Previous Year Paper

CDS General Knowledge 3 Feb 2019 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

120 questions120 minutes
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English (120 questions)

Question 1

Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fort William College

  2. BOption (b)

    Serampore Mission

  3. COption (c)

    Kashi Vidyapith

  4. DOption (d)

    Asiatic Society

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fort William College

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fort William College.

Key Points

  • Henry T. Colebrooke was appointed professor at Fort William College in 1805 .
  • The college was started by Lord Wellesley in the year 1800.
  • It was started with the intention of training new civil servants in local languages.

Additional Information

Famous PersonFamous Work
Jonathan DuncanSanskrit College at Varanasi
Richard WellesleyFort William College at Kolkata
William JonesAsiatic Society of Bengal
David HareHindu College at Kolkata

Question 2

The Deccan Agriculturalists' Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives?

  1. AOption (a)

    Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants

  2. BOption (b)

    Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social and religious occasions

  3. COption (c)

    Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders

  4. DOption (d)

    Peasants to be sued where they posses land

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The Deccan Riots Commission was set up which presented a report to the British Parliament in 1878.
  • In 1879, the Agriculturists Relief Act was passed which ensured that the farmers could not be arrested and imprisoned if they were unable to pay their debts.
  • It also restricted the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders.
  • It was an Act for the relief of Indebted Agriculturists in certain parts of the Deccan.

Additional Information

  • Deccan Riots of 1875:
  • The uprising began at Supa village in the district of Poona when moneylenders refused the farmer's loans.
  • In 1875, farmers attacked a market place where many moneylenders lived.
  • They burnt account books and looted grain shops.
  • They also burnt the houses of sahukars.
  • Sahukars were people who were both traders and moneylenders.
  • When the revolt spread in the Deccan, the Government of India, worried by the memory of 1857, pressurised the Government of Bombay to set up a commission of enquiry to investigate into the causes of the riots.
  • The commission produced a report that was presented to the British Parliament in 1878.
  • The commission held enquiries in the districts where the riots spread, not in unaffected districts.
  • They recorded statements of ryots, sahukars and eyewitnesses, compiled statistical data on revenue rates, prices and interest rates in different regions, and collated the reports sent by district collectors.

Question 3

The Damin-i-Koh was created by the British Government to settle which one of the following communities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Santhals

  2. BOption (b)

    Mundas

  3. COption (c)

    Oraons

  4. DOption (d)

    Saoras

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Santhals

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Santhals.

  • Santhals were invited to Bengal around the 1780s by powerful Zamindars to take care of agriculture.
  • The British were facing stiff opposition from Paharias who would not cut forests and plough fields which generate revenue in areas around the Rahmahal hills.
  • The Santhals were flexible and were hired by the British. Around 1830s large areas of land was given to the Santhals around the foothills of Raj Mahal hills to be cleared and cultivated. The Paharias were pushed into the barren hills.
  • The area given to Santhals around Raj Mahal Hills was called Damin-i-Koh. They soon expanded the cultivated area and population multiple folds.
  • Santhals soon realized they were being oppressed and in 1855 Santhal rebellion started and Santhal Paraganas(5500 km2 exclusive area)) was created to satisfy them.

Question 4

The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues?

  1. AOption (a)

    Loan bonds would not have any legal validity.

  2. BOption (b)

    Loan bonds signed between money-lender and Ryots would have validity only for three years.

  3. COption (c)

    Land bonds could not be executed by moneylenders.

  4. DOption (d)

    Loan bonds would have validity for ten years.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Loan bonds signed between money-lender and Ryots would have validity only for three years.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Loan bonds signed between money-lender and Ryots would have validity only for three years.

Key Points

  • The Deccan Ryot commission had examined the conditions of money borrowing and the relationship between parties involved.
  • They observed exorbitant amounts of interest were charged on small amounts of principle.
  • The Limitation law 1859 was passed to regulate the process.
  • The features were,
  • A legally binding bond would be executed between both parties.
  • The validity of the bond would be 3 years.
  • It can be issued by both parties.

Question 5

Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as 'Danka Shah'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shah Mal

  2. BOption (b)

    Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah

  3. COption (c)

    Nana Sahib

  4. DOption (d)

    Tantia Tope

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah

Why this answer is correct

Revolt CenterLeader
FaizabadMaulvi Ahmadullah Shah(Danka Shah)
BiharKunwar Singh
BarrackporeMangal Pandey
DelhiBahadur Shah II(Titular),General Bakht Khan
LucknowBegum Hazrat Mahal
KanpurNana Sahib andTantia Tope
JhansiRani Laxmibai
BareillyKhan Bahadur Khan

Question 6

The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land.

  3. COption (c)

    The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the lands.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenue which flowed to the State.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land.

Why this answer is correct

  • The annexation of Awadh started by dethroning  Nawab Wajid Ali Shah in the year 1856 on the count of misgovernance
  • The British wished for Awadh to be a part of British territory assuming it had fertile soils.
  • They realized Talukdars were landholders in the region and were powerful. To reduce the landholding they assumed talukdars as interlopers and not original owners of the land and that the peasants were oppressed.
  • Upon assuming full revenue control, the British realized the lands were grossly overestimated and talukdars were not oppressors but were necessary for the system.
  • This incident was one of the reasons for Awadh being a strong centre for the Revolt of 1857.

Question 7

The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Punchhi Commission

  2. BOption (b)

    Sarkaria Commission

  3. COption (c)

    Rajamannar Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    Mungerilal Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sarkaria Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarkaria Commission.

  • The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission

Key Points

  • It was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission's charter was to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes.
Name of CommissionYear
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission2005
The Eleventh Finance Commission1998
Punchhi Commission2007
Sarkaria Commission1983

Additional Information

  • Punchhi Commission
  • The Punchhi Commission was constituted by the Government of India on 27th April 2007 as a Commission on Centre-State relations.
  • It was chaired by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi who was formerly the Chief Justice of India from 18 January 1998 until his retirement on 9 October 1998.
  • The Commission examined and reviewed the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and States, various pronouncements of the Courts in regard to powers, functions, and responsibilities.
  • Rajamannar Committee:
  • In 1969, the Tamil Nadu Government (DMK) appointed a three-member committee under the chairmanship of Dr P. V. Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre-state relations and to suggest amendments to the Constitution so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states.
  • The committee submitted its report to the Tamil Nadu Government in 1971.
  • Recommendations:
  • The setting of an Inter-State council immediately.
  • Finance commission to be made a permanent body.
  • Deletion of Articles 356, 357, and 365 which dealt with the President’s rule.
  • Abolition of All-India Services (lAS, IPS, and IFS).
  • Planning Commission to be replaced by a statutory body.
  • The Central government completely ignored its recommendations.

Question 8

Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mandamus

  2. BOption (b)

    Prohibition

  3. COption (c)

    Quo Warranto

  4. DOption (d)

    Certiorari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Certiorari

Why this answer is correct

WritDetails
Habeas CorpusThe writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
MandamusThis writ of command is issued by supreme or high court when any government, court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.
CertiorariThe writ of certiorari can be issued by the supreme or high court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
ProhibitionMeant to direct a subordinate to stop doing something that the law prohibits. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court
Quo warrantoIssued to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person or public office. It contains the authority to act in an office which is not entitled to stops the violation of public office by anyone. It is only applicable to public offices and not in a private one.

Question 9

Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    1 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1 and 2.'

Key Points

  • The Doctrine of Basic Structure :
  • It came into existence in the landmark judgment in the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case (1973).
  • The idea is that the basic features of the Constitution of India should not be altered to an extent that the identity of the Constitution is lost in the process.
  • It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It falls outside the constituent powers of the Parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly.  Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Article 368 empowers the Parliament to alter the Constitution of India.
  • The Supreme Court has not yet established the basic structure of the Constitution because it is periodically improved with new elements.
  • The following constitute the basic structure of the Constitution:
  • Fundamental rights
  • Directive Principles of state policy
  • Fundamental principles and values with which the constitution-makers framed our constitution.
  • The sovereignty of India
  • The unity of the country, etc

Question 10

When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 20 and Article 21

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 21 and Article 22

  3. COption (c)

    Article 19 and Article 20

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 15 and Article 16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 20 and Article 21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 20 and Article 21.

Key Points

  • During an emergency, all other fundamental rights are suspended except Article 20,21.

Important Points

  • An emergency can be declared on 3 bases:
  • National emergency: Article 352
  • Financial emergency: Article 360
  • State emergency: Article 356,365

Additional Information

ArticleProvision
Article 13Laws are inconsistent with or in derogation of fundamental rights.
Article 14Equality before the law.
Article 15Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Article 17Abolition of untouchability.
Article 18Abolition of titles.
Article 19Guarantees to all the citizens the six rights.
Article 20Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Article 21Protection of life and personal liberty.
Article 22Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Article 23Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Article 24Prohibition of employment of children (Under the age of 14) in factories and mines.

Question 11

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State funds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 14

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 15

  3. COption (c)

    Article 16

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 15

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 15.

Key Points

  • Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
  • The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
  • No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to:
  • Access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or
  • The use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.

Important Points

  • Article 14: Equality before law. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
  • Article 16 refers to the equality of opportunity in the area of public employment. It means every citizen of this country has right to get an equal opportunity to practice their profession.
  • Article 17 is related to untouchability. It means the practice of untouchability will be considered as an offense and is against the law.

Question 12

Who amongst the following organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jyotiba Phule

  2. BOption (b)

    Periyar

  3. COption (c)

    B. R. Ambedkar

  4. DOption (d)

    M. K. Karunanidhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B. R. Ambedkar

Why this answer is correct

  • All India Scheduled Castes Federation was organized by Dr B. R. Ambedkar in 1942.
  • It was organized to fight for the rights of the oppressed and weaker sections of the society.
  • It succeeded the Independent Labour party of India organized by Ambedkar.
  • After independence, it came to be called the Labour Party of India.

Question 13

Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Oracle

  2. BOption (b)

    IBM

  3. COption (c)

    Microsoft

  4. DOption (d)

    SAP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Microsoft

Why this answer is correct

CompanyFounders
MicrosoftBill Gates, Paul Allen
IBMCharles Ranlett Flint, Thomas J. Watson Sr
GoogleLarry Page, Sergey Brin
SAPDietmar Hopp, Hasso Plattner, Hans-Werner Hector, Klaus Tschira, and Claus Wellenreuther
AppleSteve Jobs, Steve Wozniak, Ronald Wayne
InfosysN. R. Narayana Murthy, Nandan Nilekani, S. Gopalakrishnan, S. D. Shibulal, K. Dinesh, N. S. Raghavan, Ashok Arora
SamsungLee Byung-Chul

Question 14

The mobile app 'cVIGIL' is helpful in __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    conducting free and fair e-tendering process in government offices

  2. BOption (b)

    fighting against corruption in public services

  3. COption (c)

    removing garbage from the municipal areas

  4. DOption (d)

    reporting violation of model code of conduct in election-bound States

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

reporting violation of model code of conduct in election-bound States

Why this answer is correct

  • It is a mobile application through which people can report any violation of the Model Code of Conduct.
  • It will be operational only when an election is announced by the Election Commission.
  • It has inbuilt foolproof location tracking and camera, video recording which will act as evidence collected on the spot.
  • They can submit this information within seconds without any hassle and physical presence.

Question 15

What is Prahaar?

  1. AOption (a)

    a battle tank

  2. BOption (b)

    a surface-to-surface missile

  3. COption (c)

    an aircraft carrier

  4. DOption (d)

    a submarine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a surface-to-surface missile

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a surface-to-surface missile.

Key Points

  • Prahaar:
  • It is an indigenously developed surface-to-surface short-range tactical ballistic missile. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  • Features:
  • Quick-reaction,
  • all-weather,
  • all-terrain,
  • highly accurate battlefield support tactical missiles with advanced manoeuvring capability.

