Previous Year Paper

CDS General Knowledge 18 Nov 2018 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2018

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English (120 questions)

Question 1

Two reactants in a flask at room temperature are producing bubbles of a gas that turn limewater milky. The reactants could be ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Zinc and hydrochloric acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Methane and oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    Copper and dilute hydrochloric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid

Why this answer is correct

  • Magnesium Carbonate reacts with Hydrochloric Acid to give Magnesium Chloride and Carbonic Acid.
  • MgCO3 + HCl → MgCl2 + H2CO3
  • But H2CO3 is unstable in the lowest part of the atmosphere - Troposphere.
  • Lower Stratosphere, just above the Troposphere decomposes Carbonic Acid giving Water and Carbon dioxide.
  • It is this Carbon dioxide which results in the limewater turning milky.

Question 2

How many moles of CO can be obtained by reacting 2.0 mole of CH4, with 2.0 mole of O2, according to the equation given below?

CH4(g)+12O2→CO+2H2C{H_4}\left( g \right) + \frac{1}{2}{O_2} \to CO + 2{H_2}

  1. AOption (a)

    2.0

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5

  3. COption (c)

    2.5

  4. DOption (d)

    4.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2.0

Why this answer is correct

Explanation: -

First, we need to find the limiting reagent

As per the balanced equation

1:1/2 : 1:2

This means for 1/2 mole of O2, we need = 1 mole of CH4

Therefore, for 2 moles of O2 as given in the question, we need 4 moles of CH4

But since the question mentions that we are given only 2 moles of CH4

Thus CH4 is our limiting reagent.

So, to find the quantity of CO,

Since 1 mole of CH4 gives 1 mole of CO

Therefore, 2 moles of CH4 will give 2 moles of CO.

Hence, 2.0 is the correct answer.

Question 3

Reaction between which of the following two reactants will produce hydrogen gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnesium and hydrochloric acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper and dilute nitric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Zinc and Nitric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Magnesium and hydrochloric acid

Why this answer is correct

  • General equation: Metal + acid → Salt + hydrogen
  • Magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid and produces Magnesium Chloride and Hydrogen Gas.
  • Magnesium + hydrochloric acid → magnesium chloride + hydrogen
  • Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
  • Copper reacts with dilute Nitric Acid to produce Copper Nitrate Salt which is deep blue in color.
  • Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid react to form Calcium Chloride, Water, and Carbon dioxide.
  • Zinc and Nitric Acid react to form Zinc Nitrate.

Question 4

Which of the following characteristics is common to hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are all diatomic.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are all gases at room temperature.

  3. COption (c)

    They are all colored.

  4. DOption (d)

    They all have same reactivity.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

They are all gases at room temperature.

Why this answer is correct

Nitrogen (N, Element 7), Oxygen (O, Element 8), Elemental Hydrogen (H, Element 1), Carbon dioxide (CO2) are all gases at room temperature.

  • All the elements given in options are found as diatomic molecules (H2, N2, O2, F2, Cl2, CO2)
  • Carbon dioxide is Triatomic.
  • All of them are colorless.
  • None of them have the same reactivity.

Question 5

The compound C7H7NO2 has ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    17 atoms in a molecule of the compound

  2. BOption (b)

    equal molecules of C and H by mass

  3. COption (c)

    twice the mass of oxygen atoms compared to nitrogen atoms

  4. DOption (d)

    half the mass of nitrogen atoms compared to hydrogen atoms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

17 atoms in a molecule of the compound

Why this answer is correct

Using the subscripts present, we can tell how many atoms are present in the given compound.

  • In this compound, for example, we see that there are 7 atoms of Carbon, 7 atoms of Hydrogen, 1 atom of Nitrogen, and 2 atoms of Oxygen.
  • So, in total, there are 17 atoms in one molecule of the compound.
  • So, Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 6

Which of the following is the general formula for saturated hydrocarbons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cn H2n + 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Cn H2n - 2

  3. COption (c)

    Cn H2n + 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Cn H2n - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cn H2n + 2

Why this answer is correct

Saturated hydrocarbons are those molecules, having only one bond. The saturated hydrocarbons consist of one carbon atom bonded with a maximum number of hydrogen atoms.

  • Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.
  • The general formula of saturated hydrocarbons is Cn H2n + 2 where n is the number of carbon atoms present.
  • Methane is the first member of the alkane family.
  • An unsaturated hydrocarbon is such that the carbon atoms are either doubly or triply bonded. Ethylene and Propene are such hydrocarbons.

Question 7

A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line from rest. The percentage increase in displacement during the sixth’ second compared to that in the fifth second is about

  1. AOption (a)

    11%

  2. BOption (b)

    22%

  3. COption (c)

    33%

  4. DOption (d)

    44%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22%

Why this answer is correct

Consider the acceleration of the particle as a m/s²

According to Newton's Second Equation of Motion,

Snth = u + 1/2 a(2n − 1)

Now u = 0, hence

S = at²/2

Displacement at the end of 5th second,

S5 = 0 + 1/2 a(2 × 5 – 1) = (9/2) a

Displacement at the end of 6th second,

S6 = 0 + 1/2 a(2 × 6 – 1) = (11/2) a

Thus, the increase in displacement,

S = (11/2) a - (9/2) a = a

Hence the percentage increase in displacement

= (a/(9/2)a) x 100

= 22%

Hence, the percentage increase in displacement during the 6th second compared to that in 5th second is 22%

Question 8

If two miscible liquids of same volume but different densities P1, and P2, are mixed, then the density of the mixture is given by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    P1+P22\frac{{{P_1} + {P_2}}}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    2P1P2P1+P2\frac{{2{P_1}{P_2}}}{{{P_1} + {P_2}}}

  3. COption (c)

    2P1P2P1−P2\frac{{2{P_1}{P_2}}}{{{P_1} - {P_2}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    P1P2P1+P2\frac{{{P_1}{P_2}}}{{{P_1} + {P_2}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P1+P22\frac{{{P_1} + {P_2}}}{2}

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The relation between mass, density, and volume is given by

⇒ mass = density × Volume

⇒ m = d × V

EXPLANATION:

Given that both the fluids have the same volume. Let it is V.

The density of first fluid = P1

Mass of first fluid = m1 = V P1 ................(i)

The density of second fluid = P2

Mass of second fluid = m2 = V P2 ................(ii)

  • Now after mixing the fluids.

\(\Rightarrow Density of mixture = {Total~mass \over Total ~volume}\)

\(\Rightarrow Density of mixture = {m_1+m_2 \over V+V}\)

From eq (i), and (ii)

\(\Rightarrow Density of mixture = {V P_1 + V P_2 \over 2V }\)

\(\Rightarrow Density of mixture = { P_1 + P_2 \over 2 }\)

Question 9

The position vector of a particle is

r⃗=2t2x^+3ty^+4z^\vec r = 2{t^2}\hat x + 3t\hat y + 4\hat z

Then the instantaneous velocity v⃗\vec v and acceleration a⃗\vec a respectively lie

  1. AOption (a)

    on xy-plane and along z-direction

  2. BOption (b)

    on yz-plane and along x-direction

  3. COption (c)

    on yz-plane and along y-direction

  4. DOption (d)

    on xy-plane and along x-direction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

on xy-plane and along x-direction

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Instantaneous velocity: v⃗=;dr⃗dt{\rm{\vec v}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{d\vec r}}}}{{{\rm{dt}}}}
  • Acceleration: a⃗=;dv⃗dt{\rm{\vec a}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{d\vec v}}}}{{{\rm{dt}}}}

Calculation:

Given: Position vector of a particle,

r⃗=2t2x^+3ty^+4z^\vec r = 2{t^2}\hat x + 3t\hat y + 4\hat z

Instantaneous velocity:

v⃗=;dr⃗dt=;ddt(2t2x^;+;3ty^+;4z^){\rm{\vec v}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{d\vec r}}}}{{{\rm{dt}}}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{d}}}{{{\rm{dt}}}}\left( {2{{\rm{t}}^2}{\rm{\hat x;}} + {\rm{;}}3{\rm{t\hat y}} + {\rm{;}}4{\rm{\hat z}}} \right)

⇒v⃗=;4tx^;+;3y^ \Rightarrow {\rm{\vec v}} = {\rm{;}}4{\rm{t\hat x;}} + {\rm{;}}3{\rm{\hat y}}

We can see the Component of Instantaneous velocity are only x and y

Hence Instantaneous velocity lies on xy-plane

Acceleration:

a⃗=;dv⃗dt=;ddt(4tx^;+;3y^){\rm{\vec a}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{d\vec v}}}}{{{\rm{dt}}}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{d}}}{{{\rm{dt}}}}\left( {4{\rm{t\hat x;}} + {\rm{;}}3{\rm{\hat y}}} \right)

⇒a⃗=;4x^\Rightarrow {\rm{\vec a}} = {\rm{;}}4{\rm{\hat x}}

We can see the Component of acceleration along the x-axis.

