CDS General Knowledge 7 Feb 2021 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Black soil.

• Black soils are derivatives of trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.
• Because of their high clay content, black soils develop wide cracks during the dry season, but their iron-rich granular structure makes them resistant to wind and water erosion.
• They are poor in humus yet highly moisture-retentive, thus responding well to irrigation.
• Those soils are also found on many peripheral tracts where the underlying basalt has been shifted from its original location by fluvial processes.
• The sifting has only led to an increased concentration of clastic contents.
• Black soil region of India:

Additional Information

 

The correct answer is Coffee.

Key Points

• There are over 100 coffee species, but the main commercial varieties are Arabica, Robusta and to a lesser extent Liberica.
• Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are three common coffee beans used globally and they vary in flavour, price, body and caffeine content.
• Coffee is cultivated in over 70 countries, with the largest producers being Brazil, Vietnam, Colombia, Indonesia and Ethiopia.

Additional Information

• In India, coffee is traditionally grown in the Western Ghats spread over Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Bauxite ore.

Key Points

• Bauxite rock is largely composed of a mixture of hydrous aluminum oxide.
• Bauxite is the main ore of aluminium.
• Bauxites vary physically according to the origin and geologic history of their deposits, with some deposits being soft, easily crushable, and structureless.

Additional Information

• Bauxite is formed by intensive weathering of many different rocks.
• Clay minerals usually represent intermediate stages, but some bauxites appear to be reworked chemical precipitates rather than simple alteration products.
• The constituent minerals are rarely identified in direct samples and even in thin sections, their complete identification can be difficult.
• It has been determined through integrated petrography, X-ray diffraction, and differential thermal analysis that gibbsite, boehmite, and diaspor are individual or mixed components in the minerals.
• Bauxite is found in most countries, but the larger deposits occur in the tropics.
• Major deposits of gravel mixed with sand were discovered in Australia in the 1950s, and it became the world’s top producer of bauxite by the early 21st century.

The correct answer is Mormugao.

Key Points

• Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is a natural harbour in Goa.
• It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan.
• Major exporters of Iron Ore saw the highest-ever exports during the financial year 2010-11 through Mormugao Port.
• Marmagao is one of the oldest ports on the west coast of India, protected by a breakwater as well as a mole constructed E of the seaward end of the breakwater.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Used for regulating consumption.

Key Points

• Money is often defined in terms of the three functions or services that it provides
• Money serves as a medium of exchange, and as a unit of account.
• The medium of exchange:  Money's most important function is as a medium of exchange to facilitate transactions.
• Without money, all transactions would have to be conducted by barter, which involves direct exchange of one good or service for another.
• Unit of account:  Money also functions as a unit of account, providing a common measure of the value of goods and services being exchanged.
• Knowing the value or price of a good, in terms of money, enables both the supplier and the purchaser of the good to make decisions about how much of the good to supply and how much of the good to purchase.
• The demand for money is affected by several factors, including the level of income, interest rates, and inflation as well as uncertainty about the future.

Additional Information

• The way in which these factors affect money demand is usually explained in terms of the three motives for demanding money the transactions, the precautionary, and the speculative motives.
• Transactions motive:
• ​ The transaction's motive for demanding money arises from the fact that most transactions involve an exchange of money. Because it is necessary to have money available for transactions, the money will be demanded.
• The total number of transactions made in an economy tends to increase over time as income rises.
• Precautionary motive:
• ​ People often demand money as a precaution against an uncertain future. Unexpected expenses, such as medical or car repair bills, often require immediate payment.
• The need to have money available in such situations is referred to as the precautionary motive for demanding money.
• Speculative motive:
• Money, like other stores of value, is an asset. The demand for an asset depends on both its rate of return and its opportunity cost.
• Typically, money holdings provide no rate of return and often depreciate in value due to inflation.
• The opportunity cost of holding money is the interest rate that can be earned by lending or investing one's money holdings.

The correct answer is the Recessionary gap.

Key Points

• A recessionary gap, or contractionary gap, is a macroeconomic term used when a country's real gross domestic product (GDP) is lower than its GDP at full employment.
• A recessionary gap, or contractionary gap, occurs when a country's real GDP is lower than its GDP at full employment.
• Recessionary gaps close when real wages return to equilibrium, and the quantity of labor demanded equals the quantity supplied.
• Policymakers may choose to implement a stabilization policy to close the recessionary gap and increase real GDP.
• Essentially, a recessionary gap refers to the difference between actual and potential production in an economy, with the actual being lower than the potential, which puts downward pressure on prices in the long run.
• These gaps are evident during an economic downturn and are associated with higher unemployment numbers.

Additional Information

• Significant reductions in economic activity for several months will indicate a recession.
• During periods of recession, companies will often pull back on spending, creating a gap from the contraction in the business cycle.
• In the period leading up to a recession, there is often a significant reduction in consumer expenditure or investment due to a decrease in the take-home pay of workers.
• When production levels fluctuate, prices change to compensate.
• This price change is considered an early indicator that an economy is moving into a recession and may lead to less favorable exchange rates for foreign currencies.

The correct answer is Fiscal deficit.

Key Points

• Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total income of the government (total taxes and non-debt capital receipts) and its total expenditure.
• A recurring high fiscal deficit means that the government has been spending beyond its means.
• The government meets the fiscal deficit by borrowing money. In a way, the total borrowing requirements of the government in a financial year are equal to the fiscal deficit in that year.
• A fiscal deficit situation occurs when the government’s expenditure exceeds its income.
• This difference is calculated both in absolute terms and also as a percentage of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the country.
• Fiscal Deficit formula:
• ​Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure of the government (capital and revenue expenditure) – Total income of the government (Revenue receipts + recovery of loans + other receipts)

Additional Information

• Constitutes the government’s total income or receipts:​
• Revenue receipts of the government:
• ​Corporation Tax.
• Income Tax.
• Custom Duties.
• Union Excise Duties.
• GST and taxes of Union territories.
• Non-tax revenues:
• ​Interest Receipts.
• Dividends and Profits.
• External Grants.
• Other non-tax revenues.
• Receipts of union territories.
• Expenditures of the government:
• ​Revenue Expenditure.
• Capital Expenditure.
• Interest Payments.
• Grants-in-aid for creation of capital assets.

The correct answer is Fixed exchange rates are rates set by Government decisions and Maintained by Government actions.

Key Points

• An exchange rate is the value of one nation's currency versus the currency of another nation or economic zone.
• Most exchange rates are free-floating and will rise or fall based on supply and demand in the market.
• Some currencies are not free-floating and have restrictions.
• Types of Exchange Rates:
• ​Free Floating - A free-floating exchange rate rises and falls due to changes in the foreign exchange market.
• Restricted Currencies - Some countries have restricted currencies, limiting their exchange to within the countries' borders.
• Currency Peg -  Sometimes a country will peg its currency to that of another nation. For instance, the Hong Kong dollar is pegged to the U.S. dollar in the range of 7.75 to 7.85.
• Onshore Vs. Offshore - Exchange rates can also be different for the same country. In some cases, there is an onshore rate and an offshore rate.
• Spot vs. Forward - Exchange rates can have what is called a spot rate, or cash value, which is the current market value.
• Quotation - Typically, an exchange rate is quoted using an acronym for the national currency it represents.

The correct answer is Prince Dara Shikoh.

Key Points

• Dara Shikoh was the eldest son and heir-apparent of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
• Dara was designated with the title Padshahzada-i-Buzurg Martaba (Prince of High Rank) and was favoured as a successor by his father and his older sister, Princess Jahanara Begum.
• Francois Bernier was a physician to Dara Shikoh.
• In his book Travels in the Mogul Empire, he mentioned the death of Dara Shikoh.
• He was executed in 1659 on Aurangzeb's orders in a bitter struggle for the imperial throne.

Additional Information

• ​Francois Bernier was a **French physician, political philosopher, traveler, and historian.**​
• Prince Murad:
• ​Murad Mirza was a Mughal prince as the second surviving son of Mughal Emperor Akbar.
• Princess Jahanara:
• ​She was the elder sister of the crown prince, Dara Shikoh, and Emperor Aurangzeb.