Additional Information

  • Battle tanks of India: Arjun MK1, T-90M Bhishma, DRDO Arjun (Lion) etc.
  • Aircraft carriers of India: INS Vikrant (2013), INS Vikramaditya
  • Submarines of India: INS Arihant (S2), Kalvari class (Scorpène-class), INS Karanj (S23) etc.
  • Note: Please refer to this link and memorize all the Missiles.

Question 16

Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Virat Kohli

  2. BOption (b)

    S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli

  3. COption (c)

    Neeraj Chopra

  4. DOption (d)

    Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 

Key Points

  • S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli were awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for 2018. 
  • Saikhom Mirabai Chanu is the third weightlifter to win the prize after Karnam Malleswari (1995) and Nameirakpam Kunjarani (1996).
  • Virat Kohli is the third cricketer awarded the Khel Ratna after Sachin Tendulkar (1997) and MS Dhoni (2007).
  • Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award:
  • The award since August 6, 2021, is named after Major Dhyan Chand, now officially known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
  • It is the highest sporting honour in India.
  • It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
  • The award consists of a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs. 25 lakh.
  • Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra were awarded the Arjuna awards for the year 2018. Hence options 3 and 4 are incorrect.

Question 17

Pakyong Airport is located in __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikkim

  2. BOption (b)

    Jammu and Kashmir

  3. COption (c)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sikkim

Why this answer is correct

  • Pakyong Airport is situated in Sikkim, near Gangtok. It is a Greenfield airport.
  • This airport is the 100th operational airport in the country built under the UDAN scheme which stands for Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik.
  • Greenfield airports are built considering environmental costs and damages occurred and are built on waste green lands.

Question 18

The United Nations has been observing International Day of Rural Women on __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    15th July

  2. BOption (b)

    15th August

  3. COption (c)

    15th September

  4. DOption (d)

    15th October

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15th October

Why this answer is correct

  • International Day of Rural Women is observed on October 15 every year.
  • International Women’s day celebrated on March 8 every year.
  • Mothers day is celebrated on the 2nd Sunday of May.
International dayDateTheme(2019)
World Wildlife Day3 MarchLife Below Water: For people and planet
International Day of Forests21 MarchForests and Education
World Water Day23 MarchLeaving no one behind
World Environment Day5 JuneAir pollution
World Oceans Day8 JuneGender and Oceans

Question 19

Who among the following is the first Indian to win Pulitzer Prize?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arundhati Roy

  2. BOption (b)

    Gobind Behari Lal

  3. COption (c)

    Vijay Seshadri

  4. DOption (d)

    Jhumpa Lahiri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gobind Behari Lal

Why this answer is correct

  • The first Indian to win a Pulitzer Prize was Gobind Behari Lal, a journalist in the year 1937.
  • Jhumpa Lahiri, Geeta Anand, Siddhartha Mukherjee have also won Pulitzer awards for a novel, journalism, Biography in medicine.
  • Awards initiated in 1917 no commemorate ‎Joseph Pulitzer, an activist and journalist who fought corruption and government's misgovernance.

Question 20

Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Archery

  2. BOption (b)

    Shooting

  3. COption (c)

    Boxing

  4. DOption (d)

    Judo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shooting

Why this answer is correct

  • Saurabh Chaudhary won the gold medal in pistol shooting at the Asian Games 2018.
  • He also won Gold Medal in the 10-meter air pistol event in the ongoing Youth Olympic Games in Argentina.

Question 21

Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand?

  1. AOption (a)

    There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers.

  2. BOption (b)

    Income of consumers remains constant.

  3. COption (c)

    Consumers are affected by demonstration effect.

  4. DOption (d)

    There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Consumers are affected by demonstration effect.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Consumers are affected by demonstration effect.

Key Points

  • Law of Demand states that there is a negative or inverse relationship between the price and quantity demanded of a commodity over a period of time.
  • Hence when we are determining demand's relationship to price, we keep other determinants of demand constant. These assumptions maintain the relationship constant:
  • The income of consumers remains constant.
  • No change in the size and composition of the population.
  • There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.
  • There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers.
  • No expectation of a price change in future.
  • There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.

Question 22

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero.

  2. BOption (b)

    When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative.

  3. COption (c)

    When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is positive.

  4. DOption (d)

    When total utility is maximum, marginal, and average utility are equal to each other.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

When total utility is maximum, marginal, and average utility are equal to each other.

Why this answer is correct

The incorrect option is When total utility is maximum, marginal, and average utility are equal to each other

  • Total utility is the overall content a customer obtains from the consumption of particular goods and services.
  • Total utility is the total of marginal utilities of all such individual items.
  • Marginal Utility is derived from the consumption of an extra unit of item.
  • When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero.
  • When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative.
  • When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is positive.

Question 23

Consider the following statements about indifference curves:

  1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
  2. Higher indifference curve represents higher level of satisfaction.
  3. Two indifference curves cut each other.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

An indifference curve is the locus of various points showing different combinations of two goods providing equal utility to the consumer. Four features of the Indifference Curve are given as below:

  • Indifference curves slope downward to the right.
  • Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
  • Indifference curves cannot intersect each other.
  • A higher indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction than a lower indifference curve.

Question 24

Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company:

  1. It has a legal existence.
  2. There is limited liability of share-holders.
  3. It has a democratic management.
  4. It has a collective ownership.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

  • The company is registered under the Companies Act 2013 as an Artificial Legal person, which can buy, sell property, sue or get sued.
  • The Joint-stock signifies it is an LLP. The personal assets cannot be liquidated for the liability of the company.
  • The shareholders elect the Board of Directors which makes it a democratic process.
  • The capital invested is split into shares. Hence shareholders are the collective owners.

Question 25

When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    horizontal

  2. BOption (b)

    downward sloping to the right

  3. COption (c)

    vertical

  4. DOption (d)

    upward sloping to the right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

vertical

Why this answer is correct

  • In supply curve, X axis has quantity of goods and Y axis has the price.The slope is positive.
  • When the quantity is fixed, a point in the X axis is fixed and the Y coordinate varies.Hence the curve would be vertical.Since the quantity does not necessarily start from zero,there is no curving of the slope.

Question 26

Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s?

  1. AOption (a)

    H. St. Clair Wilkins

  2. BOption (b)

    Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney

  3. COption (c)

    Purushottamdas Thakurdas

  4. DOption (d)

    Nusserwanji Tata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

H. St. Clair Wilkins

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is H. St. Clair Wilkins.

Key Points

  • The Bombay Secretariat was completed in 1874 and designed by Captain Henry St. Clair Wilkins.
  • It was designed in the Venetian Gothic style.
  • The stones brought for the construction are buff in colour. These stones are especially transported from Porbander of Gujarat for the establishment of this monument.
  • The Secretariat building is one of the old architectural structures present in the prosperous city of Mumbai.
  • Bombay, the capital of Maharashtra and one of India's major industrial centres and a busy port, was originally the site of seven islands on the west coast, sparsely populated by Koli fisherfolk.
  • Bombay was by the 14th century controlled by the Gujarat Sultanate who ceded it to the Portuguese in the 16th century.
  • In 1661 it passed to the English as part of the dowry brought to Charles II by the Portuguese princess Catherine of Braganza.
  • By the 19th century, Bombay was a prosperous centre for commerce.
  • In the second half of the 19th century, Bombay witnessed accelerated building activity fuelled by its booming maritime trade.
  • A collection of grand public buildings sprang up at the Esplanade and city centre.
  • With its arcaded verandahs and huge gable over the west facade, it was a monument to the civic pride of Bombay's British rulers.

Question 27

Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharani Tapaswini

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister Nivedita

  3. COption (c)

    Madame Blavatsky

  4. DOption (d)

    Sarojini Naidu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharani Tapaswini

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharani Tapaswini.

  • Maharani Tapaswini was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta

Key Points

  • Maharani Tapaswini:
  • The Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta was founded by Maharani Tapaswini in the year 1893.
  • She was one of the first persons to concentrate on girls, women education.
  • She has fought along with Rani Laxmibhai in the revolt of 1857.

 

Additional Information

  • Sister Nivedita was a person of Irish origin.
  • Her birth name was Margaret Elizabeth Noble.
  • Swami Vivekananda gave her the name Nivedita.
  • Theosophical Society was founded by Madam H.P. Blavatsky and Col. H.S. Olcott in New York in 1875 AD.
  • Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman president of the Indian National Congress.

Question 28

Which European ruler had observed, "Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world ... he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Queen Victoria

  2. BOption (b)

    Peter the Great of Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Napoleon Bonaparte

  4. DOption (d)

    Gustav II Adolf

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Peter the Great of Russia

Why this answer is correct

  • In the 18th century, India was the centre of the world Trade. India's muslin, jute, cotton textile has unimaginable demand in Europe and all over the world.
  • Russia's Peter the Great had observed: "Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world ... he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe".
  • Work on National income, per capita, was done in the late 19th century by Dr V.K.R. V. Rao and Dadabhai Naroji which confirms such observations.

Question 29

Which European traveller had observed, "A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Francois Bernier

  2. BOption (b)

    Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

  3. COption (c)

    Thomas Roe

  4. DOption (d)

    Abbe J. A. Dubois

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Abbe J. A. Dubois

Why this answer is correct

  • Abbe J. A. Dubois was a French missionary who had come to India in 1792. His mission was to convert Hindu Indians to Christianity. He attempted this in South India and faced such stiff opposition that he accepted defeat and returned to Paris.
  • During his stay, his observation includes "A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers" which gives us an idea of the society in that time.

Question 30

Who was the author of the book, Plagues and Peoples?

  1. AOption (a)

    W. L. Thomas

  2. BOption (b)

    Rachel Carson

  3. COption (c)

    David Cannadine

  4. DOption (d)

    William H. McNeill

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

William H. McNeill

Why this answer is correct

'Plagues and Peoples' was written by William H. McNeill which describes the evolution of diseases and their effect on humankind.

AuthorBook Title
Rachel CarsonSilent spring, Under the sea wind
W. L. ThomasThe Child in America
David CannadineThe Decline and Fall of the British Aristocracy

Question 31

Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenized Hinduism was constructed through the 'cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ashis Nandy

  2. BOption (b)

    Partha Chatterjee

  3. COption (c)

    T. K. Oommen

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajni Kothari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ashis Nandy

Why this answer is correct

  • Ashis Nandy differentiated Nationalism from Patriotism. He worked extensively on the relationship between Indians and Britishers.
  • He theorized that Indian Nationalism was a result of various theories, happenings all around the world and particularly Europe.
  • He argued that the theory that homogenized Hinduism was constructed through the cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe.

Question 32

'Sub-prime crisis' is a term associated with which one of the following events?

  1. AOption (a)

    Economic recession

  2. BOption (b)

    Political instability

  3. COption (c)

    Structural adjustment programmes

  4. DOption (d)

    Growing social inequality

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Economic recession

Why this answer is correct

  • The sub-prime crisis was an economic situation started in 2008 that had severely affected the mortgage industry after the borrowers could not able to afford the repayment of loan they had been approved.
  • This economic crisis leads to the collapse of many prominent financial institutions and hedge funds in the USA.
  • It also affected the global credit market resulting in higher interest rates and reduced availability of credit.
  • This economic crisis is also known as the "Global Downturn".

Question 33

Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution.

  2. BOption (b)

    India ceased to be a dependency.

  3. COption (c)

    The Crown was the source of authority till new Constitution was framed.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Governor-General was the constitutional head of Indian Dominion.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution.

Why this answer is correct

  • The 1947 Indian Independence Act is an Act of Parliament of the United Kingdom which led to
  • Partitioned British India into two new independent dominions - India and Pakistan.
  • This Act came after amending the Government of India Act 1935, it also led to cease the existence of provinces formed after the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • The newly appointed Governor-General of India by the Crown was empowered to bring this Act in force.
  • "Emperor of India" as a title, was dropped from the titles of British Crown.

Question 34

Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State Legislature?

  1. AOption (a)

    The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative Councils.

  2. BOption (b)

    The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

  3. COption (c)

    One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities.

  4. DOption (d)

    One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by graduates residing in the State.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities.

