CDS General Knowledge 2 Feb 2020 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is option 3, i.e positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom.

Key Points

• Scattering of a-particles by a thin gold foil suggests the presence of a positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom.
• The experiment was conducted by Ernest Rutherford.
• He also discovered the Proton.
• James Chadwick discovered the neutron.
• Electron was discovered by J.J. Thompson.
• Thomson's nuclear model is also known as the Plum Pudding model.

The Correct Answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• \({}{18}^{40}Ar\) and \({}{20}^{40}Ca\)  are pairs of isobars.
• Isobars are the atoms having different atomic number and the same mass number.
• Isotopes are atoms having the same atomic number but different atomic mass.
• ${}_{6}^{12}C$ , \({}{6}^{13}C\), \({}{6}^{14}C\)  are examples of isotopes.
• The mass number is the total number of protons and neutrons. It is represented by the letter A.
• The atomic number is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom. It is represented by letter Z.

The correct option is 3.

• The reaction is not feasible because Copper cannot replace Lead.
• Lead is more reactive than Copper in the reactivity series.
• The reactivity series is as follows:- K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > C > Zn > Fe > Sn > Pb > H > Cu > Ag > Au > Pt.
• Potassium is the most reactive and can replace every other element in the series.
• The other reactions are an example of the Displacement reaction.
• In a Displacement reaction, a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Highly Acidic Solution.

• A highly acidic solution has a pH equal to zero.
• A highly alkaline solution has a pH of 14.
• A weak acid has a pH of not less than 7.
• A neutral solution has a pH of 7.
• The word pH stands for "pondus Hydrogenium".The pH is determined by the number of free hydrogen ions (H+) and hydroxide (OH-) ions in a substance.
• When the number of hydrogen ions is higher ion a solution then the solution is acidic.
• When the number of hydroxide ions is higher ion a solution then the solution is basic.

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Hydrochloric Acid.

• Hydrochloric acid is produced in the human stomach.
• Parietal cells in the mucosa of the inner lining of the digestive tract secrete the acid.
• Hydrochloric acid activates the pepsinogen by supplying H⁺.
• The human body also creates Lactic acid.
• Formic acid is present in Ant's sting.
• Sulphuric acid is also known as oil of vitriol.

The correct option is 1, i.e A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

Key Points

• Boric acid is used as a mild antiseptic, flame retardant, neutron absorber.
• Its chemical formula H₃BO_3.
• Citric acid is used as a food preservative  It is also used to stabilize and preserve medicines and also as a disinfectant against viruses and bacteria.
• Its acidic pH makes it as an effective preservative.
• Magnesium hydroxide is used as Antacid to relieve indigestion, a laxative, to treat sour stomach, and heartburn.
• Vinegar which is an Acetic acid is used in a pickle it is also used in cooking, baking, meat preservation.
• As bacteria cannot grow in an acidic environment, hence it is used as preservative also it imparts a sour taste to pickle.

The correct option is 1, i.e Frequency.

• Frequency determines the pitch of the sound.
• The higher the frequency of a sound, the higher pitch.
• Amplitude is the maximum displacement of vibrating particles of the medium from their mean position.
• When sound travels from one medium to another, both its velocity and wavelength undergo changes.
• When a ray of light passes from rarer to a denser medium, the frequency remains the same but wavelength changes.
• The intensity of a sound wave is a combination of its rate and density of energy transfer. It is an objective quantity associated with a wave.

Option 1 is NOT correct.

• X-rays don't get deflected by electric fields.
• This is because X-Rays don't carry any charge with them.
• Thus, these electro-magnetic radiations cannot be deflected either by electrical fields, or magnetic fields.
• Properties of X-rays:
• X-rays have a shorter wavelength of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• They have a high penetration length in the matter.
• X-rays can travel in a vacuum.
• X-rays were discovered in by Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen.
• He received the first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901 for the invention of  X-rays.

CONCEPT:

• Plane Mirror: A plane mirror is a mirror with a flat (planar) reflective surface.

The characteristics of an image formed in a plane mirror:

• The image formed by the plane mirror is virtual and erect i.e. image cannot be projected or focused on a screen.

• The distance of the image ‘behind’ the mirror is the same as the distance of the object in front of the mirror.

• The size of the image formed is the same as the size of the object.

• The image is laterally inverted, i.e. left hand appears to be right hand when seen from the plane mirror.

• If the object moves towards (or away from) the mirror at a certain rate, the image also moves towards (or away from) the mirror at the same rate.

EXPLANATION:

• From the above discussion, we can say that the image formed by a plane mirror is virtual. So statement 3 is not correct.

The correct option is 1, i.e parallel to each other

Key Points

• A periscope is an instrument used for observing over an obstacle or object which is prevented by a direct line of sight.

• When light falls on one of the mirrors, it gets reflected back and the reflected rays fall on the other mirror which further gets reflected towards the observer’s eyes.

• The mirrors are at 45^o to the horizontal plane and parallel to each other.

• Periscope works on the principle of reflection of light

• It is used in submarines and armoured vehicles.

CONCEPT:

• Refractive index: The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in the medium is called the refractive index of that medium.
• The Refractive index is the measure of bending of light when passing from one medium to another.
• It is a unitless and dimensionless quantity.

$Refractive; index = \frac{{speed;of;light;in;air}}{{speed;of;light;in;medium}}$

CALCULATION:

Given that:

Refractive index (μ) = 3/2 = 1.5

Speed of light in air (c) = 3 x 10⁸m/s

Since μ = c/v

Speed of light in medium (v) = c/μ = 3 x 108/1.5 = 2 × 10⁸ m/s

• Hence, the Speed of light in the medium is 2x10⁸ m/s. So option 1 is correct.

The correct option is 4, i.e Ultraviolet Radiation.

• Ultraviolet has the shortest wavelength among the given options.
• Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength and highest energy in the electromagnetic spectrum.
• Radio waves have the highest wavelength and least energy.
• Radio waves consist of Radar, Amplitude Modulated (AM), Frequency Modulation, and TV.
• Moving from gamma rays to radio waves wavelength increases and energy decreases.
• CODE TO REMEMBER the electromagnetic spectrum - GXUVIMR.

The correct option is 2, i.e N/m.

• The unit of the force constant k of spring is N/m.
• It works on the principle of Hooke's Law for springs.
• The formula for force in spring is given by F_s = kx, where, F_s=force, k = spring constant and x = displacement.
• Hence, $k = {F\over x}$
• $k = {N \over m}$
• N/m is also the unit of surface tension.
• N/m² is the unit of pressure.
• The newton-meter (also newton meter; symbol N⋅m or N m) is a unit of torque (also called moment) in the SI system.

The correct option is 4, i.e Elephantiasis.

• According to a WHO Handout released recently, Cholera, Malaria, and Smallpox form part of the "Epidemics" around the world.
• So, we conclude that Elephantiasis is not an epidemic disease because it doesn't spread from person to person.
• It is also known as lymphatic filariasis.
• It is caused by parasitic worms.
• The disease is common in tropical and subtropical parts of the world.
• Cholera is caused by a bacterium called Vibrio cholerae.
• Malaria is caused by the mosquitoes carrying Plasmodium parasite.
• Smallpox is caused by a virus called the variola virus.

The correct option is 2, i.e Salamander.

• The Salamander has a three-chambered heart.
• It belongs to group Amphibia.
• Its three-chambered heart contains two auricles and one ventricle.
• Its Kingdom is Animalia and Phylum is Chordata.
• Scoliodon are from the **group of **fishes (Pisces) have a 2-chambered heart.
• Pigeons have a 4-chambered heart.

Characteristics of Class- Amphibia:

• They can live both on land and in water.
• Their heart is three-chambered.
• Their development takes place via metamorphosis.
• Mostly found in a warm environment.

The correct option is 3, i.e Pollination, fertilization, division of the zygote, the formation of embryo, seedling.

