CDS General Knowledge 8 Sep 2019 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The National Cadet Corps is the largest organization formed in 1948 by the National Cadet Corps Act, 1948.

• It is a uniformed organization focusing on building virtues like discipline and unity among the youth.
• The aim of the organization is also to inculcate nationalistic sentiments and motivate them to join the Indian Air Force or other uniform services.
• The motto of NCC is "Unity and Discipline".
• Ministry of Defense approved the aim of NCC in 2001.
• The National Cadet Corps is the youth wing of Armed Forces with its Headquarters at New Delhi.

Department of Legal Affairs is under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

• There are a total of six departments under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• These are - Department of Official Languages, Department of Internal Security, Department of Border Management, Department of Home, Department of States, Department of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh Affairs.
• Department of Border Management - Takes care of managing the borders, including internal borders and coastal borders.
• Department of States - Deals with inter-state relations, center-state relations, human rights, prison reforms, police reforms.
• Department of Official Languages - Implements the provisions of the Official Languages Act, 1963.
• Department of Internal Security - Deals with law and order, insurgency, terrorism, and Naxalism.
• Department of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh Affairs - Administers Armed Forces Special Powers Act, 1990 including counter-terrorism efforts in the union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

On 14th October 1994, India became a signatory of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). India ratified it in October 1996. Hence the first statement is correct.

• Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change is the nodal ministry to implement the provisions of the UNCCD. Hence the second statement is wrong.
• It is one of the three conventions which came into effect as a result of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
• The main objective of the convention is to fight against climate change leading to desertification and to mitigate drought effects in the various countries moving towards desertification.
• It is the solely legally binding agreement that links sustainable land management to the environment.
• India recently hosted the 14th Conference of Parties of the UNCCD in Greater Noida.

Under the Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the government is required to present before the Parliament a financial statement of all the estimated sources of revenue and expenditure which would be incurred for a financial year between April 1 to March 31.

• The word 'Budget' is not mentioned in the Constitution.
• R.K Shanmukham Chetty presented the first Union Budget on 27th November 1947.
• Until now, the Budget was only presented on papers but Uttar Pradesh became the first state in the country to present a Digital Budget.

The correct answer is Dhaka.

• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation was founded in Dhaka.

Key Points

• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is geopolitical cooperation focused on maintaining sound cooperation between the Eight South Asian nations for mutual benefits.
• The members include India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
• SAARC summits are held each year.
• But recently, due to the rising tensions between India and Pakistan, India has been focusing on other regional forums like BIMSTEC to counter Pakistan.
• SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu, Nepal, and is responsible for the active monitoring of cooperation between the nations.
• India gifted the SAARC satellite (GSAT-9) to the members which were launched in August 2017.
• The body was founded in 1985 in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

New Development Bank is a multilateral bank meant to provide resources for development.

• It is operated by the BRICS.
• BRICS members include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• Hence, Canada is not a founding member of the New Development Bank.
• It is seen as an alternative to the World Bank and IMF, calling them biased in favor of western countries, especially the US.
• The New Development Bank was agreed upon in the 5th BRICS summit which was held in South Africa in 2013 (Durban).
• The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
• Each of the member countries has a single vote and hence equal say in the operations of the bank.
• New Development Bank is focused on mobilizing resources for sustainable development projects in BRICS, and well as the other developing economies.

The correct answer is Controller General of Accounts.**

Key Points

• Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application that enables the processing, tracking, accounting, monitoring, reporting, and hence transparency in payments done by the government departments to implement the various schemes.
• It is being administered by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
• It has been designed, developed, owned, and being implemented by the Controller General of Accounts.
• It is a platform which ensure a transparent release of funds and helps in monitoring the same to ensure last-mile delivery of services.
• The platform helps in the efficient management of funds and real-time reporting of all the expenditure incurred.
• It is also used for Direct Benefit Transfer payments under the MGNREGA scheme.

• National Institute of Ayurveda is a training institute for research in Ayurveda established at Jaipur in 1976. It was established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is an apex Institute under the Ministry of AYUSH for promoting the growth and development of Ayurveda
• National Institute of Homoeopathy is an autonomous organization located in Kolkata since 1975 and functioning under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• National Institute of Unani Medicine is an autonomous organization located in Bangalore since 2004 and currently working under the Ministry of Ayush.
• National Institute of Siddha is an institute of learning and research that is located in Chennai since 2005 and currently working under the Ministry of Ayush.

Invest India is a not-for-profit venture operating under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industries.

• It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India.
• It acts as the first point of contact and reference when it comes to the investors in India.
• It started its operations in 2010.
• It is a joint venture between DIPP, FICCI, and State Governments.
• Equity shares are - DIPP (35%), FICCI (51%) and each State Government (0.5%)

The National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) functions under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

• It is a dope testing lab aiming to get a permanent accreditation from the World Anti Doping Agency (WADA) and the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• India signed the Copenhagen Declaration on Anti-Doping, post which it set up the National Anti Doping Agency in December 2004.
• The National Dope Testing Lab is headed by the Chief Executive Officer, who is generally a Sports Secretary.
• National Anti Doping Agency is headed by the Director-General.
• Recently, NDTL was banned from carrying out any doping test for six months after it failed to meet the standards set up by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).

The General Elections 2019 were held in 7 phases.

• The final phase was held on 19th May.
• The final stage had 59 Lok Sabha Constituencies spread across 7 states and union territories which were voted upon.
• Total candidates - 918.
• Total voters - 10 crores, 1 Lakh, 75 thousand.
• The highest number of constituencies (13) were in Punjab and Uttar Pradesh, while the lowest number of the constituency was in Chandigarh (1) in the final phase of the elections.
• The general elections of 2014 ran till 9 phases.

The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second-largest inter-governmental international organization after the United Nations. Hence, the third option is incorrect.

• It was founded in 1969.
• It has 57 members from the Muslim world.
• India is not part of the OIC.
• OIC calls itself the "collective voice of the Islamic/Muslim World".
• The aim of the organization is to protect the interest of the Muslim World with the spirit of promotion of international peace and harmony.
• The OIC has permanent delegations to the European Union and the United Nations.
• Its permanent secretariat is located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.

The winner of the Italian Open Women's Tennis Singles Title, 2019 was Karolina Pliskova.

• She sealed her second title win of the season.
• She defeated Johanna Konta in straight sets in the finals.
• Karolina Pliskova is the first citizen of the Czech Republic to have won the women's single in Rome since 1978.
• Her first win of the season was the Brisbane International which she won in January 2019.

Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise, also called the SIMBEX held its annual bilateral naval exercise from 16th May to 22nd May 2019.

• SIMBEX was started in 1993 and has been an annual affair since then.
• The Indian Navy deployed INS Kolkata and INS Shakti as a part of the maritime exercise.
• These are Kolkata Class Destroyers.
• The objective of SIMBEX to extend friendship between the countries of East and South-East Asia in domains like Maritime, Economy, and Culture.
• Along with the Kolkata Class destroyers mentioned above, Poseidon-8I (P8I) - Indian long-range maritime patrol aircraft will also take part.
• The Royal Singapore Navy Ships RSN Steadfast and RSN Valiant, along with F-16 fighter aircraft and Fokker-50 (F-50) Maritime Patrol Aircraft will participate.

AirBadminton and Triples are the two new formats that are introduced by the Badminton World Federation.

• While Badminton is an indoor game conventionally, AirBadminton is an outdoor game.
• In Triples, the game of Badminton will be played between three players.
• One female athlete is mandatory in each team.
• The players are not allowed to hit 'returns' successively.
• In AirBadminton, new dimensions of the Court and AirShuttle - a new innovative outdoor shuttlecock will be used.
• AirBadminton was globally launched in the Guangzhou province of China. The game has to be played barefoot on an approved sand surface with courts having smaller dimensions.

A High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments has been set up by the Reserve Bank of India under the Chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani.

• He is the former Chairman of the UIDAI.
• The committee was set up in January 2019.
• The committee conducted consultations with various stakeholders and submitted reports to the RBI.
• The accepted recommendations will be published in Payment Systems Visions 2021, an RBI report.
• HR Khan Committee was set up by SEBI to recommend amendments for simplifying and rationalizing the SEBI Foreign Portfolio Investors Regulation, 2014.
• N.R. Narayana Murthy Committee was set up by SEBI to recommend improvements in Corporate Governance Standards.

United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) confers the 'Sasakawa Award' in the area of Disaster Risk Reduction.

• The 2019 award was conferred to Dr. P.K Mishra, who is the Additional Principal Secretary to Prime Minister.
• It was awarded at the Sixth Session of Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDRR) 2019 that was held at Geneva, Switzerland.
• The theme for the Sasakawa Award 2019 was "Building Inclusive and Resilient Societies".
• The award was instituted jointly by UNDRR and Nippon Foundation.

G.S. Lakshmi is the first female in the history of International Cricket who will be the match referee for a Men's One-Day international.

• She will be the referee for the opening match in the third series of the ICC Men's World Cup League 2.
• The match is being held in the United Arab Emirates.
• The match took place between the United Arab Emirates and the United States of America at Sharjah Cricket Stadium.
• She first officiated as the match referee in Domestic Women's Cricket, 2008-09.
• She has overseen ODI Matches, along with 16 Men's T20 internationals and 7 Women's T20 internationals.

Joko Widodo was elected as the President of Indonesia for the second term.

• He beat Prabowo Subianto, a retired general.
• He secured a total of 55.5 percent of the total votes.
• Jokowi won the previous elections by a slightly lower margin.
• Capital and largest city‎: ‎Jakarta
• Currency: Indonesian rupiah
• Indonesia is the 4th most populated country in the world.

21st May is observed each year as Anti-Terrorism Day.

• The University Grants Commission (UGC), thus, directed the universities and higher educational institutions to observe the day to wean off the influence of terrorism on the youth.
• The commission directed various activities like debates, symposiums, debates, discussions, screening of movies, and pledge ceremonies to be held on that day.
• The aim is to eradicate the menace of terrorism and the increasing radicalization of the youth, which is detrimental to the national interest.
• The date is chosen in the memory of India’s sixth and youngest Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi who was assassinated on May 21, 1991

• The Cornwallis Code was passed in 1793 by Viceroy Lord Cornwallis which contained provisions for governing the policing, judiciary, and civil administration in British India.
• The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 under Lord Lytton to suppress the freedom of Vernacular Press in India.
• In order to escape the clutches of the legislation, Amrit Bazar Patrika changed from Bengali to English Publication overnight.
• Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881 by Lord Rippon to regulate factory working hours.
• The Morley-Minto Reforms were announced in 1909 which started communal electorate by announcing separate Muslim Electorate in British India.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Article 371A of the Indian Constitution was a result of the 16-point agreement between the Naga People's Convention and the Government of India in 1960.
• This led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
• With the special provisions conferred under the legislation, the Parliament cannot legislate on matters related to Naga social practices and religion, Naga Customary Laws, Administration of criminal and civil justice, Transfer of land without the concurrence of State Assembly, etc.
• Article 371G which came through the 53rd Amendment Act, 1986 confers special privileges to the state of Mizoram.
• Article 371F (36th Amendment Act, 1975) for the state of Sikkim.
• Article 371C (27th Amendment Act, 1971) for the state of Manipur.

Five Zonal Councils have been set up vide Part-III of the States Reorganization Act, 1956.

The present composition of the Zonal Councils are as follows:

• Northern Zonal Council - States include Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi, and Union Territory of Chandigarh, Jammu & Kashmir.
• Central Zonal Council - Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Eastern Zonal Council - Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim, and West Bengal.
• Western Zonal Council - Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;
• Southern Zonal Council - Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• The North Eastern Council was established as a result of the North Eastern Council Act, 1972. As a result, the seven sisters, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and Nagaland are a part of this Council.
• The state of Sikkim was included in the North Eastern Council through the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002.
• Consequently, action to remove Sikkim from the current membership of the Eastern Council has been initiated by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Home Minister is the chairman of the Zonal Councils with each chief minister acting as the vice-chairman on a rotation basis for a period of one year.

According to Article 361 of the Indian Constitution -

• The President or the Governor will not be answerable to the Court for the exercise of his duty and powers.
• She/He cannot be instituted for any criminal proceedings whatsoever during the term of the office.
• She/He cannot be arrested or imprisoned during the term of the office.
• Article 53 - President can exercise his/her powers through a subordinate authority or directly.
• Article 74 - Provides for Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
• Article 363 - Bars the interference of courts with regards to disputes arising out of certain agreements or treaties.

Under Article 348 of the Indian Constitution, all the proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English Language, unless and until the Parliament prescribes otherwise through legislation.

• The use of Hindi language or any other language can be conferred for the official purpose of the State by the Governor of the State, with the prior consent of the President.
• Section 7 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 provides for the use of Hindi or any other official language of the State, in addition to the use of the English language, with the prior consent of the President of India.
• Article 145 - Power of Supreme Court. Rules to regulate the general proceedings and practices of the Court.