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • In a State, the State Legislative Council is considered as the upper house of the State which have a bicameral legislature and the State Legislative Assembly is called as the lower house of the State.
  • At present, there are 6 out of 28 States have a Legislative Council.
  • The member of the Legislative Council (MLC) cannot be more than one-third of the membership of the State Legislative Assembly and its composition cannot be less than 40 members.

Additional Information 

The Member of the Legislative Council are chosen in the following ways:

  • One-third members of the upper house are elected by members of local bodies -  municipalities, gram sabhas/gram panchayats, panchayat samitis and district councils.
  • One-third members of the upper house are elected by members of Legislative Assembly of the State from among the persons who are not members of the State Legislative Assembly.
  • One-sixth of the upper house are nominated by the governor from the fields such as literature, science, arts, the co-operative movement and social service.
  • One-twelfth members of the upper house are elected by persons who are graduates of three years' standing residing in that state.
  • One-twelfth members of the upper house are elected by persons engaged for at least three years in teaching in educational institutions within the state not lower than secondary schools, including colleges and universities.

Question 35

Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings.

  3. COption (c)

    Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years.

  4. DOption (d)

    The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings.

Why this answer is correct

  • Under the Article 243C, the Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat whether or not chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area shall have the right to vote in the meetings of the Panchayats.
  • The Chairperson of:
  • a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide; and
  • a Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members thereof.
  • Under the Article 243E, every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
  • Under the Article 243J, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions concerning the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.

Question 36

Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Parliament may by law constitute Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels.

  2. BOption (b)

    Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.

  3. COption (c)

    Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.

  4. DOption (d)

    The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • Article 323 A
  • This Article was introduced in the Constitution in 1976 under 42nd Amendment Act.
  • It provides for the establishment of an administrative tribunal for the Union and a separate administrative tribunal for each State or for two or more States. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Parliament may, by law, provide for the trial by administrative tribunals of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with
  • The affairs of the Union or of any State
  • Of any local or other authority within the territory of India
  • Under the control of the Government of India
  • Of any corporation owned or controlled by the Government. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Tribunals established by law exclude the jurisdiction of all courts, except the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under article 136, with respect to disputes or complaints. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • It also provides for the procedure including provisions as to limitations and rules of evidence to be followed. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Question 37

A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Perfect competition

  2. BOption (b)

    Imperfect competition

  3. COption (c)

    Monopolistic competition

  4. DOption (d)

    Oligopoly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Monopolistic competition

Why this answer is correct

  • A market condition where a large number of firms selling similar but not identical products are termed as Monopolistic Competition.
  • Oligopoly and Monopolistic are the two imperfectly competitive types of market.
  • An oligopoly is a market situation where only a few sellers selling products similar or identical to the others.
  • In a monopolistic competitive market, each firm has a monopoly over the product it produces, but many other firms make similar products that compete for the same customers.

Question 38

Consider the following statements:

  1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18.
  2. There was a significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

  • Inflation in the country continued to moderate during 2017-18.
  • Consumer Price Index (CPI) based headline inflation averaged 3.3 per cent during the period which is the lowest in the last six financial years which has been stated by the Economic Survey as well.
  • The reduction in the level of inflation was broad-based across major commodity groups except for Housing and Fuel and Light.
  • The Headline inflation has been below 4 per cent for twelve straight months, from November 2016 to October 2017 and CPI food inflation averaged around one per cent during April-December in the current financial year, says the Survey.

Question 39

Which one of the following hypothese postulates that individual's consumption in any time period depends upon resouces available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual?

  1. AOption (a)

    Absolute Income Hypothesis

  2. BOption (b)

    Relative Income Hypothesis

  3. COption (c)

    Life Cycle Hypothesis

  4. DOption (d)

    Permanent Income Hypothesis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Life Cycle Hypothesis

Why this answer is correct

  • The consumption function formulated by Ando and Modigliani is known as the Life Cycle Hypothesis.
  • As per the Life Cycle Hypothesis, consumption is the function of life expected income of the consumer.
  • The consumption pattern of the individual depends on the resources available to him/her, the rate of return on capital, the spending plan, and age at which the plan is made.
  • The present value of his/her resources include income from assets or wealth or property and from current and expected labour income. Thus his/her total resources consist of his/her income and wealth.

Question 40

According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Aggregate demand

  2. BOption (b)

    Aggregate supply

  3. COption (c)

    Effective demand

  4. DOption (d)

    Rate of interest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Effective demand

Why this answer is correct

  • According to John Maynard Keynes, the volume of employment in a country depends on the level of 'effective demand' of people for goods and services.
  • Earlier, the classical economists had said that there will always be full employment in a free enterprise capitalist economy because of the operation of Say’s Law and wage-price flexibility, but Keynes rejected the notion of full employment and termed it as a special case, not a general case.
  • Keynes' theory of employment is demand deficient, that means he visualized the employment and unemployment from the demand side of the model.
  • Later, he put all his concept of employment in his book titled - The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money (1936).

Question 41

Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith?

  1. AOption (a)

    Canon of equality

  2. BOption (b)

    Canon of certainty

  3. COption (c)

    Canon of convenience

  4. DOption (d)

    Canon of fiscal adequacy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Canon of fiscal adequacy

Why this answer is correct

  • According to Adam Smith, the tax paid by an individual should not be arbitrary but it should be certain because the tax paid by an individual have no connection with benefit received by him/her.
  • In order to guide the taxing authority, Adam Smith laid down four principles which are also known as the Canons's of taxation:
  • Canon of Equality
  • Canon of Certainty
  • Canon of Convenience
  • Canon of Economy
  • Later, other economists have also extended the list of Canons by Adam Smith:
  • Canon of Productivity
  • Canon of Elasticity
  • Canon of Simplicity
  • Canon of Variety
  • Canon of Flexibility

Question 42

Which among the following Arab scientists could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithm?

  1. AOption (a)

    Al-Khwarizmi

  2. BOption (b)

    Ibn al-Haytham

  3. COption (c)

    Ibn Rushd

  4. DOption (d)

    Ibn Sina

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Al-Khwarizmi

Why this answer is correct

  • The credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithm given to Al-Khwarizmi who is also known as Muhammad ibn-Musa al-Khwarizmi, Muhammad ibn-Musa al-Khowarizmi and Mohammad Bin Musa Al-Khawarizmi, was a Persian scientist, mathematician and author.
  • Apart from developing the concept of an algorithm in mathematics, he is also known as the grandfather of computer science.
  • For his contributions to the fields of algebra, trigonometry, astronomy, geography and cartography even remembered today.

Question 43

Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Act did not permit the territories the right to vote over the question of slavery.

  3. COption (c)

    The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not.

Why this answer is correct

  • Kansas-Nebraska Act of May 30, 1854, was passed by the US Congress.
  • It permitted individuals in the domains of Kansas and Nebraska to choose for themselves whether to permit subjugation or slavery inside their fringes.
  • The Act served to cancel the Missouri Compromise of 1820 which denied subjugation north of scope 36°30'.
  • The Kansas-Nebraska Act infuriated numerous in the North who considered the Missouri Compromise to be a long-standing authoritative understanding. While in the pro-slavery South it was unequivocally bolstered.
  • After the Kansas-Nebraska Act was passed, pro-slavery and anti-slavery supporters surged in to settle Kansas to influence the result of the principal decision held there after the law became effective.
  • Pro-slavery pioneers conveyed the decision however were accused of misrepresentation by anti-slavery settlers, and the outcomes were not acknowledged by them.

Question 44

Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007?

  1. AOption (a)

    India has 'advance right to reprocess' US-origin safeguarded spent fuel.

  2. BOption (b)

    India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel reserve with the help of the other supplier countries.

  3. COption (c)

    India should not test a nuclear device.

  4. DOption (d)

    The US will impede the growth of India's nuclear weapons programme.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

India has 'advance right to reprocess' US-origin safeguarded spent fuel.

Why this answer is correct

The key aspects of the the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007:

  • The signed agreement would not be barrier for India's nuclear program for military purposes.
  • The USA will cooperate India to negotiate with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) for an India-specific fuel supply agreement.
  • They will also New Delhi develop strategic reserves of nuclear fuel to guard against future disruption of supply.
  • Both the countries agrees to transfer nuclear material, non-nuclear material, equipment and components.

Question 45

Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct?

1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary. 4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

  • On 23 November 1949, Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, while making of the constitution said about the role of supreme court - “While there can be no two opinions on the need for the maintenance of judicial independence, ...it is also necessary to keep in view one important principle. The doctrine of independence is not to be raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of super-legislature or super executive. The judiciary is there to interpret the Constitution or adjudicate upon the rights...”
  • The Indian Constitution depends on a fragile standard of the restricted detachment of power and checks and balances. This implies every organ of the administration has an unmistakable region of working. Along these lines, the Parliament is preeminent in making laws and altering or amending the Constitution, the executive or official is incomparable in actualizing them while the legal executive is preeminent in settling questions and choosing whether the laws that have been made are as per the arrangements of the Constitution.
  • In spite of such obvious division of intensity, the contention between the Parliament and judiciary, and executive and judiciary has remained an intermittent subject in Indian governmental issues.

Question 46

Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations?

  1. Stabilization
  2. Peace consolidation
  3. To extend support to a losing State in a war

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Th correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

  • United Nations (UN) Peacekeeping assists host countries to come out from conflict to peace.
  • United Nations Peacekeeping process is guided by these three basic principles:
  • Consent of the parties;
  • Impartiality;
  • Non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate.
  • At present, UN's multidimensional peacekeeping operations are focusing not only to maintain peace and security but also to facilitate the political process, protect civilians, assist in the disarmament, demobilization and reintegration of former combatants; support the organization of elections, protecting and promoting human rights and assist in restoring the rule of law.
  • It does not extend support to any losing State in a war. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

 

Additional Information 

  • United Nations:
  • The UNO was formed on 24 October 1945.
  • At present, 193 countries are members of the UN.
  • South Sudan is the latest and the 193rd member to join the UN in 2011
  • The UN Charter came into force on October 24, 1945, when the Governments of China, France, the UK, the Soviet Union, and the USA and a majority of other counties had ratified it.
  • The Headquarter of the UN is situated in New York (USA).

Question 47

The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries?

  1. China
  2. Vietnam
  3. Malaysia
  4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

  • The South China Sea is one of the busiest sea-route in the world.
  • The South China Sea dispute is an overlapping territorial dispute involving countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, China, Malaysia, Brunei and the Philippines.
  • In this decade-long dispute, China claims its sovereignty over more than 80 percent of the territory while Vietnam claims over the Paracel Islands and the Spratly Islands.
  • The Philippines affirms its sovereignty over Spratly archipelago and the Scarborough Shoal, while the countries like Brunei and Malaysia have asserted their ownership over the southern region of the ocean and some of Spratly Islands.

Question 48

The 'Kyoto Protocol' is an international treaty that commits State parties to reduction in _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    poverty

  2. BOption (b)

    greenhouse gases emission

  3. COption (c)

    nuclear armaments

  4. DOption (d)

    agricultural subsidy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

greenhouse gases emission

Why this answer is correct

  • The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement which commits its Parties by setting internationally binding emission reduction targets.
  • The Kyoto Protocol is linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC).
  • It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997 while it came in to force on 16 February 2005.
  • It has recognized that the developed nations are majorly responsible for the current high levels of Green House Gas (GHG) emissions in the atmosphere.

Question 49

The 'Beijing Declaration' is concerned with which one of the following issues?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rights of children

  2. BOption (b)

    Rights of women

  3. COption (c)

    Right to development

  4. DOption (d)

    Reduction of tariffs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rights of women

Why this answer is correct

  • Beijing Declaration, also known as the 'Fourth World Conference on Women' was held in Beijing in September 1995 on the eve of the year of the fiftieth anniversary of the founding of the United Nations (UN).
  • In Beijing Declaration, it was determined to promote the goals of equality, development and peace for all women universally in the interest of all humanity.
  • Under this declaration, it was ensured that the human rights of women and of the girl child as an inalienable, integral and indivisible part of all human rights and fundamental freedoms must be implemented.
  • Under this declaration, the participants build consensus and progress made at previously held United Nations conferences and summits - on women

Question 50

The 'Gujral Doctrine' relates to which one of the following issues?

