of goods or on the provision of services.
• It is based on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation as against the present principle of origin-based taxation.
• It is a dual GST with the Centre and the States simultaneously levying tax on a common base.
• GST to be levied by the Centre is called Central GST (CGST) and that to be levied by the States is called State GST (SGST).
• Import of goods or services would be treated as inter-state supplies and would be subject to Integrated Goods & Services Tax (IGST) in addition to the applicable customs duties.
• An Act to provide for compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on account of implementation of the goods and services tax in pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
• CGST, SGST & IGST are levied at rates to be mutually agreed upon by the Centre and the States. The rates are notified on the recommendation of the GST Council.
• Initially, GST was levied at four rates viz. 5%, 12%, 16% and 28%. The schedule or list of items that would fall under these multiple slabs is worked out by the GST council.

The correct answer is

Key Points

• Directorate of Enforcement
• It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• It enforces the following laws: -
• Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999 (FEMA)
• A Civil Law, with officers empowered to conduct investigations into suspected contraventions of the Foreign Exchange Laws and Regulations, adjudicate, contraventions, and impose penalties on those adjudged to have contravened the law.
• Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
• A Criminal Law, with the officers empowered to conduct investigations to trace assets derived out of the proceeds of crime, to provisionally attach/ confiscate the same, and to arrest and prosecute the offenders found to be involved in Money Laundering.

Important Points

• The Income Tax Department
• It is a government agency undertaking direct tax collection of the Government of India.
• It functions under the Department of Revenue of the Ministry of Finance.
• It is headed by the apex body Central Board of Direct Taxes.
• It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Insurance does not come under the Union List.

Key Points

• Agricultural income is not taxable under Section 10 (1) of the Income Tax Act as it is not counted as a part of an individual's total income.
• However, the state government can levy tax on agricultural income if the amount exceeds Rs. 5,000 per year.
• Taxes on agricultural income” falls under Entry 46 in “State List” under the Constitution, and hence only the state governments are competent to enact legislation imposing a tax on agricultural income. Therefore, taxation of agricultural income, if any, has to be considered by the state governments only. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The tax on agricultural income can be imposed by the central government only if the states pass a resolution under Article 252 of the Constitution, authorizing the Centre to impose such tax on agricultural income.
• Price control falls under Entry 34 in “Concurrent List” under the Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Insurance falls under Entry 43, and 47 in the Union list under the constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• Forest falls under Entry 17A in “Concurrent List” under the Constitution. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Schedule 7 of the Indian Constitution
• Article 246 deals with the Seventh- Schedule of the Constitution that mentions three lists - Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• The Union Government or the Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to the Union List.
• The Union List contains 100 subjects now. Originally it had 97 subjects.
• The State Governments have exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to the State List.
• The State List has 61 subjects (originally 66 subjects).
• The Concurrent List includes an item that is under the joint domain of the Union as well as the State.
• The Concurrent List contains 52 subjects under it (originally 47 subjects).
• | Union List | State List | Concurrent List | | --- | --- | --- | | Defence | Public Order | Education | | Army | Police | Trade Union | | Railways | Public health and Sanitation | Forest | | Economy | Betting and Gambling | Marriage | | International Relations | Hospitals | Succession |

The correct answer is Special provisions have been laid down in the Constitution of India for only Andhra Pradesh under Article 371 D.

Key Points

• Emergency in India
• The Indian Constitution confers extraordinary powers upon the union.
• The emergency provisions provided under the Constitution enables the federal government to acquire the strength of a unitary system whenever the exigencies of the situation so demand. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• The Indian Constitution provides for three different kinds of abnormal situations which call for a departure from the normal governmental machinery set up by the Constitution:
• An emergency due to war, and external aggression, or armed rebellion [Article 352]. It is also known as National Emergency.
• Failure of constitutional machinery in states [Article 356]. Also known as Presidential Rule.
• Financial Emergency [Article 360].
• The Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975: 
• This Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union.
• The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1975:
• This Act Terminated the Protectorate status of Sikkim and conferred the status of an associate state of the Indian Union.
• A new Article 2(A) was inserted after Article 2 in the Indian Constitution, which says Sikkim to be associated with the Union. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Council of States
• 4th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions about the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
• Article 80 of the Constitution says that the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and the two Union Territories.
• All States do not have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Article 371D
• It was added by 32nd Amendment Act, 1973.
• It was substituted by The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.
• This Article talks about Andhra Pradesh and Telangana both and not only for Andhra Pradesh. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• According to this article, President must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”.
• He may require the state government to organise “any class or classes of posts in the civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”. He has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in educational institutions.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Article 19 (2) of the Indian constitution enables the legislature to impose certain restrictions on freedom of speech under the following grounds:
• Security of the State
• Friendly relations with foreign states
• Public order
• Decency and morality
• Contempt of court
• Defamation
• Incitement to an offence
• Sovereignty and integrity of India
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Right to freedom (Article 19)
• It is a fundamental right provided in the Constitution of India.
• Article 19 guarantees to all the citizens the six rights. These are
• Right to freedom of speech and expression
• Right to assemble peacefully and without arms
• Right to form associations or unions or co-operatives societies.
• Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
• Right to practice any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The correct answer is 38th Amendment.