The correct answer is McLeod.

Key Points

• Soorajmull Jalan and Nagarmull Bajoria were related by marriage. Both were Marwari traders in Calcutta in the 1930s & owned extensive real estate.
• In the 1940s, the Soorajmull Nagarmull group moved into jute manufacturing. The family-owned agency firm Howrah Trading managed Naskarpara Jute Mill near Calcutta.
• Soorajmull Nagarmull bought jute companies under the control of McLeod and Co. McLeod owned ten jute mills, sixteen tea companies, and light railways.

Additional Information

• ​McLeod India Ltd is an Indian tea company. It is currently the world's largest tea-growing company.
• It is part of the Williamson Magor Group. It has forty-eight tea estates in the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam and five in the Dooars region of West Bengal, three factories in Vietnam, and six estates in Uganda.
• McLeod Russel produces more than 90 million kilograms of quality black tea every year which reaches millions of tea lovers worldwide.
• The tale of McLeod Russel began in 1869 when Captain J.H. Williamson and Richard Boycott Magor, two Calcutta-based Englishmen, formed a partnership firm.
• Williamson Magor & Company, to service the requirements of tea estates in Assam.

The correct answer is In principle, it strengthened the former elite, the zamindars and weakened the peasantry.

Key Points

• The Ryotwari system was one of the three principal methods of revenue collection in British India.
• It was prevalent in most of southern India, being the standard system of the Madras Presidency.
• Hence, option 1 is correct.
• The system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century.
• This was practised in the Madras and Bombay areas, as well as Assam and Coorg provinces.
• In this system, the peasants or cultivators were regarded as the owners of the land. They had ownership rights, and could sell, mortgage, or gift the land. 
• Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The rates were 50% in dryland and 60% in wetlands.
• The rates were high and unlike the permanent system, they were open to being increased.
• The principle was the direct collection of land revenue from each individual cultivator by government agents.
• The advantages of this system were the elimination of middlemen, who often oppressed villagers, and an assessment of the tax on land actually cultivated and not merely occupied.
• Here, no middlemen like zamindar and elitist groups were involved.
• Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• The tax contract was valid for 30 years. After which it needed to be restructured.
• For this purpose, all holdings were measured and assessed according to crop potential and actual cultivation.

The correct answer is Indians were never admitted to IMS.

Key Points

• The Indian Medical Service (IMS) was a military medical service in British India, which also had some civilian functions.
• A medical department was established in Bengal as far back as 1764, for rendering medical services to the troops and servants of the Company. Earlier it served only the troops. Hence, option 1 and 4 is correct.
• The first Indian natives to join the service was Soorjo Coomar Goodeve Chuckerbutty who entered the service on 24 January 1855 followed by Rajendra Chandra Chandra on 27 January 1858.
• The Medical Services of the Madras, Bengal, and Bombay Presidencies were united after 1857.
• The hospitals served both Britishers and Indians.
• Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• The services recruited health professionals by means of a competitive examination. Hence, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 1833.

• In 1833, the jealously-protected monopoly of the East India Company was finally abolished and the China trade was opened.
• China trade to the competition of dozens of British companies, who had been petitioning the government and lobbying members of Parliament for free trade for years.
• After the end of the monopoly of the East India Company, it became evident that opium traffic had turned into the sole profitable business for some British companies in southern China.
• In 1830, opium flooded the entire black market in China and, inevitably, became a major cause of concern for the Chinese Government.

Additional Information

• The East India Company founder is John Watts, founded 31 December 1600. Headquarters are in London, United Kingdom.
• East India Company, also called English East India Company, formally Governor and Company of Merchants of London Trading into the East Indies or  United Company of Merchants of England Trading to the East Indies.
• English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India, incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600.
• Starting as a monopolistic trading body, the company became involved in politics and acted as an agent of British imperialism in India from the early 18th century to the mid-19th century.
• In addition, the activities of the company in China in the 19th century served as a catalyst for the expansion of British influence there.
• In the mid-18th century, the cotton-goods trade declined, while tea became an important import from China.
• Beginning in the early 19th century, the company financed the tea trade with illegal opium exports to China.

The correct answer is the Prime Minister.

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister of India, is the apex body for Disaster Management in India.
• Setting up of NDMA and the creation of an enabling environment for institutional mechanisms at the State and District levels is mandated by the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• NDMA is mandated to lay down the policies, plans, and guidelines for Disaster Management.
• India envisions the development of an ethos of Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, and Response.
• The Indian government strives to promote a national resolve to mitigate the damage and destruction caused by natural and man-made disasters.
• Through sustained and collective efforts of all Government agencies, Non-Governmental Organizations, and People’s participation.
• This is planned to be accomplished by adopting a Technology-Driven, Pro-Active, Multi-Hazard, and Multi-Sectoral strategy for building a Safer, disaster-resilient, and dynamic India.
• NDMA has 5 major divisions viz. Policy & Plans, Mitigation , Operations & Communications & Information & Technology , Administration and Finance.

 

Additional Information

• NDMA functions and Responsibilities:
• ​Lay down policies on disaster management.
• Approve the National Plan.
• Approve plans prepared by the Ministries or Departments of the Government of India in accordance with the National Plan.
• Lay down guidelines to be followed by the State Authorities in drawing up the State Plan.
• Coordinate the enforcement and implementation of the policy and plans for disaster management.
• Recommend provision of funds for the purpose of mitigation.
• Lay down broad policies and guidelines for the functioning of the National Institute of Disaster Management.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Resolutions, Motions and Bills(Legislations) in the Parliament of India are passed by procedure of voting.
• Casting vote is the vote exercised by the speaker of lok sabha or the Chairman of the Rajyasabha.
• Generally by voice votes where speaker of the house of Chairman of the house as the case may be will listen to a number of Ayes meaning yes and Noes meaning no and decides according to majority votes.
• If a member is not happy with a voice vote, it can be challenged and a division can be asked for.
• The procedure for division entails the Speaker to announce for the lobbies of Parliament to be cleared.
• Then the division bell rings continuously for three and a half minutes and so do many connected bells all through Parliament House and Parliament House Annexe.
• MPs come from all sides into the chamber and the doors are closed. The votes are recorded by the Automatic Vote Recording Equipment.

Additional Information

• In an extraordinary case where the votes are tied for example, if 100 members are voting and there are 50Ayes and 50Noes.
• Speaker or the Chairman gets the chance to Vote, and this deciding vote is called Casting Vote.

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India codifies the fundamental rights- the basic human rights of its citizens which are defined in Part III of the Constitution.
• One such right is the right to equality which is protected under articles 14 to 18. Article 14 is the most significant of the lot.
• The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• This means that every person, who lives within territory of India, has the equal right before the law. That equals will be treated equally.
• This article constitutes of 2 parts:
• ​Equality before law and.
• Equal protection of the laws.
• The article14 two tests of classification are as follows:
• ​Ineligible Differentia: The classification must be founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes those that are grouped together from other. Arbitrariness is an anti-thesis to the right to equality.
• Rational Relation: That differentia must have a rational relation to the object sought to be achieved by the Act. It is necessary is that there must be nexus between the basis of classification and the object of the act which makes the classification.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is John Austin.

Key Points

• Austin's goal was to transform law into a true science. Law, according to Austin, is a social fact and reflects relations of power and obedience.
• The positivist thesis does not say that law’s merits are unintelligible, unimportant, or peripheral to the philosophy of law.
• It says that they do not determine whether laws or legal systems exist.
• Positivism is from the Latin root positus, which means to posit, postulate, or firmly affix the existence of something.
• Legal positivism is the legal philosophy that argues that any and all laws are nothing more and nothing less than simply the expression of the will of whatever authority created them.
• The positivists do not say that the law’s merits are unintelligible, unimportant, or peripheral to the philosophy of law.
• There are many versions or interpretations of legal positivism. But perhaps, the most popular version or interpretation would be that of the Separation Thesis.