• The correct sequence Pollination, fertilization, division of the zygote, formation of embryo, seedling.
• Pollination is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma.
• In fertilization, male gametes in pollen grains fuse with egg in the ovule.
• The fusion causes the formation of zygote.
• The zygote then undergoes rapid cell division and forms an embryo.
• The embryo is nothing but a baby plant in the dormant stage when the embryo gets favorable conditions such as water, warmth, and soil it turns into a seedling.
• This process is known as germination.

The correct option is 3, i.e Carbondioxide.

• Due to the presence of Carbon dioxide blown from the mouth, the limewater turns milky.
• Humans inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide.
• When we exhale into the test tube the lime water turns milky due to the formation of Calcium carbonate.
• The products formed in this reaction is Calcium carbonate and water.
• Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O

The correct option is 2, i.e ATP.

• ATP or Adenosine triphosphate is the 'energy currency' for cellular processes.
• ATP is the molecules of energy formed after respiration in body cells.
• It removes a single phosphate from ATP and releases energy.
• Pyruvic acid, ATP, and energy are the by-products of the glycolysis process.
• Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they are called ‘power houses’ of the cell.

The correct option is 4, i.e Amylase.

• Salivary Amylase is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract.
• It hydrolyzes the starch in the ingested food particle and breaks down carbohydrates into smaller molecules.
• Amylase is produced by the salivary glands.
• Pepsin and trypsin help to digest proteins.
• Trypsin is produced by the pancreas and pepsin is secreted by the stomach.
• In an inactive form, trypsin is called trypsinogen.

The correct option is 2, i.e Sodium Chloride.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March was associated with Sodium chloride.
• The Dandi march took place in March–April 1930.
• The Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March to break the Salt Law of the British Government.
• The Dandi March was started from Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmadabad to Dandi which is a village on the western sea-coast of India
• The Dandi March was apart of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• C. Rajgopalchari led a march similar to the Dandi march in Madras state.
• The march in local language was known as Vedaranyam March.

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

Key Points

• Bleaching powder is act as Bleaching agent and used for water treatment. it is less soluble in water.
• Baking Soda is the common name of Sodium Bicarbonate and it is used in baking.
• Washing Sodais the common name of Sodium Carbonate and it is used as an additive to the detergent to remove the hardness of the water.
• Slaked Lime or Lime Hydrates the common name of Calcium Hydroxide. it is obtained by mixing of Quicklime (Calcium Oxide) with water.
• It is commonly used in sewage treatment and in the leather industry.

Solution: 

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 5.

The reaction between copper sulfate and water.

• Certain compounds form crystals only by the addition of few molecules of water of crystallization like washing soda (Na₂CO₃.10H₂O) green vitriol (FeSO₄.7H₂O) and Blue Vitriol (CuSO4.5H2O) etc.
• The reaction between anhydrous copper(II) sulfate and water is used as a test for water.
• The copper sulphate molecule that forms crystals is associated with 5 water molecules. Hence option 3 is correct.
• It is the most common form of copper sulphate salt with chemical formula CuSO₄.5H₂O.
• The crystals are bright blue in colour and are also known as "Blue Vitriol".

Solution: 

The correct answer is option 3.

Silver reacts with Sulphur in the air.

• Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air because Silver reacts with Sulphur in the air to form a coating of Silver Sulphide (Ag2S). Hence option 3 is correct.
• Silver reacts with Sulphur compounds such as Hydrogen Sulphide (H2S) present in the air.
• 4Ag (polished silver) + 2H₂S + O₂  → 2Ag₂S (Tarnished silver) + 2H₂O
• The chemical change is called "Corrosion" and is also known as "Tarnishing of Silver".
• It darkens the silver because Silver Sulphide (Ag₂S) is black.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. x = 273 + y.

Temperature conversion

• There can be three main conversions of temperature which are

1. Celsius to Kelvin:  K = C + 273, where K is the temperature in kelvin and C is the temperature in Celcius. Hence option 2 is correct.
2. Celsius to Fahrenheit: F = C(9⁄5) + 32, where F is the temperature in Fahrenheit and C is the temperature in Celcius.
3. Fahrenheit to Kelvin**:**  K = (F − 32) × 5⁄9 + 273, where F is the temperature in Fahrenheit and K is the temperature in Kelvin.

The temperature on Kelvin (K) and Degree Celsius (°C) scales are related by 0K = - 273°C

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. ohm-cm.

Resistivity

• Resistivity is the property of the material that opposes the flow of charge in that material.
• It is the resistance per unit length and cross-sectional area.
• The unit of resistivity is ohm-meter or ohm-cm.  Hence option 3 is correct.
• The resistivity of a material depends on its nature and the temperature of the conductor.
• The resistivity of a material does not depend upon its shape and size.

For a given conductor 

     $R = ρ{l \over A}$ ;  R = Resistance (ohm), l = length (cm), A = Area (cm²)

where ρ is called resistivity.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. radio waves.

Electromagnetic Waves

• Electromagnetic Waves are the electromagnetic spectrum in which electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.

• Electromagnetic Waves or Electromagnetic Radiation includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiations, visible lights, ultraviolet radiations, X-rays, and gamma rays.

• Electromagnetic wave and Electromagnetic spectrum

• | Type of Radiation | Frequency Range (Hz) | Wavelength Range | | --- | --- | --- | | gamma-rays | 1020 – 1024 | < 10-12 m | | x-rays | 1017 – 1020 | 1 nm – 1 pm | | ultraviolet | 1015 – 1017 | 400 nm – 1 nm | | visible | 4 – 7.5 × 1014 | 750 nm – 400 nm | | near-infrared | 1 × 1014 – 4 × 1014 | 2.5 μm – 750 nm | | infrared | 1013 – 1014 | 25 μm – 2.5 μm | | microwaves | 3 × 1011 – 1013 | 1 mm – 25 μm | | radio waves | < 3 × 1011 | > 1 mm |

• Radio waves are used for satellite communication.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra.

Human Excretory system 

• Excretion is a basic process in the Life of every organism. Different organisms follow different modes of excretion.
• In humans, there is a specialized system for excretion called human excretory system.
• After metabolic reactions, the body starts to sort out useful and toxic substances in the human body.
• The body removes all the Toxic wastes by the process called excretion.
• The human excretory system organs include A pair of kidneys, A pair of ureters, A urinary bladder and A urethra. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• ​The kidneys filter the blood and produce urine.
• The ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra together form the urinary tract, which acts as a plumbing system to drain urine from the kidneys.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Pituitary

Endocrine Gland

• The Endocrine Glands are ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the blood.
• The organized endocrine bodies in our body are Pituitary, pineal, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid, thymus and gonads (testis in males and ovary in females).
• The Pituitary Gland is a pea-sized gland located in a bone cavity and attached to the hypothalamus in the brain. It is also called the Master Gland and it is not found in pairs in human bodies. Hence option 2 is correct
• It secretes the following hormones.

1. Growth hormone into the blood which stimulates growth in all organs.
2. Prolactin (PRL) hormone which produces milk in the breast. Though it is present at all times, the secretion is increased during and just after pregnancy.
3. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) which influences the thyroid gland for the release of thyroxine.
4. Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH) which stimulates the production of melanin by skin and hair.
5. Oxytocin hormone which Controls certain aspects of pregnancy and childbirth such as uterine contraction and production of milk..

• While Adrenal Gland, Testis (in male) and Ovary (in female) are found in pairs inside the human body. Hence option 1, 3 and 4 are not correct.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Mitochondrion.

Cell Organelles

• Every single species are composed of a cell, and it includes both single-celled and multicellular organisms.
• The cells provide shape, structure, and carry out different types of functions to keep the entire system active. The cell contains different functional structures which are collectively called as the Organelles, and they are involved in various cellular functions.
• Single membrane-bound organelles: Vacuole, Lysosome, Golgi Apparatus, Endoplasmic Reticulum are single membrane-bound organelles present only in a eukaryotic cell.
• Double membrane-bound organelles: Mitochondria and chloroplast are double membrane-bound organelles present only in a eukaryotic cell.
• DNA (Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid) is a genetic material present in cells.
• Cell organelles like Nucleus, Plastids and Mitochondrion contains DNA. Hence option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Edward Jenner​.