Article 75 provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, with the other ministers being appointed on the advice of the Prime Minister, by the President.

• Further, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003 added the provision that the total number of the council of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
• The ministers hold their office at the pleasure of the President.
• Exception - Under Section 239A which confers special provision for the Government of NCT of Delhi, the council of ministers cannot be more than 10% of the total members in the Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is Dry summer.

• Dry summer is the most noticeable characteristic of the Mediterranean climate.

Key Points

• Mediterranean climate:
• The characteristics of the Mediterranean Climate includes dry and hot summer, with cold and rainy winters.
• The regions are located in the Western Part of the Continent in between 30-45 degrees North and South of the Equator.
• Pressure belts are anticyclonic, meaning they rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, and anti-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Anti-cyclonic conditions are accompanied by a clearer sky.
• Rainfall is uneven, but the regions with Mediterranean climates experience winter rainfalls.
• Places with Mediterranean Climate are Central Chile, California, Mediterranean Basin, Western Cape of South Africa, Western and South Australia.

The river Brahmaputra originates on the Angsi Glacier which is located on the Northern Side of the Himalayas in Burang, Tibet.

Key Points

• It flows as Yarlung Tsangpo River flowing into Southern Tibet, breaking through the Himalayas creating great gorges.
• Tsangpo or Brahmaputra takes a U-turn at Namcha Barwa before entering Arunachal Pradesh, where it is called Dihang or Siang River.
• Further, the Dihang river meets Dibang and Lohit Rivers at the front of the Assam Valley flowing southwest through it.
• It is here that the river is called the Brahmaputra River.
• Right Bank Tributaries of Brahmaputra - Subansiri, Kameng, Manas and Sankosh.
• Left Bank Tributaries of Brahmaputra - Burhi Dihing, Dhansari (South) and Kalang.
• Subansiri which with its origin in Tibet is an antecedent river, meaning it maintains its original pattern and course despite any changes in the underlying rock topography.

Rajani Palme Dutt was a known comrade belonging to the Communist Party of India, and the nephew of Romesh Chandra Dutt.

• R. Palme Dutt and Ben Bradley wrote the famous Dutt-Bradley thesis in 1936.
• The theory proposed collaborative efforts by National Congress to build a collective voice against the imperialist powers.
• It helped the various parties in India to come together to fight against the British Government and their policies.
• Nehru, who was elected as the President of the National Congress in 1936 session held in Lucknow, called for securing a collective affiliation of the peasant and trade union organizations, which was one of the proposed points in the Dutt-Bradley thesis.

• Mundari Khuntkatti was among the Mundas of Chotanagpur region, a customary institution providing ownership of land among the families belonging to the same clan or "killi".
• They made the land cultivable by clearing the forest.
• The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 reduced the role of Mundari Khuntkattidars as a mere tenant of land, and not the owner of the village or the land.

Plagues and Peoples are written by William Hardy McNeil.

• The book was published in 1976 in New York City.
• It was a book on epidemiological history.
• The book provided for a radical interpretation vis-a-vis world history and its impacts on culture as a means of attack by the enemy.
• Further, it provides for a detailed account of the impact that infectious diseases like Small Pox on countries like Mexico, bubonic plague in China, typhoid in Europe.
• It talks in detail about the history of the disease and its impact on humankind.

Indian Agriculture Services was constituted in Lord Minto II in 1906.

• Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Pusa was a result of the decision taken by Lord Curzon in 1905.
• An All-India Board of Agriculture was established to bring the provincial governments in touch with each other and to make suitable recommendations to the British India Government.
• Lord Rippon is known for the Government Resolution on Local Self-Government Resolution in 1882.
• William Bentick is known to abolish Sati, suppression of Thugi, and the introduction of English as the official language.

Chandimangala is a type of Mangalkavaya which was written in the 16-century and is an important asset of Bengali Literature.

• Chandimangal of Kavikankan Mukundaram Chakravarti is an epic work recounting the stories of Goddess Chandi.
• The book describes her constant battle to establish herself as a cult among human beings.
• The three books of Kavya try to establish the various manifestations of Goddess Chandi.
• The literary tradition is folk and is practiced even today among the rural women through pre-Aryan rituals.
• These include Panchalis - a long drawn narrative celebrating the glory of the deity, and Vratha Katha - includes chanting of rhymes on the performance of a vow.

A Soviet Statement who was the first Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union during the cold war declared that it was China that was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962.

• According to him, Mao Zedong should have let the conflict over Dalai Lama and Tibet resolve without the shedding of blood.
• He defended Nehru in a way, blaming Mao to have let Dalai Lama fled the country and not knowing of his plans to enter India.
• India, like a neighbor, welcomed Dalai Lama.
• The TASS Declaration was passed by the Soviet Union to make sure USSR was seen as a neutral side in the conflict between India and China.

The Make in India is a flagship initiative of the Government of India which was launched in 2014.

• It was launched with an objective to promote India as an important investment destination, as well as a global hub of design, manufacturing, and innovation.
• One of the main objectives of the scheme is to foster innovation.
• It is being led by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• The aim is to raise the GDP contribution of manufacturing from the current 16% to 25% by 2025.
• The scheme also focuses on improving the country's Ease of Doing Business Rankings as released by the World Bank.

Article 168 provides for the establishment of State Legislature which has a Governor and the second house called the Legislative Council in the state of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka.

• The Indian Constitution also has the provision for the abolition of the Legislative Council under Article 169, or the creation of one in a state which doesn't have an upper house.
• The total members of the Legislative Council cannot exceed 1/3rd of the total members of the Legislative Assembly in the State.
• It is a continuing chamber like the Rajya Sabha and is never dissolved.
• However, 1/3rd of the total members retire after every second year.
• Abolition of the Council requires a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly by a special majority and passed by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

Confusion PointsIn 2019, the Jammu & Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished through the J&K Reorganisation Bill, 2019, which reduced the State of J&K to the Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh.

SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) focuses on the access, equity, and quality of Education Policy.

• Its objective is to bring the best teaching and learning experience along with the resources to all, including the most disadvantaged in society.
• The use of indigenous developed IT platform facilitates hosting courses from the elite educational institutions in the country by anyone, anytime.
• The courses are available free of cost.
• SWAYAM portal has been developed by the Ministry of Human Resource Development along with NPTEL, IIT Madras, with inputs from Google Inc. and Persistent Systems Ltd.
• The courses are from Class 9th to post-graduation.
• Certification at the end of the course with a little fee is also provided.
• An assessment of the student at the end of the course through an exam and marks obtained in the same is a feature of SWAYAM.
• UGC has passed the UGC Regulation 2016 advising the universities in the country to identify courses.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Article 51 of the Indian Constitution is related to Directive Principle of State Policy and confers the state with the responsibility to

• Promote International Peace and Security.
• Maintain honorable relations with nations.
• To foster respect for international law and treaty obligations.