Additional Information

• According to Hart, a contemporary legal positivist, separation thesis is the essence of legal positivism.
• The main point or essence of this thesis is that the law and morality are conceptually distinct.
• In order to know what your moral rights are, you need to figure out what is true morality.
• It is possible for a person to have legal rights that true morality says he should not have.
• Society might also deny a person’s legal rights that true morality dictates one must-have.

​

The correct answer is John Locke.

• John Locke was a British philosopher, Oxford academic, and medical researcher.
• Between 1652 and 1667, John Locke was a student and then a lecturer at Christ Church, Oxford, where he focused on the standard curriculum of logic, metaphysics and classics.
• He also studied medicine extensively and was an associate of Robert Hooke, Robert Boyle, and other leading Oxford scientists.
• In 1666 Locke met the parliamentarian, Anthony Ashley Cooper, later the first Earl of Shaftesbury.
• The two struck up a friendship that blossomed into full patronage, and a year later Locke was appointed physician to Shaftesbury’s household.
• Locke’s fortunes were tied to Shaftesbury, who was first a leading minister to Charles II and then a founder of the opposing Whig Party.
• When that failed, Shaftesbury began to plot armed resistance and was forced to flee to Holland in 1682.

Additional Information

The correct answer is shifting cultivation.

Key Points

• Shifting cultivation is a form of agricultural practice or a cultivation system.
• In which an area of ground is cleared of vegetation and cultivated for a few years and then abandoned for a new area until its fertility has been naturally restored.
• It is practised by tribal and is also known as Burn and Slash cultivation.
• It is known as Jhoom in Assam, Onam in Kerala, Podu in Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha. The same is known as Bewar in Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Shifting Cultivation:
• ​Use of fire for clearing the land.
• Rotation of fields.
• Use of human labour as the main input.
• Keeping the land fallow for regeneration for a number of years.
• Non-employment of draught animals.
• Non-use of the plough, but instead very crude and simple implements such as dibble sticks and scrapers, are used.
• All the crops being grown are mixed together.
• In most parts of Northeast India, it is found that hunting and gathering is an important subsidiary occupation of the shifting cultivators.

 

The correct answer is the basic needs approach.

• The ILO report for the 1976 World Employment Conference defined basic needs in terms of food, clothing, housing, education, and public transportation.
• The ILO was founded in October 1919. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The current Director-General of ILO as of March 2021 is Guy Ryder.
• Employment was both a means and an end, and participation in decision-making was also included.
• This approach reversed conventional practice, which was to project a desirable annual rate of per capita economic growth into the future.
• The latter was a forward rolling approach while the basic needs approach achieved more precision by setting specific production targets and deriving the desirable rate of economic growth implied.
• The basic needs development strategy was also more practical than conventional strategies.

Additional Information

• Income approach:
• ​This is one of the oldest approaches to human development.
• Human development is seen as being linked to income.
• The higher the level of income the higher is the level of human development.
• Welfare approach:
• ​This approach look at the human being as beneficiaries or development activities.
• The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, and amenities.
• The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.
• Capability approach:
• ​This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen.
• Building human capabilities in the area of health, education, and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

The correct answer is Iodine.

• Iodine is a chemical element. The body needs iodine but cannot make it.
• The iodine needed by the body must come from the diet. As a rule, there is very little iodine in food, unless it has been added during processing.
• Processed food typically contains more iodine due to the addition of iodized salt.
• Symbol: I
• Atomic mass: 126.90447 u
• Atomic number: 53
• Electron configuration: [Kr] 4d105s25p5
• Electronegativity: 2.66
• Van der Waals radius: 198 pm
• Uses of iodine:
• ​Promoting thyroid health.
• Reducing risk for some goiters.
• Managing overactive thyroid gland.
• Treating thyroid cancer.
• Neurodevelopment during pregnancy.

Additional Information

• Silicon:

• Germanium:

• Carbon:

The correct answer is Au.

Key Points

• ​Gold is element 79 and its symbol is Au.
• The name is Anglo Saxon, gold originated from the Latin Aurum, or shining dawn, and previously from the Greek.
• It's abundance in the earth's crust is 0.004 ppm. 100% of gold found naturally is isotope Au-197.
• Gold is the most malleable of all metals. It can be drawn into a wire of single-atom width, and then stretched considerably before it breaks.
• Gold has only one stable isotope, 197 Au, which is also its only naturally occurring isotope, so gold is both a mononuclidic and monoisotopic element.

Additional Information

The correct answer is All the wires would have the same resistivity.

CONCEPT:

Resistivity (ρ):

• The property of a conductor that opposes the flow of electric current through them and is independent of the shape and size of the materials but depends on the nature and temperature of the materials is called resistivity.
• The unit for resistivity is the ohm-meter (Ω-m).
• The resistivity of a material depends on its nature and the temperature of the conductor.
• The resistivity of a material doesn't depend on its shape and size (length and area).

Resistance:

• The property of any conductor that opposes the flow of electric current through it and depends on the shape and size of the materials, temperature, and nature of the materials is called resistance.
• It is denoted by R and the SI unit is the ohm (Ω).
• The resistance is given by:

R = ρL/A

Where ρ is resistivity, L is the length and A is the area of the cross-section. 

EXPLANATION:

• The resistivity of the material will not change (remain the same, ρ) as it is independent of the length or cross-section of the wire.
• So, All the wires would have the same resistivity.

EXTRA POINTS:

• The resistivity of copper is generally given as  1.72 x 10-8 Ωm.

Difference between resistivity and resistance:

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• Fission, in biology, is the division of a single entity into two or more parts and the regeneration of those parts to separate entities resembling the original. The object experiencing fission is usually a cell,
• Fission, in physics, is defined as the splitting of a nucleus into two daughter nuclei.
• The amount of energy produced is huge.
• Uranium is the primary fuel that is used in power plants.
• When the nucleus of an atom splits into lighter nuclei through a nuclear reaction the process is termed nuclear fission.
• The discovery of nuclear fission began with the discovery of the neutron in 1932 by James Chadwick in England.
• Nuclear fission of heavy elements was discovered in 1938 by German Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann.
• It was explained theoretically in 1939 by Lise Meitner and Otto Robert Frisch.
• In the fission process, radioactive products are formed, and several neutrons are emitted.
• These neutrons can induce fission in a nearby nucleus of fissionable material and release more neutrons causing a chain reaction.

Additional Information

• Nuclear reactor: 
• ​A nuclear reactor is a system that contains and controls sustained nuclear chain reactions.

The correct answer is the Human body.

• The human body is merely one large machine full of circuitry and electricity.
• Practically 70% of the body is made up of water, it is considered to be a good conductor of electricity on average.
• As our body cells contain various ions like sodium ion, potassium ion, chloride ion, etc which have the tendency to conduct electricity and this makes our body a good conductor of electricity.
• Electric shock is defined as a sudden violent response to electric current flow through any part of a person's body.
• Primary electrical injury is tissue damage produced directly by electrical current or voltage. Secondary injuries, such as falls, are common.

The correct answer is Spherical mirror.

Key Points

• A shining spoon has curved reflecting surfaces and can generally be considered a spherical mirror.
• The inner (concave) surface of the spoon behaves like a concave mirror, while the outer (convex) surface behaves like a convex mirror.
• Both concave and convex mirrors are types of spherical mirrors because their reflecting surfaces are parts of a sphere.
• The image formed depends on which side of the spoon is used:
• The concave side can produce real or virtual images depending on the object's position.
• The convex side always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image.

​

• Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 – Spherical mirror.

Additional Information

• Spherical Mirrors: These mirrors have a reflecting surface that forms part of a sphere. They are of two types:
• Concave Mirror: Reflecting surface curves inward. It can produce real or virtual images depending on the object's position.
• Convex Mirror: Reflecting surface bulges outward. It always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image.
• Plane Mirror: It has a flat reflecting surface and always forms a virtual, erect, and same-sized image.
• Parabolic Mirror: It has a parabolic reflecting surface and is mainly used in telescopes, satellite dishes, vehicle headlights, and solar cookers to focus parallel rays.
• Lens: A lens is a transparent optical device that refracts light instead of reflecting it; therefore, a spoon cannot be considered a lens.