Immunization

• Immunization is the process through which a person is made immune against subsequent infection or disease by using a vaccine.
• Vaccines stimulate the body’s own immune system to protect the person against subsequent infection or disease.
• Edward Jenner is considered the founder of vaccinology in 1796, after he inoculated a 13 year-old-boy with vaccinia virus (cowpox), and demonstrated immunity to smallpox.  He was the first who introduced the concept of immunization to the medical world. Hence option 1 is correct
• Louis Pasteur’s experiments spearheaded the development of live attenuated cholera vaccine and inactivated anthrax vaccine in humans.
• India's Universal Immunisation Programme (U.I.P.) is one of the largest in the world.
• India's Universal Immunisation programme UIP was launched in 1985 in a phased manner.

Important Points

The Vaccination Schedule under India's UIP is:

• BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin)
• DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus Toxoid)
• OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)
• Hepatitis  B vaccine
• Measles
• TT (Tetanus Toxoid
• TT – for pregnant woman two doses or one dose if previously vaccinated within 3 Year
• In addition, four new vaccines are being introduced as part of UIP including
• Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV),
• Rotavirus vaccine,
• Measles, Rubella (MR) vaccine, and
• Adult Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine.
• Robert Koch was a German scientist who found specific causative agents of tuberculosis, cholera and anthrax and was one of the main founders of the modern bacteriology.
• Robert Hooke was an English Polymath of the 17th century and Carl Linnaeus was a Swedish scientist who formalised the binomial nomenclature of naming organisms and is also known as the "Father of Modern Taxonomy".  Hence option 2,3, and 4 are not correct.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Lahore​.

Lahore session 1929

In 1928, for the first time, a constitution for India was drafted by Nehru Committee that was headed by Moti Lal Nehru. A year later, in the Lahore session of December 1929, Congress passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution. It was the same session in which Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as president of the Congress mainly due to Gandhi’s backing.

Salient features of Lahore session 1929

• The Round Table Conference to be boycotted.
• Poorna Swaraj or Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress.
• Congress Working Committee was authorized to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all members of legislatures asked to resign their seats.
• On 31 December 1929, the newly adopted tricolour flag was unfurled.
• 26 January was fixed as India’s Independence Day, which was to be celebrated every year.

The correct answer is The Government of India Act, 1935.

Key PointsFeatures of the Government of India Act, 1935:

• The act provides for the establishment of the All India Federation however it never came to exist as the princely state did not join it.
• The act divided the power between the centre and the provinces.
• There were three lists- Federal List (Centre), Provincial List (Provinces) and Concurrent List (Both), which gave the subjects under each government.
• Residual powers vested with The Viceroy.
• It abolishes the provincial dyarchy and introduced Provincial autonomy.
• It provides the adoption of dyarchy at the centre.
• It introduces bicameralism in 6 provinces.
• It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes(scheduled caste),  women and labour ( worker). Hence option 4 is correct.
• It further extended the franchise,  about 10% of the total population got voting rights.
• It established the Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country.
• It provided for the establishment of Federal Public Service Commission, provincial public service commission and joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.
• It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court which was set up in 1937.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Separate electorates for untouchables.

All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference

• Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar belonged to the untouchable Mahar caste.
• He tried to integrate untouchables into Indian society in modern ways, not traditional ways.
• His program was based on education and exercise of legal and political rights.
• He started an all-India organization for the rejection of all forms of feudalism imposed upon the Dalits and started mass campaigns to demand separate electorates.
• In the 1920s a major untouchability movement was launched by Ambedkar in Maharashtra.
• In 1924 Dr. Ambedkar founded the  "Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha" a Depressed Classes Institute in Bombay.
• In 1927 he started "Bahishkrit Bharat" a Marathi fortnightly and established the Samaj Samta Sangh to propagate the gospel of social equality between caste Hindus and untouchables.
• In 1927 he led the Mahad Satyagraha to establish the rights of untouchables to draw water from public wells and tanks.
• He also organized temple entry movements.
• Before the Round Table Conference of 1930-31 Ambedkar emerged as the major leader of the depressed classes and demanded constitutional safeguards for the depressed classes.
• In the All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference at Bombay in 1931, he demanded separate electorates for untouchables. Hence option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Abanindranath Tagore.

Painting in India

The tradition of painting has been carried on the Indian subcontinent since ancient times. with times painting evolved to become a sort of blend of various traditions influencing them. Indian painting provides on the aesthetic value that extends from early Civilization to the present day. as time passed Indian painting become a fusion of various culture and traditions. During the British period, some great personalities of Indian painting emerged like:

Rabindranath Tagore( 1861- 1941)

• He started painting from 1924 onwards and emerged as a creative exponent of graphic art in 1928.
• His Painting and drawings are generally of small size use.
• He used a dominant black ink line. Hence option 1 is not correct.

Abanindranath Tagore (1871 -1951)

• He was the gifted landscape and portrait painter.
• His first painting was Radha Krishna series and his set of paintings called Krishna Lila is the synthesis of the Indian and European style.
• His Arabian Nights series is among his most renowned work.
• He established the Indian society of Oriental art along with his brother Gagendranath Tagore in 1907 in Calcutta. Hence option 2 is correct.
• This Indian society of Oriental art sponsored by Europeans, much popularized Tagore’s Bengal School.
• Tagore best-known painting is Bharat Mata which depicted Young women portrayed with 4 arms in a manner of Hindu tidy holding objects.

Dwarakanath Tagore(1811-1839)

• He helped in setting up the first Anglo-Indian managing agency, an industrial organization that ran jute mills, tea plantations, coal mines etc. Hence option 3 is not correct

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya(1838-1894)

• He was an Indian novelist, poet and journalist.
• He was the composer of Vande Mataram. Hence option 4 is not correct.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Balban.

Key Points

Delhi sultanate - the Slave dynasty(1206AD-1290AD)

• Slave Dynasty is also called the Mamluk Dynasty. it refers to a powerful military caste called Mamluks. The Mamluks wielded military and political power in Egypt, Iraq and India.
• Mamluk Dynasty was established in Delhi by Qutb-ud-Din Aibak.
• His reign lasted till his death in 1210. He was said to have been trampled to death by a horse. He was succeeded by Aram Shah.
• Aram Shah was a weak ruler and He was conspired against by a group of nobles who invited Shamsuddin Iltutmish to be the ruler.
• Iltutmish was son-in-laws of Qutb-ud-Din Aibak
• Iltutmish constituted a "Corp of 40" nobles Known as Turkan-i-Chihalgani. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• It was a select body of Turkish nobility originally slaves of Iltumish.
• Balban, the next notable ruler after Razia, succeeded in finally breaking and destroying the power of Turkan-i-Chihalgani. Hence option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Chenghiz Khan.

The Mongol problem during Sultanate Period

• India was defended in North and Northwest by the Himalayas and their extension the mountain in the north-west were pierced by passes like Khyber and Bolan pass which were the traditional point of entry into India.
• Afghanistan and its neighbouring areas were strategically important for India because they provided a buffer for any invasion on India.
• Delhi Sultanate control over Kabul-Qandahar lines was important for stabilizing scientific frontier and it connected India with the major Silk route.
• But Mangol compelled the Delhi sultanate to take comfort along Chenab while Sutlaj region became the point of confrontation. Indus  remained only the cultural boundary of India and for all practical purpose the line of control was confined to the west of Indus only.
• After Chenghiz Khan defeated Khwarizmi prince Jalal-ud-din, who fought a brave battle on the banks of Indus and after being defeated he flung his horse into the river and crossed to India.
• But Iltutmish the ruler of Delhi sultanate did not help Jalal-ud-din and so long as Chenghiz Khan was alive he did not adopt the expansionist policy in the North-West region.
• Although Chenghiz Khan loitered near the river Indus for 3 months, he decided not to cross into India and returned back to Mongolia where he died in 1227. Hence option 1 is correct.
• While his Mongol descendants including Tair Bahadur, Abdullah and Qutlugh Khwaja invaded India on different occasions. Hence option 2,3 and 4 is not correct.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Bora.