  1. AOption (a)

    Build trust between India and its neighbours

  2. BOption (b)

    Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India

  3. COption (c)

    Undertake development activities in Naxal-dominated areas

  4. DOption (d)

    Ensure food security

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Build trust between India and its neighbours

Why this answer is correct

  • Gujral Doctrine is viewed as an achievement in India's international strategy.
  • It was verbalized that the Gujral Doctrine as India's foreign policy as to accomplish better relations with immediate neighbours and to establish harmony in South Asia.
  • It was executed by Inder Kumar Gujral, the then Minister of External Affairs in H. D. Deve Gowda Government in 1996.
  • This doctrine says that India as a bigger nation among the South Asian nations should give one-sided preferences to her immediate small neighbours and build cordial relations with them.
  • Similar Policies: Panchsheel of Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 51

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Compound/Molecule)List-II (Shape of Molecule)
A. CH3F1. Trigonal planar
B. HCHO2. Tetrahedral
C. HCN3. Trigonal pyramidal
D. NH34. Linear
  1. AOption (a)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Why this answer is correct

List-I (Compound/Molecule)List-II (Shape of Molecule)
CH3FTetrahedral
HCHOTrigonal planar
HCNLinear
NH3Trigonal pyramidal

Question 52

Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated from it by using ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    crystallization

  2. BOption (b)

    fractional distillation

  3. COption (c)

    centrifugation

  4. DOption (d)

    decantation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

centrifugation

Why this answer is correct

  • Centrifugation is a method of separating very small insoluble particles in a liquid having different densities by spinning them in solution around an axis (in a centrifuge rotor) at high speed.
  • Crystallization is a process of deriving large crystals of pure substances from their solutions.
  • Fractional distillation is a special type of distillation which is designed to separate a mixture of two or more liquids that have different boiling points.
  • Decantation is a process, of separation of insoluble solids from the liquid. The suspension of solid particles in a liquid is allowed to stand for some time. The solid particles then settle down at the bottom of the container and clean water goes up. Without disturbing the settled particles the clean water is transferred into other containers.

Question 53

Which one of the following elements cannot be detected by "Lassaigne's test"?

  1. AOption (a)

    I

  2. BOption (b)

    Cl

  3. COption (c)

    S

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

F

Why this answer is correct

  • Nitrogen, sulphur, halogens, and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by “Lassaigne’s test”.
  • The elements present in the compound are converted from a covalent form into the ionic form by fusing the compound with sodium metal.

           Na + C + N → NaCN

           2Na + S → Na2S

            Na + X → Na X (X = Cl, Br or I) C, N, S and X come from organic compound.

  • F, Fluorine cannot be detected by Lassaigne's test because It does not forms Precipitate like other halogens (chlorine, Bromine, Iodine).
  • Indeed It forms a precipitate of silver fluoride but the precipitate is soluble in water so it not possible to detect fluorine by Lassaigne's test.

Extra Information :

  • Halogens are present in group 17 of the periodic table, which includes five non-metallic elements, fluorine ( F ), chlorine ( CI ), bromine ( Br ), iodine ( I ) and astatine ( At ).
  • Halogens are the p-block elements in the periodic table and also they give salts when they react with metals.
  • The valence shell electronic configuration of Halogens is ns2np5. Thus, there are 7 electrons in the outermost shell of these elements.

Question 54

In which of the following, functional group isomerism in not possible?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alcohols

  2. BOption (b)

    Aldehydes

  3. COption (c)

    Alkyl halides

  4. DOption (d)

    Cyanides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alkyl halides

Why this answer is correct

  • Alcohols and ethers, aldehydes and ketones, cyanides and isocyanides, carboxylic acids are functional isomers, whereas in the case of Alkyl halides functional group isomerism is not possible.
  • Alkyl Halides are also known as Haloalkanes and they never show functional group isomerism because there’s only one way to attach a halogen to a carbon chain and that is via one single bond. Halogens can’t form more than one bond in the context of common organic compounds, and can’t form multiple bonds to carbon.
  • The phenomenon of the existence of two or more compounds possessing the same molecular formula but different properties is known as Isomerism.
  • Two or more compounds having the same molecular formula but different functional groups are called functional isomers and this phenomenon is termed as functional group isomerism.

Question 55

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation.

  2. BOption (b)

    Newman projection can be represented in eclipsed, staggered and skew conformations.

  3. COption (c)

    Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation.

  4. DOption (d)

    In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an angle of 120° to each other.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation.

Why this answer is correct

  • The projections in which horizontal bonds are defined as the one coming out of the plane of paper towards the viewer and vertical bonds going away from the viewer is a Fischer projection.
  • The Fischer projection was given by Emil Fischer in 1891, It is a two-dimensional representation of a three-dimensional organic molecule by projection. Fischer projections were originally proposed for the depiction of carbohydrates and used by chemists, particularly in organic chemistry and biochemistry.
  • Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation whereas Newman projection can be represented in eclipsed, staggered and skew conformations.
  • In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an angle of 120° to each other. Just as with Newman projections, you can draw sawhorse projections in eclipsed and staggered conformations.
  • Since staggered conformation is more stable than eclipsed one, Fischer projection being in eclipsed projection represents least stable conformation

Question 56

The x/monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon 6 is/are _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    caprolactam

  3. COption (c)

    urea and formaldehyde

  4. DOption (d)

    phenol and formaldehyde

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

caprolactam

Why this answer is correct

  • Caprolactam is a single man-made monomer used for the synthesis of Nylon 6.
  • Nylon 6 is a polymer which is mainly used in the manufacturing sector.
  • Having high tensile strength, fatigue resistance, and toughness, it is used in the manufacture of industrial yarn.
  • Nylon 6,6 is made from two monomers, adipoyl chloride, and hexamethylene diamine.

Question 57

Which one among the following stars is nearest to the earth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sirius

  2. BOption (b)

    Arcturus

  3. COption (c)

    Spica

  4. DOption (d)

    Proxima Centauri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Proxima Centauri

Why this answer is correct

  • The nearest star system to the Earth is the Alpha Centauri triple-star system which is about 4.37 light-years ≈ 40 trillion Km away from the earth.
  • The Alpha Centauri triple-star system consists of three stars named Alpha Centauri A, Alpha Centauri B, and Proxima Centauri.
  • Among these stars, Proxima Centauri is slightly closer as compared to Alpha Centauri A and Alpha Centauri B at 4.24 light-years away from the earth, which makes it nearest star to the earth.
  • Proxima Centauri was discovered by a Scottish astronomer Robert T. A. Innes in 1915. It is sometimes also called Alpha Centauri C.
  • Sirius is the brightest star in the sky which is also known as the Dog Star or Alpha Canis Majoris.
  • Arcturus is the fourth brightest star in the sky and the brightest in the northern celestial hemisphere. Arcturus is also the brightest star in the constellation of Bootes.
  • Spica is also one of the brightest stars in the sky. It is the brightest star in the constellation of Virgo.

Question 58

Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neptune

  2. BOption (b)

    Jupiter

  3. COption (c)

    Mars

  4. DOption (d)

    Mercury

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mercury

Why this answer is correct

  • Mercury is the least massive planet in our solar system whereas Jupiter is the most massive planet.
  • A planet is weighed by knowing the time taken by objects to orbit the planet and how far away those objects are from the planet.
  • Planets of our solar system according to their masses are -
Planets ( least massive to most massive )Mass of Planets in Kilograms
Mercury3.30 x 1023
Mars6.42 x 1023
Venus4.87 x 1024
Earth5.97 x 1024
Uranus8.68 x 1025
Neptune1.02 x 1026
Saturn5.68 x 1026
Jupiter1.90 x 1027

Question 59

Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. When weighted in air (given that density of gold is greater than that of silver)

  1. AOption (a)

    the gold piece will weigh more

  2. BOption (b)

    the silver piece will weigh more

  3. COption (c)

    both silver and gold pieces weigh equal

  4. DOption (d)

    weighing will depend on their masses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the silver piece will weigh more

Why this answer is correct

  • When an object is immersed completely in water, it has the force of gravity pulling it down and buoyant force pulling it up. The force of gravity is determined by mass, and buoyant force is determined by volume.
  • Here the density of silver (10.49 g/cm3 ) is less than the density of gold (19.32 g/cm3) therefore silver piece has to be bigger than the gold piece.
  • Since the silver piece is bigger, it has more buoyant force, so it needs to be even bigger to have the same underwater weight as the gold.
  • The buoyant force is not present in the air, therefore, the silver, having more volume, loses more buoyant force, and so becomes heavier in air.

Question 60

If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as λUV, λVIS and λIR respectively, then which one of the following gives the correct relationship among these wavelengths?

  1. AOption (a)

    λUV < λIR < λVIS

  2. BOption (b)

    λUV > λVIS > λIR

  3. COption (c)

    λUV > λIR > λVIS

  4. DOption (d)

    λUV < λVIS < λIR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

λUV < λVIS < λIR

Why this answer is correct

  • If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as λUV, λVIS and λIR respectively, then λUV < λVIS < λIR  is the correct relationship among these wavelengths.
  • UV rays are electromagnetic radiations which are shorter than the visible light and have a wavelength between 10-400 nm.
  • Infrared rays are those electromagnetic radiations which have a wavelength between 700 nm-1 mm. These are longer than the visible light.

Question 61

An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated through potential difference of 100 kV. The final speeds of the electron and the proton are Ve and Vp respectively. Which one of the following relations is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ve > Vp

  2. BOption (b)

    Ve < Vp

  3. COption (c)

    Ve = Vp

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ve > Vp

Why this answer is correct

  • The work done by the electrostatic force on an electron or proton is the product of the charge and the potential difference traveled through.
  • According to the work-energy theorem, the kinetic energy gained by the particle is equal to the work done on it.

          Change in KE= charge x potential difference

         ΔKE=We= Q.V

         1/2 Mv2= Q.V

  • From the above equation, it is clear that the velocity of a particle is inversely proportional to the mass of a particle, therefore the particle having less mass vill posses more velocity.
  • Hence, electron having less mass than the proton will have a greater velocity than the proton i. e Ve > Vp

Question 62

If two vectors A⃗;and;B⃗\vec A;and;\vec B are at an angle θ ≠ 0°, then _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    ∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣=∣A⃗+B⃗∣\left| {\vec A} \right| + \left| {\vec B} \right| = \left| {\vec A + \vec B} \right|

  2. BOption (b)

    ∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣>∣A⃗+B⃗∣\left| {\vec A} \right| + \left| {\vec B} \right| > \left| {\vec A + \vec B} \right|

  3. COption (c)

    ∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣<∣A⃗+B⃗∣\left| {\vec A} \right| + \left| {\vec B} \right| < \left| {\vec A + \vec B} \right|

  4. DOption (d)

    ∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣=∣A⃗−B⃗∣\left| {\vec A} \right| + \left| {\vec B} \right| = \left| {\vec A - \vec B} \right|

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣>∣A⃗+B⃗∣\left| {\vec A} \right| + \left| {\vec B} \right| > \left| {\vec A + \vec B} \right|

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

The dot product of two vectors

  • The dot product or scalar product is the sum of the products of the corresponding entries of the two sequences of numbers.
  • Geometrically, it is the product of the Euclidean magnitudes of the two vectors and the cosine of the angle between them.
  • Let the two vectors are A and B then dot Product of two vectors:

⇒  A⋅B = |A||B| cos θ 

Where |A| = Magnitude of vectors A and |B| = Magnitude of vectors B and θ is the angle between A and B.