Article 51A of the Indian Constitution talks about Fundamental Duties which include-

• Cherishing and following the ideals of the national struggle for freedom
• Upholding Sovereignty, Integrity, and Unity.
• To defend the country and rendering national service when called upon.
• Promoting harmony and spirit of brotherhood.
• Preserving our rich culture and heritage.
• Protect the natural environment (forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife)
• Develop Scientific Temper, Humanism, Spirit of Enquiry and Reform
• Safeguard Public Property and abjure violence
• Strive towards excellence in all spheres.

James Burnham wrote the book 'The Managerial Revolution' where he argued that Capitalism was long dead.

• According to him, the then system was being replaced by what he called the 'managerialism' - a new economic system.
• The book was written in 1941.
• He argued that Capitalism would be replaced by the rule of administrators, both in business and in government.
• Robert Michels in his book Political Parties developed the Iron law of oligarchy as a political theory.
• Gaetano Mosca talked about how the masses were an unorganized majority and elites were the organized minority.
• Vilfredo Pareto proposed the Circulation of Elite.

'Quo-Warranto' literally means 'by what warrant or authority.'

• The writ is issued by the court to enquire into the legal claim of a person for a public office.
• Any usurpation of the public office by a person who is not legally entitled to do so.
• A writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office having a permanent character created either by the Constitution or by a statute.
• The writ cannot be issued against a private office or a ministerial office.
• This writ can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by an aggrieved person.
• If the appointment is in tune with a statutory provision, then Quo-Warranto cannot be issued. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Personal Disposable Income equals the amount of money available with the household for saving and spending after deduction of all forms of taxes like the direct tax (Income Tax), and fees, fines, etc.

• It is one of the major parameters to monitor the overall state of the economy.
• Personal Income = Private Income - Saving of Private Corporate Sectors - Corporation Tax

The price mechanism is a system where the forces of supply and demand determine the prices of the commodities.

• The buyers and sellers determine the price of a commodity.
• The free play of market forces with respect to demand and supply influences the Price Mechanism.
• Sometimes, though, the government intervenes to control the price mechanism of certain commodities which may be necessary but not affordable for the poor.
• Examples include Public Distribution System, and Essential Commodities Act.

The correct answer is Fixing of wage compensation.

Key Points

• Indexation is a system or technique used by organizations or governments to connect prices and asset values.
• This is done by linking adjustments made to the value of a good, price of a service, or another specified value to a predetermined price or composite index.
• Indexation is most commonly used with wages in a high-inflation environment. It is also known as escalating.
• Indexation is used to escalate wages in inflationary environments where failure to negotiate regular wage increases would lead to ongoing real wage cuts for workers.
• Prices and wages can be indexed over different geographic areas.
• For example, because rents and costs of living vary from place to place, a company with employees in multiple states or cities might need to link compensation in different areas to local prices.

Important Points

• Indexing a given price or payment to other prices can serve two main purposes.
• It can be used either to maintain a stable relative price between two or more goods or services or
• To maintain a stable real price of a good or service relative to the purchasing power of a currency unit.

CONCEPT:

• Circular Motion: Circular motion is a movement of an object along the circumference of a circle or rotation along a circular path.
• The force acts continuously at right angles to the velocity of the particle.
• Uniform circular motion: The circular motion in which the speed of the particle remains constant is called uniform circular motion. In a uniform circular motion, force supplies the centripetal acceleration.
• In a uniform circular motion, a body is experiencing a force in the inward direction.

Acceleration of the body is non-zero and has magnitude is given as:

$ma = \frac{{m{v^2}}}{r} \Rightarrow a = \frac{{{v^2}}}{r}$

Where m is mass the of the body, a is centripetal acceleration, v is speed and r is the radius.

EXPLANATION:

• Here the direction of the velocity of the particle (Car) is changing continuously but the magnitude is the constant. So, there will not any tangential acceleration but there will always be a centripetal acceleration of constant magnitude but of fixed direction toward the center of rotation.
• So, there will be a uniform acceleration of constant magnitude as $a = \frac{{{v^2}}}{r}$
• So option 2 is correct.

Explanation:

• In this case, the sound travels to the reflecting surface and comes back from thereafter it is heard.
• So, if the distance till the reflecting surface is d, then the distance traveled for the sound to be heard is 2d.
• Hence, the formula which would be relevant is

⇒ Speed = Distance/Time

⇒ Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ 2d = 340 m/s × 5 sec

⇒ 2d = 1700 m

• Hence, d = 850 m = 850/1000 = 0.855 km = 0.85 km

It is given that,

Power Rating of the bulb = 100 W

Duration for which the bulb is used = 10 hours a day

Number of Days = 30 days

Total Energy Consumed by the Electric Bulb = Power × Duration

= 100 W × 10 hrs/day × 30 days

= 30,000 W-hrs

= 30 kWh is the unit of energy consumed.

Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the control and administration of the Scheduled Areas and Schedule tribes in different states except for the states coming under the Sixth Schedule (Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura). Hence, the first statement is correct.

Various Provisions under the Fifth Schedule include -

• Declaration of Schedule Areas - President can declare an area as Schedule area, or increase/decrease the area and alters its boundary.
• Executive Power of State and Centre - State's Executive Power extends to the scheduled areas. But the governor has a special responsibility with regards to these areas, where he may be asked to submit a report to the President with regards to the administration of such areas, either annually, or whenever so required by the President. Hence, the fourth statement is correct.
• Tribes Advisory Council - Each state having a scheduled area needs to establish a Tribal Advisory Council which would advise for the advancement and welfare of the scheduled tribes. The Tribal Advisory Council consists of 20 members, of which 3/4th are to be representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly. Hence, the second statement is correct.
• Law Applicable to Schedule Areas - The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the State Legislature or Parliament is not applicable to the scheduled areas, or applicable with certain modifications. Further, through such regulations, the Governor is also empowered to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among the members of the Scheduled Tribes, regulate the business of money-lending in relation to the Scheduled Tribes, and regulate the allotment of the land to the members of the scheduled tribes. Hence, the third statement is incorrect.

Statements 3 and 4 are not correct.

