CDS General Knowledge 8 Nov 2020 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 1, 3, 2, 4.

Key Points

• For every rupee with the government —offer, 68 paise came from the direct & indirect taxes while the states' share of taxes & duties is the single-largest expense head accounting for 23% of the total spending as per the 2019-20 budget.
• As per the Budget for 2019-20 presented in the Parliament by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, GST collections contributed 19 paise in every rupee revenue collection.
• The Corporation tax is the single largest source of income, contributing 21 paise to each rupee earned.
• The collection from borrowings & other liabilities will be 20 paise whereas income tax will yield 16 paise to every rupee collection.
• The govt. intends to earn 9 paise from the non-tax revenue like disinvestment, 8 paise from the Union excise duty, 4 paise from the customs, and 3 paise from the non-debt capital receipts in every rupee collection.
• On that of the expenditure side, the biggest outlay component is the states' share of the taxes & duties at 23 paise, followed by the interest payment at 18 paise.

The correct answer is Registering property.

Key Points

• Ease of Doing Business report 2020 (concerning India)
• India has recorded an increase of 14 positions at 63^rd rank against its rank of 77 last year.
• For the 3rd consecutive year, India was also amongst the top 1° improvers.
• India's improved ranking was on the back of reforms like (a)dealing with construction permits, (b)trading across borders, and (c)resolving insolvency.
• The Indian Imports and exports also became easier with the single electronic platform for trade stakeholders, among other things.
• India even saw the biggest jump in ranking in resolving insolvency category to 52^nd rank from 108^th.
• Although, the country still lags in areas like enforcing contracts and registering property.
• The report has said that India takes 58 days and costs on average 7.8% of a property's value to register it, longer and at a greater cost than among OECD high-income economies.
• Further, it takes 1,445 days for a company to resolve the commercial dispute through a local first-instance court which is almost three times the average time in the OECD high-income economies. World Bank 'Ease of Doing Business: India's Progress from 2016 to 2020.

Important Points 

• The World Bank recently released its Ease of Doing Business Report, 2020. The indicator measures the performance of countries across 10 different dimensions in the 12-month period ending May 1, 2019.
• According to the report, New Zealand retained its 1^st position whereas Somalia was ranked at 190^th spot.
• India was placed at 63^rd position this time (2019) out of 190 countries marking an improvement of 14 places from its 77^th position in 2018.
• India’s score improved from 67.23 in the previous year to 71.0 this year.
• India for the third consecutive year was present in the list of 10 economies where the business climate has improved the most.

Additional Information

• India’s ranking improved basically on four parameters:
• Resolving Insolvency- The recovery rate under resolving insolvency has improved significantly from 26.5% to 71.6%. Also, the time taken for resolving insolvency has come down significantly from 4.3 years to 1.6 years.
• Trading across Borders- With a single electronic platform- improved electronic submission methods for documents and upgrades to port infrastructure, import, and the export process became easier, and
• Dealing with Construction Permits- For example, building a warehouse cost around 4% of the warehouse value as compared to 5.7% in the previous year,
• Starting a Business- India made starting a business easier by fully integrating multiple application forms into a general incorporation form,
• India continues to maintain its first position among South Asian countries. It was 6^th (in 2014).
• The World Bank will now include Kolkata and Bengaluru, besides Delhi and Mumbai, for preparing ease of doing business reports, to provide a holistic picture of the business environment of the country.

The correct answer is The Act is not being implemented in all the States/Union Territories.

The incorrect statement is The Act is not being implemented in all the States/Union Territories.

Key Points

• The enactment of the NFSA (National Food Security Act) 2013 on 5^th July 2013 marks a paradigm shift in the approach to food security from welfare to a rights-based approach.
• The NFSA Act was rolled out in the year 2014.
• The Act legally entitles up to 75 percent of the rural population and 50 percent of the urban population to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System.
• About two-thirds of the population thus is covered under the Act to receive highly subsidized foodgrains.
• The NFSA 2013 is being implemented in all the States or UTs, on an all-India basis.
• Out of maximum coverage of 81.35 crores, around 80 crore persons have been covered under NFSA at present for receiving highly subsidized foodgrains.
• The identification of beneficiaries by States/UTs is a continuous process, which involves exclusion of ineligible or fake or duplicate ration cards and also exclusion on account of death, migration, etc., and inclusion on account of birth as also that of genuine left-out households.

Statement 3 is not correct.

Key Points

• The NK Singh committee (set up in 2016) recommended that the government should target a fiscal deficit of 3% of the GDP in years up to 31^st March 2020, cut it to 2.8% in 2020-21, and to 2.5% by 2023.
• The government describes the fiscal deficit of India as the excess of total disbursements from the Consolidated Fund of India, excluding repayment of the debt, over total receipts into the Fund (excluding the debt receipts) during a financial year.
• In simple words, it is a shortfall in a government's income compared with its spending.
• The Fiscal Deficit for 2019-20 Provisional Actuals stood at 4.6 percent of GDP, which was 0.8 percentage points higher than the Fiscal Deficit. Hence option 3 is not correct.
• In either case, the income figure includes only taxes and other revenues and excludes money borrowed to make up the shortfall.

Additional Information

• The substantial deceleration in the nominal GDP growth reflects poorly on the government's fiscal marksmanship. In other words, it signifies that the government was not able to assess the magnitude of economic growth deceleration that was underway.
• The poor fiscal marksmanship, in turn, leads to inaccurate policymaking because a government could end up making policies for an economy that does not actually exist on the ground. The fiscal policy 2019-20 was characterized by sluggish growth in Tax revenue relative to the budget estimates.
• The Non-Tax revenue registered considerably higher growth in the first eight months of this financial year compared to the same period last year. The country's fiscal deficit widened to 4.6 percent of the Gross Domestic Product in the year 2019-20 mainly on account of poor revenue realization, according to official data. The deficit, which signifies the gap between government revenue and expenditure, is higher than the revised estimate of 3.8 percent for the fiscal.

The correct answer is food subsidy.

Key Points

• As per the Budget Estimates of the expenditure on major subsidies during 2019-20, the maximum expenditure was likely to be on food subsidies. 
• Expenditure on Subsidies: In the year 2019-20, the total expenditure on subsidies is estimated to increase to Rs 3,38,949 crore (13.3%) over the revised estimate of 2018-19. This is owing to an increase in expenditure on petroleum, fertilizer, food, and other interest subsidies.
• Food subsidy:
• Allocation for food subsidy is estimated at Rs 1,84,220 crore in 2019-20, a 7.5% increase as compared to the revised estimate of 2018-19. In the 2018-19 budget, Rs 1,69,323 crore was allocated for food subsidy, however, the revised estimate is higher than the budgeted estimate by Rs 1,975 crore.
• The revised estimate for 2018-19 is 71% higher than the expenditure on food subsidies in 2017-18.

Additional Information

• Fertilizer subsidy:
• ​Expenditure on fertilizer subsidy is estimated at Rs 79,996 crore in 2019-20. This is estimated to increase by Rs 9,910 crore (1%) over the revised estimate of 2018-19**.**
• Allocation to the subsidy in the 2019-20 budget is Rs 5,010 crore higher than the allocation made in the 2019-20 interim budget.
• Petroleum subsidy:
• ​ Expenditure on petroleum subsidy is estimated to rise by Rs 12,645 crore (9%) in 2019-20. Petroleum subsidy consists of subsidy on LPG (Rs 32,989 crore) and kerosene subsidy (Rs 4,489 crore).
• The increase in allocation in 2019-20 is owing to an increase in LPG subsidy of Rs 12,706 crore (62.6%) from 2018-19 revised estimates.
• Other subsidies:
• Expenditure on other subsidies includes interest subsidies for several government schemes, subsidies for the price support scheme for agricultural produce, import of pulses, and assistance to state agencies for procurement, among others.
• In 2019-20, the expenditure on these other subsidies had increased by Rs 4,251 crore (9%) over the revised estimate of 2018-19.

The correct answer is Leh.

Key Points

• The place in India receiving the lowest rainfall is Leh.
• The average annual precipitation in these regions is less than 50 cms. The cities like Jaisalmer in Rajasthan and Leh in Ladakh receive the least rainfall.
• India mainly receives rainfall from the Monsoons which lasts from June-September. Overall, India receives an average of 200-300 mm of rainfall over the country as a whole with the largest values observed during the monsoon season.
• The average annual rainfall in India is about 300–650 millimeters.
• The rainy season in India is affected by the humid southwest summer monsoon.
• The South of India typically receives more rainfall.

Additional Information

• According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Mahabaleshwar has recorded the highest rainfall even more than Mawsynram, in Meghalaya. Now, it is considered the wettest place in India.
• Jaisalmer is considered the driest place in India to have received the minimum or scanty rainfall over the years.

The correct answer is Tundra Region.

Key Points

• Timber is a type of wood that has been processed into beams and planks.
• It is also known as 'lumber' in the US and Canada.
• Any wood capable of yielding a minimum dimensional size can be termed timber or lumber. It is a stage in the process of wood production.
• Timbers are used for structural purposes. Those woods which are adapted for building purposes are timbers. Finished timber is supplied in standard sizes for the industry.
• Timber is used for building houses and making furniture.
• The Timber vegetation is generally found in the Subtropical, Temperate, and Alpine regions.

Additional Information

• The subtropical zones or subtropics are geographic and climate zones located to the north and south of the tropical zone.
• Geographically part of the north and south temperate zones, they cover the latitudes between 23°26′11.6″ and approximately 35° in the northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere.
• In geography, temperate latitudes of the Earth lie between the subtropics and the polar circles. Average yearly temperatures in these regions are not extreme, not burning hot nor cold.
• Temperate means moderate. Unlike in the tropics, temperatures can change greatly here, between summer and winter.
• The Alpine region covers a territory of approximately 190-700 km² and encompasses eight European countries: Austria, France, Germany, Italy, Liechtenstein, Monaco, Slovenia, and Switzerland.
• The tundra is a treeless polar desert found in the high latitudes in the polar regions, primarily in Alaska, Canada, Russia, Greenland, Iceland, and Scandinavia, as well as sub-Antarctic islands.
• The region's long, dry winters feature months of total darkness and extremely frigid temperatures**.**

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The correct answer is 1971.

Key Points

• The Decadal growth rate of population in terms of percentage was highest in India in 1971.
• The population growth rate peaked during the decade 1971-81, perhaps in the year 1972-73 (based on the Sample Registration Scheme data).
• The average annual exponential growth rate declined marginally to 2.11 percent (4.5%) after having remained at a plateau for the previous two decades of 1961-71 & 1971-81. At this point, the fertility and mortality trends indicate that India will reach the replacement level fertility (Net Reproductive Rate of Unity) by the years 2010-2015. The decadal growth rate is a critical part of the census operations. It gives an overview of the percentage of total population growth in a particular decade.
• Some records keep track of the increase and the decrease in population. And it is called 'decadal' as the decade consists of a period of 10 years. Therefore, the decadal growth rate gives an overview of the total population growth in a particular decade.

Additional Information

• According to the provisional reports released on 31 March 2011, the Indian population increased to 1.21 billion with a decadal growth of 17.70%.
• The adult literacy rate increased to 74.04% with a decadal growth of 9.21%. The motto of the census was 'Our Census, Our future'.
• Total population: 1,210,193,422 (17.70%)
• Most populous ​state: Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is 20ºC.

Key Points

• The Isotherm Line,  which divides the India North-South into almost two equal parts in January is 20°C. 
• Isotherms are the lines that connect points of equal temperature on weather maps, so at every point along a given isotherm, the temperature values are the same.
• Isotherms help to visualize and to interpret the horizontal temperature distribution of an area by showing the patterns of temperature on a weather or oceanography map.
• Constructing the map of isotherms is an elementary step in the temperature data analysis, and the process, in general, is known as contouring.
• It can even be done for other parameters like barometric pressure (isobars), dew point temperature (isodrosotherms), geopotential height (isohypses), wind speed (isotachs), and salinity (isohalines). Isotherms are always smooth, labeled with the values, and mostly parallel to each other.
• The isotherm of 20°C runs roughly parallel to the Tropic of Cancer.

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The correct answer is AW.

Key Points

• Savana climate is also known as Sudan climate.
• It has distinct wet and dry seasons. It is a transitional type of climate that can be found in the region between equatorial rainforests and hot deserts of the subtropics.
• Savanna Climate And Vegetation
• Savana Climate has a distinct dry season which occurs in winter.
• All the rainfall in the region is concentrated during the summer. The long dry season causes many plants to die and streams to dry, which causes the migration of animals.
• Savanna regions have two distinct seasons - a wet season and a dry season.
• There is very little rain in the dry season.
• In the wet season, vegetation grows, including lush green grasses and wooded areas.
• As you move further away from the equator and its heavy rainfall, the grassland becomes drier and drier - particularly in the dry season.
• Savanna vegetation includes scrub, grasses, and occasional trees, which grow near water holes, seasonal rivers or aquifer

Climatic Regions of India According to Koppen’s Scheme:

The diagram below shows the area wise distribution of different Koppen climatic region in India.

The correct answer is Inceptisols.

Key Points

• Inceptisols:
• General characteristics:
• These are usually the weakly developed young soil though they are more developed than entisols.
• Area (in Thousand Hectares): 130372.9
• Percentage of the total area of India: 39.74.
• Entisols:
• General characteristics:
• Usually young or underdeveloped. Lack vertical development of horizons. These are less fertile soils.
• Area (in Thousand Hectares): 92131.71
• Percentage of the total area of India: 28.08
• Alfisols:
• General characteristics:
• Pale, greyish brown to reddish in color with moderate-to-high reserves of basic cations and are fertile. Although their productivity depends on moisture and temperature. They are supplemented by the moderate application of lime and other chemical fertilizers.
• Area (in Thousand Hectares): 44448.68
• Percentage of the total area of India: 13.55
• Vertisols:
• General characteristics:
• These are expandable clay soils, formed of more than 30% clays. Vertisol clays are black when wet and become iron-hard when dry. When drying, Vertisols crack, and the cracks widen and deepen as the soil dries; this produces cracks 2 to 3 cm wide. These are productive soils. The regur soils of India are an example of vertisols.
• Area (in Thousand Hectares): 27960
• Percentage of the total area of India: 8.52.

The correct answer is Singapore.

Key Points

• Among the given cities, Singapore is closest to the equator.
• Singapore is 200 km north of the equator.