Wind system

• The wind is an air movement having both direction and speed. It is mainly of 3 types:
• Permanent Winds
• The winds that blow constantly throughout the year and in in a particular direction are called Permanent Winds.
• These permanent winds are- Trade wind, Easterlies and westerlies.
• Seasonal Winds
• The winds that change their direction with onsets of different seasons are called seasonal wind.
• A monsoon is a type of seasonal wind and prevalent in India.
• ​Local Winds
• Local Winds blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area.
• The local winds moderates the climate of nearby areas with sudden increase or decrease in the temperature and humidity.
• For example- Land Breez, Sea Breez, Anabatic and Katabatic winds.

Name of some local winds around the worlds:

• A Blizzard is a severe snowstorm.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Arunachal Pradesh.

Tribes in India

• Constitution of India has recognized tribal communities in India under ‘Schedule 5’ of the constitution, Hence known as Scheduled Tribes.
• A tribe can be described as a social division in a traditional society consisting of families linked by social, economic, religious, or blood ties, with a common culture and dialect.
• A tribe possesses certain qualities and characteristics that make it a unique cultural, social, and political entity.
• Madhya Pradesh has the largest number of Scheduled Tribes.
• There are no Scheduled Tribes in Punjab, Delhi, Chandigarh, Pondicherry, Haryana.
• The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.it looks into the matter related to Schedule Tribes.
• There are around 645 distinct tribes in India and some of them are following
• ​Arunachal Pradesh: Apatanis, Abor, Dafla, Singpho, Nyishi, Mishmi, Idu, Taroan, Tagin, Adi, Monpa.
• Kerala: Adiyan, Arandan, Eravallan, Kurumbas, Malai arayan, Moplahs, Uralis, Irular, Kanikaran, Kattunayakan, Kurichchan, Muthuvan.
• Andaman and Nicobar:  Oraons, Onges, Sentinelese, Shompens.
• Jammu and Kashmir: Bakarwal, Balti, Beda, Gaddi, Garra, Mon, Purigpa, Sippi, Changpa, Gujjar.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Karnataka.

Tourism in India

• India attracted a lot of tourist in the past due to its wealth and pilgrimage importance.
• Tourism continuously remained part of the Five Year Plans after post-independence.
• Different types of Tourism like Health Tourism, Business Tourism, Wildlife Tourism and Eco-Tourism etc. were introduced in India after the seventh FYP.
• According to the World Travel and Tourism Council’s report, 2017 India’s Tourism is ranked at 7th position in terms of its contribution to World GDP and in World Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index 2019 India ranked 34th position.
• Tourism Industry in India accounted for 8% of the total employment.
• Incredible India is the name of an international tagline by the Government of India to promote tourism in India.
• List of the major Indian States and their Tourism Slogans are following -

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Physiological Density.

Population density can be measured as the number of persons per unit of land area. There are 3 types of population density described in Human Geography.

• Physiological Density
• Physiological density can be measured as the number of persons per unit of agricultural land. Hence option 3 is correct.
• It gives a rough estimate of how many people an area of farmland can reasonably support.
• ​Agricultural Density
• Agricultural density can be measured as the number of people living in rural areas per unit of agricultural land. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• Agricultural density can be calculated by divide the area of farmland by the population of farmers in that area, giving you an average of land worked by each farmer.
• Arithmetic Density
• It is also called crude density.
• Crude density can be calculated by dividing the total land area by the total population. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Economic Density is a microeconomic concept. It is not related to population density. Hence option 4 is not correct.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Son.

• The Ganga River System
• The river system includes the Ganga and its tributary. All these rivers originates in the Himalayas and are perennial in nature. Ganga rises in the Gangotri Glacier near Gomukh in Uttarakhand. The river acquires its names after it headstream Alaknanda and Bhagirathi meet at Devprayag.

The major left bank tributaries of Ganga River System are:

Gomti River 

• It originates from Gomat Taal, which is known as Fulhaar Jheel.
• It meet the Ganga river at Kaithi, District-Ghazipur, bordering Varanasi (at an elevation of 61 m).

Ghaghara River

• The headwater of Ghaghara river is the Karnali river.
• It is of Trans Himalayan Origine.
• It joins Ganga at Chhapra, Bihar.

Gandak River

• It rises near the Sino-Nepal boundary.
• It joins Ganga at Sonpur, Bihar.

Kosi River

• The source of the Kosi river in Tibet where it mainstream Arun rises.
• It joins the river Ganga at Karagola, near sharsha, Bihar.

The major Right bank tributaries of Ganga River System are:

Yamuna River

• It rises at Yamunotri Glacier on Banderpunchh range.
• It joins Ganga at Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
• Its mains tributaries are- Ken, Betwa, Chambal, Banas and Sindh etc. Hence Option 1,3 and 4 are not correct.

Son River

• It originates from Amarkantak Plateau.
• It joins Ganga directly at Patna in Bihar.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Intensive subsistence agriculture.

Farmers practise different types of farming in India, based on the nature of the land, climatic characteristics and available irrigational facilities.

Subsistence Farming

• In subsistence farming, the entire production is for only consumption.
• There is no surplus to sell in markets. Such type of farming is adopted by small and marginal farmers on fragmented landholdings.
• It includes generally food crops, and the methods of farming are generally archaic. Hence option 4 is not correct.

Commercial farming

• Commercial farming is the opposite of subsistence farming.
• Its objective is to sell the produce in the market.
• Commercial farming is done with modern tools and techniques, and High Yielding Varieties of seeds.
• Dairy Farming, Grain Farming and Livestock Ranching are all types of commercial farming done for commercial purposes. Hence option 1,2 and 3 are correct.

Extensive farming

• Extensive farming is done on a large parcel of land.
• The large patch is able to produce large amount but production per unit of land may be low.
• Extensive farming is done in those countries where landholding size is large e.g. United States, Canada etc.
• Extensive farming is almost absent in India except in few states such as Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Intensive Farming

• The aim of intensive farming is to produce maximum output per unit of land.
• It is common in India as well as South-East Asian countries such as Thailand, Vietnam, and Indonesia etc.

Plantation Farming

• Plantation Farming is the farming in an estate where a single cash crop is grown for sale.
• Examples are Tea, Coffee, Rubber, Banana, Spices.

Mixed Farming

• Mixed farming refers to the raising of livestock along with the crops.
• Mixed farming are economically better than other farming.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Marginal land.

Land Use means the different ways in which peoples utilize the land and dwell upon. this could include barren land, Forestry, Agriculture and Postureland etc.

Currently, the land use pattern in India is classified into the following categories:

Forests Area

• 23% of the reported area is notified as forest area.
• But for Tropical Countries, it is 33%.
• As per India State of Forest Report 2019 (published by Forest Survey of India), Total tree, forest cover in India increased by 5,188 sq km.
• MP has the highest forest cover. Hence option 1 is correct

Area Under Non-Agricultural Use

• Land under Settlement, Infrastructure, Industry would lead to this category of land.
• About 14% area falls under this category.

Barren and Waste Land                         

• Barren lands are such as hilly terrain, desert land and revines etc.
• it can not be bought into cultivation.
• 5% of the reported areas are under this category. Hence option 4 is correct.

Permanent pasture and Grazing Land

• Most of this land comes under the Panchayat or State Government.
• 3.5 % of the reported areas are under this category. Hence option 2 is correct.

Tree Crops and Groves

• Land under Orchids and trees are under this category.
• only 1% of areas are under this category.