Key Points

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution has authorized the Parliament to:

• Form new state by separation of a part from any state, or by uniting two or more states/parts of the states, or by uniting a previous territory to a part of any state.
• Further, it also authorizes the Parliament to increase or diminish the area of a state
• To alter the boundary of any state
• To alter the name of any state. Thus, 3 and 4 are incorrect and hence option 3 is the correct option.
• Also, Article 3 lays down two conditions with regards to the provisions under it, that is -
• A bill contemplating changes mentioned above can only be with the prior recommendation of the President.
• Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the State Legislature which has to respond to express its views in a specific period of time.

Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the Governor under Article 165 of the Indian Constitution. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The Advocate General of the State must be qualified to be the judge of the High Court or have been an advocate in the High Court for 10 years.
• He is allowed for private practice during his tenure as the Advocate General.
• His tenure is not fixed and he holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• A High Court has, in fact, a wider appellate jurisdiction than original jurisdiction.
• The first point of contact between the subordinate courts and the higher judiciary is the High Court.
• At present, a high court enjoys the following jurisdiction and powers:
  

1. Original jurisdiction.
   
2. Writ jurisdiction.
   

3. Appellate jurisdiction.

4. Supervisory jurisdiction.
   
5. Control over subordinate courts.
   
6. A court of record.
   
7. Power of judicial review.

• Hence statement 2 is not correct.

India, for example, has a Quasi-Federal Constitution having well-demarcated features for both the Union and the States.

Key Points

• Some of its features like the rigid constitution and written constitution are federal in nature.
• Others, like the integrated judiciary, All India Services, Single Citizenship and flexibility of the Constitution, make it a unitary constitution.
• Hence, a Constitution like India, having features of both Unitary and Federal Constitution can be called a Quasi-Federal Constitution.
• Quasi-Unitary is when the Constitution enlist the powers of the States/Provinces wider than the Centre itself.
• Unitary is where the provisions of the Constitution give wide-ranging powers to the Centre.
• Federal is where the provisions of the Constitution give wide-ranging powers to the State.

Chattisgarh shares no international boundary.

Concept:

• India shares its border with seven countries-
• Afghanistan and Pakistan to the North-West,
• China, Bhutan and Nepal to the North,
• Myanmar and Bangladesh to the East.
• Length of the land frontier of India is15,200 km.

Explanation:

Additional Information

• Other states having no international boundary include Telangana, Haryana, Jharkhand, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Bihar shares its borders with Nepal.
• Uttarakhand shares its borders with Nepal and China.
• Meghalaya shares its borders with Bangladesh.

Bhopal, the administrative capital of Madhya Pradesh is not located on the bank of any river.

Key Points

• Bhagalpur is located on the bank of Ganges.
• Agra is located on the bank of Yamuna.
• Kanpur is located on the bank of the Ganges.
• Mysore is also not located on the bank of any river. It is located between Kaveri and Kabini (a tributary of Kaveri) rivers.
• Tributaries of Ganges - Kosi, Gomati, Gandaki, Ghaghara, Damodar, Yamuna, Son.
• Tributaries of Yamuna - Chambal, Betwa, Sind, Ken, Hindon, Varuna.
• Tributaries of Kaveri - Shimsha, Hemavati, Arkavathi, Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Bhavani.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

• Jhumri Telaiya is located in Jharkhand.
• The place has micacious soil, i.e soil containing Mica.
• Jharkhand is the 28th state of the Indian Union.
• It was established on 15th November 2000.
• Ranchi is the capital of the State.
• State Animal - Elephant.
• State Bird - Koel
• State Tree - Sal
• State Flower - Palash

Key Points

• Annual Range of Temperature is between 19-25 degrees centigrade.
• Temperature and Humidity of South India are generally high all year round generally.
• Only slight seasonal variations are experienced in South India.
• While hot seasons in South India range from 25-32 degrees centigrade, and they don't experience extreme climatic conditions.

The correct answer is: "In Asia, there is high sex ratio."

Key Points

• Sex Ratio Definition:
• Sex ratio is the proportion of males to females in a population. It is generally expressed as the number of males per 100 females or as the number of females per 1000 males, depending on the context.
• Sex Ratio in India:
• In India, the sex ratio is commonly expressed as the number of females per thousand males. This means, for example, a sex ratio of 940 females per thousand males means that there are 940 females for every 1000 males in the population.
• Global Sex Ratio:
• At the world level, the sex ratio is approximately 102 males per 100 females, reflecting a slight male dominance in terms of the total number of individuals. However, this varies greatly across different countries and regions.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in Asia:
• Sex Ratio in Asia: Contrary to the statement in option 4, many Asian countries have a low or skewed sex ratio, especially in countries like China and India due to cultural preferences for male children. This has led to a demographic imbalance in these regions.
• Gender Imbalance in Some Regions: In countries like China and India, sex-selective practices and cultural norms have resulted in higher male-to-female ratios, which is not considered a "high sex ratio" in the sense of gender equality.

Human development involves the process of increasing the freedoms available with the general population, as well as an increase in opportunities leading to an improved standard of living.

• Human Development is about freedom which is fundamental to each human.
• The concept of Human Development was given by Mahbub-ul-Haq.
• Along with Amartya Sen and other known economists, Mahbub-ul-Haq published the first Human Development Report in 1990.
• It was commissioned by the United Nations Development Programme.
• The capability approach of Amartya Sen stands at the centre of the concept of Human Development.
• Sukbamoy Chakravarty along with P.C Mahalanobis was the key architect for the Five-year plans in India.
• G.S. Chaddha is known for his books on Quantum Mechanics.

The correct answer is the Mediterranean region.

• The Mediterranean region is an important supplier of citrus fruit.

Key Points

• Mediterranean Region:
• Countries along the Mediterranean Region (CLAM Countries) rank first worldwide when it comes to supplying Citrus Fruits.
• According to the CLAM Data, the Mediterranean Region accounts for 60% of the world's fresh citrus fruit supply.
• The root structure of the citrus plants is well adapted for the climate.
• Citrus fruits require sunshine and moderate climate and light winter rainfall, and long moderate summer helps them grow more.
• Mediterranean climate:
• The characteristics of the Mediterranean Climate includes dry and hot summer, with cold and rainy winters.
• The regions are located in the Western Part of the Continent in between 30-45 degrees North and South of the Equator.
• Pressure belts are anticyclonic, meaning they rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere, and anti-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Anti-cyclonic conditions are accompanied by a clearer sky.
• Rainfall is uneven, but the regions with Mediterranean climates experience winter rainfalls.
• Places with Mediterranean Climate are Central Chile, California, Mediterranean Basin, Western Cape of South Africa, Western and South Australia.