Additional Information

• Some other cities which lie closest to the equator
• Quito, Ecuador
• Kampala, Uganda
• Pekanbaru, Indonesia
• Padang, Indonesia
• Libreville, Gabon
• Pontianak, Indonesia
• Kisumu, Kenya
• Macapa, Brazil
• Mbandaka, Dem. Republic of Congo
• Manta, Ecuador
• Kismayo, Somalia
• Entebbe, Uganda
• Nuevo Loja, Ecuador
• Sao Tome, Sao Tome

The correct answer is 1,2 and 3.

Key Points

• Sarojini Naidu, Annie Besant, Hirabai Tata, Mithan Tata went to London in the year 1919 to give evidence before the Joint Parliamentary Committee on the Government of India Bill and received warm support from the British Women's organizations like the Women's Freedom League and the Women's International League. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Women’s suffrage in India
• The woman suffrage movement in India first gathered momentum due to female participation in the freedom struggle, beginning with the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal (1905-08), as well as support from British suffragists.
• Different provinces of British India thus extended limited suffrage rights to women in the 1920’s. The Government of India Act 1935 expanded women’s suffrage and even provided reserved seats for women in central and provincial legislatures.
• Full voting rights were awarded the passing of the Indian Constitution in 1950, which provided for universal adult suffrage.

Additional Information

• Article 326 of the Constitution of India deals with elections to the Houses and the State Legislative Assemblies based on universal adult suffrage.
• The article before being amended by the 61^st Amendment stated that any citizen of India who is 21 years or above, and who is not disqualified on any other grounds such as non-residence, crime, corrupt or illegal practices, or unsoundness of mind, is eligible to vote at an election.
• The proposal to reduce the voting age to 18 years was brought about to increase the participation of the youth in the electoral process of the country.
• Today, in India about 52 lakh voters are 18 years of age and they do play a decisive role in the outcome of the elections happening in India.

The correct answer is Gurdaspur.

Key Points

• Started in around 1899 at a town Quadiyan (Gurdaspur, Punjab) under the leadership of Mirza Ghulam Ahmed of Quadim (1835-1908) who in 1891 claimed that he was a prophet, revivalist, and the messiah (mandir) anticipated by Muslims to appear towards the end times and bring about, by peaceful means, the final triumph of Islam.
• "Ahmadi's thought emphasizes the belief that Islam is the final dispensation for humanity as revealed to Muhammad and the necessity of restoring it to its true intent and pristine form, which had been lost through the centuries.
• It emphasized the humanitarian and universal character of Islam.
• It also emphasized that technological progress should be regarded by the Muslims as a part of God's purpose and should be given religious recognition.
• It was strictly apolitical.
• It was conservative in social morals.

Additional Information 

• Mirza Ghulam Ahmad's claim to prophesy challenged the orthodox Islamic tenet that Muhammad was the final Abrahamic prophet.
• Indian orthodox Muslim community took umbrage with Ahmad's unswayed loyalty to the colonial British at a time of rising nationalist sentiment.
• The Ahmadi community in colonial India also tended to be better educated and more prosperous compared to other Muslims.
• These religious, cultural, and political factors contributed to their early targeting by Muslim political groups upon independence particularly in Pakistan where they were categorized as a non-Muslim minority in national law in 1974.
• The movement split into two following the death of Ahmad's successor, Maulana Nur ad-Din in 1914 into Quadiyani and Lahori.
• One group affirming Ahmad's messianic status (The Ahmadiyya/ Quadiyani Movement)
• A second group regarding him as a reformer, but otherwise adhering to mainstream Islamic beliefs that understand Muhammad to have been the final prophet (the Lahore Ahmadiyya Movement)

The correct answer is The Muslim League.

Key Points

• Subhash Chandra Bose allied with the Muslim League to destroy the Holwell Monument in Calcutta during 1939-40. Hence option 2 is correct.
• After the failure of the Bose-Mahasabha alliance, Bose entitled his alliance with the Muslim League of being a larger vision and strategic purpose.
• Muslim League's objective in allying with Bose was simply to employ him as a useful tool to keep Congress and Hindus divided, while at the same time consolidating itself in Bengal as the sole Muslim representative.

Additional Information

• The All-India Muslim League was a political party established in 1906 in British India. Its strong advocacy for the establishment of a separate Muslim-majority nation-state, Pakistan, successfully led to the partition of India in 1947 by the British Empire.
• The Hindu Mahasabha is a political party in India. The organization was formed to protect the rights of the Hindu community, after the formation of the All India Muslim League in 1906 and the British India government's creation of a separate Muslim electorate under the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
• The Unionist Party, a secular party, was formed to represent the interests of Punjab's large feudal classes and gentry. Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan, Sir Fazli Husain, Sir Shahab-ud-Din, Muhammad Hussain Shah, and Sir Chhotu Ram were the co-founders of the party.
• The Communist Party of India is the oldest communist political party in India, and one of the eight national parties in the country. The CPI was formed on 26 December 1925 at Kanpur.

The correct answer is N. M. Joshi.

Key Points

• The social activist and leader of the Indian Trade Union, Narayan Malhar Joshi was born at Goregaon in the Kolaba district (in today’s Raigad Zilla) Maharashtra in 1879.
• He completed his education at Deccan College Pune.
• Narayan Malhar Joshi was an Indian trade union leader and a follower of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• Joshi got involved in labor issues and initiated the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in the year 1920 along with the Lala Lajpat Rai.
• Malhar Joshi was the general secretary of AITUC from the year 1925 to 1929 and from the year 1940 to 1948.
• In the year 1931, he left AITUC and established the All India Trade Union Federation.
• He was the key member behind various enactments for labor welfares like-
• Successive amendments of the Factory Act of 1881
• Workmen's Compensation Act (1924)
• Indian Trade Union Act (1926)
• Payment of Wages Act (1936)
• The AITUC is the oldest trade union federation in India.
• It is linked with the Communist Party of India. As per the provisional statistics from the Ministry of Labour, AITUC had a membership of 14.2 million in the year 2013.
• The AITUC is governed by a body headed by the National President Ramendra Kumar & General Secretary Amarjeet Kaur, both the politician affiliated with the Communist Party of India.
• The AITUC is a founding member of the World Federation of Trade Unions.
• Presently, its institutional records are part of the Nehru Memorial Museum and Library archives at Teen Murti House, Delhi.

Additional Information

• Bahman Pestonji Wadia or Bomanji Pestonji Wadia was an Indian theosophist and labor activist.
• He was first a member of the TS Adyar, later of the United Lodge of Theosophists. On 13 April 1918, along with V. Kalyanasundaram Mudaliar, Wadia founded the Madras Labour Union, one of India's first organized labor unions.
• Shripad Amrit Dange was a founding member of the Communist Party of India and a stalwart of the Indian trade union movement. During the British Raj, Dange was arrested by the British authorities for communist and trade union activities and was jailed for an overall period of 13 years.
• Bhalchandra Trimbak Ranadive, popularly known as BTR was an Indian communist politician and trade union leader. BTR completed his studies in 1927, obtaining an M.A. degree with distinction. In 1928 he joined the clandestine Communist Party of India.

The correct answer is Madras Labour Union.

Key Points

• India’s first labour union was started when workers of Buckingham and Carnatic Mills formed the Madras Labour Union in April 1918.
• This landmark event is documented meticulously by D. Veeraraghavan in his seminal book ‘Making of the Madras Working Class’.

Important Points

• Origin of Trade Unions Act in India:
• In 1918, the first Registered Organized Trade Union was the "Madras Labour Union" led by BP Wadia and V. Kalyanasundaram Mudaliar.
• The strike was started by the workers of the Buckingham and Carnatic Mills in Madras, against the managing company, Binny & Co.
• The struggles are evidence that union could not have been formed without the support of the larger community and how this process not only pushed workers to build a strong movement to fight for their collective rights but also transformed individuals to shift their political engagement to build working-class movements.

Additional Information

• In 1919, International Labour Organisation (ILO) got formed.
• In 1920, First Trade Union Federation was formed i.e All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in the year 1920.
• The founding Presidents were Lala Lajpat Rai, N M Joshi & Joseph Baptista.
• Other leaders who participated were Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose, V. V. Giri, Sarojini Naidu, C.R. Das, Jawarharlal Nehru, Mohammad Ali Jinnah, Annie Besant, V.J. Patel, B.P. Wadia, Joseph Baptista, Lalubhai Samaldas, Jamnadas, Dwarka Das, B W Wadia, R R Karandikar, Col. J.C. Wedgwood.
• The AITUC was formed to secure a nominating body for representing Indian Labour at the International Labour Conference.
• In 1920, Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association established by Anasuya Sarabhai, who was a pioneer of the women's labour movement in India.
• In 1922, Central Labour Board, Bombay was formed.
• In 1922,  Bengal Trade Union Federation was formed.
• In 1922, the All India Railwaymen's Federation ( AIRF) was formed**.**

The correct answer is Shri Ram Bajpai.

Key Points

• Shri Ram Bajpai founded the Sava Samiti Boy Scouts Association in the year 1914 in Bombay.
• On the lines of the worldwide Baden-Powell Organisations, which at that time banned Indians from joining it.
• Though later Baden-Powell, after a private visit to India, lifted the colour bar, Bajpai's organization continued its separate existence, for it had the aim of bringing about the complete Indianisation of the Boy Scout movement in India.
• About Lord Baden-Powell
• He was a British general and founder of the modern Scouting movement.
  

Baden-Powell became a national hero during the Boer war of 1899-1900 when, with a small garrison, he commanded the defence of Mafeking.

• During the Boer War, Baden-Powell wrote a book "A Guide to Scout". This was published in 1903 and was a best-seller.
• Initially meant for military purposes, after the war, he felt it could be used as a focus for young boys to give them more meaning in life.
• This led to the creation of the Scout Movements. During his lifetime it grew to be a respected international organisation.

Additional Information

• Seva Samiti
• It was another organization founded by a prominent member of the Servants of India Society, Hridayanath Kunzru.
• Founded in 1914 at Allahabad, the Seva Samiti had as its objective to organize social service during natural disasters like floods and epidemics, to promote the spread of education, cooperation, sanitation, uplift depressed classes, reform criminals and rescue the fallen.
• ​Hridya Nath Kunzru-
• He was an Indian freedom fighter and public figure. He was a long-time Parliamentarian, serving in various legislative bodies at the Provincial and Central levels for nearly four decades.
• He was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India that drew up the Constitution of India.
• He was one of the members of the Servants of India Society, founded in 1914 the Seva Samiti at Allahabad.
• In addition to the promotion of education, sanitation, physical culture, etc., it organises social service during fairs, famines, floods, epidemics, and especially on the occasion of religious festivals like the Kumbha Mela.
• Annie Besant
• She was a prominent British socialist, theosophist, women's rights activist, writer and orator and supporter of Irish and Indian self-rule.
• She became a prominent speaker for the National Secular Society (NSS) and writer and a close friend of Charles Bradlaugh.
• In 1877 they were prosecuted for publishing a book by birth control campaigner Charles Knowlton. The scandal made them famous, and Bradlaugh was elected M.P. for Northampton in 1880.
• She became involved with union actions including the Bloody Sunday demonstration and the London matchgirls strike of 1888.
• She was a leading speaker for the Fabian Society and the Marxist Social Democratic Federation (SDF).
• In 1890 Besant met Helena Blavatsky and over the next few years, her interest in theosophy grew while her interest in secular matters waned.
• She became a member of the Theosophical Society and a prominent lecturer on the subject.

The correct answer is The Secretary-General works under the Speaker with delegated authority.

Key Points

• The Lok Sabha's Secretary-General is the administrative head of the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
• He or she is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• The post of the Secretary-General is equivalent to the rank of the Cabinet Secretary in the Government of India, who is the senior-most civil servant to the Indian Government.
• Role of Secretary-General of Lok Sabha- 
• In the discharge of his constitutional & statutory responsibilities, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is assisted by the Secretary-General, Lok Sabha, (whose position, pay scale and status, etc. is equivalent to that of the highest-ranking official in the Government of India, i.e. Cabinet Secretary, Joint Secretary and other officers, functionaries of the level of the Additional Secretary and staff of the Secretariat at various levels.
• The Secretary-General remains in the office till his/her retirement at the age of 60.
• He or she is answerable only to the Speaker, his/her actions can't be discussed or criticized in or outside the Lok Sabha.
• On the behalf of the President of India, he or she summons members to attend the session of Parliament and authenticates bills in the absence of the Speaker.
• The Secretary-General passes orders in the name of the Speaker.
• The Secretary-General of Lok Sabha doesn't work under the Speaker with delegated authority. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Additional Information

• About Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• The Lok Sabha, which is the highest legislative body in the country, chooses its Speaker who presides over the day-to-day functioning of the House.
• Electing the Speaker of the House is one of the first acts of the newly constituted House.
• The office of the Speaker is a Constitutional Office.
• The Speaker is guided by the constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker is placed very high in the Warrant of Precedence in the country i.e. at rank 6.
• Adequate Powers are vested in the office of the Speaker to help her/him in the smooth conduct of parliamentary proceedings.
• The constitution provides that the Speaker’s salary and allowances are not to be voted by the Parliament and are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• In the Lok Sabha chamber, the Speaker’s chair is distinctively placed to enable a commanding view of the entire House.
• The Speaker is assisted by the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha and senior officers of the Secretariat on parliamentary activities, practice and procedure.
• In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges the functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.

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Important Points

• Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla has appointed Utpal Kumar Singh, as Secretary-General of Lok Sabha (Dec 2020)

The correct answer is M. S. Aney

Key Points

• It was M.S. Aney who moved the motion of the Secret sitting session of the Assembly in the year 1942.
• Dr Madhav Shrihari Aney popularly referred to as Loknayak Bapuji Aney or Bapuji Aney, was an ardent educationist, statesman, freedom fighter, modern Sanskrit poet, and politician.
• He was even designated with the title of 'Loknayak Bapuji', which means The People's Leader and Respected Father'. He was one of the founders of the Congress Nationalist Party.
• The Congress Nationalist Party was a political party in British India. It was founded by Madan Mohan Malaviya and Madhav Shrihari Aney in 1934.
• Aney never permitted his critical faculties to be blurred by emotion. Mahatma Gandhi admiring his calm logic, confined in him and often sought his counsel.
• He was selected to arbitrate the disputes between Subhash Chandra Bose and Jatindra Mohan Sengupta. He was never a breaker or a destroyer but was always a cementing factor believing in synthesis and not in segregation.