Important Points

• Inner surface of a spoon: Acts as a concave mirror.
• Outer surface of a spoon: Acts as a convex mirror.
• Both surfaces together: Since both are parts of a sphere, a shining spoon is generally considered a spherical mirror.
• Common Uses:
• Concave mirrors are used in shaving mirrors, dentists' mirrors, and reflectors of torches and vehicle headlights.
• Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles because they provide a wider field of view.

The correct answer is James P. Joule.

• James Prescott Joule English physicist who established that the various forms of energy mechanical, electrical, and heat are basically the same and can be changed from one into another.
• In 1840 that the amount of heat per second that develops in a wire carrying a current is proportional to the electrical resistance of the wire and the square of the current.
• He determined that the heat evolved per second is equivalent to the electric power absorbed, or the power loss.
• A quantitative form of Joule’s law is that the heat evolved per second, or the electric power loss, P, equals the current I squared times the resistance R or P = I²R.
• The power P has units of watts, or joules per second when the current is expressed in amperes and the resistance in ohms.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction.

Key Points

• Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, also known as Faraday’s law is the basic law of electromagnetism.
• which helps us to predict how a magnetic field would interact with an electric circuit to produce an electromotive force (EMF). This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction.
• The law was proposed in the year 1831 by an experimental physicist and chemist named Michael Faraday.
• Faraday’s Laws of Electromagnetic Induction consists of two laws.
• The first law describes the induction of emf in a conductor.
• The second law quantifies the emf produced in the conductor.

Additional Information

The correct answer is A virus does not use biochemical pathways ​​which can be blocked by an antibiotic. But a vaccine can boost an immune system to fight the virus.

• Viruses are different from bacteria they have a different structure and a different way of surviving.
• The viruses don't have cell walls that can be attacked by antibiotics instead they are surrounded by a protective protein coat.
• Vaccines can help limit the spread of antibiotic resistance.
• The global increase in disease caused by drug-resistant bacteria, due to overuse and misuse of antibiotics, is a major public health concern.
• It is more difficult and costly to treat antibiotic-resistant infections and people do not always recover.

Additional Information

• FACTORS INFLUENCING VACCINE RESPONSES:
• ​Age is an important factor that influences vaccine responses, especially in the extreme ages of life.
• Infants should receive immunizations as early as possible to minimize the time that they are susceptible to infections.
• However, neonates have a lower level of antibody production and, moreover, passively acquired maternal antibodies interfere with vaccine responses.
• Perinatal Host Factors:
• ​Gestational age.
• Birth weight.
• Breastfeeding.
• Maternal antibodies.
• Maternal infections during pregnancy.
• Other maternal factors.

The correct answer is  Trypanosoma.

• The sleeping sickness is caused by microscopic parasites of the species Trypanosoma brucei.
• It is transmitted by the tsetse fly (Glossina species), which is found only in sub-Saharan Africa.
• Trypanosoma, any member of a genus (Trypanosoma) of parasitic zooflagellate protozoans belonging to the order Kinetoplastida.
• The adult trypanosomes are mainly blood parasites of vertebrates, especially fishes, birds, and mammals.
• Most species require an intermediate host (often an insect or a leech) to complete their life cycle.
• The other species of trypanosomes induce economically important diseases of livestock nagana, surra, mal de caderas, and dourine.

The correct answer is Planaria.

• Planarian (class Turbellaria) any of a group of widely distributed, mostly free-living flatworms of the class Turbellaria.
• Planaria is the name of one genus, but the name planarian is used to designate any member of the family Planariidae and related families.
• Most planarians occur in fresh water and are sometimes seen in large masses some species are marine, others are terrestrial.
• Some species are parasitic they obtain nourishment from the body of another living animal.
• The planarian body, when elongated, is soft, leaf-shaped, and ciliated.
• The spade-shaped head has two eyes and sometimes tentacles.

 

Additional Information

The correct answer is Cylindrical, Branched, and Uninucleate.

• Cardiac muscle, also called myocardium, invertebrates, one of three major muscle types, found only in the heart.
• Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle, another major muscle type, in that it possesses contractile units known as sarcomeres this feature, however, also distinguishes it from smooth muscle, the third muscle type.
• Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that it exhibits rhythmic contractions and is not under voluntary control.
• The rhythmic contraction of cardiac muscle is regulated by the sinoatrial node of the heart, which serves as the heart’s pacemaker.

Additional Information

• Cardiac Muscle:
• ​The heart is the pump that keeps blood circulating throughout the body and thereby transports nutrients, breakdown products, antibodies, hormones, and gases to and from the tissues.
• The heart is a network of highly branched cardiac cells 110 μm in length and 15 μm in width, which are connected end to end by intercalated disks.

The correct answer is Oxalic acid.

Key Points

• Oxalic acid is the main acid present in tomatoes.
• Tomato contains more than 10 types of acids such as citric acid, malic acid, ascorbic acid, and oxalic acid.
• Tomato contains different types of acids, but two accounts for a large percentage of the total citric acid and malic acid.
• Tomato also contains another essential acid, ascorbic acid, which is Vitamin C.
• Above all three acids have a role in protecting your health and sustaining energy.

Additional Information

• Oxalic acid is an organic compound with the formula C₂H₂O₄.
• It is a white crystalline solid that forms a colourless solution in water.
• Its condensed formula is HOOCCOOH, reflecting its classification as the simplest dicarboxylic acid.
• Its acid strength is much greater than that of acetic acid.

The correct answer is Sodium hydrogen carbonate.

• Soda-acid fire extinguishers comprise sodium bicarbonate and sulphuric acid.
• It consists of a strong iron vessel with a side discharge nozzle. The iron vessel is filled with a sodium bicarbonate solution.
• Working principle of any fire extinguisher:
• ​Cooling of the combustible material below its ignition temperature.
• Cutting off the air supply.
• Cooling the combustible material simultaneously while cutting off the air supply.

Additional Information

• Reaction: 
• ​The sulphuric acid is combined with sodium bicarbonate solution and creates an amount of carbon dioxide gas when the fire extinguisher is operated by turning the knob on it.
• There is a solution of sodium bicarbonate in water in the fire extinguisher and sulphuric acid in a different bottle within it.
• Carbon dioxide gas is not combustible, nor does it endorse combustion.
• It is heavier than air and cuts off the air’s supply of oxygen, thus extinguishing the flames.
• The following reaction takes place 2NaHCO₃ + H₂SO₄→Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂​O+2CO₂.

The correct answer is Na2CO3.

Key Points

• The sodium compound is used for softening hard water. Washing soda or sodium carbonate is used for removing the permanent hardness of the water.

• Washing soda has a chemical formula Na₂CO₃.10H2O.

• It binds calcium and magnesium molecules in water.

• Water can be softened by adding sodium carbonate (washing soda) or bypassing the water through an ion-exchange column.

• For large-scale municipal operations, a process known as the lime-soda process is used to remove Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ from the water supply.

 

Additional Information

The correct answer is A - CO2; B - CaCO3.

• A combination reaction is a reaction where two or more elements or compounds combine to form a single compound.

• Calcium oxide combines with water to form calcium hydroxide. Hence, it is a combination reaction.

• It is an exothermic reaction as a lot of heat liberate with hissing sound during the reaction.

• Quicklime is used for whitewashing because when quick lime reacts with water, it forms calcium hydroxide.

• which absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and thus form calcium carbonate which forms a hard coating on walls.

• When quick lime reacts with water it forms slaked lime or calcium hydroxide.

CONCEPT:

• Dispersion of light: The phenomenon in which a white light ray when falls on a prism get separated into its component colors is called dispersion of light.