The above equation can be rewritten as:

⇒A⃗.B⃗=∣A⃗∣∣B⃗∣cosθ ⇒cosθ=A⃗.B⃗∣A⃗∣∣B⃗∣\Rightarrow \vec{A}.\vec{B}=|\vec{A}||\vec{B}|cos θ \ ⇒ cosθ =\frac{\vec{A}.\vec{B}}{|\vec{A}||\vec{B}|}

  • The dot product of unit vectors

i^.i^=j^.j^=k^.k^=1 i^.j^=j^.k^=k^.i^=0\hat{i}.\hat{i}=\hat{j}.\hat{j}=\hat{k}.\hat{k}=1\ \hat{i}.\hat{j}=\hat{j}.\hat{k}=\hat{k}.\hat{i}=0

​CALCULATION:

  • The magnitude of two vectors can be given by this formula:

⇒∣A⃗+B⃗∣=A2+B2+2ABcosθ\Rightarrow |\vec{A}+\vec B| = \sqrt{A^2+B^2+2AB cos θ}

⇒∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣=∣A⃗+B⃗∣\Rightarrow |\vec{A}|+|\vec B|=|\vec{A}+\vec B|

  • This condition is possible when cos θ = 1 (i.e., θ = 0°)
  • For θ not equal to 0°,

⇒∣A⃗∣+∣B⃗∣>∣A⃗+B⃗∣\Rightarrow |\vec{A}|+|\vec B|>|\vec{A}+\vec B|

  • So, the sum of individual vectors' magnitude will be greater than the magnitude of the resultant vectors.​

Question 63

Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transport of materials

  2. BOption (b)

    Synthesis of lipid

  3. COption (c)

    Synthesis of protein

  4. DOption (d)

    Synthesis of steroid hormone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Synthesis of protein

Why this answer is correct

  • The Endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on their surface is called Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) whereas in the absence of the ribosomes they appear smooth and are called Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER).
  • The main function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) includes transport of materials, Synthesis of lipid, and Synthesis of hormones.
  • In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.
  • Whereas Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) in the cells actively involved in the Synthesis of protein and secretion.

Question 64

Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Desmosome

  2. BOption (b)

    Ribosome

  3. COption (c)

    Lysosome

  4. DOption (d)

    Vacuoles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lysosome

Why this answer is correct

  • Lysosomes mainly function as a storehouse of digestive enzymes.
  • The lysosome contains a powerful hydrolytic enzyme that is able to digest every organic substance.
  • It is composed of membranes in the form of a packet which is found abundantly in every cell.
  • Lysosome was discovered by Christian De Duve in 1955.

Extra Information : 

  • Desmosomes are intercellular joinings that render strong adhesion between cells.
  • The Ribosome is a cell organelle composed of RNA (Ribonucleic acid) and protein whose main function is to synthesize the protein, therefore it is also called the factory of protein.
  • Ribosome was discovered by George Emil Palade around 1950.
  • Vacuoles are cell organelle which is surrounded by a semipermeable membrane and the main function of vacuoles is to collect the foodstuffs in which mineral salts, sugar, CO2, O2, organic acids, various colours, and the residual substances are dissolved.

Question 65

Which one of the following tissues is responsible for increase of girth in the stem of a plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tracheid

  2. BOption (b)

    Pericycle

  3. COption (c)

    Intercalary meristem

  4. DOption (d)

    Lateral meristem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lateral meristem

Why this answer is correct

  • The lateral meristem tissue is responsible for the increase of girth in the stem of a plant.
  • lateral meristem tissue is a type of Meristematic tissue found in the apexes of dicotyledonous roots and stems in the parallel of lateral axes of the plant organs.
  • Vascular Cambium and Cork Cambium are examples of lateral meristem tissue.

Extra Information : 

  • Intercalary meristem tissue is also a type of Meristematic tissue, such types of tissues are the residues of the Apical meristem tissue which became separated due to the appearance of the permanent tissue.
  • These types of Tissues are helpful in the increase in the height of a plant.
  • The Pericycle is a layer of cells in plants, it is named pericycle due to its position i.e it encircles the vascular tissue in stems and roots.
  • Tracheid is a crucial element of xylem (fluid-conducting tissues) it consists of a single elongated cell with pointed ends.

Question 66

Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agaricus

  2. BOption (b)

    Ulothrix

  3. COption (c)

    Riccia

  4. DOption (d)

    Cladophora

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Agaricus

Why this answer is correct

  • Agaricus (Mushroom) among the others is dependent on the saprophytic mode of nutrition.
  • saprophytic mode of nutrition is nutrition in which organisms obtain their food from decayed moist leaves, moist dead wood or by some other useless rotten residues or organic substances.
  • The fungi like Rhizopus, Penicillium, Mucor (pin mould), Yeast are the other examples of Saprophtes.

Extra Information :

  • Ulothrix is a freshwater, filamentous green algae, in the family Ulotrichaceae found in rather cold flowing water.
  • Riccia is a liver wart or Hepaticopsida plant which comes in the category of BRYOPHYTA, the plants of Bryophyta are found both on the land and the water thus these are amphibians.
  • Cladophora is an example of the THALLOPHYTA plant, these Plants do not have well-differentiated body design.
  • The plants in this group are commonly called algae and these plants are predominantly aquatic.

Question 67

Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    Asterias

  2. BOption (b)

    Sea anemone

  3. COption (c)

    Nereis

  4. DOption (d)

    Echinus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nereis

Why this answer is correct

  • Asterias and Echinus both belong to the Echinodermata phylum.
  • Sea anemone and Nereis belongs to the Coelenterata (Cnidaria) and Annelida phyla respectively.
  • They all belong to the different phyla in the animal kingdom.
  • Coelenterata (Cnidaria) and Echinodermata phyla have a radial symmetry in its body organization whereas Nereis has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization.
  • Coelenterata are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or free-swimming, radially symmetrical animals. Sea-pen, Sea anemone, Gorgonia (sea-fan), Meandrina (Brain coral) are some examples of Coelenterata.
  • Echinodermata are marine with organ system level of organization. These animals have endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles and hence, the name Echinodermata(spiny bodied). Asterias (starfish), Echinus (sea urchin), Antedon (sea lily) are examples of Echinodermata.
  • Annelida maybe aquatic or terrestrial, with organ-system level of organization. They are triploblastic, bilateraly symmetrical, metamerically segmented and coelomate animals. Examples of Annelida include Nereis, Pheretima (earthworm) and Hirudinaria (blood-sucking leech).

Question 68

Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm-blooded?

  1. AOption (a)

    Crocodile and Ostrich

  2. BOption (b)

    Hagfish and Dogfish

  3. COption (c)

    Tortoise and Ostrich

  4. DOption (d)

    Peacock and Camel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Peacock and Camel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Peacock and camel.

  • Peacock and Camel are warm-blooded animals.

Key Points

  • Warm-blooded animals:
  • These creatures maintain the inside temperature of their bodies at a constant temperature.
  • Peacock and Camel come under the category of warm-blooded creatures.
  • Most mammals and birds are warm-blooded.

Additional Information

  • Cold-blooded animals:
  • These are the creatures that take on the temperature of their surroundings i.e they are hot when their environment is hot and cold when their environment is cold.
  • All the reptiles are cold-blooded animals.
  • Tortoise, Hagfish and dogfish are cold-blooded animals.

Question 69

Which one of the following States of India is not covered by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajasthan

  2. BOption (b)

    Jammu and Kashmir

  3. COption (c)

    Tripura

  4. DOption (d)

    Himachal Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Himachal Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

  • Central Water Commission (CWC), Ministry of Water Resources has set up a network of forecasting stations covering all important flood-prone interstate rivers.
  • The forecasts issued by these stations are used to enable the local administration to take suitable administrative measures like the evacuation of people from flood-affected areas to safer locations during flood season and also to enable the project authorities in the proper operation of reservoirs.
  • 19 states and 4 union territory are cover under this scheme that are Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, NCT of Delhi,Jammu & Kashmir& Ladakh,.
  • Himachal Pradesh is not covered under this scheme.

Question 70

The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety, is located in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Colombia

  2. BOption (b)

    Venezuela

  3. COption (c)

    Brazil

  4. DOption (d)

    Guyana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Colombia

Why this answer is correct

  • Cartagena is a port city in Colombia which is famous Protocol on Biosafety also known as Cartagena protocol.
  • The protocol on Biosafety or Cartagena Protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another.
  • Cartegena protocol was adopted in 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity and comes into force in 2003.
  • The living modified organism (LMOs) is defined as any living organism that possesses a novel combination of genetic material obtained through the use of modern biotechnology.

Question 71

Which is the most populous state of India as per 2011 census?

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Mizoram

  3. COption (c)

    Meghalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikkim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Meghalaya

Why this answer is correct

  • Meghalaya is the most populated state among the above states having a population of about 2,966,889 people and having a population density of 132 per Km2.
  • Goa is at 2nd place among other states having a population near about 1,458,545 and papulation density 394 per Km2.
  • Mizoram having a population of 1,097,206 is in third place and Sikkim is at 4th position.
  • Sikkim is the least populated state among all Indian states having a population of only 610,577 and a population density of 86 per Km2.
  • Lakshadweep is the least populated union territory having a population of 64,473 only.
  • Uttar Pradesh is the highest populated state and Delhi is the highest populated Union territory in India according to the 2011 Census.

Question 72

Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chile

  2. BOption (b)

    Bolivia

  3. COption (c)

    Paraguay

  4. DOption (d)

    Brazil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bolivia

Why this answer is correct

  • The Tropic of Capricorn is the circle of latitude which is 23.5°S of the Equator (largest latitude 0° ).
  • The Tropic of Capricorn passes through 10 countries, 3 continents and 3 waterbodies.
  • It passes through South America, Africa, and Australia. In the South America continent, it passes through 4 countries which include Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, and Brazil.
  • In the Africa continent, it passes through Namibia, Botswana, Mozambique, South Africa, and Madagascar.
  • The Tropic of Capricorn passes through 3 waterbodies which include the Indian ocean, Atlantic ocean, and Pacific ocean.
  • Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through Bolivia, a country in South America.

Question 73

Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is characterized with anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents.

  2. BOption (b)

    It records the highest salinity in Atlantic Ocean.

  3. COption (c)

    It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current.

  4. DOption (d)

    It confined in gyre of calm and motionless water.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current.

Why this answer is correct

  • The Sargasso Sea is located in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean in the area marked under the Bermuda Triangle, it is the only sea in the world that does not have a land boundary or any coast.
  • Sargasso sea is named after the genus of free-floating seaweed called Sargassum and is confined in the gyre of calm and motionless water.
  • In the Atlantic Ocean high salinity is observed between 15-20 Degree latitudes, i.e in the Sargasso Sea region, therefore Sargasso sea records the highest salinity in the Atlantic Ocean.
  • The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is about 35.6 Percent.
  • It is bounded on the west by the Gulf Stream, north by the North Atlantic Current, east by the Canary Current, and south by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current.

NOTE: The Sargasso Sea is surrounded by Gulf Stream in the West not west of Gulf Stream similarly it is located to Canary current in East, not to the east of Canary Current.

Question 74

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (City)List-II (Product)
A.Detroit1.Motorcar
B.Antwerp2.Diamond cutting
C.Tokyo3.Steel
D.Harbin4.Shipbuilding
  1. AOption (a)

    A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

  3. COption (c)

    A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

  4. DOption (d)

    A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3.

Key Points

  • Detroit, also known as the Motor City is the largest city in the midwestern state of Michigan in the US and is recognized as the historic heart of the American automotive industry. Detroit is famous for its thriving car industries located there.

Additional Information

  • Antwerp is a port city of Belgium which is well known for its diamond industry, cutting and trading of diamonds.
  • Tokyo, the capital city of Japan is famous for its Shipbuilding market.
  • Harbin, the capital of Heilongjiang, China’s northernmost province is the country’s gateway to trade with Russia and hosts the China-Russia Expo every year. Since the 1950s it has become a hub for mining and steel production.

Question 75

Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway?

  1. AOption (a)

    Satna

  2. BOption (b)

    Rewa

  3. COption (c)

    Katni

  4. DOption (d)

    Jabalpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Satna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satna.