Additional Information

• Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar
• He was popularly known as Dadasaheb.In 1937, he was elected to the Bombay Legislative Assembly from Ahmedabad.
• He was made the Speaker of the Assembly in his first legislative stint itself. He was to remain the speaker till 1946.
• In 1946, he was elected the Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly. He occupied that post till August 15, 1947, when the Central Legislative Assembly was dissolved and the Constituent Assembly was formed.
• Mavalankar again was made the Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on November 17, 1947.
• He was made the speaker of the Provisional Parliament which was formed on November 26, 1949. Until 1952, he occupied this chair.
• The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952. Mavalankar was the obvious choice of Speaker.
• C. Mathai Stephen-
• He was an Indian politician and Union Minister in the Republic of India.
• C. M. Stephen was born on 23 December 1918 to Eapen Mathai and Esther of Chembakassery house in Cherukole, Mavelikkara. During his school days, Stephen was active in the Balajanasakhyam.
• Madabhushi Ananthasayanam Ayyangar-
• Madabhushi Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker and then-Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the Indian Parliament.
• He was Governor of Bihar also. He was born in Thiruchanoor, Chittoor district of Madras Presidency, British India.
• He was a teacher in Mathematics and later became a lawyer between 1915 -1950.

The correct answer is The President may resign before the expiration of his/her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• The President may resign before the expiration of his/her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not correct. The President submits his resignation to the Vice President.
• The President of India is the head of state and he is also called the First Citizen of India. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature, and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
• Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the President can exercise his or her powers directly or by subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all of the executive authority vested in the President are, in practice, exercised by the Council of Ministers (CoM).

​

Additional Information

• Part V of the constitution- The Union
• Article 52: The President of India.
• Article 52 says that ‘There shall be a President of India’. The President of India is the Head of the State, head of the legislature, Executive, and Judiciary. Also, he is the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed Force.
• Article 54: Election of President
• Article 55: Manner of Election of President
• Article 56: Term of Office of President
• The term of office of the President is five years from the date on which he enters his office. Provided that –
• He can resign from his office by handing a written resignation letter to the Vice-President. Hence option 3 is the correct answer.
• The President shall be removed from his Office for violation of the Constitution by impeachment
• The President shall continue to hold office after the expiry of his term until his successor enters his office.
• Article 57: Eligibility for Re-Election
• Article 58: Qualifications for Election as President
• Article 59: Conditions of President’s Office
• Article 60: Oath or Affirmation by the President
• Article 61: Procedure for Impeachment of the President
• Article 62: Time of holding election to fill the vacancy in the Office of President and the term of Office or Person elected to fill the casual vacancy
• Article 72: Power of President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.

The correct answer is Article 31A and Article 31C.

​

Key Points

• Article 31A and Article 31C are exceptions to the fundamental rights enumerated in Articles 14 and 19.
• Article 31A of the Indian Constitution was immune to Article-14 and 19 of the Indian Constitution that provides for the Right to Equality and the Right to Freedom, respectively.
• Article 31 (C) of the Indian Constitution was included through the 25th Amendment Act of 1971 through which the government gave primacy to some Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights.
• This means that any law falling under the ambit of Article 31A (e.g., a law for agrarian reform), or Article 31C, cannot be invalidated by any Court on the ground that it contravenes any of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 14 (equality before law), Article 19 (freedom of expression, assembly, etc.).

Additional Information

• The six Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Indian Constitution.
• Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
• Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
• Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
• Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
• Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
• Article 14 states that "The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India."
• Article 19 deals with the protection of six rights regarding freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• The Right to property guaranteed by Article 31 was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) and it is still a constitutional right under Article 300A of the Constitution of India though not a fundamental right.
• Thus, the Right to Property has now become a legal right only.
• Articles 31A, 31B, and 31C deal with the property right and they are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights.
• Article 31A
• Contains laws regarding the acquisition of any estate or right by the government or management of any property.
• Article 31B
• States that the acts which are present in the ninth schedule and are inconsistent with the provisions laid down by the constitution or resist any decree or order will be left on the competent legislature to amend, revoke, or to let it be in force.
• Article 31C
• States that no law which gives effect to the provisions contained in Article 39B and Article 39C can be challenged under Article 14, Article 19, or Article 31.

Important Points

• Article 12 Definition of “The State”
• Article 13 Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights.
• Article 16 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 17 Abolition of Untouchability.

The correct answer is The office must not be a substantive one.

• "The Office must not be a substantive one" is not the necessary condition for the issue of a Writ of Quo Warranto. Orders, warrants, directions, etc. issued under authority is an example of Writ.
• The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution.
• It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.
• There are five major types of Writ viz. Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

Key Points

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court of India to issue writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari, for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
• By Article 226, the High Courts have also been empowered to issue writs, for the implementation of Fundamental Rights.
• The writ of Quo Warranto, which literally translates to 'by what authority is issued against a person holding a public office. This writ is issued to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled.
• The writ of Quo Warranto is filed if there has been a contravention of the Constitution or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
• The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.

Important Points

• Types of Writs-
• Both the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be approached for violation or enactment of fundamental rights through five kinds of writs:
• Habeas corpus - related to personal liberty in cases of illegal detentions and wrongful arrests
• Mandamus - directing public officials, governments, courts to perform a statutory duty
• Quo Warranto - to show by what a warrant is a person holding public office
• Prohibition - directing judicial or quasi-judicial authorities to stop proceedings which it has no jurisdiction
• Certiorari - a re-examination of an order given by judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative authorities.
• In civil or criminal matters, the first remedy available to an aggrieved person is that of trial courts, followed by an appeal in the High Court and then the Supreme Court.
• When it comes to the violation of fundamental rights, an individual can approach the High Court under Article 226 of the Supreme Court directly under Article 32.

The correct answer is The National Commission Scheduled Tribes.

Key Points

• The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
• The 89th Amendment of the Constitution of India which came into force on 19 February 2004 established the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under Article 338A.
• it is a constitutional body.
• Objective
• Article 338A inter-alia gives powers to the NCST to oversee the implementation of various safeguards provided to STs under the Constitution or any other law for time being in force or under any other order to the Government and to evaluate the working of such safeguards.
• Composition: 
• It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and 3 other members who are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• At least one member should be a woman.
• The Chairperson, the Vice-Chairperson, and the other members hold office for a term of 3 years.
• The members are not eligible for appointments for more than two terms.

Additional Information

• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
• NCSC is a constitutional body that works to safeguard the interests of the scheduled castes (SC) in India.
• Article 338 of the constitution of India deals with this commission:
• It provides for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes with duties to investigate and monitor all matters relating to safeguards provided for them, to inquire into specific complaints, and to participate and advise on the planning process of their socio-economic development, etc.
• National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)-
• 102^nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
• It has the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.
• Previously NCBC was a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• National Commission for Women-
• It was set up as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
• Its mission is to strive towards enabling women to achieve equality and equal participation in all spheres of life by securing their due rights and entitlements through suitable policy formulation, legislative measures, etc.
• Its functions are to:
• Review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
• Recommend remedial legislative measures.
• Facilitate redressal of grievances.
• Advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

The correct answer is International Youth Day.

Key Points

• International Youth Day (IYD)
• ​International Youth Day is observed globally on 12th August every year.
• The day is celebrated to recognize the efforts put in by the youth for the betterment of society.
• The Day aims to promote the ways to engage the youth and make them more actively involved in their communities through positive contributions.
• Theme
• ​The theme of International Youth Day 2020, “Youth Engagement for Global Action”.
• The theme highlights the ways in which the engagement of young people at the local, national and global levels is enriching national and multilateral institutions and processes, as well as draw lessons on how their representation and engagement in formal institutional politics can be significantly enhanced.
• History of International Youth Day
• ​In 1999, the General Assembly endorsed the recommendation made by the World Conference of Ministers Responsible for Youth (Lisbon, 8-12 August 1998) that 12 August be declared International Youth Day.
• This day is the first time observed on August 12, 2000, the day marks an awareness day and draws attention to a given set of cultural and legal issues surrounding youth.

Important Points

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• Bangladesh had chosen the name 'Nisarga' for the cyclone which devastated the coastline of Maharashtra and Gujarat in June 2020.
• The Nisarga cyclone is formed because of the depression in the Arabian Sea.
• It was a tropical cyclone formed because of exceptionally warm surface ocean temperatures.
• Nisarga means nature and was termed by India's neighbouring country Bangladesh.
• The name was accorded in a list formulated by a group of countries.
• Bangladesh had also suggested 'Fani', which had made landfall in Odisha on May 3, 2019.

Important Points

• The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) at its 27th Session held in 2000 in Muscat, Oman agreed in principle to assign names to the tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
• The naming of the tropical cyclones over the north Indian Ocean commenced in September 2004.
• This list contained names proposed by the eight-member countries of WMO/ESCAP PTC, viz., Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• The requirement for a fresh list of tropical cyclones including representation from five new member countries: Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and Yemen (total 13 member countries) was tabled during the 45th session of WMO/ESCAP, held in September 2018. The session was hosted by Oman.

Additional Information

• Tropical Cyclone
• The tropical cyclone is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans and is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain.
• A characteristic feature of tropical cyclones in the eye, a central region of clear skies, warm temperatures, and low atmospheric pressure.
• Storms of this type are called hurricanes in the North Atlantic and eastern Pacific and typhoons in Southeast Asia and China. They are called tropical cyclones in the southwest Pacific and Indian Ocean region.
• Formation
• Tropical cyclones form near the equator and gain their energy from the heat that is released when water vapour condenses into rain.
• In the southern hemisphere, storms rotate clockwise and anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere.

The correct answer is Vidya Balan.

Key Points

• Actress Vidya Balan portrayed the role of Shakuntala Devi in the biopic movie based on the life of the noted Mathematician.
• Shakuntala Devi (1929-2013), also known as 'the Human Computer' due to her quick calculation was a famous Mathematician and Writer.
• She multiplied two 13-digit numbers in only 28 seconds at the Imperial College, London in 1980 and earned a place in the 1982 edition of the Guinness Book of World Records.
• The numbers, selected at random by a computer, were 7,686,369,774,870 and 2,465,099,745,779 and the correct answer was 8,947,668,177,995,426,462,773,730.
• She also wrote several books-
• Figuring: The Joy of Numbers
• The World of Homosexuals
• Astrology for You
• Mathability: Awaken the Math Genius in Your Child
• Perfect Murder

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• The former Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir Girish Chandra​ Murmu was appointed as the next Comptroller & Auditor General of India.
• Murmu, a 1985 Indian Administrative Service officer of Gujarat cadre will succeed Rajiv Mehrishi who completes his term on August 8. Murmu was appointed as the first LG of J&K after the formation of the new union territories.
• He resigned from the post on 5 august 2020 and was appointed as the 14th comptroller auditor general of India.

Important Points

• About Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
• Part V of the Indian Constitution describes the role and responsibilities of the CAG office in Chapter V. The Comptroller and Auditor General is one of the few offices directly appointed by the President of India.
• The CAG is mentioned in the Constitution of India under Article 148-151.
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels i.e the centre and state.
• His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
• Important Articles 
• Article 148- Broadly deals with the CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service.
• Article 149- Deals with the Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
• Article 150- Says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe.
• Article 151- Says that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
• Article 279- Calculation of "net proceeds" is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final.
• Appointment and Term to Constitutionals Posts: 
• The CAG is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
• He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• On July 25, 2020, the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports, Shri Kiren Rijiju announced that Haryana will host the Fourth Edition of the Khelo India Youth Games.
• The game has been scheduled to be conducted after Tokyo Olympics.
• The Khelo India Scheme was launched to improve sports culture in India.
• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The scheme aims to make India a good sporting nation.
• The Sports Ministry has approved the inclusion of four indigenous Games to be a part of the Khelo India Youth Games 2021, scheduled to take place in Haryana.
• The games include, Gatka, Kalaripayattu, Thang-Ta and Mallakhamba.

Important Points

• Khelo India Youth Games, earlier known as Khelo India School Games is held annually in January or February.
• The national-level grassroots games in India are held for two categories, under 21 college students, and 17-year-old school students.
• In the games, every year 1000 best kids are given an annual scholarship of Rs. 5,00,000 for the time period of 8 years to prepare them for the international sporting event.
• Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports launched the Khelo India scheme to improve sports culture in India. Govt allocates Rs 5 lakh annually for 8 years.

Summary of Khelo India Youth Games-

Kyushu Island, Japan is not a coral reef island.

Key Points

• Kyushu Island (Japan) is not a Coral Reef Island.
• A coral island is a type of island formed from coral detritus and associated organic material. It occurs in tropical and sub-tropical areas, typically as part of coral reefs which have grown to cover a far larger area under the sea.
• The Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest Coral Reef System composed of over 2900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for over 2,300 km over an area of approximately 344,400 km².
• The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia.
• The Rainbow Reef is a reef in the Somosomo Strait between the Fijian islands of Taveuni and Vanua Levu. 
• It is one of the most famous dive sites in the South Pacific.
• Swaraj Island is part of Ritchie's Archipelago, in India's the Andaman Islands.
• It's known for its dive sites and beaches, like Elephant Beach, with its coral reefs.

Additional Information

• Coral reefs are one of the most biologically diverse marine ecosystems on Earth.
• Corals grow over geological time scales and have been in existence for about 200 million years.
• Coral reefs play an important role in the marine ecosystem and support the habitats of flora and fauna in the sea.
• Australian Great Barrier Reef, Belize Barrier Reef, and the New Caledonian Barrier Reef, The Mesoamerican Barrier Reef System, The Florida Reef Tract, and Rainbow Reef are some examples of coral reef.

In India, Coral reefs are present in the areas of Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep Islands.

The correct answer is the USA.

Key Points

• Trade surplus refers to a situation when the value of exports is greater than imports.
• Trade deficit refers to a situation when the amount of imports exceeds exports.
• India's overall trade deficit, including both goods and services, has increased to USD 103.63 billion in 2018-19 from USD 84.45 billion in 2017-18.
• Since 2014-2015 India has consistently run a trade surplus with the USA and UAE.
• India has a trade deficit continuously since 2014-15 concerning other major trading partners i.e. China, Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Germany, Korea RP, Indonesia, and Switzerland.

Additional Information

The correct answer is ​1, 2, 3, .4.

Key Points

• The concept of the Human Development Index was developed in 1990 by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq.
• The HDI measures the average achievement of a country in three basic dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
• The top five countries in the Global Human Development Index 2019 were: Norway, Switzerland, Ireland, and Germany.
• The United States of America was ranked 16th, South Africa at 113th, and India was ranked at 129th position. Hence option 4 is correct.