Key Points

• The 38^th Amendment Act of 1975
• It made the declaration of the National Emergency immune to judicial review. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44^th Amendment Act of 1978. Hence, Option
• Made the promulgation of ordinances by the president, governors and administrators of union territories nonjusticiable.
• Empowered the president to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously

Important Points

• Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
• Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years).
• Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ in respect of national emergency.
• Made the President declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
• Made certain procedural safeguards for a national emergency and President’s rule.
• Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
• Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

Additional Information

• Thirty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1975
• It was enacted in response to the ruling of the Allahabad High Court who declared the election of PM Indira Gandhi to Lok Sabha void on the petition of Raj Narain.
• Placed the disputes relating to the president, Vice President, prime minister and Speaker beyond the scope of the judiciary. They are to be decided by such authority as may be determined by the Parliament.
• Included certain Central Acts in the Ninth Schedule
• Forty Second Amendment Act, 1976
• Added three new words (i.e., socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble.
• Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
• Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
• Provision of administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters (Added Part XIV A).
• Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife.

The correct answer is Warren Hastings.

Key Points

• Regulating Act, 1773:
• This act permitted the company to retain its territorial possessions in India but sought to regulate the activities and functioning of the company.
• Through this act, for the first time, the British cabinet was given the right to exercise control over Indian affairs.
• It changed the post of Governor of Bengal to “Governor-General of Bengal”. ​ Warren Hastings was made the first Governor-General of Bengal. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The administration in Bengal was to be carried out by the governor-general and a council consisting of 4 members.
• The Governor of Bombay and Madras now worked under the Governor-General of Bengal.
• A Supreme Court of judicature was to be established in Bengal (Calcutta) along with appellate jurisdictions where all subjects could seek redressal.
• It comprised one chief justice and three other judges.
• In 1781, the Act was amended and the Governor-General, the Council and the servants of the government were exempted from the jurisdiction if they did anything while discharging their duties.

The correct answer is Monotheism and internal social reform.

Key Points

• Kherwar or Sapha Har movement
• This movement is associated with the Santhal tribal community.
• Sapha har Movement beings in 1868 led by Santhals.
• It was Initiated by Bhagrit Manjhi.
• Sapha Har Movement is also Known as Kherwar Movement.
• This movement had popularized the concept of One God as well as aimed at social reform. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Santal or Santhal
• This is a Munda ethnic group native to India and Bangladesh.
• This is the largest tribe in the Jharkhand state of India in terms of population and is also found in the states of Assam, Tripura, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and West Bengal.
• The Santhals speak Santali, the most widely spoken of the Munda languages.

The correct answer is 1870.

Key Points

• Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
• It was a socio-political organization in British India that started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants' legal rights.
• It is formed on April 2, 1870. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Mahadev Govind Ranade founded the 'Poona Sarvajanik Sabha' in 1870, to represent the Government, the aspiration of the people.
• Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi was a prominent leader of the Sabha.
  

It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons.

• The organization was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself.
• The first President of the Pune Sarvajanik Sabha was the Shrimant Shrinivasrao Pant Pratinidhi.
• Rao Bahadur Vizirungum Aya Mudliar was appointed as Chairman of the Managing Committee.
• Many eminent personalities such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Hari Deshmukh, Maharshi Annasaheb Patwardhan, etc. served as the Presidents of the organization.
• In 2016, Meera Pavagi was elected as the first woman President of the organization.

The correct answer is Korkai.