Additional Information

• The equatorial region is best for growing rubber, cocoa, palm, sugarcane, tea, coffee, and coconut.
• The Desert region is suitable for growing crops like sorghum.
• The Sub-Humid climate is suitable for growing crops like Rice.

Nayanars were the devotees of Shiva.

• Alvars were the devotees of Vishnu.
• Followers of Basveshwara were called Lingayats.
• Both Nayanars and Alvars were influenced by the Bhakti Movement 7th-8th Century CE.
• Lingayats are the 12th-century followers of Basveshwara, a social reformer from the 12th century who used to say his Vachanas.
• He along with Sharanas launched a strong religious and spiritual rebel against Brahminical Hegemony propagating Equality of all.
• Buddha propagated the middle path between self-indulgence and self-mortification.

According to Tamil Literature

• Maruta Makkal - Ploughmen living in villages and inhabiting fertile tracts
• Kuravan Makkal - Hill people who told people their fortunes
• Mullai Makkal - Pastoralist, Shepherds.
• Neytal Makkal - Fishing people living in coastal villages called pattinam.
• Palai Makkal - People of the dry plains.

The correct answer is Babur.

• Babur was a follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar.

Key Points

• Babur(1526 AD-1530 AD):
• He laid the foundation of the Mughal rule in India.
• He was invited to attack India by Daulat Khan Lodhi who was the subedar of Punjab, Alam Khan Lodhi (uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi) and Rana Sanga.
• Babur was the first ruler to entitle himself ‘Badshah’.
• He was the one to popularise gunpowder and artillery in India.
• He wrote his autobiography Tuzuk-i-Baburi in Turki language.
• He was the follower of Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar.
• He was the proponent of the Naqshbandi Sufi order and made effective contributions towards politicizing it.
• He advised his followers to not get attached to material possessions and wealth.
• He didn't support Sharia Law calling it against the people.

The correct answer is It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature.

Key Points

• Government of India Act, 1919:
• The British Government, on 20th August 1917, declared that its objective was to bring the gradual responsible government to India.
• The Act didn't make the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature. Hence, option 2 is the correct option.
• The Government of India Act, 1919, also called the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, was passed.
• The act introduced a responsible government in the Provinces, without impairing the responsibility of the Governor (through the Governor-General), for the administration of the Province, by bringing ‘Dyarchy’ or dual government.
• The Indian Legislature was made more representative and for the first time ‘bi-cameral’.
• The subjects of administration were to be divided into two categories Central and Provincial.
• The provincial subjects were subdivided into ‘transferred’ and ‘reserved’ subjects.
• The ‘transferred subjects were to be administered by the Governor with the aid of Ministers responsible to the Legislative Council.
• The ‘reserved subjects’ were to be administered by the Governor and his Executive Council.
• The Central Legislature controlled the power to legislate for the whole country on any subject. 
• Hence, The Act didn't make the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature. Hence, option 2 is the incorrect option.
• It further extended the communal representation to Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, and Europeans.
• It separated and demarcated the central and provincial subjects by relaxing the central control over the provinces. Hence, option 2 is not incorrect.

Rama Manohar Lohia was a strong advocate of the devolution of politico-administrative power.

• He coined the phrase 'Four-Pillar State', where he supported the Panchayati Raj.
• He graduated from Calcutta University in 1929.
• He completed his doctoral studies from Germany in 1933, post which he wrote a Ph.D. thesis on 'Salt taxation in India'.
• The focus of the study was on Gandhi's socio-economic theory.
• He was one of the co-founders of the Congress Socialist Party along with Jay Prakash Narayan.
• He was at the forefront of the Quit India Movement in 1942.

Participation of workers in the management of industries is mentioned in Article 43A which is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

• It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.
• Prohibition of traffic in human being and forced labour is mentioned in Article 23 (Fundamental Rights)
• Prohibition of employment of children in factories is mentioned in Article 24 (Fundamental Rights)
• Article 19 provides for the freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Cotton requires at least 180 frost-free days and 200 frost-free days are more desirable for the cultivation.

Key Points

• Moderate Rainfall - 55-100 cm.
• Fertile Loamy Black soil with proper cracks to allow aeration. Fertile alluvial soil is good too.
• Temperature - 20-28°C with bright sunshine.
• A slight slope of the land for the draining of excess water would be desirable.

The average temperature of the Coniferous Forest Biome is 50 degrees Fahrenheit.

• The average winter temperature ranges from -40°C to 20°C
• The average summer temperature is 10°C.
• Thus, the annual temperature variation is quite high.
• Coniferous forests can thrive in both humid climates of the tropics and subtropics, and the winters with snowfall in Serbia and Canada.
• They show very low undergrowth.
• Spatial annual precipitation distribution is high ranging from 300 mm to 900 mm.

• Anaimudi is the highest peak of the Annamalai Hills, a part of the Western Ghats.
• Anaimudi is located in the Idukki district of Kerala.
• It is the part of Western Ghats Mountain range.
• Doddabetta is the highest peak of the Nilgiri Hills.
• Niligiri Mountains are situated in Tamil Nadu and form the part of Western Ghats.
• Doda Betta is the Highest Peak of Tamil Nadu
• Dhupgarh is the highest peak of the Satpura Ranges.
• Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of Aravalli Ranges.

Gulf of Khambhat is also called the Gulf of Cambay.

• Corals require saline water with a warm temperature up to 25-degree centigrade.
• Corals are not found in the Gulf of Khambat.
• Places, where corals are found in India, include - Lakshadweep, Gulf of Kutch (Marine National Park), Gulf of Mannar (Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park), Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Havelock and North Bay), and Malvan Marine Sanctuary in Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
• High temperature is required during the time of growth.
• West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are the major jute producing states.
• It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts.
• Due to its high cost, it is losing market to synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the nylon.

The Buddhist texts present Ashoka as a vile and evil man until he came under the influence of Buddhist Dhamma.

• It presents Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism sudden and transformative.
• Both the Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa tell us that Ashoka turned to Buddha's Dhamma after his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him. Hence, while the statement 1 is correct, statement 3 is incorrect.
• It says that Nigrodha was only 7 when he had converted to a monk and started preaching Dhamma.
• Diyavadana, on the other hand, says that Ashoka was drawn towards the teachings of Buddha after coming under the influence of Samudra, who was a merchant-turned monk. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is important to note here that Xuan Tsang supports the account given by Divyadana.
• The Ashokavandana mixes the two stories and speaks of Samudra, the 12-year merchant-turned-monk, as the key figure who influenced Ashoka coming under the influence of Buddha's Dhamma.