Important Points

• HDI emphasizes that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
• Performance of the Asian Region:
  

Singapore was ranked 11, Saudi Arabia 40, and Malaysia was at 62 in the global index, representing the top bracket among the Asian countries with “very high human development".

• Sri Lanka (72), Thailand (79), China (85) and Indonesia and Philippines (both 107), and Vietnam (117), among others, were “high human development" countries.
• India, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, Cambodia, Kenya, and Pakistan were ranked among countries with “medium human development" with ranks between 120 and 156.
• India’s Performance:
• Overall Performance: HDI value for 2019 is 0.645, which puts the country in the medium human development category, positioning it at 131 out of 189 countries and territories.

The correct answer is primary goods.

Key Points

• The new series of IIP has a total of 809 items occurring in the manufacturing sector in the item basket (405 item groups).

• A brief table giving the use-based classification;

• In the table, Primary goods have the highest weight of 34% and capital goods have the least weight i.e. 8.22%. Hence option 1 is correct.

• The essence of the article is that the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is like the thermometer of an economy. It shows the real picture of all the main sectors of the economy. If the performance of these 8 core sectors of the economy is good then the overall development of the country is inevitable.

Additional Information

• Intermediate Goods:
• Intermediate good is an incomplete good that goes as input for further finishing. Thus, in the production chain, Intermediate goods lie between raw material and finished goods.
• The term Capital Goods is used for Plants, machinery, and other assets which are used for the conversion of basic goods to finished goods. We note here that Capital Good provides service without losing its essential functional characteristic, form, or shape except wear and depreciation. Further, a Capital Good itself is a finished good because it itself does not need any further processing.
• Consumer Durable Goods:
• Non-perishable goods such as electronics come under the category of Consumer durables. Such goods don’t need to be purchased frequently because they are made to last for long period, at least three years. They are generally of higher price in comparison to the non-durables.
• Consumer Nondurable Goods:
• The perishable goods such as fruits, vegetables, cosmetics, food items, etc. which we need to purchase frequently are consumer non-durables.

The correct answer is the price of a commodity falls.

Key Points

• The demand curve is a curve that is used in microeconomics to determine the quantity of any particular commodity that people are willing to purchase with corresponding changes in its price.
• A demand curve graph depicts the relationship between the price of a commodity (the y-axis) and the quantity of that commodity that is demanded at that price (the x-axis).
• The demand curve will shift to left or right as a result of the change in any nonprice determinant of demand. Thus, normally there is no shift in the demand curve when the price of a commodity falls.
• Several factors like rising income, change in population, changes in expectations and changes in tastes and preferences affect individual and market demand.

Important Points

• Determinants of Demand:
• There are five determinants of demands:
• Price of the good
• Taste or level of desire for the product by the buyer
• The income of the buyer
• Prices of related products:
• Substitute products (directly competes with the good in the opinion of the buyer; e.g. tea & coffee)
• Complementary products (used with the good in the opinion of the buyer; e.g. car & petrol)
• Future expectations:
• The expected income of the buyer
• The expected price of the good.
• Changes That Decrease Demand:
• The following changes decrease demands:
• The decrease in the price of a substitute
• Increase in the price of a complement
• The decrease in income if good is normal good
• Increase in income if good is inferior good

The correct answer is Perfect competition.

Key Points

• In a perfect competition market structure, there are a large number of buyers and sellers. All the sellers of the market are small sellers in competition with each other.
• There is no one big seller with any significant influence on the market. So all the firms in such a market are price takers. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Perfect Competition:
• Participants are high both buyers and sellers.
• Products have many substitutes and no marketing or selling cost is incurred.
• Knowledge of participants for entering into the market is perfect.
• The seller is a Price taker, not a price maker.
• The buyer willing to buy all at a certain price but none at price higher. So he is a price maker.

Additional Information

• Monopoly:
• Buyers are many but the seller is one.
• Product has no substitute or no close substitute
• Other competitors can't enter the market due to laws or patents.
• Price discrimination is seen between poor and rich. Seller is a Price maker.
• Relative Price inelastic increase means demand decreases by less than X% for an X% increase in price.
• A natural monopoly is when there is an extremely high fixed cost of distribution e.g. gas, water, electricity.
• Monopolistic competition:
• Many buyers and sellers but each selling its differentiated version of good.
• Marketing selling cost is high. Goods are of different brands where brand loyalty is seen to a limit but many substitutes are available.
• Unrestricted and free entry.
• Seller is Price maker to a level.
• Price increases by x% but demand decreases by less than x% - relatively inelastic. But more elastic than monopoly.
• Oligopoly:
• Buyers many but sellers few with intense competition.
• Product has close substitutes and intense competition amongst sellers. If one seller introduces change others have to follow. High cost of marketing and selling.
• Entry of new sellers tough due to economies of scale.
• The seller is a price maker.
• Monopsony:
• The monopoly of the buyer but multiple sellers present.
• Entry closed for other buyers
• Seen where the government wants to make a defense-related purchase and multiple sellers are bidding for it.
• The buyer is a price maker.

The correct answer is 16th November is celebrated as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer.

Key Points

• Ozone is another important component of the atmosphere found mainly between 15 and 55 km above the earth's surface. It acts as a filter and absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun and prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.
• Ozone depletion is the destruction of stratospheric ozone by free radicals like chlorine, bromine when they reach the upper atmosphere. The UV radiations break down the Chlorine molecules into Chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms combine with Oxygen atoms broken from Ozone molecules to form ClO molecules leaving fewer amounts of Oxygen atoms to form the Ozone again. This process reduces the number of Ozone molecules in the stratosphere resulting in depletion of the Ozone layer.
• The Dobson Unit is a way to describe how much ozone there would be in the column if it were all squeezed into a single layer. The average amount of ozone in the atmosphere is roughly 300 Dobson Units.
• September 16th every year is marked as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer.
• On this day 32 years ago, 45 countries signed a treaty to phase out the use of the substances that harm or deplete the ozone layer, however, all 197 countries of the world ratified the agreement later. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

Important Points

• Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer
• The Montreal Protocol under the Vienna Convention (the protocol) was agreed to in 1987.
• It facilitates global cooperation in reversing the rapid decline in atmospheric concentrations of ozone.
• Under the protocol, countries agreed to phase out the production and consumption of certain chemicals that deplete ozone.
• Phase-out of these substances are required by specific deadlines.
• The Vienna Convention and its Montreal Protocol are the first and only global environmental treaties to achieve universal ratification, with 197 parties.
• As a result of the international agreement, the ozone hole in Antarctica is slowly recovering.
• Climate projections indicate that the ozone layer will return to 1980 levels between 2050 and 2070.

The correct answer is the Black Sea.

Key Points

• The Sea of Azov is an internal sea with passage to the Atlantic Ocean going through the Black, Marmara, Aegean, and Mediterranean seas. It is connected to the Black Sea by the Strait of Kerch, which at its narrowest has a width of 4 kilometers (2.5 mi) and a maximum depth of 15 meters (49 ft). Hence option 1 is correct.
• Basin countries: Russia and Ukraine

Important Points

• The Black Sea: is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean lying between Europe and Asia; east of the Balkans, south of the East European Plain in Eastern Europe, west of the Caucasus, and north of Anatolia in Western Asia. It is supplied by major rivers, principally the Danube, Dnieper, and Don.
• The Baltic Sea: It is an arm of the Atlantic Ocean, enclosed by Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Sweden, Poland, Russia, and the North and Central European Plain. The sea stretches from 53°N to 66°N latitude and from 10°E to 30°E longitude.
• The Mediterranean Sea: is a sea connected to the Atlantic Ocean, surrounded by the Mediterranean Basin and almost completely enclosed by land: on the north by Western and Southern Europe and Anatolia, on the south by North Africa, and the east by the Levant.
• The North Sea: is a sea of the Atlantic Ocean between Great Britain, Jutland, Norway, two States of Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and Hauts-de-France. An epeiric sea on the European continental shelf connects to the ocean through the English Channel in the south and the Norwegian Sea in the north.

Map:

The correct answer is the USA.

Key Points

• The Climax mine, historically the world's largest source of molybdenum, is north of Leadville, Colorado.
• Climax first produced molybdenum in 1915 and was worked continuously from 1924 until it was shut down in 1995.
• Colorado, a western U.S. state, has a diverse landscape of arid desert, river canyons, and the snow-covered Rocky Mountains, which are partly protected by Rocky Mountain National Park.
• Elsewhere, Mesa Verde National Park features Ancestral Puebloan cliff dwellings. Perched a mile above sea level, Denver, Colorado’s capital and largest city, features a vibrant downtown area. Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Canada:
• It is a country in North America. Its ten provinces and three territories extend from the Atlantic to the Pacific and northward into the Arctic Ocean, covering 9.98 million square kilometers, making it the world's second-largest country by total area.
• Capital: Ottawa
• Population: 3.76 crores (2019)
• Currency: Canadian dollar
• Prime minister: Justin Trudeau
• Australia: 
• Officially the Commonwealth of Australia is a sovereign country comprising the mainland of the Australian continent, the island of Tasmania, and numerous smaller islands. It is the largest country in Oceania and the world's sixth-largest country by total area.
• Prime minister: Anthony Norman Albanese
• Capital: Canberra
• Official languages: None at the federal level
• Population: 2.54 crores (2019)
• South Africa:
• It is a country on the southernmost tip of the African continent, marked by several distinct ecosystems. Inland safari destination Kruger National Park is populated by big game. The Western Cape offers beaches, lush Winelands around Stellenbosch and Paarl, craggy cliffs at the Cape of Good Hope, forest and lagoons along the Garden Route, and the city of Cape Town, beneath flat-topped Table Mountain. ― Google
• Capitals: Cape Town, Pretoria, Bloemfontein
• President: Cyril Ramaphosa
• Population: 5.86 crores (2019)
• Official languages: Afrikaans, English, Zulu, Xhosa, Venda, Southern Sotho, Tswana, Northern Sotho, Tsonga, Swati, Ndebele.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• Lakshadweep is India’s smallest Union Territory. Our country, Indian consists of 28 states and 8 union territories.
• The union territory is not an independent unit but is run by the administrators appointed by the President of India.
• About Lakshadweep:
• The Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory Lakshadweep in India.
• India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of 36 sq km.² only Hence option 4 is correct.
• The population on this island is approximately 65,000.

Important Points

• Chandigarh
• It is a fully grown town of most modern architectural splendour. The city nestles in a picturesque setting in the foothills of Shivalik hills and enjoys the popular epithet the "City Beautiful". Representative of modern architecture and town planning, the city is a creation of the French Architect, Le Corbusier. Chandigarh and the area surrounding it were constituted as a Union Territory on 1 November 1966. It serves as the joint capital of both Punjab and Haryana States. It is bound on North and West by Punjab and on the East and South by Haryana.
• Area: 114 km²
• Elevation: 321 m
• Weather: 34 °C, Wind NW at 11 km/h, 31% Humidity weather.com
• Population: 10.6 lakhs (2011)
• Local time: Tuesday, 4:10 pm
• Fruit: Mango
• Puducherry
• It is also known as Pondicherry, is a union territory of India. It was formed out of four territories of former French India, namely Pondichéry, Karikal, Mahé, and Yanam, excluding Chandannagar. It is named after the largest district, Puducherry.
• Area: 483 km²
• Population: 13.9 lakhs (2011)
• Official tree: Indian bael
• Points of interest: Promenade Beach, Sri Aurobindo Ashram, MORE
• Languages: Tamil, Telugu language, Malayalam, English Language
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is a district of the Indian union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in western India.
• Area: 491 km²
• Elevation: 16 m
• Population: 3.44 lakhs (2011).

Map:

The correct answer is River Plate.

Key Points

• The River Plate is located on the east coast of South America between Uruguay and Argentina. The capital cities of both countries, Montevideo and Buenos Aires were founded on either side of the river. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The Rio de la Plata or River Plate forms part of the border between Argentina and Uruguay. The cities of Buenos Aires and Montevideo are located on its western and northern shores, respectively.
• The Orinoco River flows through Venezuela and Colombia and is the fourth largest river in the world by discharge volume of water.
• The Madeira river flows through Bolivia and Brazil and is the biggest tributary of the Amazon.
• The Purus River is a tributary of the Amazon River in South America. Its drainage basin is 63,166 km², and the mean discharge is 8,400 m³/s. The river shares its name with the Alto Purús National Park as well as the Purús Province, one of the four provinces of Peru in the Ucayali Region.
• The Purus River is a tributary of the Amazon and flows through Peru and Brazil.

The correct answer is North East Australian Coast.

• The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system composed of over 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands.
• It is stretched for over 2,300 kilometers over an area of approximately 344,400 square kilometers.
• The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia.
• It was listed by UNESCO in 1981 as the most extensive and spectacular coral reef ecosystem on the planet.
• The reef is located in the Coral Sea (North-East Coast), off the coast of Queensland, Australia. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from outer space and is the world’s biggest single structure made by living organisms.
• This reef structure is composed of and built by billions of tiny organisms, known as coral polyps.
• In August 2019, Australia downgraded its long-term outlook to "Very Poor" for the first time and there are high chances that it will be considered for the List of World Heritage in Danger.
• The List is designed to inform the international community of conditions that threaten the very characteristics for which a property was inscribed on the World Heritage List.
• It also encourages corrective action.
• International Union for Conservation of Nature:
• **It is a membership Union uniquely composed of **both government and civil society organizations.
• Created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
• It is headquartered in Switzerland.
• The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species.

The correct answer is ​G. H. Deshmukh.

Key Points

• During the 19th century, the 'Satapatra Series' was written by G.H. Deshmukh. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Gopal Hari Deshmukh was an Indian activist, thinker, social reformer, and writer from Maharashtra.
• His original surname was Shidhaye. Because of 'Vatan' (the right of Tax collection) that the family had received, the family was later called Deshmukh.
• Deshmukh is regarded as a prominent figure of the Social Reform Movement in Maharashtra. At age 25, G.H. Deshmukh started writing articles aimed at social reform in Maharashtra in the weekly Prabhakar under the pen name Lokhitawadi.
• In the initial two years, he penned 108 articles on social reform. All those groups of articles have come to be known in the Marathi literature as Lokhitawadinchi Shatapatre.