Hence acceleration lies along the x-direction.

∴ Option 4 is correct

Question 10

Two persons are holding a rope of negligible mass horizontally. A 20 kg mass is attached to the rope at the midpoint; as a result the rope deviates from the horizontal direction. The tension required to completely straighten the rope is (g = 10m/s2)

  1. AOption (a)

    200 N

  2. BOption (b)

    20 N

  3. COption (c)

    10 N

  4. DOption (d)

    infinitely large

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

infinitely large

Why this answer is correct

Let T be the tension in the rope:

⇒ 2Tcosθ = mg --------- Where θ = 90° , T = mg/2cos90, cos90 = 0

⇒ Tension = mg/2cos90 = mg/0 = ∞ , 𝐓 = infinite(∞) 

Hence tension will be infinite.

Question 11

Which one of the following does not convert electrical energy into light energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    A candle

  2. BOption (b)

    A light-emitting diode

  3. COption (c)

    A laser

  4. DOption (d)

     A television set

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A candle

Why this answer is correct

  • Lighting of a candle is a chemical change in which chemical energy is converted into light and heat energy.
  • All the other options are using electrical energy and converting it into light energy. Hence, option 1 is the correct option.

 

Some Examples of Energy Conversion:

MicrophoneA device that converts sound waves into electrical energy variations
LoudspeakerA device that changes electrical signals into a sound that is loud enough to be heard at a distance
Solar CellA device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the photovoltaic effect
GramophoneA device for recording and replaying sound

Question 12

Which of the following is/are the main absorbing organ/organs of plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Root only

  2. BOption (b)

    Leaf only

  3. COption (c)

    Root and leaf only

  4. DOption (d)

    Root, leaf and bark

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Root only

Why this answer is correct

Roots are the absorbing organs that absorb salt, mineral, and water from the soil.

  • Major Organs of most plants include roots, stems, and leaves.
  • A root is a complex organ consisting of several types of tissue absorbing water and minerals.
  • Thin-walled epidermal cells and root hairs are well suited to absorb water
  • Leaf helps in Photosynthesis and the exchange of gases.
  • Bark helps in protecting the plants by conserving water and protecting it from the attack of insects and pests.

Question 13

Which of the following is not a primary function of a green leaf?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manufacture of food

  2. BOption (b)

    Interchange of gases

  3. COption (c)

    Evaporation of water

  4. DOption (d)

    Conduction of food and water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Conduction of food and water

Why this answer is correct

Conduction of food and water is the function of Vascular tissues. Example Xylem and Phloem.

  • Xylem helps in the conduction of water from under the soil.
  • Phloem is a transport tissue found in vascular plants that is responsible for transporting food in plants.
  • Conduction of food and water is not a primary function of green leaf.
  • Green Leaf helps in the manufacturing of food by the process of photosynthesis, the exchange of gases by the help of stomata, and evaporation of water (transpiration).

Question 14

Which one of the following denotes a ‘true’ fruit?

  1. AOption (a)

    When only the thalamus of the flower grows and develops into a fruit

  2. BOption (b)

    When only the receptacle of the flower develops into a fruit

  3. COption (c)

    When fruit originates only from the calyx of a flower

  4. DOption (d)

    When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit

Why this answer is correct

True fruit develops from the ovary of the flower after fertilization.

  • True fruit is the fruit that is formed from the fertilized ovary of the flower and ovules get transformed into seeds
  • Pseudo or False fruit germinate from other parts of the plant.
  • So, when the thalamus of the flower, receptacle of flower, or calyx of a flower develops into a fruit, it is called a false fruit.

 

True Fruits- Mango - Maize - Grapes
False Fruits- Apples - Pears - Pineapple

Question 15

In which one of the following physiological processes, excess water escapes in the form of droplets from a plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transpiration

  2. BOption (b)

    Guttation

  3. COption (c)

    Secretion

  4. DOption (d)

    Excretion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Guttation

Why this answer is correct

Guttation is the process of secretion of water droplets from the stomata or the pores of the plant present in the leaf.