Key Points

Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway:

  • National Highway 44 (NH 44) is the longest-running major north-south National Highway in India.
  • It starts from Srinagar and terminates in Kanyakumari; the highway passes through the states of Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
  • NH - 44 was laid and is maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD).

Confusion Points

  • A major part of NH 7 covers the North-South Corridor of NHDP and it is officially listed as running over 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi to Kanyakumari. It is the longest “Single” national highway in India.
  • In the case of NH 44, which is considered to be the North-South Corridor of NHDP (National Highway Development Project). It has come into being by merging seven previously differently numbered national highways in full or part. (NH1, NH1A, NH2, NH3, NH26, NH7, NH75)

Additional Information

  • NH - 4: National Highway 4 or NH 4 is the major highway in the Indian state of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is 230.7 km in length.
  • NH - 10: National Highway 10 (NH 10) is a national highway in northeast India that connects the India / Bangladesh border via Siliguri to Gangtok. It passes through the Indian states of West Bengal and Sikkim.
  • NH - 5: National Highway 5 (NH5), a primary national highway in India, running west to east, is stationary off the Sino-Indian border at Shipki La to Ferozepur in Punjab. The highway passes through Moga, Jagraon, Chand, Mohali, Chandigarh, Panchkula. , Kalka, Solan, Shimla, Theog, Narkanda, Kumarsain, Rampur Luhar and continue along the river Sutlej to their ashram near the Tibet border.
  • Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway covers many major districts in which Rewa, Katni and Jabalpur districts of Madhya Pradesh are situated on this national highway while Satna district of Madhya Pradesh is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway.

Question 76

Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rooftop recharge pit

  2. BOption (b)

    Recharge wells

  3. COption (c)

    Gully plug

  4. DOption (d)

    Recharge trench

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gully plug

Why this answer is correct

  • In urban areas, less space is available for rainwater harvesting as compared to the rural areas. Therefore different methods are used for rainwater harvesting in urban and rural areas. The most common method used in urban areas for water-saving is rooftop rainwater harvesting.
  • Rooftop recharge pit is suitable for buildings having a roof area of 100 sq.m. These are constructed for recharging the shallow aquifers and for smaller roof area, pit may be filled with broken bricks/ cobbles.
  • Recharge wells are small well-like structures made roadside or part of pavings that have perforated lids to allow water percolation. This type of rainwater harvesting system is used in urban areas.
  • Recharge trench is another method used for urban rainwater harvesting. It is basically suitable for buildings or houses with a large rooftop area.
  • Gully plug method for rainwater harvesting is not applicable in urban areas, it is used in rural areas. These are built using local stones, clay and bushes across small gullies and streams running down the hill slopes carrying drainage to tiny catchments during the rainy season.

Question 77

If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon?

  1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation.
  2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers.
  3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves.
  4. Other forms of irrigation are not available.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

  • Canals are difficult to construct in Peninsular India because of the Rocky region of the Peninsular and also rainfall is highly seasonal there, therefore Tank Irrigation is popular in the Southern region of India.
  • Tank irrigation is useful in the areas where surface repels rainwater and do not permit it to infiltrate (soak into) the ground that is tank irrigation is mainly in the areas with impervious surface layers.
  • The Well and Tube Well irrigation is the most popular irrigation system in India and it is mainly found in the northern region of India where Uttar Pradesh is having the largest area under well irrigation. It is followed by Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Bihar.
  • Well irrigation is much older in India as compared to the Tank Irrigation system and it also requires sufficient groundwater reserves.

Question 78

When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of plastic is the water bottle made from?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thermoplastic

  2. BOption (b)

    PVC

  3. COption (c)

    Polyurethane

  4. DOption (d)

    Thermosetting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Thermosetting

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The plastic which gets deformed easily on heating and can be bent easily are known as Thermoplastics. Polythene and PVC are some of the examples of Thermoplastics.
  • Thermoplastics are used for manufacturing toys, combs and various types of containers.
  • The plastics which keeps its shape and does not soften i.e the plastics which when moulded once, can not be softened by heating are called Thermosetting plastics.
  • Thermosetting plastics are synthesized by condensation polymerization and have primary bonds between molecular chains and held together by strong cross links.
  • Thermosetting plastics have a high melting point and tensile strength as compared to thermoplastics.

Question 79

Which of the following is/are state function/functions?

  1. q + w
  2. q
  3. w
  4. H - TS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

  • In the state function, values of a system are independent of the path followed and they only depend upon the initial and the final state. Internal energy, enthalpy, entropy, and density are some examples of the state function.
  • When values of a system depend upon the path followed by them that function is called path function.Heat and Work are the main examples of the Path function.
  • q (Heat) and w (work) are path functions while q+w i.e.H, enthalpy is a state function.
  • Similarly, H-TS i.e. G, Gibbs free energy is also a state function.

Question 80

For a certain reaction, ΔGθ = -45 kJ/mol and ΔHθ = -90 kJ/mol at 0 °C. What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that ΔHθ and ΔSθ are independent of temperature?

  1. AOption (a)

    273 K

  2. BOption (b)

    298 K

  3. COption (c)

    546 K

  4. DOption (d)

    596 K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

546 K

Why this answer is correct

ΔGθ is the Gibbs energy change for a system under standard conditions whereas ΔHθ standard enthalpy change (ΔHθ) is the heat energy transferred under standard conditions. 

⇒ ΔGθ = -45 KJ/mol

⇒ ΔHθ = -90 KJ/mol

⇒ As T = 273 °K

Using the formula,

⇒ ΔGθ = ΔHθ – TΔSθ

    -45 = -90 – 273 ΔSθ

    ΔSθ = 0.164

⇒ Now since ΔHθ and ΔSθ are independent (given)

⇒ T2 = ΔH/ΔS = 90/0.164 = 548.8°K

⇒ Therefore Required Temp ≈ 546 K 

⇒ At minimum temperature of 546 K the reaction will become spontaneous.

Question 81

The PCl5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    sp2

  2. BOption (b)

    sp3

  3. COption (c)

    dsp2

  4. DOption (d)

    dsp3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

dsp3

Why this answer is correct

  • When there are five bonds and no lone pairs on the central atom in the molecule that shape is called Trigonal bipyramidal (trigonal bipyramidal shape) or square pyramidal.

  • In the Trigonal bipyramidal structure, the three of the bonds are arranged along the atom's equator, with 120° angles between them; the other two are placed at the atom's axis.

  • The P atom in the  PCl5 needs of five orbitals to form the five P-Cl bonds. It has a 3s and three 3p orbitals, so it must use one of its 3d orbitals to form the fifth bond. These orbitals are hybridized to form five sp3d orbitals that just happen to point in the right directions to form a trigonal bipyramid.

  • Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be dsp3

Question 82

In spherical polar coordinates (P, θ, α), θ denotes the polar angle around z-axis and α denotes the azimuthal angle raised from x-axis. Then the y-component of P⃗\vec P is given by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    P sin θ sin α

  2. BOption (b)

    P sin θ cos α

  3. COption (c)

    P cos θ sin α

  4. DOption (d)

    P cos θ cos α

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P sin θ sin α

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

 

Spherical coordinates (r, θ, φ) as often used in mathematics:

Where r is a radial distance, θ is the azimuthal angle, and φ is a polar angle.

  • Azimuthal angle: The azimuth angle of a point in cylindrical coordinates or spherical coordinates is the anticlockwise angle between the positive x-axis and the projection of the vector onto the xy-plane.
  • polar angle: it is inclination from the z-axis.

 

Calculation:

Given: 

(P, θ, α), θ denotes the polar angle around z-axis and α denotes the azimuthal angle raised from the x-axis

 

From the above figure: OP = P

 

Now Component along xy-plane

 ⇒ OM = P sin θ 

Now Component of OM along the y-axis

 

 ⇒ Component along x-axis = P cos θ sin α 

⇒ Component along y-axis = P sin θ sin α 

∴ Option 1st is correct.

Question 83

For an ideal gas, which one of the following statements does not hold true?

  1. AOption (a)

    The speed of all gas molecules is same.

  2. BOption (b)

    The kinetic energies of all gas molecules is zero.

  3. COption (c)

    The potential energy of the gas molecules is zero.

  4. DOption (d)

    There is no interactive force between the molecules.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The kinetic energies of all gas molecules is zero.

Why this answer is correct

  • The Kinetic energies of all gas molecules in the case of an Ideal gas is not zero, they possess different kinetic energies.
  • A gas that satisfies the equation PV = nRT, where n is the number of moles and R is a universal constant having value, **R = 8.314 J mol-1K-1**and T is absolute temperature, exactly at all pressures and temperatures is defined to be an ideal gas.
  • An ideal gas is a simple theoretical model of a gas. No real gas is truly ideal.
  • For an ideal gas, we assume that all particles in the gas have the same speed. So for an ideal gas, we can simply talk about the speed of particles, But for a real gas, we must use the average speed of all the particles.
  • For an ideal gas, the potential energy of the gas molecules is zero and also the ideal gas particles are considered to be point size particles having zero volume with no interactive force between the molecules.

Question 84

What is a constellation?

  1. AOption (a)

    A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the earth in the sky

  2. BOption (b)

    A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky

  3. COption (c)

    A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the sky

  4. DOption (d)

    A particular pattern of stars, planets and satellites in the sky due to their position in the space

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky

Why this answer is correct

  • The stars forming a group that has a recognizable shape is called a constellation.
  • It is a particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky.
  • One of the most famous constellations which can be seen in the summertime in the early part of the night is Ursa Major, It is also known as the Big Dipper, the Great Bear or the Saptarshi.
  • The other well-known constellation that can be seen in the sky are Orion, Cassiopeia and, Leo major.

Question 85

The Hooke's law is valid for _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    only proportional region of the stress-strain curve

  2. BOption (b)

    entire stress-strain curve

  3. COption (c)

    entire elastic region of the stress-strain curve

  4. DOption (d)

    elastic as well as plastic region of the stress-strain curve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

only proportional region of the stress-strain curve

Why this answer is correct

  • The Hooke’s law itself states that it is valid only proportional region of the stress-strain curve i.e. only to that limit where the material is behaving elastically.
  • According to Hooke's law, within the elastic limit stress is proportional to strain, provided the strain is small.

    →  Thus, Stress ∝ Strain, ⇒ Stress / Strain = a constant (Young's modulus)

Question 86

Which one of the following statements regarding histone proteins is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Histones are proteins that are present in mitochondrial membrane.

  2. BOption (b)

    Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA.

  3. COption (c)

    Histones are proteins associated with lipids in the cytosol.

  4. DOption (d)

    Histones are proteins associated with carbohydrates in the cytosol.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA.

Why this answer is correct

  • Histones are a set of positively charged, basic proteins found in eukaryotic cell nuclei that package and order the DNA into structural units called nucleosomes.
  • A protein acquires charge depending upon the abundance of amino acids residues with charged side chains.
  • Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysines and arginines. Both the amino acid residues carry positive charges in their side chains.
  • Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called Histone octamer.

​Extra Information :

  • Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of nucleic acids found in living systems.
  • DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms.
  • RNA though it also acts as genetic material in some viruses, mostly functions as a messenger.

Question 87

Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen but not carbon dioxide.

  2. BOption (b)

    Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

  3. COption (c)

    Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide.

  4. DOption (d)

    Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and not for carrying gases.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Why this answer is correct

  • Haemoglobin present in RBC carries or transports oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. whereas it also carries forward carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs.
  • The transportation of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs takes place in a very small amount nearly (10-20 per cent) by the protein globin of haemoglobin.
  • The transportation of CO2 in the form of bicarbonate takes place which is formed by the reaction of the carbonic anhydrase enzyme and RBC.
  • Haemoglobin is a fused protein in which a protein called globin and an iron ion are found.

Question 88

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passage of light in a compound microscope?