Key Points

• Pandyas
• The Pandyas ruled from Madurai.
• Korkai was their main port, located near the confluence of Thampraparani with the Bay of Bengal. It was famous for pearl fishery and chank diving. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Their emblem was the “Fish”.
• They patronized the Tamil Sangams and facilitated the compilation of the Sangam poems.
• Rulers kept a regular army.
• Trade was prosperous and their pearls were famous.
• Sati, caste, idol worship was common. Widows were treated badly.
• They adopted the Vedic religion of sacrifice and patronized Brahmin priests.
• Their power declined with the invasion of a tribe called the Kalabhras.
• After the Sangam Age, this dynasty lost its significance for more than a century, only to rise once again at the end of the 6th century.

Additional Information

• Muchiri
• It is also known as Muziris.
• The exact location of Muziris is still not known to historians and archaeologists, but it is generally thought to be at Pattanam, an archaeological site north of Cochin in Kerala, on the banks of River Periyar.
• Puhar
• The Chola king Karikala founded Puhar and constructed 160 km of the embankment along the Kaveri River.
• This was built with the labour of 12000 slaves from Sri Lanka.
• Arikamedu
• It is located in Pondicherry.
• In ancient India, it was a coastal settlement and trade centre between 2200 and 1900 years ago, where ships unloaded different types of goods from distant lands. It was excavated in the 1940s.

The correct answer is Central Afghanistan.

Key Points

• Chishti order:
• It was founded by Khwaja Abu Ishaq Shami Chishti.
• The Chishti order derives its name from the village of Chisht in Afghanistan, which is located thirty miles away from the modern city of Herat. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Chishti was home to a remarkable family that produced an unbroken line of five great Sufi masters.
• It is from this family and their systematization of ‘tasawuuf’ that the basic principles and methodology of the Chishti order were laid down.
• The Chishti order is one of the oldest and most famous of the forty major orders. Indeed, classical formulations speak of four main orders; The Qadiriyyah, the Chishtiyyah, the Naqashbandiyyah, and Suhrawardiyyah.
• Though, arising in Afghanistan and spreading into Khurasan (modern-day Iran), their major sphere of influence was India, where they wielded an immeasurable effect on the native population.
• Their emphasis on charity, social uplifting, and generosity, combined with Islam’s egalitarian nature, was one of the most important factors contributing to Muslim rule in India, which lasted over eight hundred years and oversaw some of the most brilliant and sophisticated civilizations the world has known.

The correct answer is Guru Nanak.

Key Points

• Guru Nanak Dev
• His ideas were very similar to those of Kabir’s (1469-1539).
• However, his teachings led to the emergence of a new mass religion, that of Sikhism.
• Almighty was through the recitation of hymns or shabads. Baba Guru Nanak would sing these compositions in various ragas while his attendant Mardana played the rabab.
• He set up rules for congregational worship (Sangat) involving the collective recitation of verses. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• He appointed one of his disciples, Angad, to succeed him and the practice was followed for nearly 200 years.
• It appears that Guru Nanak did not wish to establish a new religion, but after his death, his followers consolidated their practices and distinguished themselves from both Hindus and Muslims.
• The fifth preceptor, Guru Arjan, compiled Baba Guru Nanak’s hymns along with those of his four successors and other religious poets like Baba Farid, Ravidas (also known as Raidas) and Kabir in the Adi Granth Sahib.
• These hymns, called Gurbani are composed in various languages. In the late seventeenth century the tenth preceptor, Guru Gobind Singh, included the compositions of the ninth guru, Guru Tegh Bahadur, and this scripture was called the Guru Granth Sahib.
• Guru Nanak Dev Jayanti is observed to celebrate the birth of Guru Nanak Dev (1469-1539), who is the first of the 10 Sikh Gurus and the founder of Sikhism.

The correct answer is Malti at Pithoragarh.

Key Points

• Earthquakes
• It is caused due to tectonic shifts below the earth surface.
• India’s case is quite serious as the Indian subcontinental plate grinds against the Asian continental plate.
• Indian cities, particularly towards the north and closer to the Himalayas, face a bigger threat. Therefore, Malti at Pithoragarh will be at more risk with respect to the earthquake hazard zone specified by the Geological Survey of India. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The Bureau of Indian Standards has classified regions in India into four seismic zones on the basis of historical seismic activity.
• These are zones II, III, IV and V.
• Among these, Zone V is the most seismically active region and zone II is the least active.

Additional Information

• According to the Modified Mercalli scale, the seismic zone intensity are classified as zone II (low-intensity zone), zone III (moderate intensity zone), zone IV (severe intensity zone) and zone V (very severe intensity zone).
• According to the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Zone V includes entire northeastern India, parts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, parts of North Bihar and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
• Zone-IV
• It includes the remaining parts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
• Delhi-NCR region, Sikkim, northern parts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat and small portions of Maharashtra near the west coast and Rajasthan also fall in this zone.
• Zone-III
• The Regions under zone III are Goa, Kerala, Lakshadweep, remaining parts of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat and West Bengal, parts of Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu and Karnataka.
• The remaining portion of the country falls under zone II.