Culturable Waste Land

• Any land not cultivated during the last five years or more in succession falls under this category.
• It can be brought under cultivation using the reclamation process.
• 5% of the areas fall under this category

Current Fallow

• The land which is left fallow for 1 or less than 1 year falls under this category.
• About 8% of areas fall under this category.

Fallow other than Current Fallow

• Cultivable land which fallows more than 1 year and Less than 5 years fall under this category.
• About 8% of areas fall in this category.

Net Shown Area

• The total absolute value of cropped area on which crops are sown and harvested.
• If the same land cropped multiple time in the same year then it is counted only once.
• About 46% of areas fall in this category.

Option 1 is correct.

Key Points

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was passed in 2005.

The Acts guarantees the " Right To Work" and aims at enhancing the livelihood security of rural peoples. it was proposed in 1991 during then Prime Minister P.V. Narshimha Rao to generate the employment for rural agricultural Labourer during the lean season, infrastructure development and food security. then it is called the Employment Assurance Scheme but after the merger of Food for Work Programme in 2005 it is called MGNREGA.

The objectives of the programme include:

• The mandate of the Act is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• Ensuring social protection for the most vulnerable people living in rural India through providing employment opportunities
• Ensuring livelihood security for the poor through the creation of productive assets like ponds, Well, Road and Canal etc, improved water security, soil conservation and higher land productivity. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Strengthening drought-proofing and flood management in rural India
• Aiding in the empowerment of the marginalised communities, especially women, Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs), through the processes of rights-based legislation. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Strengthening decentralised, participatory planning through the convergence of various anti-poverty and Ensuring livelihoods security. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Deepening democracy at the grass-roots by strengthening the Panchayati Raj Institutions
• Effecting greater transparency and accountability in governance.
• Increase economic security.
• Decrease migration of labour from rural to urban areas.

The correct answer is A person who has attained the age of 25 years will be eligible to be a member of a panchayat.

Key Points

• The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of Rural Local self-government. this is called Democratic decentralisation and was constitutionalized in India through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 on the recommendation of the L M Singhvi Committee.
• Salient Features of this Act:
• Gram Sabha is the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.
• The Act provides a 3-tier system in each state that is at the village, Intermediate and district levels.
• All the members of Panchayat at the Village, Intermediate and District level are elected directly by the people of the village.
• The Chairperson of Panchayat at Intermediate and District level was elected indirectly from among the members.
• The Act provides reservations for SCs/STs in every Panchayat at all levels.
• The Act provides for the reservation of 1/3rd of the total seat for women at all levels.
• It provides the term of office of Panchayat for 5 years. Hence option 3 is correct.
• It can be Dissolve before the expiry of the term but the Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period. Hence option 4 is correct.
• No person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he is attained the age of 21 years. that is a person who attained the age of 21 years can be eligible for contesting the election for panchayat. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• The state Legislature authorised a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties toll and fees. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The state Legislature authorised a panchayat to prepare and implement the scheme of Economic Development and Social Justice.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj:
• Article 40 of DPSP notifies about the Organisation of village panchayats.
• 73rd Amendment Act of 1992:
• The Act gives constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
• The Act has added new part IX and 11th schedule to the constitution.
• 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Power, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats, 29 subjects over which the Panchayats have jurisdiction.
• It is entitled as “The Panchayats” and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 (O).
• It contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats and deals with Article 243 (G).
• The main objective behind the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions is Social Justice, Economic Empowerment.

The correct option is 2, i.e Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.

• Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana was launched in 2000.
• It comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Rural Development.
• It aims to provide connectivity to unconnected Habitations as part of a poverty reduction strategy.
• Govt. of India is endeavoring to set high and uniform technical and management standards and facilitating policy development and planning at the State level in order to ensure sustainable management of the rural roads network.
• According to the latest figures made available by the State Governments under a survey to identify Core Network as part of the PMGSY programme, about 1.67 lakh Unconnected Habitations are eligible for coverage under the programme.
• This involves the construction of about 3.71 lakh km. of roads for New Connectivity and 3.68 lakh km. under upgradation.

Provisions of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana:

• Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism Area.
• To provide single all-weather road connectivity for eligible unconnected villages with a population of 500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-East
• It is fully funded by the central government.
• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojna was launched in 2011.
• Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana and Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana was launched in 2014.
• All of the rest schemes were launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).

The correct option is 2, i.e Members of Parliament Local Area Development Schemes.

• Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)
• Members of the parliament (MPs) can only recommend the works and not execute the work. Hence, Option 1 is NOT correct.
• The Implementing Agency should be recognized by the District Authority.
• Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies.
• Members of Rajya Sabha can recommend works within their State of Election.
• Nominated Members of the Parliament can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country.
• The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
• The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crores.
• The District Authority is empowered to examine the eligibility of works sanction funds and select the implementing agencies, prioritize works, supervise overall execution, and monitor the scheme at the ground level.

The correct option is 1.

• Saubhagya scheme is related to achieve universal household electrification till March 31, 2019.
• It is an acronym for the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana.
• ​The scheme was launched in the year 2017.
• The connections for households will be funded through the Integrated Power Development Scheme (IPDS) and Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY).
• This scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Power.
• The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), provides free cooking gas (LPG) connection to the poor.
• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

The correct option is 1, i.e Hazardous Wastes.

• The 'Basel Convention' is aimed at protecting human health and the environment against hazardous wastes.
• It was launched on 5 May 1992.
• The convention does not address the movement of radioactive waste.​​
• The provisions of the Convention center around the following principal aims: 
• the reduction of hazardous waste generation and the promotion of environmentally sound management of hazardous wastes, wherever the place of disposal;
• the restriction of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes except where it is perceived to be in accordance with the principles of environmentally sound management; and
• a regulatory system applying to cases where transboundary movements are permissible.
• Stockholm Convention is related to the elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). It was launched in 2011.
• Rotterdam Convention is related to the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous​ Chemicals and Pesticides. It was launched in 1998.

The correct option is 3, i.e Marriage.

Key Points

• The biggest cause of the incidence of migration of female persons in India is marriage.
• According to the 2011 Census, marriages made up for 46 percent of the total migrations in India, of which 97 percent are women.

Important Points

• The Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India.
• It comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Census was conducted non-synchronously between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country.
• This effort culminating in 1872 has been popularly labelled as the first Census of India.
• However, the first synchronous Census in India was carried out in 1881.
• An unbroken chain of censuses since then gives the Indian Census a unique historical legacy unparalleled in the world.
• All the censuses since 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act.
• The last census was held in 2011.

Option 3 is NOT correct.

• It is NOT  the loan contract between a commercial bank and the central bank.
• The central bank has the power to change it to regulate it according to the situation.
• The Repo rate is the interest rate paid by the commercial banks to the central bank on overnight borrowing.
• The current repo rate is ‎6.50% .
• The repo rate is used to control inflation and the deficiency of funds.
• It is also called as collateral security. The RBI accepts collateral security in the form of gold, bonds, etc.
• The Reverse repo rate is the rate at which the central bank borrows money from commercial banks.
• It is used to manage cash-flow.
• The current Reverse repo rate is 3.35 %.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that banks have to hold as balances with the RBI.
• The objective of CRR is to keep inflation under control.
• During high inflation in the economy, the central bank raises the CRR to lower the bank’s loanable funds.
• The current Cash Reserve Ratio is 3.00% (As of 30-05-2020).
• The Central bank has the authority to regulate monetary policies.
• The Ministry of Finance has the authority to regulate fiscal policies.

The correct option is 2.

• If a diagram has a line passing through the origin and has a 45° angle with either axis and it is asserted that along the line X = Y, then both variables are in the same unit.

The correct option is 3, i.e Lionel Messi.

• The Best Men's Player Award of FIFA Football Awards, 2019 was won by Lionel Messi.
• Lionel Messi plays for the country Argentina and the club FC Barcelona.
• Lionel Messi also won the 2019 Ballon d'Or award.
• The Ballon d'Or award is presented by French news magazine France Football.
• Cristiano Ronaldo plays as a forward for Serie A club Juventus and captains the Portugal national team.
• Virgil van Dijk plays for the English Premier League club Liverpool and captains the Netherlands national team.
• Xavi is a Spanish football manager and former player who is the manager of Qatar Stars League football club Al Sadd.