Arikamedu is a Southern Archaeological site in Puducherry.

• There have been found Indo-Pacific beads, megalithic stones made of black and red ceramics.
• In Tamil, these beads are called Pandukal.
• They were traded through the port, which today is known as the Coromandel coast.

Cichlids are fish from the family of Cichlidae.

• They are in the order of Cichliformes.
• Relatively few cichlids occur in Asia. The areas of the Middle East, India and Madagascar were closely positioned along with what is now the eastern coast of Africa.
• It is because of this, that a small number of cichlids migrated to India.
• Currently, the largest quantity of cichlids is found in the Backwaters of Kerala.
• Backwaters of Kerala are a long stretch of canals, lakes, and lagoons located at the coast of the Arabian Sea.
• They are one of the most popular destinations in India.
• The scenic backwaters of Kerala comprise serene stretches of lakes, canals, and lagoons located parallel to the coast of the Arabian Sea. The backwater regions of Kerala are one of the most popular tourist destinations in the world.

Eratosthenes, a Greek scholar, is credited to have coined the term 'Geography' in the third century B.C.E.

• He is known as the 'Father of Geography'.
• He measured the circumference of the Earth, the distance between the Sun and the Earth, 'Leap Day' as a concept, and the tilt of the Earth's axis.
• The Greek philosopher Thales was the first to argue about the shape of the earth in the sixth century BCE.
• Plato is known for his 'Theory of Forms'.
• Euclid is known for Euclidean Geometry.

Narayana Bhatta Goswami, a disciple of Shri Krishna Dasa Brahmachari, is the author of the 16th century Sanskrit text, Vajra Bhakti.

• The book focuses on the Braj region in Northern India.
• He was attached to the Vraja Bhumi.
• He wandered through the forests and uncovered a number of deities that were not being worshipped and started their worshipping.
• Todar Mal was the Finance minister in the Akbar regime.
• Chaitanya Prabhu is a philosopher from the 16th century who is credited with the Vedantic philosophy of Achintya Bheda Abheda.
• Rupa Goswami is a philosopher of the Gaudiya Vaishnava tradition from the 16th century.

Bose-Einstein Condensate is called the Fifth state of matter.

• It is formed when a gas of bosons having low densities is cooled to absolute zero temperature.
• At this temperature, the atoms stop moving.
• They thus clump to each other acting like a single atom with the whole group having identical physical properties.
• Plasma is a subset of gas which unlike the ordinary gases, is made up of atoms where some or all the electrons are stripped and positively charged protons roam freely.

The rate of evaporation depends on temperature, presence of wind, the humidity of the surrounding, and the surface area of the liquid exposed to the atmosphere. It doesn't depend on the mass of the liquid.

• The larger the surface area, the more would be the rate of evaporation.
• The higher the humidity, the slower would be the rate of evaporation.
• The higher the presence of wind, the faster would be the rate of evaporation.
• The higher the temperature, the faster would be the rate of evaporation.

During the time of the experiment by Ernest Rutherford in 1909 at the University of Manchester, the popular model of the atom was the 'Plum Pudding Model'.

• Through his experiment, he noticed that the alpha rays were getting deflected by the center mass, and hence concluded the presence of positively charged particles in the nucleus and let to the discovery of the nucleus.
• Plum Pudding Model had propounded that there were floating negatively charged electrons.
• Further ahead, Rutherford's experiment replaced the Plum Pudding Model.
• Electron was discovered by JJ Thomson.
• Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick.

Food Chain is the transfer of food energy from producers like plants through a series of organisms, where each stage is accompanied by one eating the other.

• Every step is called the 'trophic level'.
• There are two types of food chains - Detritus food chain, and the Grazing food chain.
• About 90% of energy is lost after each trophic level.
• Thus, only 10% of the energy is transferred.

Active Transport involves the transportation of a substance from a low concentration to a high concentration, against the diffusion gradient.

• The use of energy released through respiration helps in making the process sufficiently exergonic.
• This would help in making the transportation process favorable.
• Passive-mediated transport or facilitated diffusion is when the substance moves from the high concentration to the low concentration region.

Chlorophyll in Photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is associated with Membrane Vesicles.

• Chlorophyll in Photosynthetic Eukaryotes is associated with Plastids.
• Photosynthesis has two parts - the light-dependent reactions, and the Calvin Cycle.
• They take place in Chloroplasts.
• However, in Prokaryotic bacteria like the Cyanobacteria, membrane-bound organelles are not present, including the chloroplasts.
• Prokaryotic photosynthetic organisms have an unfolding of the plasma membrane for the chlorophyll attachment.
• It is in this membrane vesicle, that the cyanobacteria carry out photosynthesis.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working-age people in a population.

According to the **United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)**​

• A demographic dividend means - the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (14 and younger, and 65 and older).
• India has one of the youngest populations in an aging world.
• By 2020, the median age in India will be just 28.
• Compared to this, in China and the US, the median age would be 37, 45 in Western Europe, and 49 in Japan.
• According to Economic Survey 2018-19, India’s Demographic Dividend will peak around 2041, when the share of working-age,i.e. 20-59 years, the population is expected to hit 59%.
• The age group of 15-59 years would reach 65% in 2036.

The correct answer is 2, i.e Trypanosoma.

• Sleeping sickness is also known as African trypanosomiasis.
• It is a disease caused due to the infection by flagellate protozoan Trypanosoma bruclei.
• The disease is transmitted by the tsetse fly (genus Glossina).
• Leishmania is a genus of trypanosomes that are responsible for the disease leishmaniasis.
• Ascaris is a genus of parasitic nematode worms which is also known as the "small intestinal roundworms", a type of parasitic worm.
• Helicobacter is a type of bacteria that can cause an ulcer.

Smooth muscle is named so because the cells don't have striations.

Key Points

• They are present in the walls of organs which are hollow.
• These include urinary bladder, uterus, stomach, intestines, in circulatory systems like arteries and veins.
• They are also present in the tracts of the respiratory system, reproductive systems, urinary system.
• Smooth muscles are present in the eyes, where they help in the change of the size of the iris.
• This helps in changing the shape of the lens.
• They alter the shape of the lens, and in the skin causing the hair to stand erect in response to any cold temperature.
• They are not found in Biceps. Hence option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is the grow two or more crops in definite row patterns.