• Primary rainbow: Primary rainbow is the result of One Total internal reflection and two refractions from the suspended raindrop.

• Violet color forms on the inner edge and red color on the outer edge. Angles subtended with the direction of the sun are 42˚ (red) and 40˚ (violet) above the horizon.

• The primary rainbow is a result of a three-step process, that is, refraction, reflection, and refraction.

• Secondary Rainbow: Secondary rainbow is the result of two total internal reflections (TIRs) and two refractions from the suspended raindrop.

• In this rainbow red color appears on the inner edge while violet color appears on the outer edge which is reverse of that of the primary rainbow.

• This is because of additional reflection which causes a 180˚ phase shift.

EXPLANATION:

• From the above, it is clear that there is 1 internal reflection of light that is taking place in the formation of the primary rainbow. Hence, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is direction perpendicular to the velocity.

Key Points

• ​The direction of the acceleration is inwards. The acceleration in a uniform circular motion is along the radius and towards the center.
• The movement of a body following a circular path is called a circular motion.
• The motion of a body moving with constant speed along a circular path is called Uniform Circular Motion.
• In this motion speed is constant but the velocity changes.
• In the case of uniform circular motion, the acceleration is a_r = v²/r = ω²r.
• A particle is moving in a uniform circular motion:
• ​Velocity is changing at every instant.
• There is no tangential acceleration.
• Its speed is constant.

Additional Information

• Examples for Circular Motion:
• ​The motion of blades of the windmills.
• The tip of the second hand of a watch with a circular dial shows uniform circular motion.
• The motion of electrons around its nucleus.

The correct answer is ​the force that it exerts on the ground.

• In science and engineering, the weight of an object is the force acting on the object due to gravity.
• Weight as a vector quantity, the gravitational force acting on the object.
• Weight, gravitational force of attraction on an object, caused by the presence of a massive second object, such as the Earth or Moon.
• Weight is a consequence of the universal law of gravitation:
• ​ Any two objects, because of their masses, attract each other with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• The weight of an object at the Earth’s South Pole is slightly more than its weight at the Equator because of the polar radius of the Earth.
• The smaller mass and radius of the Moon compared with those of the Earth combine to make the same object on the Moon’s surface weigh one-sixth the value of its weight on Earth.
• All the mass in the universe and each point of space has a property called the gravitational field at that point, numerically equal to the acceleration of gravity at that point.

The correct answer is 1 - 100 nm.

Key Points

• ​Nanoparticle, ultrafine unit with dimensions measured in nanometres (nm; 1 nm = 10−9 meter).
• Nanoparticles exist in the natural world and are also created as a result of human activities.
• The nanoparticle of their submicroscopic size has unique material characteristics.
• Manufactured nanoparticles may find practical applications in various areas, including medicine, engineering, catalysis, and environmental remediation.
• Nanoparticles can be classified into various types, according to their size, shape, and material properties.

Additional Information

• Properties of Nanoparticles:
• ​In 2008 the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defined a nanoparticle as a discrete nano-object where all three Cartesian dimensions are less than 100 nm.
• Nano-object needs only one of its characteristic dimensions to be in the range 1–100 nm to be classed as a nanoparticle, even if its other dimensions are.
• Size range from 1 to 100 nm overlaps considerably with that previously assigned to the field of colloid science from 1 to 1,000 nm which is sometimes alternatively called the mesoscale.

The correct answer is It is a multi-barrel rocket system.

Key Points

• Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation for the Indian Army.
• The system has a maximum range of 40 km for Mark-I and 75 km for Mark-II and can fire a salvo of 12 HE rockets in 44 seconds.

Additional Information

• The Indian Army has successfully completed user-assisted trials of Pinaka II, a multi-barrel rocket launcher (MBRL) system, at the Pokhran field firing range in Rajasthan, India.
• The trials are conducted by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune, a Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) laboratory.
• The system features six launcher vehicles with 12 rockets each.

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

• Quad comprises Japan, India, Australia, and the United States.
• It is not an alliance but a grouping of countries that are interested in strengthening a rules-based order in the Indo-Pacific region.

Additional Information

• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (abbr. QSD, also known as the Quad or Asian NATO) is an informal strategic forum between the United States, Japan, Australia, and India that is maintained by semi-regular summits, information exchanges, and military drills between member countries.
• The idea for the QUAD Group is attributed to former Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe who mooted it in 2007.
• However, its origins can be traced back to the 2004 Tsunami when India conducted relief and rescue operations for itself and neighboring countries and was joined by Japan, the US, and Australia.
• The move was paralleled by the joint military exercise ‘Malabar’ which was held at an unprecedented scale involving India, Japan, Australia, Singapore, and the US.
• It was in 2017, however, that the first official talks under the QUAD took place, in Manila, the Philippines.

The correct answer is Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

• The first phase of the Malabar exercise among the navies of India, the US, Japan, and Australia will kick start off Visakhapatnam in the Bay of Bengal in a reflection of growing congruence in strategic interests of the four nations.

 

• The exercise is taking place at a time India and China are locked in a nearly six-month-long bitter border standoff in eastern Ladakh that has significantly strained their ties.
• The Malabar exercise started in 1992 as a bilateral drill between the Indian Navy and the US Navy in the Indian Ocean.
• Japan became a permanent member of the exercise in 2015.

The correct answer is James Bond.

Key Points

• Academy Award-winning Scottish actor Sean Connery was best known for playing 007 in the early James Bond spy movies.
• He has also starred in films like 'Robin and Marian,' 'The Name of the Rose,' 'The Untouchables,' 'The Hunt for Red October' and 'Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade.

Additional Information

• Connery was the only actor who came back as Bond after being replaced twice.
• The first time, he quit after the fifth film, 'You Only Live Twice' (1967).
• He was 90-years-old.
• Connery appeared in seven Bond films from 1962 to 1983, tying Roger Moore (who died in 2017) for the most appearances as the renowned secret agent.

The correct answer is Satluj.

Key Points

• The project will be on the river Satluj.
• The project is being implemented by Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd (SJVNL) on Build-Own-Operate-Maintain (BOOM) basis with active support from the government of India and the state government.

Additional Information

• The MoU of this project was signed with the Govt. of Himachal Pradesh during Rising Himachal, Global Investor Meet, which was inaugurated by Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi on 7th November 2019.
• The government of India is also supporting this project by providing grants of Rs. 66.19 crore for enabling infrastructure which has helped in reducing in power tariff.
• The Luhri Stage-I Hydro Electric Project shall be commissioned within a span of 62 months.
• The power generated from the Project will help in providing Grid stability and will improve the power supply position.
• Besides adding valuable renewable energy to the Grid, the project would also lead to a reduction of 6.1 lakh Tons of carbon dioxide from the environment annually, thus contributing to an improvement in air quality.

The correct answer is the USA.

Key Points

• On November 4, 2020, Bangladesh and the United States held a joint Naval Exercise CARAT.
• CARAT is Cooperation Afloat Readiness and Training.
• The exercise was held at Chittagong.

Additional Information

• The CARAT exercises involve people-to-people interactions and a variety of professional exchanges.
• The events are designed to enhance interoperability between the two navies.
• US and Bangladesh will work through coordinated deployment of surface ships, including tactical maneuvers among other activities.
• These took place online last year in 2020 due to the COVID 19 pandemic.
• CARAT 2020 underscores the shared vision of the US and Bangladesh for a free, open, inclusive, peaceful, and secure Indo-Pacific region.

The correct answer is Gulf Cooperation Council.

Key Points

• It forms the most reactive and potent alliance of Sunni Arab countries and exerts its political consensus.
• It also provides the structural framework for consensus-building and mediation, but its military organ, the Peninsula Shield Force, is and remains to be a rudimentary and feeble mechanism for defense purposes.

Additional Information

• The Peninsula Shield Force is a collective military mechanism that bears no effect on regional or international affairs.
• This fundamental weakness in the Gulf Cooperation Council has been a major impediment to overcoming Middle Eastern challenges.
• The Peninsula Shield Force collectively remained a zero factor in world affairs, which was the result of the Gulf Cooperation Council focusing on political and economic affairs. International defense and security were not a priority for the member countries.