The correct option is 4, Thomas Cook.

• In September 2019, Thomas Cook declared itself bankrupt.
• The company was started in 1881 by Thomas Cook himself.
• The headquarters of Thomas Cook is located in London, United Kingdom.
• SOTC stands for Sindh Oriental Tourism Company.
• SOTC is a subsidiary of Thomas Cook in India.
• Expedia Group is an American online travel shopping company for consumer and small business travel.
• Cox & Kings Ltd., set up in 1758, is one of the longest established travel companies. Headquartered in India and the UK.

The correct option is 1 i.e. Sweden.

• Greta Thunberg, a teenaged environment activist hails from Sweden.
• Greta Thunberg was honored with 2019 Rights Livelihood awards.
• She was in the list of World’s 100 Most Powerful Women List.
• Greta Thunberg shared the International Children’s Peace Prize 2019 with Divina Malorum.
• She has also been nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize.

The correct option is 3, i.e. Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank

• Punjab & Maharashtra Co-operative Bank is a Multi-State Scheduled Urban Co-operative Bank with its area of operation in the States of Maharashtra, Delhi, Karnataka Goa, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• The bank was conferred with scheduled status by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2000.
• A Cooperative bank is governed by both banking and cooperative legislation, they are registered under the Cooperative Society Act, 1965.
• These banks are regulated by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) & Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• The RBI under Section 35A OF THE BANKING REGULATION ACT, 1949 can also impose restrictions on banks to ensure better governance and control.

The correct option is 2 i.e. Devika Rani.

• The first recipient of the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award is Devika Rani.
• Dadasaheb Phalke was known as 'The father of Indian Cinema'.
• Dadasaheb Phalke Award was started in 1969.
• Dadasaheb Phalke made India's first full-length feature film Raja Harishchandra in 1913.
• Amitabh Bachchan was conferred with the 66th Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2018.
• Rajinikanth was conferred with the 67th Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2019.
• Asha Parekh was conferred with the 68th Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2020.

The correct answer is Abul Hasan.

Key Points

• An inscription on this miniature records that Jahangir commissioned Abu’l Hasan to render in painting a dream the emperor had had recently.
• Abu’l Hasan painted this scene portraying the two rulers – Jahangir and the Safavid Shah Abbas – in friendly embrace. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Both kings are depicted in their traditional costumes.
• The figure of the Shah is based upon portraits made by
  

Bishandas who accompanied the Mughal embassy to Iran in 1613.

• This gave a sense of authenticity to a scene which is
  

fictional, as the two rulers had never met.

The correct option is 3 i.e. 1, 2 and 3only

• Mansabdari System was introduced by Mughal emperor Akbar as new administrative machinery. The term mansab means position or rank.
• 'Zat' rank was an indicator of a Mansabdar's position in the imperial hierarchy and the salary of the Mandabdar. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• 'Sawar'  was a cavalry rank which indicated the number of horsemen the Mansabdar was required to maintain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In the seventeenth century, mansabdars of 1,000 zat or above ranked as nobles (umara, which is the plural of amir ). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Option 1 is NOT correct.

• UPSC has the habit of picking up words from random books and research papers and making an MCQ out of it.
• It is believed that this question has been picked from this source - The Cambridge Economic History of India: Volume 1, C.1200-c.1750. The link to the page mentioning it can be found here.
• The question related to Dry and Wet Cultivation system and the accompanying canal system of irrigation followed in Southern India.
• Dry Fields were called Puncai. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Wet Fields were called Nancai. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Lands with well-irrigation were used mainly for fruit, trees, and vegetables and were called "garden lands". These garden lands were called Tottakal. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• There were two main seasons of rice cultivation - Kuddapah-kar and Samba-Peshanam.
• So, Kuddapah-kar is a season and NOT rocky wastelands. Hence, Option 1 is NOT correct.

The correct answer is Satavahanas.

• Satavahanas were identified through matronymics (names derived from that of the mother.

Key Points

• Satavahana Dynasty (60 BC-225 AD):
• Their capital was Pratishthan–Paithan(Maharashtra).
• Satvahanas was the most important of the native successors of the Mauryas in the Deccan and Central India.
• They are considered to be identical to the Andhars, who was mentioned in the Puranas.
• Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana Dynasty.
• The official language of the Satvahanas was Prakrit.
• Under the Satavahanas, many Chaityas (worship halls) and Viharas (monasteries) were cut out from rocks. The famous examples were Nasik, Kanheri, and Karle.

Additional Information

• Mallas were one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
• Their capital was Kasia in Kushinagar.
• Videhas were the Non-monarchial states.
• Their capital was Mithila.

The correct answer is Option 4.

• The Panchatantra is an example of Nirdarshana - i.e a work which shows through illustration what should and should not be done.
• Its stories are presented as narrated by a sage named Vishnusharman.
• The three princes whom he instructs in niti, have names ending in the suffix "shakti".
• The text has been divided into five sections illustrating the following topics -
• Splitting an alliance contrary to one's interest.
• Forming an alliance
• Waging a war
• Getting the better of a fool,
• The results of actions against reflection.
• Philosophical texts like Brahmasutras, Yogasutra, Nyayasutras are the philosophical texts reflecting the debates of the time and refuting rival positions.
• Sanskrit Grammarians ushered in linguistics as a formal science.
• Books like Shulvasutras and Ganit-Shastras were texts discussing the developments in various spheres of natural sciences.

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e slope angle, slope aspect, and relative relief.

Key Points

• Geomorphic factors influencing ecosystems are essentially the same as landform factors influencing soils.
• They include elements like
• Slope Steepness - The angle that the ground surface makes with respect to the horizontal.
• Slope Aspect - The orientation of sloping ground surface with respect to the geographic north.
• Relief - The difference in elevation of divides and adjacent valley bottoms.
• In a much broader sense, geomorphic factors include the sculpturing of the landforms of a region by processes of erosion, transportation, and deposition of streams, waves, winds, and ice and by forces of volcanism and mountain-building.
• All these factors influence plant and animal distributions. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• For more details, refer here.

The correct option is 4 i.e. Las Vegas and Queensland

• The Sclerophyll Vegetation is found in ​Western parts of Australia, Californian chaparral, and Woodlands in the Mediterranean forests, Chilean Matorral and the Cape Province of South Africa.
• Valparaiso is a coastal town in Chile, while Cape Town is in South Africa. Hence, Option 1 is NOT correct.
• Lisbon is in Portugal (Mediterranean Region) and Perth is in Australia. Hence, Option 2 is NOT correct.
• Since Queensland is located in the North-Eastern region of Australia, so Option 4 is correct as Sclerophyll Vegetation is found in ​Western parts of Australia.
• Sclerophyll is a type of vegetation that has hard leaves, short internodes, and leaf orientation parallel or oblique to direct sunlight.
• Sclerophyll forests are of two types:- 
• Dry sclerophyll forests
• Wet sclerophyll forests
• Dry sclerophyll forests are open forests that include a wide range of structural and floristic types.
• Wet sclerophyll forests are dominated by trees particularly of the genera Eucalyptus, Angophora, Corymbia, Syncarpia and Lophostemon

The Correct Answer is Option 2, North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current.

• North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current are warm currents.
• The Ocean Currents are made up of vertical-horizontal Components of the circulation system of the ocean that is produced by wind friction, gravity, and water density variation in different parts of the ocean.
• They are divided into three-part i.e.Current, Drift and Stream on the basis of the direction of speed, flow, and shape
• The Ocean Currents in the Southern hemisphere deflect towards their left and in the Northern hemisphere deflects towards their right due to the Coriolis force. But in the Indian Ocean, where the direction of current flow changes with the change in the direction of monsoon wind flow.
• Kuroshio is a warm current, California is a cold current.
• The Canaries is and Benguela is a cold current.
• West Wind Drift and Falkland Current are Cold Currents.