  1. AOption (a)

    Condenser-Objective, lens-Eye-piece-Body tube

  2. BOption (b)

    Objective, lens-Condenser-Body tube-Eyepiece

  3. COption (c)

    Condenser-Objective lens-Body tube-Eyepiece

  4. DOption (d)

    Eyepiece-Objective lens-Body tube-Mirror

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Condenser-Objective lens-Body tube-Eyepiece

Why this answer is correct

  • A beam of visible light from the light source is focused by a condenser onto the specimen, then the light transmitted by the specimen is picked by the objective lens and a magnified image of the specimen called primary image inside the body tube is created. This image is again magnified by the convex lens or eyepiece.
  • Thus, the correct sequence of the passage of light in a compound microscope is Condenser-Objective lens-Body tube-Eyepiece i.e option 3.

Extra Information :

  • ​A compound microscope is an optical instrument that magnifies the image of the object substantially.
  • The magnifying power of the microscope is obtained from two parts i.e its two components.
  • It consists of two coaxial convex lenses, one is called an objective near to which object is located and the other is called eyepiece near to which the eye is located.

Question 89

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Urea is produced in the liver.

  2. BOption (b)

    Urea is produced in blood.

  3. COption (c)

    Urea is produced from the digestion of starch.

  4. DOption (d)

    Urea is produced in the lungs and the kidneys.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Urea is produced in the liver.

Why this answer is correct

  • Urea is produced in the liver, therefore the first statement is correct.
  • Proteins/amino acids, and ammonia are broken in the liver leading to the formation of urea.
  • Urea thus formed is then transferred from blood to urine by the kidneys.
  • Urea is a metabolite (breakdown product) of amino acids and it consists of carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.

Extra Information : 

  • The Liver is the largest gland in the human body, located behind the diaphragm of the stomach cavity.
  • It helps in keeping the level of blood sugar levels constant and converts the excess glucose into glycogen.
  • The liver also transforms amino acid into pyruvic acid and ammonia, this process is called Deamination.
  • Bile is secreted by the liver which makes the foods alkaline by changing its acidic character.

​

Question 90

Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kosi

  2. BOption (b)

    Chambal

  3. COption (c)

    Damodar

  4. DOption (d)

    Brahmaputra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chambal

Why this answer is correct

  • The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels which are known as gullies. The soil is removed by water flowing along definite paths downs the slope or in channels, it is called gully erosion.
  • When due to the soil erosion the land becomes unfit for cultivation, that land is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin, such lands are called ravines.
  • These bad land gullies are present in the lower course of the Chambal basin, therefore, Chambal river valley of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion.

​

Question 91

Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones?

  1. AOption (a)

    Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds.

  2. BOption (b)

    The front side of cyclone is known as the 'eye of cyclone'.

  3. COption (c)

    Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed isobars.

  4. DOption (d)

    Hurricanes are well-knonw tropical cyclones which develop over mid-latitudes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds.

Why this answer is correct

  • The systems developing in the mid and high latitude, beyond the tropics are called the Temperate cyclones or middle-latitude or extratropical cyclones.
  • The passage of front causes abrupt changes in the weather conditions over the area in the middle and high latitudes. Temperate cyclones form along the polar front.
  • The Temperate cyclones are under high influence of permanent winds called westerlies in the middle latitude between 30 and 60 degrees latitude, due to these winds temperate cyclones move from west to east with these westerlies.
  • Tropical cyclones are developed over tropical or sub-tropical waters with organized convection (i.e. thunderstorm activity) and definite cyclonic surface wind circulation.
  • Tropical cyclones move from east to west under the influence of permanent winds of tropical latitudes that is trade winds.
  • A tropical cyclone is generally known as a Hurricane in the Atlantic and the northeastern Pacific oceans and in the Indian and South Pacific oceans it is called a Cyclone, and in the northwestern Pacific, it is called a Typhoon.
  • Cyclones Possess a centre of low pressure surrounded by closed isobars and the pressure increases outward from the centre.

Question 92

The Headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organization is located at _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Yokohama

  3. COption (c)

    Madrid

  4. DOption (d)

    Jakarta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Yokohama

Why this answer is correct

  • The ITTO is located in Yokohama, Japan. The International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) is an intergovernmental type organization.
  • Its functions include :
  • Promoting the sustainable management of forests.
  • Conservation of tropical forests.
  • Expansion of international trade in tropical timber from sustainably managed and legally harvested forests.

Question 93

Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation

  2. BOption (b)

    Deposition of atmospheric moisture

  3. COption (c)

    Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air

  4. DOption (d)

    The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

Why this answer is correct

  • The moisture content of the atmosphere or water vapor present in the air at a particular time and place is known as humidity.
  • The actual amount of the water vapor present in the atmosphere is known as the Absolute humidity and it differs from place to place on the surface of the earth. It is expressed in terms of grams per cubic meter.
  • The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the Relative humidity and with the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected.
  • A Hygrometer is an instrument used to measure Humidity.
  • Note: Hydrometer measures the relative density of fluids.

Question 94

The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    West Bengal

  4. DOption (d)

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Why this answer is correct

  • The Shompens are a vulnerable tribal group of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • Negrito, Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa, and Sentinelese tribes are also natives of Andaman and Nicobar.
  • Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI) created the database of such tribes. Till date 75 Particularly Vulnerable tribes have been identified and reside in 18 states and UT of Andaman and Nicobar.

Question 95

Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Silvassa

  2. BOption (b)

    Jorhat

  3. COption (c)

    Itanagar

  4. DOption (d)

    Kavaratti

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jorhat

Why this answer is correct

100 cities had been shortlisted for Smart Cities Project implementation. Jorhat from Assam was suggested but not selected. Instead, it was selected for the AMRUT scheme.

Smart Cities Scheme:- Cities which will provide infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of ‘Smart’ Solutions.

Refer : https://www.ncpedp.org/list_of_100_smartcities

AMRUT scheme:- Providing basic services (e.g. water supply, sewerage, urban transport) to households and build amenities in cities which will improve the quality of life for all, especially the poor and the disadvantaged.

Question 96

Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011.

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi-Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai-Kolkata-Delhi-Chennai

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai

Why this answer is correct

  • The total census population of India 2011 was found out to be 1,210,854,977. According to 2011 census, Mumbai led the list of most populated cities with a population of 12,442,373.
  • The population of the world: 7.7 Billion people.
  • Most populous city: Shanghai with 24 Million people.
  • Most populous country: China 1.4 Billion people followed by India.
  • Internationally the population is counted by The World Bank. David R. Malpass was elected President of the World Bank Group for a five-year term beginning from April  2019. The world Bank consists of 189 countries.

Question 97

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Type of Lake)List-II (Example)
A. Tectonic1. Lonar Lake
B. Crater2. Gangabal Lake
C. Glacial3. Purbasthali Lake
D. Fluvial4. Bhimtal Lake
  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

(Lake)(Type of Lake)
Bhimtal (Uttrakhand)Tectonic
Purbasthali (West Bengal)Fluvial
Gangabal (Jammu and kashmir)Glacial
Lonar (Maharashtra)Crater
  • Tectonic lakes are lakes formed by the deformation and resulting lateral and vertical movements of the Earth's crust.
  • Glacial Lakes are formed from glacier creating a depression in the soil and filling it with water.
  • Fluvial lakes are lakes created from river flow deviation.
  • A crater lake is a lake that forms in a volcanic crater or caldera.

Question 98

The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes?

  1. AOption (a)

    8° N latitude

  2. BOption (b)

    10° N latitude

  3. COption (c)

    12° N latitude

  4. DOption (d)

    13° N latitude

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10° N latitude

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10° N latitude.

Key Points

  • The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Little Andaman and Car Nicobar in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • Capital: Port Blair
  • Airport: Veer Savarkar International Airport, which facilitates emigration and immigration from 2019.
  • Consists of 572 islands. Few tribal communities include Shompens, Negrito, Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa, and Sentinelese.
  • Admiral Joshi (retired) has been the  Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands since 2017.

Question 99

Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    NCT

  2. BOption (b)

    Dadra and Nagar Haveli

  3. COption (c)

    Puducherry

  4. DOption (d)

    Goa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Why this answer is correct

  • Damanganga dam is situated Gujarat. The project provides water to Gujarat, Maharashtra and Daman and Diu.
  • In Daman Diu the Project extends with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries.
  • Gujarat's largest dam : Sardar Sarovar dam.

 

Dam nameRiverLocation
Baglihar DamChenabJammu and kashmir
Tehri DamBhagirathiUttarakhand
Bhakra NangalSutlejHimachal Pradesh
Sardar SarovarNarmadaGujarat
Hirakud DamMahanadiOdisha
Nagarjuna SagarKrishnaTelangana

 

  • "Dams are the temples of modern India" proclaimed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Oldest dam in India is the Kallanai dam in Tamil Nadu built on the Kaveri river.
  • Largest dam in India is the Tehri dam.

Question 100

Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited:

1. It is designated as a 'Maha Ratna' company under the Ministry of Coal. 2. It is the single largest coal-producing company in the world. 3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi, Jharkhand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

  • Coal India Limited is a Maharatna status company and is the largest coal-producing company in the world.
  • It was founded in 1975 after the nationalization of the coal industry in 1973 and its headquarters of Coal India Limited are located in Kolkata.
  • CIL ranks 8th among the top 20 firms responsible for a third of all global carbon emissions.

Important Points 

List of Maharatna CPSEs

  • Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
  • Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • Coal India Limited
  • GAIL (India) Limited
  • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • Indian Oil Corporation Limited
  • NTPC Limited
  • Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
  • Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
  • Steel Authority of India Limited

 Additional Information

PSUHQ
National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)Delhi
Gas Authority Of India Ltd (GAIL)Delhi
Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd (BHEL)Delhi
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL)Mumbai
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)Mumbai
Oil and Natural Gas CorporationNew Delhi
Coal India Ltd (CIL)Kolkata

Question 101

Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India's foreign policy was initiated by which of the following Prime Ministers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Narendra Modi

  2. BOption (b)

    I. K. Gujral

  3. COption (c)

    J. L. Nehru

  4. DOption (d)

    Manmohan Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

J. L. Nehru

Why this answer is correct

Jawaharlal Nehru is the architect of India’s foreign policy. He initiated the Solidarity of the developing countries of the South.

He was one of the founding members of the Non-Align movement. NAM members choose not to align with any superpower countries and to create an alliance of their own.

Question 102

The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)

  2. BOption (b)

    The National Disaster Management Authority

  3. COption (c)

    The Ministry of Finance

  4. DOption (d)

    The National Development Council (NDC)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Prime Minister's Office (PMO).

Key Points

  • Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by Prime Minister's Office. Government funds are not used and Funds are collected through means of Public contributions.
  • Contributions towards PMNRF are exempt from Income Tax under section 80(G).
  • National Disaster Management Authority works under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It plans for future disasters.
  • National development council: Headed by the PM, it is the highest authority on the Five-year plans. It was started in the year 1952.

Question 103

Which one of the following statements with regard to India's surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It was conducted in the year 2018

  2. BOption (b)

    It was led by the Indian Air Force

  3. COption (c)

    It was not given any name.

  4. DOption (d)

    It was sanctioned by the United Nations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It was not given any name.

Why this answer is correct

the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • In order to showcase the gallant action of our brave Army in the conduct of Surgical Strikes on 29 September 2016.
  • Surgical strike is a carefully planned military attack that does not damage the surrounding area.
  • Uri Surgical Strike was not given any name. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • It was led by the Indian Army and sanctioned by the Government of India.

Question 104

Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It was set up in the year 2010.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is involved in effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.

  3. COption (c)

    It may consider giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Key Points

  • National Green Tribunal (NGT):
  • The National Green Tribunal was formed on 18 October 2010.
  • It is a statutory body formed under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. Hence, NGT is a statutory body.
  • It is related to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
  • This Tribunal has the same status as the High Court.
  • Its headquarters is located in New Delhi.
  • The main objective of the establishment of the National Green Tribunal is to speedy disposal of environmental issues to reduce the burden of pending litigations in the country's courts. Hence, NGT is a Quasi-Judicial Body.
  • According to the National Green Tribunal Act, NGT must deal with the environmental issues faced by them within 6 months.