The correct answer is INS Airavat.

Key Points

• The Indian Naval Ship (INS) 'Airavat' reached the port of Mombasa, Kenya with food supplies as a part of its ongoing humanitarian operation Mission Sagar.

Additional Information

• In continuation of the ongoing humanitarian mission ‘Sagar-II’, INS Airavat arrived at Port Djibouti on 10 November 2020.
• It is in line with the 'Mission Sagar' undertaken in May-June 2020.
• On 2 November 2020, Indian Naval Ship Airavat entered Port Sudan as part of 'Mission Sagar-II', carrying a consignment of 100 tonnes of food aid for the people of Sudan.
• The Government of India is providing assistance to friendly foreign countries to overcome natural calamities and COVID-19 pandemic.

The correct answer is Panna Tiger Reserve.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh’s Panna National Park has been declared a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve.

Additional Information

• UNESCO’s recognition cited PTR as a critical tiger habitat.
• Every year UNESCO appoints new biosphere reserves and removes others to promote the conservation of biodiversity, resolve the man-animal conflict at that site and allow sustainable use of natural resources.
• The idea of the biosphere reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1974 under the MAB with the objective of obtaining international cooperation for the conservation of the biospheres.
• MAB combines the natural and social sciences, economics and education to improve human livelihoods and the equitable sharing of benefits, and to safeguard natural and managed ecosystems, thus promoting innovative approaches to economic development that are socially and culturally appropriate, and environmentally sustainable.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• This project is unique because Telangana will harness water at the confluence of two rivers with the Godavari by constructing a barrage at Medigadda in the Jayashankar Bhupalpally district.

Additional Information

• The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Scheme of Telangana is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana.
• The project starts at the confluence point of Pranahita River and Godavari River.
• Originally called the Pranahita-Chevella project in erstwhile Andhra Pradesh, it was redesigned, extended, and renamed as Kaleshwaram project in Telangana in 2014.
• It will also help to restore the groundwater level to its original state by the way of shifting from the usage of groundwater for irrigation to the usage of surface water.
• The project will also support Mission Kakatiya and Mission Bhagiratha schemes designed to provide drinking water to many villages and improve the capacities of tanks.

The correct answer is Humans.

Key Points

• Cell walls are present in most prokaryotes (except mollicute bacteria), in algae, fungi, and eukaryotes including plants but are absent in animals.

Additional Information

Plant cells have a cell wall, chloroplasts and other specialized plastids, and a large central vacuole, whereas animal cells do not.

• All cells have a cell membrane, but not all cells have a cell wall.
• Cell walls are very rigid, which makes the cell harder to move.
• They can be made up of a variety of substances, so cell walls in plant cells are different from those found in bacterial cells.
• A cell wall is a fairly rigid layer surrounding a cell located outside of the plasma membrane that provides additional support and protection.

The correct answer is self-pollination.

Key Points

• Self-pollination occurs when the pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma on the same flower, from another flower on the same plant, or from a flower on another plant of the same cultivar.
• Self-pollinated plants are said to be self-fruitful.
• Hence, by this process, it can be verified that the plant was the progeny of both the tall parents or one tall and one short parent plant.

Additional Information

• Cross-pollination, also called heterogamy, type of pollination in which sperm-laden pollen grains are transferred from the cones or flowers of one plant to egg-bearing cones or flowers of another.
• Cross-pollination is defined as:-
• The deposition of pollen grains from a flower to the stigma of another flower.
• Commonly, the process is done by insects and wind.

The correct answer is Cytokinin.

• Cytokinins (CK) are a class of plant growth substances (phytohormones) that promote cell division, or cytokinesis, in plant roots and shoots.
• They are involved primarily in cell growth and differentiation, but also affect apical dominance, axillary bud growth, and leaf senescence.

Additional Information

• Gibberellins (GAs) are plant hormones that regulate various developmental processes, including stem elongation, germination, dormancy, flowering, flower development, and leaf and fruit senescence.
• GAs are one of the longest-known classes of plant hormones.
• Abscisic acid is a sesquiterpene, which has important roles in seed development and maturation, in the synthesis of proteins and compatible osmolytes, which enable plants to tolerate stresses due to environmental or biotic factors, and as a general inhibitor of growth and metabolic activities.
• Auxin is a key regulator of plant growth and development, orchestrating cell division, elongation and differentiation, embryonic development, root, and stem tropisms, apical dominance, and transition to flowering.

The correct answer is Mitochondria and Plastids.

Key Points

• Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own DNA and ribosomes.
• Both plant cells and animal cells possess mitochondria. It has its own DNA and plays a met role in the synthesis of enzymes and the production of energy.
• Mitochondria are membrane-bound cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular) that generate most of the chemical energy needed to power the cell's biochemical reactions.
• Chemical energy produced by the mitochondria is stored in a small molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
• Chloroplasts are plant cell organelles that convert light energy into relatively stable chemical energy via the photosynthetic process.
• By doing so, they sustain life on Earth. Chloroplasts are plant cell organelles that convert light energy into relatively stable chemical energy via the photosynthetic process.

The correct answer is higher concentration to its lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.

Key Points

• “Osmosis is a process by which the molecules of a solvent pass from a solution of high concentration (lower concentrate solution contain less amount of solute and plenty of solvent) to a solution of low concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.”
• A solution of high concentration has a low concentration of water and a solution of low concentration has a high concentration of water.
• Hence water flows from its higher concentration solution to the lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
• Osmosis is the term used to refer specifically to the diffusion of water across a differentially- or selectively permeable membrane.
• Osmosis occurs spontaneously in response to a driving force. The net direction and rate of osmosis depend on both the pressure gradient and concentration gradient.
• Water will move from its region of lower chemical potential (or concentration) to its region of higher chemical potential until equilibrium is reached.
• At equilibrium, the two chambers should have nearly the same water potential.

The correct answer is inter-cropping.

Key Points

• Intercropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in definite pattern but they are not mixed with each other.
• They are grown inset pattern.
• They are grown in alternating rows.
• This pattern prevents pests and diseases to spread in all the plants of one crop in the field.

Additional Information

• Mixed cropping is the practice of cultivating more than one crop, which is the growing of two or more crops simultaneously in the same field.
• For example, wheat + gram, wheat + mustard, etc. crops are selected such that their nutrient requirements are different.
• In agriculture and gardening, hybrid seed is produced by cross-pollinated plants.
• Hybrids are chosen to improve the characteristics of the resulting plants, such as better yield, greater uniformity, improved color, disease resistance.
• An important factor is the heterosis or combining ability of the parent plants.

The correct answer is NO₂.

Key Points

• Lead nitrate on heating decomposes to lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.
• 2Pb(NO₃)₂ = 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂.
• NO₂ is liberated, along with oxygen, as a reddish-brown gas.

Important Points

• It decomposes to produce light yellow solid lead monoxide, reddish-brown nitrogen dioxide gas, and colorless oxygen gas.
• It is a thermal decomposition reaction.
• It has an irritating odour.

The correct answer is Sulphur.

Key Points

• The silver article turns black when kept in the air because silver article reacts with sulphur compounds such as hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) present in the air.
• The phenomenon is called corrosion.
• For silver particularly, it is called tarnishing of silver.

Important Points

• Silver reacts readily with sulfur or hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) to produce silver sulfide (Ag₂S), a dark-colored compound familiar as the tarnish on silver coins and other objects.
• Silver sulfide also forms silver whiskers when silver electrical contacts are used in an atmosphere rich in hydrogen sulfide.
• Silver is found generally in lead ores, copper ores, and cobalt arsenide ores and is also frequently associated with gold in nature.
• Most silver is derived as a by-product from ores that are mined and processed to obtain these other metals.

The correct answer is Sodium.