The Correct Answer is 4.

Key Points

• Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Ladakh and West Bengal share a border with 3 countries.
• Ladakh shares its boundaries with Pakistan, Afghanistan, and China.
• Sikkim shares an International boundary with Bhutan in the east, Nepal in the west, and china in the north.
• Arunachal shares an international boundary with China in the North, Myanmar in the East, and Bhutan in the west.
• West Bengal shares an International boundary with Nepal in the north, Bangladesh in the east, and Bhutan in the northeast.
• There is a total of 17 Indian States that are located on the international border.
• There is a total of 28 states in India and is the seventh-largest country in the world.
• India shares land borders with 7 countries including Bangladesh, China, Bhutan, Afghanistan, Nepal, Pakistan, and Myanmar and Sea Borders with the Maldives, Sri-Lanka, and Indonesia.

The Correct Answer is option 3, i.e. subtropical high-pressure cells.

• The circulation cell closest to the equator is known as the Hadley cell.
• The Hadley cell is known after George Hadley.
• Hadley Cell is the low altitude overturning circulation.
• This circulation causes the trade winds, subtropical deserts, tropical rain-belts and hurricanes, and the jet streams.
• It exists on either side of the equator.
• It consists of a single wind system in each hemisphere, eastward and poleward flow at higher altitudes and westward and equatorward flow near the surface.
• When it reaches about 30° north and south, the air cools and sinks towards the ground forming the subtropical high-pressure zone.

The correct option is 2 i.e. Histosol.

• It is a soil with a deep surface layer of pure organic material.
• Histosols are formed under waterlogged conditions typical of peat bogs and swamps.
• It contains the tissues of dead plants and animals and their decomposition products which results in soils of high organic content.
• Vertisol is a soil type in which there is a high content of expansive clay minerals.
• Gelisols are soils of very cold climates that contain permafrost.
• Spodosols are typical soils of eucalyptus forests and heathlands found in southern Australia.

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e 1, 2 and 3.

• All the statements are correct.
• An Overseas elector is a person who is a citizen of India and who has not acquired citizenship of any other country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter and who is absenting from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located.
• According to the provisions of Section 20A of the Representation of People Act, 1950, an NRI settled in a foreign land can become an elector in the electoral roll in India.
• So, he must be a citizen of India to be eligible for voting in the Lok Sabha elections. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Further, his name must figure in the electoral roll of the constituency he would be voting from to be eligible to vote. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Such an overseas elector is allowed to vote in person at the polling station on the production of his/her original passport.
• Since e-voting is not allowed in India, thus the NRI voters are left with just two options i.e. Postal ballots and proxy voting.
• Postal ballots, in which a voter exercises his/her franchise through the post is available only for people on election duty, armed forces personnel, and electors subject to preventive detention.
• The option of proxy voting is available only for armed forces, police, and government officials posted outside India, not for all NRI voters.
• The person can authorize another residing in the same polling booth area to cast a vote on his/her behalf.
• This option is currently available for wives of the above-mentioned personnel, but not for the husbands.
• Hence NRI/ overseas Indian voters are required to be present in India for voting. Hence, Statement 3 is also correct.

Option 4 is NOT correct.

• Ayushmaan Bharat Scheme - 
• The scheme was launched as the National Health Protection Mission.
• The beneficiaries can take cashless treatment from any empanelled hospital anywhere in the country.
• It is the largest government-funded health insurance scheme in the world.
• The scheme provides a benefit cover of Rs. 5 lakh per family. Hence, Option 4 is NOT correct.
• There is no cap on family size and age under the scheme.
• The cover will include pre and post hospitalization expenses and also pre-existing conditions.
• The beneficiary of the scheme will also receive a defined transport allowance per hospital.

The Correct Answer is Option 2. i.e. Equality, productivity, empowerment, and sustainability.

• Equity, Productivity, empowerment, and sustainability are considered to be the four pillars of human development.
• Human Development can be described as a process of enlarging opportunities, improving their well-being, and livelihood.
• The concepts of Human Development was developed by Mahbub ul Haq.
• The four pillars of human development are:
• Equality: It means giving equal access to opportunities available to everybody. It must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income, and caste.
• Productivity: Productivity in terms of Human Work. Such things must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Efforts to increase their knowledge and better health facilities leading to increase efficiency.
• Empowerment: Good Governance and people-oriented policies are needed to empower people. Empowerment of economically and socially disadvantaged groups is of special importance.
• Sustainability: Everyone must get the same opportunities to have sustainable human development. Every resource must be used in a way that there is no shortage of resources for future generations.

The Correct Answer is Option 2 i.e To provide opportunities for education to one's child between the age of 6 and 14 years.

• The 86th amendment to the Constitution of India in 2002 provided the right to education as a fundamental right.
• A new article 21A was added which made the right to education a fundamental right for children between  6-14 years.
• Changes in Article 45 of the Directive Principle of State Policies were made.
• It made education for all children below 6 years a Directive Principle of State Policies(DPSP).
• It made the opportunities for education to the child a Fundamental Duty of parents of children.
• Article 51A of the constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
• Fundamental Duties are takes from the constitution of Russia.
• Article 36-51 deals with the Directive Principle of State policy.
• Directive Principle of State policy is taken from the Irish Constitution.

The Correct Answer is Option 1 i.e. Article 20.

• The partial protection against double Jeopardy is Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 20.
• Constitution of India protects the Fundamental Rights of citizens of India. Fundamental rights are those rights which are essential for the intellectual, moral, and spiritual development of citizens of India. They are enshrined in Articles 12-35 in Part III of the constitution.
• It is a borrowed feature from the constitution of the USA.
• This includes equality before the law, freedom of speech and freedom of expression, religious and cultural freedom, Freedom of assembly, freedom of religion, right to constitutional remedies for the protection of civil rights.
• There are Six fundamentals rights recognized by the Indian constitution. Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), Right to freedom (Articles 19-22).
• Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23-24), Right to freedom of Religion  ( Articles 25-28), Cultural and Educational Rights ( Articles 29-30), Right to constitutional Remedies (Articles 32-35).

The Correct Answer is Option 1, i.e. 1 only.

• The stone age is a period defined by the use of tools by a human.
• The stone age is divided into 3 parts namely Paleolithic (Old Stone Age), Mesolithic (Middle Stone Age) and Neolithic( New Stone Age).
• Palaeolithic Age: Paleolithic Age was developed in the Pleistocene period. 
• Robert Bruce Foote was the first person to discover a Paleolithic Stone in India in 1863.
• The tools of this period were made of hard rock 'quartzite' and hence people this age was called "Quartzite Man".
• 'Palaeo' means Old and 'Lithic' means Stone. There was basically Hunting and food gathering culture
• Mesolithic Age: It is a Transition period between Paleolithic and Neolithic.
• Microliths tools are the main characteristics of the age.
• Carlyle was the 1st person who discovered Microliths in 1867 from Vindhyan Rock Shelters.
• Hence it is called Microloithic age.
• Hunting, Fishing, and food gathering were the main occupations.
• Neolithic Age: Le Mesurier discover the tools and implement of Neolithic Age.
• Neolithic-Chalcolithic Culture as a Self Sufficient food economy was defined by V. Gardon Childe.
• Agriculture, Domestication of Animals, polished and grinned stone tools were practices if this age.

The Correct Answer is Option 1, i.e. Sukkur and Rohri Hills.

• The Hills are 40 kilometers long and 16 kilometers wide.
• Flint Artifacts of the paleolithic period have been discovered here.
• Indus valley civilization is also known as the Harappa Civilization.
• It is a Northwestern civilization of South Asia.
• Harappa was first excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India led by Rai Bahadur Dayaram Sahni.
• It is called Harappa Civilization as the first city to be excavated as Harappa (Punjab, Pakistan)
• Some important cites of civilization as Kalibangan, Lothal, Dholavira, Rangpur, Surkotda, etc
• Mohenjodaro was excavated for 1st time by R.D. Banerjee.