 

  • Composition: Chairman+ Members (Judicial and Expert members)

  • There are at least 10 and a maximum of 20 full-time judicial members and expert members.

  • Tenure: 5 years

  • Not eligible for re-appointment.

  • Appointment:

  • The Chairman is appointed by the Central Government after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

  • A selection committee is formed by the central government to appoint judicial and expert members.

  • Salary and Allowances are determined by the Central Government.

  • Being a statutory body, the NGT has appellate jurisdiction and under which it can conduct hearings.

  • NGT is not obliged to follow the judicial process mentioned in Civil Procedure Code, 1908.

  • There are four Regional Offices of the National Green Tribunal.

  • These include:

  • ​Bhopal

  • Kolkata

  • Chennai

  • Pune

  • With the establishment of the National Green Tribunal, India has become the third country in the world to set up a special environmental tribunal after Australia and New Zealand.

Question 105

Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Directive Principles of State Policy apply.

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 35A gives some special rights to the permanent residents of the State with regard to employment, settlement and property.

  3. COption (c)

    Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted.

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of Constitution of the State.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Directive Principles of State Policy apply.

Why this answer is correct

  • Jammu and kashmir have a separate constitution under Article 370. Art  35A states no outsider can buy land in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • The following are not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir:
  • 31C with respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • Article 36-51 relates to Uniform Civil Code.
  • Article 51A which lays down the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.
  • Article 332 which deals with reservation of Scheduled Caste/Tribes in the State legislature.

Question 106

In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identify with the poor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ahmadabad

  2. BOption (b)

    Champaran

  3. COption (c)

    Chauri Chaura

  4. DOption (d)

    South India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

South India

Why this answer is correct

Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloths during the south Indian tours in 1921, and his new appearance symbolized asceticism and abstinence – qualities he celebrated in opposition to the consumerist culture of the modern world.

Question 107

Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of

  1. AOption (a)

    Anglo-Maratha War

  2. BOption (b)

    Anglo-Burmese War

  3. COption (c)

    Anglo-Gurkha War

  4. DOption (d)

    Anglo-Afghan War

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Anglo-Gurkha War

Why this answer is correct

  • Simla was founded during the course of the Gurkha War (1815-16). The Anglo-Maratha War of 1818 led to British interest in Mount Abu.
  • Darjeeling was wrested from the rulers of Sikkim in 1835. Hill stations became strategic places for billeting troops, guarding frontiers and launching campaigns against enemy rulers.

Question 108

Which politician in British India had opposed Pakistan that would mean “Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikandar Hayat Khan

  3. COption (c)

    Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  4. DOption (d)

    Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sikandar Hayat Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sikandar Hayat Khan.

 Key Points

  • Sikandar Hayat Khan was a prominent political figure in British India during the early 20th century.
  • He was the Premier of the Punjab Province and a leader of the Unionist Party, which represented the interests of the Muslim landed elite in the region.
  • Sikandar Hayat Khan was a strong advocate for Hindu-Muslim unity and believed in a united India where both communities would have equal rights and representation.
  • He feared that the creation of Pakistan would result in a fragmented subcontinent, with a Muslim-dominated region in Pakistan and a Hindu-dominated region elsewhere in India.
  • His concerns were primarily based on maintaining unity and avoiding communal tensions.
  • He told the Punjab Legislative Assembly, on March 11, 1941, “We do not ask for freedom that there may be Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere. If that is what Pakistan means I will have nothing to do with it.”

So the correct answer is Sikandar Hayat Khan.

Question 109

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Author)List-II (Book)
A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay1. Jawaharlal Nehru: A Biography, Vol-l, 1889-1947
B. Sarvepalli Gopal2. From Plassey to Partition: A History of Modern India
C. David Hardiman3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934
D. Gyanendra Pandey4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours
  1. AOption (a)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct list is: 

AuthorBook Title
Sekhar BandyopadhyayFrom Plassey to Partition: A History of Modern India
Sarvepalli GopalJawaharlal Nehru: A Biography, Vol-l, 1889-1947
David HardimanGandhi in His Time and Ours
Gyanendra PandeyThe Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar   Pradesh, 1926-1934
Dr. Rajendra PrasadIndia Divided
Indira GandhiMy Truth

Jawaharlal Nehru
Discovery of India

Question 110

Eight States have achieved more than 99% household electrification prior to the launch of ‘Saubhagya Scheme’. Which one of the following is not among them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

  • Eight states achieved 99 percent household electrification prior to the launch of the Saubhagya scheme. These states are ineligible for participation under the Saubhagya award scheme.
  • Saubhagya award scheme is given for 100% electrification at the state level to DISCOM or power distribution companies.
  • Eight states are Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Goa, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Punjab and Tamil Nadu.

Question 111

In October 2018, India was elected as a member of the United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    five years

  2. BOption (b)

    four years

  3. COption (c)

    three years

  4. DOption (d)

    two years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

three years

Why this answer is correct

  • United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body.
  • Its mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world. (Geneva convention 27 July 1929)
  • The UNHRC has 47 members elected for three-year terms on a regional group basis.
  • The headquarters of UNHRC is in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • India was elected during 2011-2014, 2014-2017 and now 2019-2022.

Question 112

Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI):

  1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
  2. It has been registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana : Making quality medicines available at affordable prices for all, particularly the poor and disadvantaged, through exclusive outlets “Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras”, so as to reduce out of pocket expenses in healthcare.

Functions of BPPI(Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India) are

  • Co-ordinate marketing of the generic drugs through the Jan Aushadhi stores.
  • Co-ordinate supply of medicines in the State from their own plants, other Pharma PSUs(Public sector under undertaking) of Central & State Governments and Private Sector.
  • Coordinate with Hospitals in preparation of formula.
  • Monitor proper running of Jan Aushadhi stores with the help of other CPSU(Central Public sector under undertaking).
  • Provide medicines as per rates decided in the joint Forum/Core Committee.
  • Monitor activities of the Jan Aushadhi stores in the areas allocated to them.

 The Bureau has been registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 as a separate legal entity in April, 2010. BPPI follows the provisions of GFR, 2005 (General Financial Rules, 2005).

Question 113

Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India:

It was launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension/ return linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI).

Identify the scheme.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana

  2. BOption (b)

    Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

  3. COption (c)

    Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala yojana

  4. DOption (d)

    Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

Why this answer is correct

Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana: Assured return of 8% p.a. payable monthly (equivalent to 8.30% p.a. effective) for 10 years.

SchemePurpose
Pradhan Mantri   Swasthya Suraksha   YojanaNew AIIMS hospitals will be established   and Government medical colleges are   upgraded.
Pradhan Mantri       Vaya Vandana   YojanaAssured return of 8% p.a. payable   monthly (equivalent to 8.30% p.a.   effective) for 10 years.
Pradhan Mantri   Ujjwala yojanaLPG  connection to women of BPL   category.
Rashtriya Vayoshri   YojanaPhysical Aids and Assisted-living Devices   for Senior citizens belonging to BPL   category.

Question 114

Who among the following won India's first ever gold medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) held in Argentina?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neeraj Chopra

  2. BOption (b)

    Praveen Chitravel

  3. COption (c)

    Jeremy Lalrinnunga

  4. DOption (d)

    Suraj Panwar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jeremy Lalrinnunga

Why this answer is correct

  • Jeremy Lalrinnunga: Won India's first-ever Youth Olympics Gold medal,(weight lifting)Youth Olympics Argentina 2018.
  • 2019 edition summer European Youth Olympics will be held in Azerbaijan's capital Baku.
  • 2020 Winter Youth Olympics will be held in Lausanne, Switzerland.
  • 2022 Summer Youth Olympics will be held in Dakar, Senegal.
AthleteCompetitionMedalSport
Jeremy   LalrinnungaYouth Olympics   Argentina(2018)GoldWeight   lifting
Suraj PanwarYouth Olympics   Argentina(2018)Silver5 km walk
Praveen   ChitravelYouth Olympics   Argentina(2018)BronzeBoys   Triple   Jump
Neeraj   ChopraAsian games 2018,   Jakarta,  IndonesiaGoldJavelin   throw

Question 115

E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Why this answer is correct

  • E. K. Janaki Ammal award is given by The Ministry of Environment and Forestry, Government of India . The National Award of Taxonomy was instituted in her name in 2000.
  • E. K. Janaki Ammal was an  Indian Botanist. She was the Padma Shri on her in 1977.
  • Last given to Dr. Cherian, S.R.Yadav. Winner for Plant Taxonomy for 2017.

Question 116

Which one of the following pairs of military training institute of India and location is not correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Army War College : Mhow (Madhya Pradesh)

  2. BOption (b)

    High Altitude Warfare School : Gulmarg( Jammu And Kashmir)

  3. COption (c)

    Army Air Defence College : Pune (Maharashtra)

  4. DOption (d)

    Rashtriya Indian Military College : Dehradhun (Uttarakhand)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Army Air Defence College : Pune (Maharashtra)

Why this answer is correct

The Indian Army Air Defence College is located in Gopalpur (Odisha).

Training institutionsLocations
Indian Military AcademyDehradun
Officer’s Training schoolChennai
Armed Forces Medical collegePune
Defence Services Staff CollegeWellington(Tamil Nadu)
National Defence AcademyKhadakwasla, Maharashtra
Indian Naval AcademyEzhimala, Kerala
Air Force AcademyDundigal, Telangana

Question 117

Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the recent death of lions in Gir National Park?

  1. AOption (a)

    Canine Distemper Virus

  2. BOption (b)

    Nipah Virus

  3. COption (c)

    Hendra Virus

  4. DOption (d)

    Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Canine Distemper Virus

Why this answer is correct

Canine distemper virus (CDV) has led to many deaths of lions in the Gir sanctuary. Transferred from dogs to lions it is highly contagious.

VirusDetails
Canine distemper virusCaused deaths of lions in the Gir sanctuary. Transferred from dogs to lions since it is highly contagious. Commonly found in canine animals, it affects nervous, respiratory systems.
Foot-and-mouth diseaseHoof-and-mouth disease is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals
Nipah virusZoonotic virus (it is transmitted from animals to humans) and can also be transmitted through contaminated food or directly between people.
Hendra virusThe virus that infects large fruit bats (flying foxes). Occasionally the virus can spread from flying foxes to horses and horses can then pass the infection on to humans
Ebola virusRare and deadly disease in people and nonhuman primates

Question 118

Till 2018, which of the following countries or any of  state/s in the countries have legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis?

  1. United States America
  2. Canada
  3. Nigeria
  4. Uruguay

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

  • Nigeria is still debating the Legality of Cannabis. It is illegal to possess cannabis in India.
  • Presently it is illegal to possess cannabis in most countries(Middle East)
  • Please remember some countries have legalized the medical use of cannabis( Argentina, Australia, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Croatia, Cyprus, Germany, Greece, Israel, Italy, Jamaica, Lithuania, Luxembourg, North Macedonia, Norway, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Peru, Poland, Switzerland, and Thailand.)

Question 119

Which of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)?

  1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled private hospitals in times of need
  2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health-care services
  3. Government provides health insurance cover of up to Rs. 5,00,000 per family per year
  4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Also known as Ayushman Bharat, it is the Worlds largest Government-funded insurance scheme covering 10+ crore families instituted by The Government of India.
  • Coverage up to Rs. 5,00,000 per family per year, Secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
  • Provide cashless and paperless access to services for the beneficiaries at both public and private hospitals.
  • The services will include 1350 procedures covering pre and post hospitalization, diagnostics, medicines, etc.

Question 120

The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 will be hosted by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    China

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Brazil

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brazil

Why this answer is correct

  • 2019 BRICS summit will be the 11th summit held in Brazil.
  • BRICS  is short for Brazil,Russia,India,China,South Africa.
  • All these countries are in similar stages of economic development.
  • It is hosted in rotation of the names in BRICS.
  • 10th BRICS summit was held in South Africa 2018.
  • The countries discuss about economic development,investment,infrastructure,cultural exchange,tourism,food security.

120 questions in the full paper