Key Points

• Sodium is a highly reactive metal and reacts vigorously with the oxygen, carbon dioxide, and moisture present in the air such that it may even cause a fire.
• To prevent this explosive reaction, Sodium is kept immersed in kerosene because Sodium doesn't react with kerosene.

Additional Information

• If it is kept in the open air, it easily reacts with the oxygen and catches fire. Since kerosene is a mixture of hydrocarbons, it won’t react with it.
• It is a soft metal, reactive, and with a low melting point, with a relative density of 0.97 at 20ºC (68ºF).
• From the commercial point of view, sodium is the most important of all alkaline metals.
• It reacts quickly with water, and also with snow and ice, to produce sodium hydroxide and hydrogen.

The correct answer is 10%.

Concept:

• A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
• Lemonade, soda water, etc. are all examples of solutions.
• A solution consists of solvent and solute.
• The solute is the substance that gets dissolved and the solution dissolves the solute.
• The concentration of the solute can be calculated using these methods.
• Mass by Mass percent

<br>

$\frac{mass \ of \ solute}{mass \ of \ solution} \times 100$%

• Mass by volume percent

<br>

$\frac{mass \ of \ solute}{volume \ of \ solution} \times 100$%

• Volume by volume percent

<br>

$\frac{volume \ of \ solute}{volume \ of \ solution} \times 100$% by volume percent

Explanation:

Formula used:

The concentration of solution = Mass of common salt/Mass of solution × 100

Given

• Mass of solute = 20g
• Mass of solvent = 180g

Mass of solution = 180 + 20g = 200g

We know that, Mass by Mass percentage -

$\Rightarrow \frac{mass \ of \ solute}{mass \ of \ solution} \times 100$

$\Rightarrow \frac{20g}{200g} \times 100 = 10 \%$

• Thus, the correct answer is 10%.

The correct answer is Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at common prices.

Key Points

• Real GDP is GDP evaluated at the market prices of some base year.
• For example, if 1990 were chosen as the base year, then real GDP for 1995 is calculated by taking the quantities of all goods and services purchased in 1995 and multiplying them by their 1990 prices.

Additional Information

• Real gross domestic product (real GDP) is an inflation-adjusted measure that reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year (expressed in base-year prices).
• It is often referred to as constant-price GDP, inflation-corrected GDP, or constant dollar GDP.
• To calculate real GDP in a certain year, multiply the quantities of goods produced in that year by the prices for those goods in the base year.
• Real GDP makes comparing GDP from year to year and from different years more meaningful because it shows comparisons for both the quantity and value of goods and services.
• Real GDP is calculated by dividing nominal GDP over a GDP deflator.

The correct answer is Structural unemployment.

Key Points

• A longer-lasting form of unemployment caused by fundamental shifts in an economy is called Structural Unemployment.
• In Structural Unemployment although jobs are available, there is a serious mismatch between what companies need and what workers can offer.

Additional Information

• Disguised unemployment is unemployment that does not affect aggregate economic output.
• It occurs when productivity is low and too many workers are filling too few jobs. It can refer to any part of the population that is not employed at full capacity.
• Cyclical unemployment is a type of unemployment that is related to the cyclical trends in the industry or the business cycle.
• Cyclical unemployment is directly related to the macro-economic situation in the economy.
• It would rise at a time of recession while reducing when the economy starts recovering.

The correct answer is Stagflation.

Key Points

• Stagflation is characterized by slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment or economic stagnation which is at the same time accompanied by rising prices (i.e. inflation).
• Stagflation can also be alternatively defined as a period of inflation combined with a decline in the gross domestic product (GDP).

Additional Information

• Stagflation refers to an economy that is experiencing a simultaneous increase in inflation and stagnation of economic output.
• Stagflation was first recognized during the 1970s, where many developed economies experienced rapid inflation and high unemployment as a result of an oil shock.
• The prevailing economic theory at the time could not easily explain how stagflation could occur.
• Since the 1970s, rising price levels during periods of slow or negative economic growth have become somewhat of the norm rather than an exceptional situation.
• Stagflation led to the emergence of the Misery index. This index, which is the simple sum of the inflation rate and unemployment rate, served as a tool to show just how badly people were feeling when stagflation hit the economy.

The correct answer is Crowding in​.

Key Points

• Crowding occurs when higher government spending leads to an increase in private sector investment.
• The crowding in effects occurs because higher government spending leads to an increase in economic growth and therefore encourages firms to invest because there are now more profitable investment opportunities

Additional Information

Difference between crowding out and crowding in:

• When the government pursues expansionary fiscal policy (higher spending financed by borrowing) there are two possible effects
• Crowding out :
• higher government spending financed by borrowing leads to a fall in private sector savings.
• This is for two main reasons.
• With expansionary fiscal policy, private sector savers buy government bonds and so have fewer savings to fund private sector investment.
• Also, higher government borrowing tends to push up interest rates and these higher interest rates reduce investment.
• Crowding in:
• This relates to how higher government spending encourages firms to invest more. This is due to the income effect of higher government spending.
• If the economy is in a recession or below full capacity, expansionary fiscal policy can increase the economic growth rate and create a positive multiplier effect, which leads to greater private sector investment.

The correct answer is Collateral.

Key Points

• Collateral is an asset or property that an individual or entity offers to a lender as security for a loan.
• It is used as a way to obtain a loan, acting as a protection against potential loss for the lender should the borrower default.

Additional Information

• Collateral minimizes the risk for lenders.
• If a borrower defaults on the loan, the lender can seize the collateral and sell it to recoup its losses.
• Mortgages and car loans are two types of collateralized loans.
• A secured loan is a loan in which the borrower pledges some asset (e.g. a car or property) as collateral for the loan, which then becomes a secured debt owed to the creditor who gives the loan.

The correct answer is the Nominal interest rate.

Key Points

• Interest rates on consumer loans are typically quoted as the annual percentage rate (APR).
• This is the rate of return that lenders demand the ability to borrow their money.
• For example, the interest rate on credit cards is quoted as an APR.

Additional Information

• In the context of borrowing, the principal is the initial size of a loan; it can also be the amount still owed on a loan.
• APR, or annual percentage rate, is the yearly cost of borrowing.
• It generally includes interest as well as fees and other charges tacked onto the principal amount you owe.

The correct answer is The Congress agreed to take part in the Second Round Table Conference.

Key Points

• The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of India, on 5 March 1931 before the second Round Table Conference in London.
• This movement marked the end of the civil disobedience movement in India.

Additional Information

• Under this pact, Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference in London whereas the government agreed to release all the political prisoners.
• It marked the end of a period of civil disobedience (satyagraha) in India against British rule that Gandhi and his followers had initiated with the Salt March (March–April 1930).

The correct answer is Amritlal Vithaldas Thakkar.

Key Points

• Amritlal Vithaldas Thakkar, popularly known as Thakkar Bapa.
• He was an Indian social worker who worked for upliftment of tribal people in Gujarat state in India.
• In 1922, he founded the Bhil Seva Mandal.

Additional Information

• Thakkarbapa visited forests in Assam, rural Bengal, drought affected areas of Orissa, Bhil belts in Gujarat and Harijan areas of Saurashtra, Mahar areas of Maharashtra, untouchables in Madras, hilly areas of Chhota Nagpur, desert of Tharparkar, foothills of Himalaya, coastal areas of Travancore with his mission of upliftment of tribal and harijans.
• He would always travel in third class of railway.
• Thakkarbapa spent 35 years of his life in service of tribal and harijans.
• Thakkar established a school for the children of the sweepers of Kurla with help from Ramaji Shinde, a member of the Depressed Classes Mission.

The correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Key Points

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a member of the Imperial Legislative Council.
• He was popularly famous as a great champion of compulsory primary education for the first time in India.
• Therefore, GK. Gokhale again introduced a Private Bill in the Council on 16th March 1911 in the form of an unofficial member's bill.