  • Guttation takes place when the stomata are closed. While transpiration occurs when the stomata are open.
  • So, Guttation happens in the early morning or at night when the weather is cold. Transpiration, on the other hand, takes place during dry heat.
  • Excretion in plants involves the removal of waste in a very small amount. The Waste product of plants includes Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, and Water Vapor.
  • Secretion is the process of transfer of metabolites from one place to another.

Question 16

If the xylem of a plant is mechanically blocked, which of the, following functions of the plant will be affected?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transport of water only

  2. BOption (b)

    Transport of water and solutes

  3. COption (c)

    ​Transport of solutes only

  4. DOption (d)

    Transport of gases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Transport of water and solutes

Why this answer is correct

  • Transportation of water and other such solutes from the soil to the plants will be affected.
  • It is because Xylem is a Vascular tissue that helps in the transportation of solutes and water.
  • The exchange of gases takes place through the leaves.
  • Xylem is a transport tissue in vascular plants and it is responsible for transporting water from the roots to the various parts of the plant.
  • Phloem is a transport tissue found in vascular plants that is responsible for transporting food in plants.

Question 17

Which one of the following agents does not contribute to propagation of plants through seed dispersal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wind

  2. BOption (b)

    Fungus

  3. COption (c)

    Animal

  4. DOption (d)

    Water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fungus

Why this answer is correct

Fungus actually feeds on the decaying organic matter in the soil, and a fungus formed on a plant means that it is not being watered properly, or the potting soil is inappropriate.

  • Fungus doesn't help in propagation of plants through seed dispersal.
  • The dislocation of the parent seed through different mediums helps in growth of the plants in different region.
  • Fungi play an important role in energy cycling within, and between, ecosystems.
  • Fungi are found in terrestrial, marine and freshwater environments, and are part of a diverse community of “decomposers” that break down dead plants and animals.
  • Seeds of Calotropis is dispersed through wind.
  • Seeds of Rafflesia is dispersed through elephant.
  • Seeds of Lotus is dispersed through water.

Question 18

The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    infrared

  2. BOption (b)

    radiowave

  3. COption (c)

    microwave

  4. DOption (d)

    light

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

light

Why this answer is correct

Light is the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

  • The most known form of electromagnetic waves is the visible rays.
  • It is that part of the spectrum which is visible by human eyes.
  • It runs from 4 × 1014 Hz to 7 × 1014 Hz.
  • The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye.
  • Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelengths is called visible light or simply light. A typical human eye will respond to wavelengths from about 380 to 700 nanometers.

Question 19

Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States in terms of their population density as per Census 2011?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arunachal Pradesh-Sikkim-Mizoram-Himachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Arunachal Pradesh-Mizoram-Sikkim-Himachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Mizoram-Arunachal Pradesh-Himachal Pradesh-Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Arunachal Pradesh-Himachal Pradesh-Sikkim-Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arunachal Pradesh-Mizoram-Sikkim-Himachal Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The population density of Indian according to the Census 2011 has increased from 324 to 382 per square kilometer.

  • Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest record of population density having just 17 per square kilometer.
  • Bihar is the most densely populated state in India with a population density of 1106 per square kilometer.
  • Himachal Pradesh - 123 per sq km
  • Sikkim - 86 per sq km
  • Mizoram - 52 per sq km
  • Arunachal Pradesh - 17 per sq km

Question 20

The rate of population growth during 2001-2011 decade declined over the previous decade (1991-2001) in all of the following States, except _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

India's population growth declined to 17.64% between 2001-2011 as compared to 21.15% between 1991-2001.

Except for Tamil Nadu, the other states registered a decline in growth rate.

StateState Growth in 2001-2011Growth in 1991-2001
Tamil Nadu15.60%11.19%
Kerala4.9%9.42%
Goa8.2%14.89%
Andhra Pradesh11.0%14.59%

Question 21

Which one of the following statements with regard to growth of coral reefs is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coral can grow abundantly in fresh- water.

  2. BOption (b)

    It requires warm water between 23 °C-25 °C

  3. COption (c)

    It requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 metres

  4. DOption (d)

    It requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Coral can grow abundantly in fresh- water.

Why this answer is correct

Coral Reefs can grow only in the clean salt water of oceans, which lack any kind of instability.