Additional Information

• He promoted emancipation and the education of women and wrote against the arranged child marriages, the dowry system, and polygamy, all of which were prevalent in India in his times.
• He also wrote against the evils of the caste system which was strongly prevalent in India in his times, condemned the harmful Hindu religious orthodoxy, and attacked the monopoly in the religious matters and rituals which Brahmin priests had through the long tradition (Deshmukh, himself, belonged to the Brahmin caste).
• He enunciated certain 15 principles for bringing about religious reform in Hindu society.

Important Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, born Keshav Gangadhar Tilak, was an Indian nationalist, teacher, and independence activist. He was one-third of the Lal Bal Pal triumvirate. Tilak was the first leader of the Indian Independence Movement.
• The British colonial authorities called him "The father of the Indian unrest."
• M. G Ranade born on 18 January 1842 in Niphad, Maharashtra, Ranade went on to be part of the first batch of then newly established Bombay University.
• He was responsible for the introduction of vernacular languages in the university curriculum.
• In 1871, he was appointed as the Presidency magistrate of the Bombay Small Causes Court. By 1893, Ranade had become a judge of the Bombay High Court.
• Bankim Chandra Chatterjee or Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, CBE CIE was an Indian novelist, poet, and journalist.
• He was the composer of Vande Mataram, originally in Sanskrit, personifying India as a mother goddess and inspiring activists during the Indian Independence Movement.

The correct answer is Extension of Permanent Settlement.

Key Points

• The Moderates constitutional demands were:
• Expansion of the Legislative Council and the Legislative Assemblies, both Central and Provincial.
• Increase in the membership of Indians by involving some members elected by local bodies such as chambers of commerce, universities, etc. in these councils and by giving much more powers to them. They demanded Indian control over the public purse and raised the slogan 'No taxation without representation.
• By the starting of the 20th century, they demanded Swaraj (self-rule) within the British Empire similar to that of the self-governing colonies in Australia and Canada.
• Adequate representation of the Indians in the Executive Council of the Viceroy and those of the Governors.
• Reformation and expansion of the legislative councils were formed by the act of 1861. They demanded the rise in the membership of these councils and all legislative and financial matters involving the Budget should be submitted to these councils.
• The legislative council's members to be directly elected by the people of India, demanded Universal Adult Franchise.
• Complete self-government modeled on self-governing British colonies like Australia and Canada. The Moderates made the below demands in the administrative sphere:
• Demand for the simultaneous Indian Civil Service examinations in England & India.
• Complete separation of the executive & the judiciary. They made this demand to protect the Indians from arbitrary acts by the police and the bureaucracy.
• The rise in the municipal bodies' powers and also reduction of official control over them.
• Repeal of the Arms Act and the License Act.
• More comprehensive employment of the Indians in the higher grades of the administrative services and higher jobs for Indians in the army.
• Spread of primary education among the people.
• Improvement of the police system to make it quite honest, efficient, and popular.
• Extension of Permanent Settlement was not the demand of moderate congress leaders.

The correct answer is Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.

Key Points

• Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association in the year 1893 with the assistance of Theodore Beck. Hence option 4 is correct.
• The main purpose of founding this association was to unite Muslims.
• Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association was established in 1893 by Syed Ahmad Khan as a part of the Aligarh movement.
• He established it as he considered competence in English and "Western sciences" necessary skills for maintaining Muslims' political influence, especially in Northern India.
• Also, the growing influence and popularity of the Congress became a cause of concern for the British.
• In order to counter the growing influence of the Congress, the British encouraged the formation of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental (M.A.O.) Defence Association in the year 1893.

Additional Information

• Sir Auckland Colvin KCSI KCMG CIE was a colonial administrator in India and Egypt, born into the Anglo-Indian Colvin family. He was comptroller general in Egypt and financial adviser to the Khedive.
• Badruddin Tyabji was an Indian lawyer, activist, and politician during British Raj. Tyabji was the first Indian to practice as a barrister of the High Court of Bombay who served as the third President of the Indian National Congress.
• ​Theodore Beck was a Quaker and British educationalist working for the British Raj in India. From 1883 until his death in 1899 he was Principal of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, which later became Aligarh Muslim University.

The correct answer is the Ahirs and Kurmis.

Key Points

• The Triveni Sangh was formed in 1934 by the members of three prominent backward castes of Bihar, namely Yadavs, Koeri, and Kurmi.
• Its nomenclature was derived from the confluence of three mighty rivers viz. the Ganga, Yamuna, and the mythical Saraswati at Allahabad. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Triveni Sangh was a caste coalition and political party established in Shahabad District of Bihar in pre-independence India to voice the political solidarity of middle peasant castes as well as to carve a space in democratic politics for the lower castes.
• The date of formation of the Triveni Sangh has been variously stated. Some sources have said it was the 1920s but Kumar notes recently discovered documentation that makes 1933 more likely, while Christophe Jaffrelot has said 1934.
• The leaders associated with the formation of this front were Yadunandan Prasad Mehta, Shivpujan Singh, and Jagdev Singh Yadav.

The correct answer is S. B. Tambe.

Key Points

• S.B. Tambe was the first one to accept a ministerial position in the central provinces in Oct. 1925. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Shripad Balwant Tambe was the pledger from Amravati in the Berar division of Central Provinces.
• He was a member of the Swaraj Party and the President of the Central Provinces Legislative Council.
• He was designated as a member of the Government of Central Provinces after Moropant Vishvanath Joshi's tenure ended in the year 1925.
• His appointment formed political interest all over India and the Swaraj Party.
• He was opposed by Motilal Nehru and others, but Mr. M R Jayakar from Bombay Legislative Council supported the move citing similarity with V J Patel. As of the year 1927, he inaugurated 'The Poona Sevasadan Society, Nagpur Branch' on 2nd January, when he was a member of the Government of Central Provinces and Berar. In the year 1931, Tambe attended the 2nd Round Table Conference.

Additional Information

• Balakrishna Shivram Moonje was a leader of the Hindu Mahasabha in India.
• Makund Ramrao Jayakar was the first Vice-Chancellor of the University of Poona. He was a renowned lawyer, scholar, and politician. He was a prominent freedom fighter. Jayakar was born in a Marathi Pathare Prabhu family. Jayakar studied LL.B. in Bombay in 1902 and became a barrister in 1905 in London.
• Birendranath Sasmal (26 October 1881 - 24 November 1934) was a lawyer and political leader. He was known as Deshpran because of his work for the country and his efforts in the Swadeshi movement.

The correct answer is T. B. Sapru and M. R. Jayakar.

Key Points

• The Liberal Party of India was the political organization espousing the values of liberalism in the politics of India under the British Raj.
• The Liberal Party was formed in the year 1910, and British intellectuals and British officials were often participating members of its committees.
• The Indian National Congress, which had been established to create a mature political dialogue with the British government, included both the moderates and extremists.
• Many moderate leaders with liberal ideas left Congress with the rise of Indian nationalism.
• When the Montagu report of the year 1918 was made public, there was a split in Congress over it. The moderates greeted it while the extremists opposed it. This results in a schism in the Congress with moderate leaders forming the 'Indian National Liberal Federation' in the year 1919. The party was founded by Surendra Nath Banarjee, and some among its prominent leaders were Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, and M. R. Jayakar. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Tej Bahadur Sapru emerged as the most significant leader among the Liberals. At the time of the agitation against the Simon Commission, he initiated the idea of an all-parties conference in India to prepare an agreed constitutional scheme. This resulted in the 'Nehru Report' which proposed the Constitution and persuaded the new Labour government in Britain to offer India a Round Table Conference.

Additional Information

• The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party. It was a political party formed in India on 1 January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of the National Congress, that sought greater self-government and political freedom for the Indian people from the British Raj.
• It was inspired by the concept of Swaraj. In Hindi and many other languages of India, Swaraj means "independence" or "self-rule." The two most important leaders were Chittaranjan Das, who was its president, and Motilal Nehru, who was its secretary
• Muhammad Ali Jinnah was a barrister, politician, and founder of Pakistan. Jinnah served as the leader of the All-India Muslim League from 1913 until the inception of Pakistan on 14 August 1947, and then as the Dominion of Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death.

The correct answer is Home Affairs.

Key Points

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India.
• The NDMA was formally constituted on 27th September 2006, under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 with Prime Minister as its Chairperson and nine other members, and one such member to be designated as Vice-Chairperson.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the ‘Nodal Ministry’ for the management of natural disasters in India. It is headquartered at NDMA Bhavan, Safdarjung Enclave, New Delhi. Hence option 2 is correct.

Important Points

• Mandate: Its primary purpose is to coordinate response to natural or man-made disasters and for capacity-building in disaster resiliency and crisis response. It is also the apex body to lay down policies, plans, and guidelines for Disaster Management to ensure a timely and effective response to disasters.
• Vision: To build a safer and disaster resilient India by a holistic, proactive, technology-driven, and sustainable development strategy that involves all stakeholders and fosters a culture of prevention, preparedness, and mitigation.
• NDMA lays down policies for disaster management in India. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is responsible for making policies, laying down guidelines and best practices coordinate with the State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) to tackle the disasters in India.
• State Governments are responsible for managing disasters in India. The Central Government is responsible for providing aid and assistance to the affected states, which includes the deployment of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), Armed Forces, and Central Paramilitary Forces.

The correct answer is Ram Manohar Lohia.

Key Points

• Ram Manohar Lohiya was an activist for the Indian freedom struggle and the socialist movement in India. Lohia's Seven Revolutions (Sapta Kranti)
• For equality between man and woman;
• Against the political, economic, and race-based inequalities;
• For the destruction of castes.
• Against foreign domination.
• For economic equality, planned production and against the private property;
• Against interference in private life;
• Against the arms & weapons and for Satyagraha.
• About Ram Manohar Lohiya:
• He was a staunch supporter of positive discrimination a state shall make to uplift the position of women, OBCs, and other vulnerable groups. This makes sense in a present-day society where reservation is being provided to the various group by the supreme law of the land under Art 16(b) (reservation to OBC, SC & ST) and by 73rd and 74th C.A.A (women in local bodies elections.).
• He provided the ideological and organizational base for OBC empowerment.
• However, in the present political environment, it is often misused via caste-based politics by various political groups.
• He called for the eradication of caste and class-based society. At present, it is required to establish an egalitarian and inclusive society.
• He called for planned production. To achieve the goals of SDG, and fight the twin menace of climate change and global warming, his idea needs to be implemented with true intentions.
• He was critical of foreign domination, which is needed to maintain the sovereignty of the nation and so that its developmental benefits reach the last man of the society.
• He was critical of arms and weapons and advocated for Satyagraha to put one's unheard voice. This is essential to achieve peace and harmony in the world. Even international organizations are striving for disarmament in present times.
• He also advocated politics as a practice of ethics and values, which is desirable in the present political environment.

Additional Information 

• Mahadev Govind Ranade
• Popularly referred to as Justice Ranade, was an Indian scholar, social reformer, judge, and author.
• Born: 18 January 1842, Niphad
• Died: 16 January 1901, Pune
• Spouse: Ramabai Ranade (m. 1873–1901)
• Party: Indian National Congress
• Organizations founded: Indian National Congress, Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, Vaktruttvottejak Sabha
• Jayaprakash Narayan
• Popularly referred to as JP or Lok Nayak, was an Indian independence activist, theorist, socialist and political leader.
• Born: 11 October 1902, Saran
• Died: 8 October 1979, Patna
• Movement: Quit India, Sarvodaya, JP Movement
• Spouse: Prabhavati Devi (m. 1920–1973)
• Jawaharlal Nehru
• He was an Indian independence activist and, subsequently, the first Prime Minister of India, as well as a central figure in Indian politics both before and after independence.
• Born: 14 November 1889, Prayagraj
• Died: 27 May 1964, New Delhi
• Spouse: Kamala Nehru (m. 1916–1936)
• Children: Indira Gandhi
• Parents: Motilal Nehru, Swarup Rani Nehru

The correct answer is A-State to be secular must be democratic.

Key Points

• Secularism as a Western term is defined as the separation of powers of church and State.
• In the context of the other societies, it is near-complete freedom of religion and the lack of authority of religious leaders over political matters.
• Democracy is not a prerequisite for establishing a secular state though secularism works best when adapted to a democratic system. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Characteristics of the secular society: 
• Separation of state & religion- Religious groups, do not interfere in affairs of state, and the state does not interfere in religious affairs.
• Religious freedom- Defend the absolute freedom of the religious and other beliefs. It protects the rights of both the believers and non-believers.
• Equal access to public services- No discrimination is allowed to access public services based on religion. State-funded schools are non-religious in character.
• It refuses theocracy, Theocracy is a government by divine guidance or by the officials who are regarded as divinely guided. In several theocracies, government leaders are members of the clergy, and the state's legal system is based on religious law. Contemporary examples of theocracies include Saudi Arabia, Iran, and the Vatican.
• Protection of free speech & expression- Religious people have the right to express their beliefs publicly but so do those who oppose/question those beliefs.
• Promote the idea of democracy- All the citizens are considered equal irrespective of their religious affiliation and universal human rights precedes the religious demands.

Important Points 

• Secularism and the Indian Constitution:
• There is clear incorporation of all the basic principles of secularism into various provisions of the constitution.
• The term ‘Secular’ was added to the preamble by the forty-second Constitution Amendment Act of 1976, (India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic).
• It emphasizes the fact that constitutionally, India is a secular country that has no State religion. And that the state shall recognize and accept all religions, not favor or patronize any particular religion.

The correct answer is at the commencement of the first session after the general election and at the first session of each year.

Key Points

• Article 176 defines a Special address by the Governor.
• At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year, the Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses assembled and inform the Legislature of the causes of its summons. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Provision shall be made by the rules regulating the procedure of the House or either House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in such address.

Important Points

• Commonly referred to as the President’s or Governor’s Address, they are a constitutional requirement.
• The Constitution gives the President and the Governor the power to address a sitting of the legislature. The special power is concerning two occasions.
• The first is to address the opening session of a new legislature after a general election.
• The second is to address the first sitting of the legislature each year.
• A session of a new or a continuing legislature cannot begin without fulfilling this requirement.
• When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament.
• So during the provisional Parliament in 1950, the President gave an address for all three sessions. At the suggestion of Speaker G V Mavalankar, the first Constitutional Amendment in 1951 changed this position.
• Besides being a constitutional requirement, the President’s or Governor’s Address is keenly watched as it outlines the government’s policy agenda and stands on issues.

The correct answer is Reservation of seats for SCs and STs has nothing to do with the proportion of their population.