The correct answer is the Kutch region.

Key Points

• Drought Prone Areas of India 
• Out of the total geographical area of India, almost one-sixth area with 12% of the population is drought-prone; the areas that receive an annual rainfall up to 60 cm are the most prone.
• It is defined as one in which the probability of a drought year is greater than 20%.
• A chronic drought-prone area is one in which the probability of a drought year is greater than 40%.
• Most of the drought-prone areas are found in arid, semi-arid and sub-humid regions of the country.
• Broadly, the drought-affected areas in India can be divided into two tracts.
• The first tract comprising the desert and the semi-arid regions covers an area of 0.6 million sq km.
• It is a rectangle-shaped area whose one side extends from Ahmedabad to Kanpur and the other from Kanpur to Jullundur. In this region, rainfall is less than 750 mm and in some places, it is even less than 400 mm.
• Kutch region comes under zone-1 extreme, Therefore, if the Government wants to prepare a plan for drought-prone areas of the country. Kutch regions will be predominantly focused. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The second tract comprises the dry region lying in the lee side of the Western Ghats up to a distance of about 300 km from the coast.
• It is known as the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats; rainfall in this region is less than 750 mm and is highly erratic.
• Outside these two main regions, there are isolated pockets that experience frequent droughts and are termed drought-prone areas.
• They are Coimbatore and Nellai Kottabomman districts in Tamil Nadu, Saurashtra and Kachchh regions, Janshi, Lalitpur region, Mirzapur plateau, Kalahandi region, Odisha, Purulia district of Paschim Benga etc.

The correct answer is The person travelling to Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Blizzard
• It is cold, violent, powdery polar winds (pick dry snow from the ground).
• They are prevalent in the north and south polar regions, Canada, USA, Siberia, etc. Due to the absence of any east-west Mountain barrier, these winds reach the southern states of USA.
• Due to the snow and ice particles, the atmospheric visibility reduces almost to zero and the temperatures reduce to sub-freezing levels.
• Such Blizzards are of common occurrence in the Antarctic and here the wind velocity may even reach up to 160km/hr.
• IN HIGH And mid-latitudes, blizzards are some of the most widespread and hazardous of weather events.
• Arunachal Pradesh highest point is 7,060 meters. Therefore Arunachal Pradesh is more likely for blizzards. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Assam highest point is 1,960 meters.
• Tripura highest point is 930 meters.
• Odisha highest point is 1,672 meters.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Plantation Agriculture
• It is a type of commercial farming in which a single crop is grown for the entire year.
• The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
• Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
• The major crops grown during plantation agriculture are Tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana, or cotton.
• Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states.
• Since the production is mainly for the market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets play an important role in the development of plantations.
• Therefore, Rajasthan is not prominent for plantation agriculture. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the world. Plantations exist on every continent possessing a tropical climate.
• Rubber in Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, Tea in India, and Sri Lanka.
• It is capital intensive and demands good managerial ability, technical know-how, sophisticated machinery, fertilizers, irrigation, and transport facilities. Plantation agriculture is export-oriented agriculture.

The correct answer is Manali to Leh.

Key Points

• The all-weather Atal tunnel
• It reduced the distance between Manali and Leh by 46 km and the travel time by four to five hours. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is the longest highway tunnel in the world.
• The strategically important tunnel is 9.02 km long and it connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year.
• The valley was earlier cut off for about six months every year due to heavy snowfall.
• The tunnel is built with ultra-modern specifications in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas at an altitude of 3,000 metres (10,000 feet) from the Mean Sea Level (MSL).
• The south portal (SP) of the Atal Tunnel is located at a distance of 25 km from Manali at an altitude of 3,060 metres, while the north portal (NP) of the tunnel is located near village Teling, Sissu, in Lahaul Valley at an altitude of 3,071 metres.
• It is a horseshoe-shaped, single-tube double lane tunnel with a roadway of 8 metres and has an overhead clearance of 5.525 metres.
• The Border Road Organisation worked relentlessly to overcome major geological, terrain and weather challenges that included the most difficult stretch of the 587-metre Seri Nalah Fault Zone. The breakthrough from both ends was achieved on October 15, 2017.