Key Points

• Intercropping:
• Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.
• A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of a second crop.
• Example, soybean + maize, or finger millet (bajra) + cowpea (lobia).
• The crops are selected such that their nutrient requirements are different.
• This ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients supplied and also prevents pests and diseases from spreading to all the plants belonging to one crop in a field.
• This way, both crops can give better returns.

Additional Information

• Mixed Cropping:
• It is a type of agriculture that involves planting two or more plants simultaneously in the same field. But No planting pattern followed.
• In general, the theory is that planting multiple crops at once will allow the crops to work together.
• For example, wheat + gram, or wheat + mustard, or groundnut + sunflower.
• This reduces risk and gives some insurance against the failure of one of the crops.
• Sequence Cropping is the growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession.
• Recall Period is the time period between two cropping seasons.

• Magnification produced by a spherical mirror gives the relative extent to which the image of an object is magnified with respect to the object size.
• It is expressed as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object. It is usually represented by the letter m. If h is the height of the object and h′ is the height of the image, then the magnification m produced by a spherical mirror is given by

          m = $\frac{{Height;of;the;image;\left( {h'} \right)}}{{;Height;of;the;object;\left( h \right)}}$

             m = $\frac{{h';}}{{h;}}$

• The magnification (m) is also related to the object distance (u) and image distance (v). It can be expressed as Magnification (m) = $\frac{{h'}}{h} = \frac{v}{{u'}}$
• You may note that the height of the object is taken to be positive as the object is usually placed above the principal axis. The height of the image should be taken as positive for virtual images.
• However, it is to be taken as negative for real images. A negative sign in the value of the magnification indicates that the image is real. A positive sign in the value of the magnification indicates that the image is virtual.

The correct answer is 1, i.e Lysosomes.

Key Points

• Lysosomes are called suicidal bags of the cells, containing hydrolytic enzymes that undergo autolysis and burst open when the cell gets damaged.
• Plastids are double-membrane organelles found in plant cells and contain pigments that help the plant is photosynthesis. They are responsible for the storage and manufacture of food.
• Endoplasmic reticulum usually contains ribosomes which are involved in lipid and protein synthesis.
• Mitochondria is known as the powerhouse of the cell.

Additional Information 

• An economic model is a simplified description of reality, designed to yield hypotheses about economic behavior that can be tested.
• An important feature of an economic model is that it is necessarily subjective in design because there are no objective measures of economic outcomes.
• There are two broad classes of economic models—theoretical and empirical.
• Theoretical models seek to derive verifiable implications about economic behavior under the assumption that agents maximize specific objectives subject to constraints that are well defined in the model (for example, an agent’s budget).
• They provide qualitative answers to specific questions such as the implications of asymmetric information (when one side to a transaction knows more than the other) or how best to handle market failures.
• In contrast, empirical models aim to verify the qualitative predictions of theoretical models and convert these predictions into precise, numerical outcomes.
• For example, a theoretical model of an agent’s consumption behavior would generally suggest a positive relationship between expenditure and income.
• The empirical adaptation of the theoretical model would attempt to assign a numerical value to the average amount expenditure increases when income increases.

• The demand curve illustrates the relationship between price and quantity demanded of a particular good or service.
• For normal curve, its Negative slope.
• The elasticity measures the extent to which a change in price affects the quantity demanded of that particular good or service.
• In the case of a product with a horizontal demand curve, elasticity is said to be perfectly elastic.
• A perfectly elastic demand is a demand where any price increase would cause the quantity demanded to fall to zero, and reducing the price of a good or service will not increase sales.
• Luxury goods are often very elastic – if the price increases a little, then people will move over to something else.

The Correct Answer is Option 1, i.e Minimum Support price (MSP) for Jowar in India.

• A price floor is the lowest legal price a commodity can be sold at.
• Price floors are used by the government to prevent prices from being too low.
• The most common price floor is the minimum wage--the minimum price that can be paid for labor.
• Price floors are also used often in agriculture to try to protect farmers.

The correct answer is Cost of living index.

• The Cost of Living Index is not considered when determining the Minimum Support Price.

Key Points

• Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
• The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• MSP is price fixed by the Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper production years.
• The minimum support prices are a guaranteed price for their produce from the Government. ​
• The following factors included in determining MSP are:
• Demand and supply
• Cost of production
• Price trends in the market, both domestic and international
• Inter-crop price parity
• Terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture;
• A minimum of 50 percent as the margin over the cost of production
• Implications of MSP on consumers of that product.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is an index that measures key dimensions of human development.

• HDI is part of the Human Development Report published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• The dimensions considered in the Human Development Index include -
• The other indices that form the part of the 2019 Report are:
• ​A long and healthy life – measured by life expectancy.
• Access to education – measured by expected years of schooling of children at school-entry age and mean years of schooling of the adult population.
• And a decent standard of living – measured by Gross National Income per capita adjusted for the price level of the country.
• Access to banking and other financial is NOT a factor considered for the Human Development Index. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Income inequality.

• Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated with Income inequality.

Key Points

• In economics, the Gini coefficient is used to measure the income inequality among the residents of a nation.
• While a Gini Coefficient of 1 expresses maximum inequality, a Gini coefficient of zero expresses maximum equality.
• In India, the rate of inflation is measured using the Consumer Price Index (CPI).

Additional Information 

• A poverty index is measured by a number of parameters like the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index, the Human Poverty Index.
• Personal Income includes income in the form of wages/salaries, and the income transferred by the government in the form of transfer payments.

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Both 1 and 2.

• Particles of matter intermix on their own with each other.
• They do so by getting into the spaces between the particles.
• This intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called diffusion.
• There’s a force that acts on the particulate matter that keeps it together.
• Some substances change into powder, some others change into small crystals and others don’t break easily.
• The magnitude of the force of attraction varies from matter to matter, i.e. depends on the nature of the matter.
• For example, breaking chalk is easier than breaking a nail. This proves that attraction varies from particles of one substance to another.
• Cohesion means the force of attraction between the particulate matter of the same substance.

The correct answer is an increase in surface area.

• The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface area.

Key Points

• The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface area.
• This is because the evaporation occurs in the molecules that are at the surface, and not the interior.
• An increase in humidity would actually decrease the rate of evaporation while vice-versa would increase the rate of evaporation.
• Similarly, an increase in wind speed and temperature would increase the rate of evaporation.

Additional Information

• Evaporation
• The process of vapourisation which takes place only from the exposed surface of the liquid and that at all temperatures is called evaporation.
• Evaporation causes cooling.
• Vaporisation
• The process by which a substance is changed from liquid state to vapour state is called vaporisation.