Key Points

• Article 243. Definitions.
• District means a district in a State.
• Gram Sabha means a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Intermediate-level means a level between the village and district levels specified by the Governor of a State by public notification to be the intermediate level for this Part.
• Panchayat means an institution (by whatever name called) of self-government constituted under article 243B, for the rural areas.
• Panchayat area means the territorial area of a Panchayat. Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Population means the population as ascertained at the last preceding census of which the relevant figures have been published;
• The village means a village specified by the Governor by public notification to be a village for this Part and includes a group of villages so specified.
• 243A: A Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
• 243B: There shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels under the provisions of this Part**.**
• Article 243C: Subject to the provisions of this Part, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions concerning the composition of Panchayats. Hence option 1 is correct.

Important Points

• Article 243D. Seats shall be reserved for— the Scheduled Castes; and the Scheduled Tribes.
• In every Panchayat and the number of seats so reserved shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat as the population of the Scheduled Castes in that Panchayat area or of the Scheduled Tribes in that Panchayat area bears to the total population of that area and such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

The correct answer is It is compatible with laissez-faire capitalism.

Key Points

• Democracy comes from the Greek word, demo, and Kratos meaning people and rule. In democracies, it is the people who hold autonomous power over legislators and government.
• Democracy is a political form of government in which governing power is derived from the people, by consensus (consensus democracy), by direct referendum, or through elected representatives of the people (representative democracy).
• A form of political organization of society based on a recognition of the people as the source of power, their right to participate in the resolution of state affairs, and the provision of a rather broad range of rights and liberties for citizens.

Additional Information

• Features of protective democracy:
• Protective democracy believes in popular sovereignty. But since people cannot directly take part in the processes of state, they do it through their representatives.
• Both the popular sovereignty and representative form of government are legitimate.
• It is the primary duty of the state to protect the rights and liberties of citizens and whether this is properly performed or not people keep a strong vigilance over the functions of the state. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The authority is accountable to the People and to establish it, elections are held regularly. There are also other ways of establishing accountability
• A very important way of protecting the rights, liberties, and distribution of privileges is the division of powers among legislature, executive, and judiciary. This is done in all liberal democracies.
• There is the prevalence of constitutionalism. Both the ruler and the ruled are controlled by the principles laid down in the constitution.
• The constitution is the source of power for all and is the guarantor of rights and liberties. There are also measures to prevent the violation of rights and liberties.
• Organizations associations groups have enough freedom and they always act as friends of citizens and fight against any violation of rights or encroachment on liberty.
• Competition in all spheres is a feature of protective democracy.
• A clear distinction between state and civil society is strictly maintained.

Important Points

• Laissez-faire is an economic system in which transactions between private groups of people are free from or almost free from any form of economic interventionism such as regulation and subsidies.

The correct answer is Ammonium Nitrate.

Key Points

• The blast was caused by the detonation of more than 2,700 tons of ammonium nitrate that had been stored in a warehouse at the dock ever since it was confiscated from a cargo ship in 2014. Hence option 2 is correct.

Important Points

• Ammonium nitrate:
• It is a chemical compound with the chemical formula NH₄NO₃. It is a white crystalline solid consisting of ions of ammonium and nitrate. It is highly soluble in water and hygroscopic as a solid, although it does not form hydrates. It is predominantly used in agriculture as a high-nitrogen fertilizer.
• Formula: NH₄NO₃
• Molar mass: 80.043 g/mol
• Boiling point: 148 °C
• Melting point: 169.6 °C
• Soluble in: Water
• RDX:
• It is an organic compound with the formula (O₂N₂CH₂)₃. It is a white solid without smell or taste, widely used as an explosive.
• Chemically, it is classified as a nitramide alongside HMX, which is a more energetic explosive than TNT.
• It was used widely in World War II and remains common in military applications.
• IUPAC ID: 1,3,5-Trinitroperhydro-1,3,5-triazine
• Formula: C₃H₆N₆O₆
• Molar mass: 222.12 g/mol
• Density: 1.82 g/cm³
• Melting point: 205.5 °C
• Classification: Organic compound
• Mercury nitride:
• It describes chemical compounds that contain mercury cations and nitrate anions.
• Binary mercury nitrides, e.g. stoichiometrically compound such as Hg3N2, are not well characterized and are probably unstable in the condensed phase under ordinary conditions.
• A nitride of mercury has been reported in the form of Hg2N. This reddish solid adopts a network structure consisting of NHg4 tetrahedra linked by nitrate ligands.
• Dynamite: 
• It is an explosive made of nitroglycerin, sorbents (such as powdered shells or clay), and stabilizers.
• It was invented by the Swedish chemist and engineer Alfred Nobel in Geesthacht, Northern Germany, and patented in 1867.
• It rapidly gained wide-scale use as a more powerful alternative to black powder.
• Today, dynamite is mainly used in the mining, quarrying, construction, and demolition industries. Dynamite is still the product of choice for trenching applications and is occasionally used as a cost-effective explosive booster for ANFO charges.

The correct answer is The fission bomb dropped at Hiroshima.

Key Points

• Little Boy was the codename for the type of atomic bomb dropped on the Japanese city of Hiroshima on 6 August 1945 during World War II. It was the first nuclear weapon used in warfare.
• The bomb was dropped by the Boeing B-29 Superfortress Enola Gay piloted by Colonel Paul W. Tibbets, Jr., commander of the 509th Composite Group of the United States Army Air Forces and Captain Robert A. Lewis.
• It exploded with an energy of approximately 15 kilotons of TNT (63 TJ) and caused widespread death and destruction throughout the city. The Hiroshima bombing was the second man-made nuclear explosion in history, after the Trinity test.

Important Points

• Fat Man was the codename for the type of nuclear bomb that was detonated over the Japanese city of Nagasaki by the United States on 9 August 1945.
• It was the second of the only two nuclear weapons ever used in warfare, the first being Little Boy, and its detonation marked the third nuclear explosion in history.
• It was built by scientists and engineers at Los Alamos Laboratory using plutonium from the Hanford Site, and it was dropped from the Boeing B-29 Superfortress Bockscar piloted by Major Charles Sweeney.

The correct answer is the Serum Institute of India.

Key Points

• The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) has allowed the Serum Institute of India (SII) to resume the previously paused clinical trial of the Oxford COVID-19 vaccine in the country. Hence option 3 is correct.
• In its communication, the DCGI has instructed the company to take extra care during screening, providing additional information in informed consent and close monitoring for adverse events during a follow-up of the study.
• The SII has also been asked to submit to the DCGI’s office details of medication used under the protocol for the management of adverse events.

Important Points

• Bharat Biotech International Limited is an Indian biotechnology company headquartered in Hyderabad, India engaged in the drug discovery, drug development, manufacture of vaccines, bio-therapeutics, pharmaceuticals, and health care products.
• All India Institute of Medical Sciences - New Delhi is a public hospital and medical research university based in New Delhi, India. The institute operates autonomously under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and is governed by the AIIMS Act, 1956.
• Serum Institute of India is an Indian biotechnology and pharmaceuticals company. It is the world's largest vaccine manufacturer. It is located in the city of Pune, Maharashtra, India, and was founded by Cyrus Poonawalla in 1966. The company is a subsidiary of the holding company Poonawalla Investment and Industries.
• The National Institute of Epidemiology is a medical research organization located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. NIE researches interventional studies, disease modeling, and health systems conduct epidemiological investigations and clinical trials of traditional remedies.

The correct answer is Removing the spool during the blowout control operations.

Key Points

• The recent explosion near the Oil well in Baghjan is due to A blowout is the uncontrolled escape of gas at great speed, usually due to equipment failure. Hence option 1 is correct.
• One of 22 crude oil and natural gas wells in the Baghjan Oilfield close to the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park, had a blowout on May 27. It burst into flames on June 9.

Important Points 

• Oil India Limited is the second largest Indian government hydrocarbon exploration and production corporation. It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India with its operational headquarters in Duliajan, Assam, India.
• Natural Resources in Assam:
• The State is one of the richest biodiversity zones.
• Assam has wildlife sanctuaries, the most prominent of which are two UNESCO World Heritage sites-the Kaziranga National Park and the Manas Wildlife Sanctuary. There are three other National Parks in Assam namely Dibru Saikhowa National Park, Nameri National Park, and the Orang National Park.
• Kaziranga is a home to Indian one-horned rhinoceros which has also been recognized as the State Animal of Assam.
• Assam has abundant mineral resources- coal, petroleum; limestone, and natural gas are the principal mineral resources.
• It is also the largest producer of crude oil in India.
• OIL is the second largest hydrocarbon exploration and production Indian public sector company with its operational headquarters in Duliajan, Assam under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Additional Information

• Dibru-Saikhowa National Park:
• Dibru-Saikhowa is a National Park as well as a Biosphere Reserve situated on the south bank of the river Brahmaputra in Assam.
• The forest type of Dibru-Saikhowa comprises semi-evergreen forests, deciduous forests, littoral and swamp forests, and patches of wet evergreen forests.
• It is the largest swamp forest in north-eastern India.
• It is an identified Important Bird Area (IBA), notified by Birdlife International. It is most famous for the rare white-winged wood ducks as well as feral horses.
• Mammals found in the Park include Tiger, Elephant, Leopard, Jungle Cat, Bears, Small Indian Civet, Squirrels, Gangetic Dolphin, Hoolock Gibbon, etc.
• Maguri Motapung wetland is a part of the Reserve.

The correct answer is Chandrakant Sompura.

Key Points

• The chief architect of the temple is Chandrakant Bhai Sompura, who designed the Akshardham temple in Gujarat. His grandfather Prabhakarji Sompura had designed the Somnath temple. He was assisted by his two sons Nikhil Sompura and Ashish Sompura, who are also architects. Hence option 2 is correct.
• The temple, to be constructed in Nagara style of architecture, will have five domes instead of two as envisaged earlier to accommodate more devotees.
• It will now have a shikhara (tower) over the sanctum sanctorum and five domes instead of the earlier plan of two domes. The height of the temple will also be more than what was in the previous plan.
• The temple will be a whooping 161-feet high and have three stories. The temple will be designed according to the Vastushastra and Shilpishastra. All the calculations for different temple elements are highly specific.
• The Ayodhya Ram temple will have five mandapas between the garbhagriha and the entrance- kudu mandapa, nritya mandapa, rang mandapa - in that order. The kirtan mandapa and prarthana mandapa will be on the either side.
• The structure will have a total of 360 pillars.

Additional Information

What is Nagara's style of temple architecture?

• The basic form of a Hindu temple contains the following architectural elements:
• Garbhagriha - the small room where the principal deity/deities of the temple reside
• Mandapa - the portico or hall at the entrance of the temple generally designed to house a large number of people
• Shikhara - the mountain like spire which can have different shapes from pyramidal to curvilinear
• Vahana - the mount of the main deity placed generally in line of sight from Garbhagriha.

The correct answer is Uruguay.

Key Points

• Total ten countries are located on the Tropic of Capricorn. They are spread over three continents. Out of the ten countries located on the Tropic of Capricorn, five are African countries.
• They are Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, and Madagascar. Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay are South American countries located on the Tropic of Capricorn.
• In addition to five African countries and four South American countries, Australia is also located on the Tropic of Capricorn. Hence option 4 is correct.

Important Points

• EQUATOR/ TROPIC OF CANCER/ TROPIC OF CAPRICORN PASSES THROUGH COUNTRIES
• Tropic of Capricorn( 23.5 degrees south latitude):
• South America:
• Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, and Brazil.
• Africa:
• Nambia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, and Madagascar.
• Australia
• French Polynesia

Additional Information 

• Equator Line( 0 degree latitude)
• In South America
• Ecuador, Colombia, and Brazil.
• Africa
• Sao tome and Principle, Gabon, Republic of Congo, The Democratic Republic of Cango, Uganda, Kenya, and Somalia.
• Asia
• Maldives, Indonesia, and Kiribati.
• Tropic of Cancer( 23.5 degrees North Latitude)
• North America
• Mexico, and the Bahamas.
• Africa:
• Mauritania, Western Sahara, Mali, Algeria, Niger, Libya, and Egypt.
• Asia:
• Saudi Arabia, UAE, Oman, India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, and Taiwan.

Map:

The correct answer is A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1.

Key Points

• Mount Merapi, Gunung Merapi, is an active stratovolcano located on the border between Central Java and the Special Region of Yogyakarta provinces, Indonesia. It is the most active volcano in Indonesia and has erupted regularly since 1548.
• Sakurajima is an active stratovolcano, formerly an island and now a peninsula, in Kagoshima Prefecture in Kyushu, Japan. The lava flows of the 1914 eruption connected it with the Ōsumi Peninsula. It is the most active volcano in Japan.
• Mount Vesuvius is a somma-stratovolcano located on the Gulf of Naples in Campania, Italy, about 9 km east of Naples and a short distance from the shore. It is one of several volcanoes which form the Campanian volcanic arc.
• Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaiʻi in the Pacific Ocean. The largest subaerial volcano in both mass and volume, Mauna Loa has historically been considered the largest volcano on Earth, dwarfed only by Tamu Massif.

Map:

The correct answer is the Saudi Arabian plate.

Key Points

• The Earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates.
• Young Fold Mountain ridges, oceanic trenches, and/or transform faults surround the major plates.
• These include:
• The Antarctic (and the surrounding oceanic) plate
• The North American plate (with western Atlantic floor separated from the South American plate along with the Caribbean islands)
• The South American plate (with western Atlantic floor separated from the North American plate along with the Caribbean islands)
• The Pacific plate
• The India-Australia-New Zealand plate
• Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
• Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate​

Important Points

• A tectonic plate (also called a lithospheric plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere.
• The lithosphere includes the crust and top mantle with its thickness range varying between 5-100 km in oceanic parts and about 200 km in the continental areas.
• The concept of Tectonic Plates was first introduced in 1967.
• A tectonic plate may be a continental plate or an oceanic plate, depending on which of the two occupies the larger portion of the plate.
• The Pacific plate is largely an oceanic plate whereas the Eurasian Plate is a continental plate.

Additional Information

• Major plates
• These plates comprise the bulk of the continents and the Pacific Ocean.
• For purposes of this list, a major plate is any plate with an area greater than 20 million km2.
• Minor plates
• These smaller plates are often not shown on major plate maps, as the majority do not comprise a significant land area.
• For purposes of this list, a minor plate is any plate with an area less than 20 million km2 but greater than 1 million km2.
• Some important minor plates include:
• Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate
• Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate
• Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
• Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
• Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
• Fuji plate: North-east of Australia
• Juan De Fuca plate: South-East of North American Plate

The correct answer is ​Mariana Trench.