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Additional Information 

• The Indus Valley Civilization was spread from present-day North-East Afghanistan to Pakistan and North-West India. This civilization flourished in the river basins of the Ghaggar-Hakra river and the Indus. Indus valley civilization is one of the four oldest civilizations in the world. It is also known as Harappan Civilization and is well-known for its organized planning based on the grid system. Important facts to be remembered
• John Marshall was the first researcher to use the term, ‘Indus Valley Civilization’.
• Indus Valley Civilization spread from the year 2500 – 1750 BC according to radio-carbon dating.
• The most distinctive feature of the Harappan Civilization was its urbanization.
• Moreover, sheep and goats, dogs, humped cattle buffalo, and elephants were domesticated in the Indus Valley Civilization.
• The capital cities are Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
• The port cities are Sutkagendor, Balakot, Lothal, Allahdino, and Kuntasi.
• The Indus valley people were well-acquainted with the use of both cotton and wool.
• Name of the major cities are given below:
• Mohenjodaro (Sind)-It is located on the right bank of the Indus.
• Kalibangan (Rajasthan)-It was on the banks of the river Ghaggar river
• Chanhudaro-It lies on the left bank of the Indus in the south of Mohenjodaro.
• Lothal- It is located at the head of the Gulf of Cambay.
• Surkotada (Gujarat)-It is at the head of the Rann of Kutch.
• Banawali (Haryana)-It was situated on the banks of the now-extinct Sarasvati
• Dholavira (Gujarat)-It excavated is in the Kutch district

The Correct Answer is Option 3. i.e. Ghulam Husain.

• The work Siyar-ul-mutakherin was written by Sayyid Ghulam Husain Tabatai.
• Siyar-ul-mutakherin describes the Battle of Plassey.
• It is in three volumes.
• 1st volume gives an account of the Geography, Climate, Animals, Forts, Saints, and Ulama of Hindustan, and its history from the epic age to the reign of Aurangzeb.
• 2nd volume gives the History of Bengal from the death of Aurangzeb and deals with the Nizamat of Murshidabad, the relations of the English with the nawabs, and the establishment of English supremacy in Bengal and Bihar together with British administrative system.
• 3rd Volume gives the History of the Nizam of Hyderabad, Haidar Ali of Mysore, Nawab-Wazirs of Oudh, Emperor Muhammad Shah, Ahmad Shah Abdali's invasions and his wars with the Marathas.
• Battle of Plassey was the victory of British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal and its French Allies.

The Correct Answer is Option 2, i.e. Lord Palmerston

• Lord Palmerston believed that the Russian designs were 'an imminent peril to the security and tranquillity' of the Indian empire.
• Lord Palmerston served twice as Prime Minister of Britan in mid 19th century. It was during his time as PM, he introduced a bill for the transfer of control of the Government of India from the East India Company to the crown.
• The Government of India Act, 1858 was an act of parliament of the UK which was passed on 2nd August 1858.
• Its provision was for the liquidation of British East India Company and transference of its functions to the British Crowns.
• Another important provision of this bill was to create All India Services under the control of the secretary of state.
• All the property and assets of East India Company were to transferred to the crown. The Crown also resumed responsibilities of the company related to treaties, contracts.

The Correct Answer is Option 1. i.e. Debendranath Tagore in 1839.

• The Tattwabodhini Sabha was established by Debendranath Tagore.
• On 6 October 1839 Debendranath established Tattvaranjini Sabha which was renamed as 'Tattwabodhini Sabha'.
• The objective of Sabha was to promote a rational and humanist form of Hinduism based on Vedanta and the Upanishads.
• The Tattwabodhini Sabha was a group started in Calcutta.
• It is a faction group of Brahmo Samaj, reformers of Hinduism and Indian Society.
• In 1828, Raja Ram Mohan Roy established Brahmo Samaj.
• Debendranath Tagore complied a text as "Brahmo Dharma."

The Correct Answer is Option 3, i.e. Tiger Triumph.

• Tiger Triumph was the code name given to the 1st ever tri-services military exercise between India and the USA.
• It is a bilateral tri-service amphibious military exercise.
• The final planning conference for this was held at the Eastern Naval Command in Visakhapatnam.
• A total of 1200 Indian and 500 U.S Military personnel participated in the nine-day exercise.
• The opening ceremony was held aboard at INS Jalashwa.
• Indian Naval Ships Jalashwa, Airavat, and Sandhyak were part of this exercise.

The Correct Answer is Option 2, i.e. Ladakh.

• Naropa is Annual festival of Ladakh.
• It is also known as the "Kumbh of Himalayas".
• Naropa Festivals takes place every 12 years in the Tibetan calendar.
• The Shondol Dance was performed by 408 women artists in traditional dresses.
• The Shandol Dance broke its record of 299 artists.
• The Shondol Dance is known as "Royal dance of Ladakh"
• The Last celebration was organized in the year 2016 for completion of 1000 years of Naropa Legacy.

The Correct Answer is Option 3, i.e. Gully Boy

• Gully Boy was India's official entry in the International Feature Film category at 92nd Academy Award.
• The Academy Awards are popularly known as "The Oscars".
• The 92nd Academy Award ceremony was presented by the Academy of Motion Pictures Arts and Science.
• The Best Picture Award was given to Parasite.
• At 92nd Academy Award, the most number of nominations were of Joker Movie.
• The 92nd Academy Award for Best Actor was given to Joaquin Phoenix.
• The 92nd Academy Award for Best Actress was given to  Renee Zellweger.

The Correct Answer is the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.

• The Global Goalkeeper Award is given by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
• It aims to bring leaders together from around the world to accelerate towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)
• Susan Desmond-Hellman is the CEO of Goalkeeper-Gate Foundation
• PM Narendra Modi was conferred with the Global Goalkeeper award by Bill Gates and Melinda Gates Foundation.
• PM received the International Award for Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
• The Seoul Peace Prize is recognized with the monetary awards given by South Korea.

The Correct Answer is Option 1, i.e. New York.

• PM Narendra Modi along with world leaders inaugurated the Gandhi Solar Park at UN Headquarters in New York.
• UN postage stamp on Mahatma Gandhi was also launched by world leaders commemorating his 150th birth anniversary.
• The launch took place at the event by PM Modi - "Relevance of Mahatma Gandhi in the Contemporary world".
• It is a 50-kilowatt park and is first of its kind Indian Efforts at the UN.
• The total annual output of the park is 86,244 KWh.
• The Park has 193 panels each representing the number of the multilateral body at UN Headquarters.
• The Gandhi Peace Garden was also inaugurated by PM Modi at the State University of New York at Old Westbury.

The Correct Answer is Option 3. i.e. Portuguese.

• Portuguese were the first to arrive in Africa as traders that eventually led to the European colonization of Africa.
• In 1471, Portuguese Captians first reached the coast of modern Ghana.
• The Akan people of this coast had access to supplies of Gold which were plenty and they were willing to trade some of this Gold for base metals, cloths.
• The Coast Mina was called as "the Mine" by Portuguese. The main interest of Portuguese was the gold trade of Mina.
• In 1482 they built the fort that they called Sao Jorge da Mina (the modern Elmina Castle) on the shore of Gold Coast.
• The Portuguese arrived in India in the Year 1498 when Vasco da Gama landed in Calicut.
• Pedro Alvarez Cabral established the first Portuguese factory at Calicut.

The Correct Answer is Option 4. i.e. Pune.

• College of Military Engineering is located in Pune.
• It is the Technical and tactical training institution of the Corps of Engineers of the Indian Army.
• It was established in the year 1943.
• High Altitude and Warfare School (HAWS) is located in Gulmarg, Jammu, and Kashmir.
• Army Air Defence College is located at Gopalpur Military Station at Gopalpur, Odisha.
• Army War College (AWC) is located at Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.