Additional Information

• He publicly demanded the introduction of “Compulsory Primary Education” in India.
• So, as a member of the Imperial Legislative Council, he moved a resolution on Education on March 12, 1910.
• In his resolution he wanted the Government to pass an Act, on the lines of the English Education Act of 1870, conferring powers upon the local authorities in India to make primary education free and compulsory in their areas for the boys between 6 years to 10 years of age.
• In the Imperial Legislative Council, there was a discussion on the resolution.
• But the Government was not ready to give effect to the demands of the resolution.
• Therefore, GK. Gokhale again introduced a Private Bill in the Council on 16^th March 1911 in the form of an unofficial member’s bill. This bill is popularly famous as Gokhale’s Private Bill of 1911.

The correct answer is It denied the masters the use of Courts to assert their claims on slaves.

Key Points

• The Hon'ble Court of Directors in 1838 directed that the Government of India should lose no time in passing an enactment to the effect of the recommendation just referred to.
• The majority of the Commissioners framed a draft Act, but Mr. Cameron differed from them, and afterward, the Commissioners again differed amongst themselves in submitting another report on the subject in 1841.

Additional Information

• In 1843, Act V of that year was passed which carried out the original recommendation of the Law Commissioners.
• The first section forbade the public sale by any public officer in the execution of any decree or order of Court, or for the enforcement of any demand of rent or revenue, of any person, or of the right to the compulsory labor or services of any person on the ground that such person is in a state of slavery.
• Section 2 declared that no rights arising out of an alleged property in the person and services of another as a slave shall be enforced by any Civil or Criminal Court or Magistrate within the territories of the Bast India Company.
• Section 3 provides that no person shall be deprived of any property whatsoever, however, obtained, on the ground that such person, or that the person from whom the property may have been derived, was a slave.
• Section 4 enacted that any act which would be a penal offense if done to a free man shall be equally an offense if done to any person on the pretext of his being in a condition of slavery.

The correct answer is Baji Rao Il.

Key Points

• Treaty of Bassein, (Dec. 31, 1802), a pact between Baji Rao II, the Maratha Peshwa of Poona (now Pune) in India, and the British.

Important Points

• The Treaty of Bassein (Now called Vasai) was a pact signed on December 31, 1802, between the British East India Company and Baji Rao II, the Maratha Peshwa of Pune (Poona) in India after the Battle of Poona.
• The treaty was a decisive step in the dissolution of the Maratha Confederacy, which led to the East India Company’s usurpation of the Peshwa's territories in western India in 1818.
• Wellesley was determined to make the Company the paramount power in India.
• He first extinguished the power of Tipu Sultan. Next, he paid his attention to the Marathas.
• He soon got an opportunity of interfering in the affairs of the Marathas
• Feeling desperate, the Peshwa sought the alliance of the English and signed the treaty of Bassein, on December 31, 1802.

The correct answer is Vijayanagara.

Key Points

• The Amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Most probably many features of this system were derived from the data system of Delhi Sultanate.
• The Nayakas had political aspirations which at times conflicted with the aims of the rulers.
• They were the agents of the rayas.
• They were given territories called amaram to be governed by the rayas.
• Krishnadeva Raya was one of the most successful rulers India has seen.
• He maintained a good army and exploited natural resources and made a big and prosperous empire.
• But after him there, were internal strains among the successors and finally, the empire was ruined by external invaders.

The correct answer is had a break in their career due to family reasons.

​​​

Key Points

• This initiative primarily aimed at providing opportunities to women scientists and technologists between the age group of 27-57 years who had a break in their career but desired to return to the mainstream.

Additional Information

• More than 2200 women scientists & technologists have benefitted from the Women Scientists Scheme, including WOS-A, WOS-B, and WOS-C in the last five years, including the current year.
• Women ranging in the age group 27 to 57 years receive fellowship support ranging from Rs 25000 to 55000 for different categories under Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN)’ Scheme for continuing higher education in Science and Technology after a break in career.
• The Department of Science and Technology (DST) has implemented the ‘Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN)’ Scheme to provide various career opportunities to women scientists and technologists.
• It is primarily aimed to bring gender parity in the Science & Technology sector by inducting more women talent in the research & development domain through various programs.
• Women Scientists Scheme (WOS) of the Department under the KIRAN scheme, including other schemes, empowers women in science and technology.
• Many of the women who have completed the scheme have initiated into successful careers in science, technology, and patents.

The correct answer is young and aspiring innovators.

Key Points

• Department of Science and Technology (DST) has announced National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) is an umbrella program for nurturing ideas and innovations (knowledge-based and technology-driven) into successful startups.

Additional Information

• The key stakeholders of NIDHI include various departments and ministries of the central government, state governments, academic, and R & D institutions, mentors, financial institutions, angel investors, venture capitalists, industry champions, and private sectors.
• The program would target to facilitate and enable a minimum of 100 innovators annually across the country in translating their ideas into prototypes through funding support to a maximum of 10 PRAYAS Centres (PC) in the country.
• It aims to support innovators to build prototypes of their ideas by providing a grant up to Rs.10 lakhs and access to Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab). PRAYAS was launched on 2nd September 2016.

The correct answer is household electrification.

Key Points

• The scheme was launched in September 2017 with an aim to achieve universal household electrification by providing last-mile connectivity and electricity connections to all households in rural areas and all poor households in urban areas across the country.
• The scheme was started with an outlay of 16,320 crore rupees.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana - Saubhagya is to provide energy access to all by last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural as well as urban areas to achieve universal household electrification in the country.
• The Saubhagya scheme defines the electrification of a household as including a service line cable, energy meter, and single-point wiring.
• Electrification of 99.99% of the households in India is a major milestone towards attaining the Sustainable Development Goal target 7.1 of providing universal access to affordable, reliable, and modern energy services by 2030.

The correct answer is full immunization of children.

Key Points

• It was launched on 25 December 2014.
• This seeks to drive towards 90% full immunization coverage of India and sustain the same by the year 2020.
• The ultimate goal of Mission Indradhanush is to ensure full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to two years of age and pregnant women.

Additional Information

• The Government has identified 201 high focus districts across 28 states in the country that have the highest number of partially immunized and unimmunized children.
• The IMI 2.0 aims to achieve targets of full immunization coverage in 272 districts in 27 states and at the block level (652 blocks) in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar among hard-to-reach and tribal populations.
• With the launch of Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0, India has the opportunity to achieve further reductions in deaths among children under five years of age, and achieve the Sustainable Development Goal of ending preventable child deaths by 2030.

The incorrect statement is It relies entirely on skill training by Government agencies.

Key Points

• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a Government of India youth employment scheme.
• It was launched on 25 September 2014 by Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari and Venkaiah Naidu.

Additional Information

• The scheme is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
• As per the rules, the minimum package offered once trained under DDU-GKY and placed is Rs 6000/- per month.
• The training partners are mandated to place at least 75% of the successful candidates in jobs.
• DDU-GKY is uniquely focused on rural youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years from poor families.
• As a part of the Skill India campaign, it plays an instrumental role in supporting the social and economic programs of the government like the Make In India, Digital India, Smart Cities, and Start-Up India, Stand-Up India campaigns.
• Over 180 million or 69% of the country’s youth population between the ages of 18 and 34 years live in its rural areas. Of these, the bottom of the pyramid youth from poor families with no or marginal employment number about 55 million.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• PMGSY - Phase I was launched in December 2000 as a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme with an objective to provide single all-weather road connectivity to eligible unconnected habitation of designated population size.

Additional Information

• The spirit and the objective of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) are to provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected Habitations.
• A habitation that was earlier provided all-weather connectivity would not be eligible even if the present condition of the road is bad.
• The unit for this Programme is a Habitation and not a Revenue village or a Panchayat.
• A Habitation is a cluster of population, living in an area, the location of which does not change over time. Desam, Dhanis, Tolas, Majras, Hamlets, etc. are commonly used terminology to describe the Habitations.
• The eligible Unconnected Habitations are to be connected to nearby Habitations already connected by an All-weather road or to another existing All-weather road so that services (educational, health, marketing facilities, etc.), which are not available in the unconnected Habitation, become available to the residents.