Key Points

• Mariana Trench is the deepest part of the ocean and the deepest location on Earth.
• It is 11,034 meters (36,201 feet) deep, which is almost 7 miles.
• Deep-sea trench, also called oceanic trench, any long, narrow, steep-sided depression in the ocean bottom in which occur the maximum oceanic depths, approximately 7,300 to more than 11,000 meters.
• They typically form in locations where one tectonic plate subducts under another.
• The deepest known depression of this kind is the Mariana Trench, which lies east of the Mariana Islands in the western North Pacific Ocean.
• It reaches 11,034 meters (36,200 feet) at its deepest point.

Additional Information

• Tonga Trench
• It is an oceanic trench located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean.
• It is the deepest trench in the Southern hemisphere and the second deepest on Earth.
• The fastest plate-tectonic velocity on Earth is occurring at this location, as the Pacific Plate is being subducted westward in the trench.
• Philippine Trench 
• It is a submarine trench on the floor of the Philippine Sea of the western North Pacific Ocean bordering the east coast of the island of Mindanao.
• The Kermadec Trench
• It is one of Earth's deepest oceanic trenches, reaching a depth of 10,047 meters (32,963 ft).
• Formed by the subduction of the Pacific Plate under the Indo-Australian Plate, it runs parallel with and to the east of the Kermadec Ridge and island arc.

The correct answer is terrestrial planets.

Key Points

• The four planets closest to the sun - Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are called terrestrial planets.
• These planets are solid and rocky like Earth.
• The Jovian Planets or Outer Planets are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune because they are all gigantic compared to Earth, and they have gaseous nature.
• Planet
• A planet must meet three criteria-
• It must orbit the Sun.
• It must be big enough for gravity to squash it into a round ball.
• It must have cleared other objects out of the way in its orbital neighbourhood.

Important Points

• The planets of our solar system are divisible into two groups
• The planets of the inner circle (as they lie between the sun and the belt of asteroids) or the inner planets or the ‘terrestrial planets’
• The planets of the outer circle or outer planets or the ‘gas giant planets’ or Jupiter-like Jovian planets.
• The inner-circle consists of four planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars having smaller and denser bodies while the outer circle comprises four planets are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune having a larger size and less dense materials and have a thick atmosphere, mostly of helium and hydrogen
• Jovian planets are more like the sun than terrestrial planets.
• If we take Jupiter, the biggest planet, as the centre of the planets of our solar system, the size of the planets becomes smaller as we go away from either side of Jupiter (Mars being the exception).
• An Astronomical Unit (AU) is the average distance between Earth and the Sun, which is about 150 million km.

The correct answer is Belarus.

Key Points

• The tundra is a treeless polar desert found in the high latitudes in the polar regions, primarily in Alaska, Canada, Russia, Greenland, Iceland, and Scandinavia, as well as sub-Antarctic islands.
• Belarus does not have Tundra vegetation.

​

Important Points 

• Tundra Vegetation
• There are no trees in the tundra.
• The lowest form of vegetation like mosses, lichens, etc. is found here.
• Climatic conditions along the coastal lowlands are a little favourable.
• Coastal lowlands support hardy grasses and the reindeer moss which provide the only pasturage for Reindeers.
• In the brief summer, berry-bearing bushes and Arctic flowers bloom.
• In the summer, birds migrate north to prey on the numerous insects which emerge when the snow thaws.
• Mammals like the wolves, foxes, musk-ox, Arctic hare and lemmings also live in tundra regions.
• Penguins live only in Antarctic regions.

Additional Information

• Belarus, officially the Republic of Belarus, is a landlocked country in Eastern Europe.
• It is bordered by Russia to the east and northeast, Ukraine to the south, Poland to the west, and Lithuania and Latvia to the northwest.
• Capital: Minsk
• Currency: Belarusian ruble
• President: Alexander Lukashenko
• Official languages: Belarusian, Russian

The correct answer is Cirque.

Key Points

• The landform as a result of erosional and depositional action of running water are known as fluvial landforms.
• George, Braids, Canyon, Alluvial fans and Cones, Natural Levee, Waterfalls, potholes meanders, Oxbow lakes, and deltas are examples of fluvial landforms.
• When the discharge of a River is low the River takes the route of less resistance thus forming braided channels.

Important Points

• Cirque 
• It is a type of glacial erosional landform.
• It is also known as a corrie.
• They are deep, long, and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides.
• Gorge
• A gorge is a deep and narrow valley with very steep to straight sides
• A gorge is almost equal in width at its top as well as its bottom.
• Gorges are formed in hard rocks.
• Example Indus Gorge in Kashmir.
• Braided 
• Channels occur in rivers with high slopes when, the threshold level of sediment load or slope is reached, any slope over this threshold creates a braided stream.
• This occurs due to rapid evaporation and infiltration after a period of heavy rainfall, it can lead to deposition of sediment load.
• Canyon
• A canyon is a variant of the gorge.
• Unlike Gorge, a canyon is wider at its top than at its bottom.
• A canyon is characterized by steep step-like side slopes
• Canyons commonly form in horizontal bedded sedimentary rocks
• Example Grand Canyon carved by Colorado River, USA.

The correct answer is 3rd century BC .

Key Points

• In the first century, now, Vengi is emerging as an important center of art production in Pakistan, Mathura in northern India and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Gandhar School of Art was heavily influenced by the Greco Roman style .
• Initially, gray bluesists and green phyllite were mainly used to make sculptures, but until the third century CE is a material used for sculptors as a completely replaced stone.
• The statues were originally painted and gilded.
• The Gandhara school was influenced by the anthropological tradition of Roman religion and represented the Buddha with a young Apollo-like face, adorned with costumes seen on Roman Imperial statues.

Important Points

• Gandhara art was a major school of art in the history of ancient India . Although it is a complex part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated with Greco-Roman style of art .
• इन ग्रीको-रोमन और भारतीय विचारों के संयोजन के साथ - साथ चीन और ईरान जैसी अन्य विदेशी परंपराओं के प्रभाव के कारण गंधार स्कूल ऑफ आर्ट के रूप में एक अलग शैली का निर्माण हुआ।
• यह ज्यादातर अफगानिस्तान के क्षेत्रों में फलता-फूलता है और उत्तर-पश्चिमी भारत को प्रस्तुत करता है। प्रमुख स्थान तक्षशिला, पेशावर, बेगम और बामियान थे।
• जिस अवधि के आसपास गंधार कला का उत्कर्ष हुआ, वह पहली शताब्दी ईसा पूर्व से लेकर चौथी शताब्दी ई.पू. तक कहा जा सकता है ।
• काले पत्थर और प्लास्टर का व्यापक उपयोग था । प्लास्टर एक प्रकार का प्लास्टर था जो कला की इस शैली के तहत फ्रीस्टैंडिंग वाले सहित कई संरचनाओं के लिए उपयोग किया जाता था।
• The free-standing structures included several chaityas, viharas and stupas.
• The striking feature of Gandhar School of Art shows a very realistic and naturalistic depiction of features in perfection .
• Although it dominated the themes of Lord Buddha, however, there were also paintings on other subjects such as the pictures of the Greek god Apollo and some kings.

The correct answer is The largest number of coins issued by the Guptas were of copper.

Key Points

• The Gupta empire was established by Sri Gupta rose on the ruins of the Kushan empire and ruled for more than 200 years.
• The rulers of the Gupta dynasty is issued the largest number of gold coins called Dinar in India.
• The Gupta rulers also issued silver coins but the coins made of copper are very scarce.
• The gold coins of the Gupta rulers are extraordinary examples of artistic excellence.
• The coins depicted the ruling monarch on the observes and carried legend with the figure of a goddess on the reverse.
• Chandragupta II, Kumargupta I, Skandagupta, and Budhagupta issued silver coins.

Important Points

Important rulers of the Gupta Dynasty.

• Chandragupta I (320 – 330 A.D)
• The founder of the Gupta dynasty was Sri Gupta.
• Chandragupta I and was the first to be called Maharajadhiraja (the great king of kings).
• Strengthened his position by a matrimonial alliance with the Licchavis
• married Kumaradevi, a princess of that family. This added to the power and prestige of the Gupta family.
• Chandragupta I is considered to be the founder of the Gupta era which starts with his accession in A.D. 320.
• Samudragupta (330-380 A.D)
• Greatest of the rulers of the Gupta dynasty.
• Three stages in his military campaign
• Against some rulers of North India
• His famous Dakshinapatha expedition against South Indian rulers
• A second campaign against some other rulers of North India.
• Samudragupta’s policy in South India was different. He did not destroy and annex those kingdoms. Instead, he defeated the rulers but gave them back their kingdoms. He only insisted on them to acknowledge his suzerainty.
• After these military victories, Samudragupta performed the Ashvamedha sacrifice.
• He issued gold and silver coins with the legend ‘restorer of the Ashwamedha.
• Chandragupta II (380-415 A.D.)
• Samudragupta was succeeded by his son Chandragupta II Vikramaditya
• Fahien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
• nine years stay in India, he spent six years in the Gupta empire.

The correct answer is Bhagwati Charan Vohra.

Key Points

• Revolutionary freedom fighter Bhagwati Charan Vohra died on May 28, 1930, as a result of an explosion while testing a bomb. Vohra was the author of the famous article titled The Philosophy of Bomb.
• Born on 4th July 1904 to Rai Bahadur Shiv Charan Vohra and his wife, Bhagwati Charan was a brilliant and articulate man whose contribution to the Indian freedom struggle is forgotten by most Indians.
• In 1921, Vohra quit his college and joined the Satyagraha movement. However, after the movement was called off, he resumed his studies at the National College, Lahore, and acquired a B.A. degree.

Important Points

• Vohra was a voracious reader and a great writer as well. He was appointed the Propaganda Secretary of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha. He, along with Bhagat Singh prepared the manifesto of that organization.
• They were also part of the Hindustan Socialist Republic Association (HSRA). Vohra also authored the manifesto of the HSRA.
• He was against caste-based divisions in society and worked for the poor as per his socialist beliefs. He also promoted Hindu-Muslim unity.
• On 23rd December 1929, Vohra and his associates plotted and executed a plan to assassinate the Viceroy Lord Irwin by hurling a bomb at a train in which Lord Irwin was travelling. The Viceroy escaped unhurt.

Additional Information 

• In response to this, Vohra, along with Azad, authored an article ‘The philosophy of the bomb’ in which he explains the viewpoint of the radicals.
• The last paragraph of the article said, “There is no crime that Britain has not committed in India.
• Deliberate misrule has reduced us to paupers, has ‘bled us white’. As a race and a people, we stand dishonoured and outraged. Do people still expect us to forget and to forgive? We shall have our revenge – a people’s righteous revenge on the tyrant. Let cowards fall back and cringe for compromise and peace. We ask not for mercy and we give no quarter. Ours is a war to the end – to Victory or Death.”
• After Bhagat Singh was jailed, the revolutionaries planned to rescue him from jail. Unfortunately, while testing a bomb for this purpose, Vohra died in an accidental explosion on the banks of the River Ravi in Lahore. This occurred on 28th May 1930 and Vohra became a martyr at the age of just 25.
• Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was established in the year 1924. The founding members of the organization were Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Dr Jadugopal Mukherjee.
• Later it became the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928. Chandra Sekhar Azad was an Indian revolutionary leader who organised the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1924.
• He died on 27 February 1931 at Azad Park in Allahabad while fighting with the police.

The correct answer is Karachi Session.

Key Points

• The Karachi Resolution was passed by the Indian National Congress at its Karachi session in the year 1931. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the president of the session. The resolutions on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Policy were passed in that session.

Important Points

• 1916: Lucknow. President: A.C. Majumdar
• Unity between two factions-Moderates and Extremists of Congress.
• Lucknow Pact was signed between Congress and Muslim League to build political consensus.
• 1929: Lahore. President: Jawahar Lal Nehru.
• Passed the resolution on Poorna Swaraj.
• Civil Disobedience movement for complete independence to be launched.
• 26 January to be observed as Independence Day.
• 1931: Karachi. President: Vallabhbhai Patel.
• Resolutions on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Programme.
• Endorsement of Gandhi-Irwin pact.
• Gandhi was nominated to represent INC in the Second Round Table Conference to be held in London.
• 1939: Tripuri. President: Rajendra Prasad.
• Subhas Chandra Bose was re-elected but had to resign.
• Rajendra Prasad was appointed in his place.
• Subhash Chandra Bose formed Forward Bloc.

The correct answer is Ayodhya.

Key Points

• The Revolt of 1857 is also called the Sepoy Mutiny or India's First War of Independence. It was started on 10 May 1857 at Meerut, as a mutiny of sepoys of the British East India Company's army.
• The revolt of 1857 was an unprecedented event in the history of British rule in India. It united, though in a limited way, many sections of Indian society for a common cause. Though the revolt failed to achieve the desired goal, it sowed the seeds of Indian nationalism.
• The revolt is known by several names: the Sepoy Mutiny (by the British Historians), the Indian Mutiny, the Great Rebellion (by the Indian Historians), the Revolt of 1857, the Indian Insurrection, and the First War of Independence (by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar).

Important Points

• Centres of The Revolt
• The revolt spread over the entire area from the neighbourhood of Patna to the borders of Rajasthan. The main centres of revolt in these regions namely Kanpur, Lucknow, Bareilly, Jhansi, Gwalior, and Arrah in Bihar.
• Lucknow
• it was the capital of Awadh. Begum Hazrat Mahal, one of the begums of the ex-king of Awadh, took up the leadership of the revolt.
• Kanpur
• The revolt was led by Nana Saheb, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II.
• Tantia Tope was finally defeated, arrested, and hanged.
• Nana Saheb escaped but his brilliant commander Tantia Tope continued the struggle.
• The revolt was suppressed with terrible vengeance.
• The victory was short-lived. Kanpur was recaptured by the British after fresh reinforcements arrived.
• He joined the revolt primarily because he was deprived of his pension by the British.
• Jhansi
• The twenty-two-year-old Rani Lakshmi Bai led the rebels when the British refused to accept the claim of her adopted son to the throne of Jhansi.
• She fought gallantly against the British forces but was ultimately defeated by the English.
• Gwalior
• After Rani Lakshmi Bai escaped, she was joined by Tantia Tope and together they marched to Gwalior and captured it.
• Gwalior was recaptured by the British.
• Fierce fighting followed where the Rani of Jhansi fought like a tigress but died, fighting to the very end.
• Bihar- the revolt was led by Kunwar Singh who belonged to the royal house of Jagdispur, Bihar.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• Azamgarh Proclamation was published in the Delhi gazette by Firoz Shah, the grandson of Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Key Points

• It was published during the middle of the ‘great mutiny’ of 1857 or the first revolution in India.
• It was published on 25th August 1857 and stressed the communities of Hindus and Muslims to stay united. Hence the statement 2 is incorrect.
• The proclamation appealed to the people that the people belonging to different castes should remain together during this time.
• Rebels wanted full power to be vested in the hands of the king.

Additional Information

• Bahadur Shah Zafar or Bahadur Shah II was the twentieth and last Mughal emperor. He was the second son of and became the successor to his father, Akbar II, upon his death on 28 September 1837.
• He was a titular Emperor, as the Mughal Empire existed in name only, and his authority was limited only to the walled city of Old Delhi (Shahjahanabad).
• Following his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British exiled him to Rangoon in British-controlled Burma (now in Myanmar), after convicting him on several charges.

The correct answer is Muhammad bin Tughluq.

• Ibn Batuta's full name was Muhammad bin Abdullah ibn Battuta.

Key Points

• Ibn Battuta was the greatest of the Muslim travellers.
• He is estimated to have travelled about 75,000 miles.
• Hardly any other traveller of that era has travelled so long.
• He went on to tour the world at the age of 22 and roamed continuously for 30 years.
• During his visit to India, he reached the court of Muhammad Tughluq, where, impressed by his intelligence, Muhammad Tughluq appointed him as Qazi.

Additional Information

• Alauddin Khilji was the ruler of the Khilji dynasty who ruled over the Delhi Sultanate.
• He is well known for his effective administration related to controlling prices, revenues, and societal development.
• Iltutmish is the first Muslim ruler who ruled from Delhi and is also considered the founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
• He was the third of the Mamluk dynasty.
• Firoz Shah Tughluq was the ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty who ruled over Delhi from 1351 to 1388.

Important Points

Tughluq Dynasty (1320 to 1413):

• Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq or Ghazi Malik was the founder of the Tughluq dynasty.
• Ghiyas-ud-din reinstated order in his empire.
• He brought Bengal, Utkala or Orissa, and Warangal under his control.
• The Mongol leaders who invaded North India were seized and confined by him.
• In 1325 A.D. Ghiyas-ud-din was crushed to death while attending an event for his victories in Bengal.
• Junakhan, the crown prince succeeded him.

Lodi Dynasty (1451 to 1526):

• Bahlul Lodi was the founder of the Lodi Dynasty.
• Sultanate Period ended with Lodi Dynasty.
• He took various measures to gratify his nobles.
• Gwalior, Samthal, Sakit, Mewat was conquered by Bahlul Lodi.
• He died in 1489 A.D.

Slave Dynasty (1206 to 1290):

• The first ruler of the Mamluk Dynasty.
• Mamluk Dynasty is also called the Slave Dynasty.
• Sold as a slave to Muhammad Ghori, the ruler of Ghor in Afghanistan.
• Aibak became Ghori’s trusted general and commander.
• He was given charge of Ghori’s Indian possessions after 1192.
• When Ghori was assassinated, Aibak declared himself Sultan of Delhi in 1206.
• Started construction of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi. This is one of the first Islamic monuments in India.
• He began the construction of Qutb Minar in Delhi.
• He reigned till his death in 1210. He was said to have been trampled to death by a horse.
• He was succeeded by Aram Shah.

 Khilji Dynasty (1290 to 1320):

• Jalal-ud-din Firoz Khilji was the founder of the Khilji Dynasty.
• He was also called “Clemency Jalal-uddin” as he followed peace and wanted to rule without violence.
• He suppressed Malik Chhajju’s revolt at Kara
• He appointed Ala-ud-din Khilji as the Governor of Kara. Alauddin was his son-in-law and also nephew.
• In 1292 A.D. Jalal-ud-din defeated the Mongols who had come up to Sunam.
• Jalal-ud-din was treacherously murdered by Ala-ud-din Khilji his son-in-law.

The correct answer is Arabic.

• The language of Al-Biruni's 'Kitab-ul-Hind' is Arabic.

Key Points

• It is a comprehensive treatise divided into eighty chapters on the basis of topics like religion and philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy, customs and practices, social life-weight and measurement methods, sculpture and law of sciences, etc.
• Al-Bruni was an Iranian scholar during the Islamic golden age.
• He had good knowledge of Mathematics, Physics, Natural Sciences, and astronomy which distinguished him from other historians.
• He was the court astrologer in the court of Mohammed Ghazni and went on several invasions to India with him.
• During these visits, he came to know many things about India thus he wrote his study of India in 1030.
• His major work was on astrology.
• Out of 146 books, 95 were written on mathematics, astronomy, and subjects related to mathematical geography.

Additional Information

• He has been variously called as the:-
• Founder of Indology.
• Father of Comparative Religion.
• Father of modern geodesy.
• The first anthropologist.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• Parliamentary privileges are the special rights, exceptions, and immunities which are given to the members of both the houses of the Parliament and their committees.

Key Points

• It is subdivided into two parts: one which is enjoyed by the members of the Parliament collectively and one that is enjoyed by the members of parliament individually.
• These privileges include freedom of speech in Parliament and the right of publication of its proceedings.
• These two privileges were given initially under article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
• Individual privileges include freedom from arrest in civil actions, a person cannot be subpoenaed to attend court as a witness, etc.
• Collective privilege means that the person cannot be arrested from the premises of any of the houses without the permission of the chairperson of the house and the court does not have any right to investigate the proceedings of any of the house or the working of the committee.
• The freedom of speech available to the members on the floor of the House is different from that available to the citizens under Article 19(2).
• Members have freedom of speech in the House and enjoy immunity from proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in Parliament or in any committee thereof.

Additional Information

• The government of India is based on the parliamentary system. The central legislative structure is addressed in Articles 74 and 75, while the states are addressed in Articles 163 and 164.
• The Parliamentary structure has a number of characteristics that make it superior to the Presidential system.
• Depending on the relationship between the executive and the legislature, the democratic form of government is divided into two categories: parliamentary and presidential.
• In a legislative structure, the executive is a component of the legislature, which is responsible for enforcing the legislation as well as contributing to its formulation.
• Both of these jobs are purely ceremonial. The real head of the government is the Prime Minister.
• As a result, the Prime Minister has full executive authority. Since the executive powers are concentrated in the cabinet, the legislative government is also known as the Cabinet government.
• Articles 74 and 75 address the parliamentary system at the federal level, while Articles 163 and 164 address the parliamentary system at the state level.

The correct answer is The Members are appointed or elected on·a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

• The parliamentary committee is formed to deal with and study various matters that cannot be handled directly by the legislature due to the large volume of work.

Key Points

• They also monitor the functioning of the Executive Branch.
• There are two types of parliamentary committees: standing or permanent committee and ad hoc committee.
• The standing committee is appointed periodically and works continuously while the Ad Hoc Committee is appointed when the need arises and is dissolved when the task assigned to them is finished.
• The standing committee comprises Members of Parliament and is permanent and regular in nature which is changed from time to time according to the work and acts of Parliament.
• The standing committee is of the types: financial standing committee, department-related standing committee, and another standing committee.
• In the case of the department-related standing committee, the members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha for a maximum of 1 year.
• Ad Hoc committee examples include ‘committee on ethics’ and was made for the period of one year comprising 15 members.
• ‘Joint committee on security in Parliament House Complex’  was formed for a period of one year with 10 members.

The correct answer is Regional Parties.

• A national or state party can be a recognised political party if certain conditions which are laid down by the Election Commission are fulfilled.

Key Points

• To become a recognised party, the party should secure a minimum percentage of total polled votes or a certain number of seats in Lok Sabha or state legislative assembly.
• The Election Commission lists political parties as “national party”, “state party” or “registered (unrecognized) party”.
• The conditions for being listed as a national or a state party are specified under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
• A party has to satisfy any one of a number of these conditions.
• The party which is given this recognition by the commission gets certain privileges like allotment of a party symbol, sometimes for political broadcast on the state televisions and radio stations, and has access to electoral rolls.
• The registered unrecognized party are those who are a newly registered party or have not secured a certain percentage of votes in general or assembly Elections which are fixed by the election commission or have never contested in elections.

Additional Information

• At present (2019), a party is recognised as a state party in a state if any of the following conditions are fulfilled:

1. If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 2 seats in the assembly of the state concerned; or
2. If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state
   

concerned; and, in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or 3. If it wins three percent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative assembly of the state

concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is more; or 4. If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any

fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to

the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or 5. If it secures eight percent of the total valid votes polled in

the state at a General Election to the Lok Sabha from the

state or to the legislative assembly of the state. This

condition was added in 2011.

• A party is given the status of a National-level political party when it fulfills one of the following conditions:

1. Gains at least 4 Lok Sabha seats in 4 or more states; or
2. Gains at least 2% in the Lok Sabha, i.e. 11 seats, and together these seats have come from three different states; or
3. Recognized as a state-level party in at least four states.

Important Points

• There is a total of 8 National Political Parties in India.
• Indian National Congress - 1885
• Communist Party of India - 1925
• Communist Party of India (Marxist) - 1964
• Bhartiya Janta Party - 1980
• Bahujan Samaj Party - 1984
• Trinamool Congress - 1998
• Nationalist Congress Party - 1999
• National People's Party - 2013
• 52 state-level political parties are recognized in India.

The correct answer is ​1, 2 and 3.

• The Preamble is known as the introductory note of the Indian Constitution.

Key Points

• The preamble was modified under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, Three new words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were added.
• Under this amendment, the word ‘sovereign democratic republic’ was changed to ‘sovereign socialist secular democratic republic’ and the words ‘unity of the Nation’ were changed to ‘unity and integrity of the nation’.
• The 42nd amendment is considered the most controversial amendment in the constitution as it attempts to reduce the power of high courts and the supreme court.
• Under this amendment, the fundamental duties of Indian citizens were laid down and it brought the most widespread changes to the Indian Constitution.
• The word ‘Secular’ got inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• The term “Secular” means being "separate" from religion or having no religious basis.
• Secularism means the separation of religion from political, economic, social, and cultural aspects of life, religion is treated as a purely personal matter.
• Indian Secularism is also reflected in its fundamental rights (Article 25-28) where it guarantees each of its citizens the right to practice any religion.

Important Points

Components of the Preamble:

• Date of Adoption: 26th November 1949.
• It states that the Constitution derives its power from the people of India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It states India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Republic & Democratic state.
• It specifies Justice, Liberty, Equality, & Fraternity as the objectives of the Indian Constitution.
• According to the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, 
• It is non-Justiciable i.e its provisions are not enforceable in a court of law.
• The Preamble is neither a prohibition upon the powers of the Legislature nor the source of power to the Legislature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• ​Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity are borrowed from the French Constitution.
• The ideal of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble were borrowed from the Soviet Union (Russia) Constitution.

The correct answer is B. N. Rau.

• Benegal Narsimha Rau was an Indian Administrative Service officer and judge of the International Court of Justice.

Key Points

• He was also known as an advisor to the Indian Constitution.
• He and Sri Sachchidananda Sinha created the first draft of the Indian Constitution.
• He actively participated in drafting the Constitution of India.
• He has the distinction of being a permanent judge of the International Court of Justice.
• The constituent assembly was elected to frame the constitution of India and after India's Independence, its members were the members of India’s first parliament.
• The president of the constituent assembly was Rajendra Prasad and the chairman of the drafting committee was B.R. Ambedkar.

Additional Information

• Pattabhi Sitaramayya was a political leader of Andhra Pradesh and an Indian independence activist.
• In 1916, Lucknow session of the Congress, he demanded the formation of a separate Congress for Andhra which was opposed by Mahatma Gandhi.
• Alladi Krishnaswamy was a lawyer and member of the Constituent Assembly of India.
• He was the advocate General of Madras from 1929 to 1944.

Important Points

• The constituent assembly was set up on 6th December 1946.
• It was formed under the provisions of the cabinet mission plan.
• The constitution of India was framed by the constituent assembly.
• It took 2 years, 11 months​ , and 18 days to frame the constitution of India.
• The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on  9th December 1946.
• Dr. Sachidanda Sinha was elected as the temporary president of the assembly during its first meeting.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent president of the constituent assembly on 11th December 1946.
• H C Mukharjee and V. T. Krishnamachari was the vice president of the constituent assembly.
• B. N Rao was the constitutional advisor of the constituent assembly.
• Dr.B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the drafting committee.
• Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the objective resolution in the constituent assembly on 13th December 1946.
• He was the chairman of the union constitution committee.
• Sardar Patel was the chairman of the committee on fundamental rights and minorities.

The correct answer is the Supreme Court and High Courts only.

• Writ means written command in the name of the court.

Key Points

• It is a legal document that is issued by a Court that orders a person or entity to perform a particular act or to stop performing a specific deed.
• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution makes the law of issuing the writs by the supreme court and Article 226 gives the law of issuing the writs by the high court.
• In India, only 'prerogative writs' are issued which are issued under different circumstances.
• 'Prerogative writs' are of five kinds: writ of certiorari, writ of quo warranto, writ of habeas corpus, writ of prohibition, and writ of mandamus.

Additional Information

 Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court - 

• Original jurisdiction - Under the Original jurisdiction, the Supreme court can decide the dispute between -  
• Any dispute between the Centre and one or more States.
• Any dispute between the Centre and one or more States on one side and one or more States on the other side.
• Any dispute between two or more States.
• Writ jurisdiction - 
• Article 32(2) of the Constitution of India provides:'' The Supreme Court shall have the power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of rights conferred by this Part.
• Under article 226, an individual can move to the High Court for enforcement of the fundamental rights as well as for any other purpose also i.e. for enforcement of any other legal right.
• It means that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of The Supreme Court. 
• ​Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Appellate Jurisdiction - It can be classified into four heads :
• Appeals in constitutional matters
• Appeals in civil matters
• Appeals in criminal matters
• Appeals in the special leave
• Advisory jurisdiction -  Article 143 of the Indian constitution authorizes the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme court in the two categories of matters :
• On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise. (In this case, the Supreme court may refuse to tender its opinion to the president).
• Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad, or similar instruments. (In this case, the Supreme court must tender its opinion to the president)
• A court of record - 
• In 1991 Supreme court has ruled that it has the power to punish for the contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts, and tribunals functioning in the entire country.