  • Corals thrive in tropical water with a temperature between 23°C-25°C.
  • A fair amount of sunlight for survival.
  • Ideal depth between 45 m to 55 m.
  • No marine pollution.
  • Corals need saltwater to survive and require a certain balance in the ratio of salt to the water. This is why corals don’t live in areas where rivers drain freshwater into the ocean.

Question 22

As per Census 2011, the concentration of Scheduled Caste population (going by percentage of Scheduled Caste population to total population of the State) is the highest in the State of _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Punjab

Why this answer is correct

Punjab has the highest concentration of Scheduled Caste population, with 28.9% of the population belonging to the SC Community.

  • Himachal Pradesh and West Bengal follow with 25.2% and 23.5% of the population belonging to the SC Community.
  • Uttar Pradesh has the lowest among the given options with 20.7% population belonging to the SC Community.
  • Mizoram is the state with the lowest percentage of SC population percentage at 0.03%.
  • Chandigarh is the Union Territory with the highest percentage of SC population at 17.5%.
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the lowest percentage population of SC among Union Territories at 1.9%.

Question 23

Which one of the following States has more than two major ports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • Tamil Nadu has three major ports namely Chennai Port, Tuticorin Port, and Ennore Port.
  • Ennore Port, now formally renamed as Kamarajar Port Limited, is the first major port in India.
  • It is the second-largest port in the state of Tamil Nadu and one of the largest container terminals in India after Chennai Port.
  • Chennai Port is one of the oldest ports in the country. This port, situated on the Coromandel Coast of India.
  • Maharashtra has two major ports - Jawaharlal Nehru Port & Mumbai Port.
  • The major port in West Bengal is Kolkata (including Haldia) Port.
  • The major port in Odisha is Paradip Port.

Question 24

The equivalent weight of Ba(OH)2 is (given, atomic weight of Ba is 137.3)

  1. AOption (a)

    85.7

  2. BOption (b)

    137.3

  3. COption (c)

    154.3

  4. DOption (d)

    171.3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

85.7

Why this answer is correct

The weight which will furnish 1 mole of H+ or 1 mole of OH- ions is called the Equivalent weight.

Ba(OH)2 = Ba2+ + 2OH-

i.e 1 mole of Ba(OH)2 will produce 2 moles of OH-

The molar mass of Ba(OH)2 is

1(137.3) + 2(16) + 2(1) = 171.3 gm/mole

Ba(OH)2 = Equivalent Weight = 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜r = 171.3/2 = 85.7 g/eq

Question 25

Which one of the following nitrogen oxides has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen?

  1. AOption (a)

    NO

  2. BOption (b)

    NO2

  3. COption (c)

    N2O

  4. DOption (d)

    N2O5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

N2O5

Why this answer is correct

Oxidation state of oxygen = -2

Let the oxidation state of Nitrogen be x

Option 1

NO = x + (-2) = 0

Thus, x = Oxidation state of Nitrogen = +2

Option 2

NO2 = x + (-2 × 2) = 0

Thus, x = Oxidation state of Nitrogen = +4

Option 3

N2O = 2x - 2 = 0

Thus, x = Oxidation of Nitrogen = +1

Option 4

N2O5 = 2x + 5(-2) = 0

Thus, x = Oxidation of Nitrogen = +5

Hence, Option 4 is the correct option.

Question 26

Which one of the following is not true for the form of carbon known as a diamond?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is harder than graphite.

  2. BOption (b)

    It contains the same percentage of carbon as graphite.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a better electric conductor than graphite.

  4. DOption (d)

    It has different carbon to carbon distance in all directions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is a better electric conductor than graphite.

Why this answer is correct

  • Graphite has sp2 hybridization of carbon and has a free electron which makes more conjugation.
  • Diamond has sp3 hybridization of carbon and has no free electrons, hence lesser conjugation.
  • Delocalization helps to make graphite stronger compared to diamonds.
  • This makes graphite thermodynamically more stable as compared to diamond.
  • As a result of the free electron, graphite, though a non-metal, is able to conduct electricity while diamond cannot.
  • Diamond is a poor conductor of electricity but is a good conductor of heat while Graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity.

Question 27

In which one of the following reactions, the maximum quantity of H2 gas is produced by the decomposition of 1 g of compound by H2O/O2?

  1. AOption (a)

    CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2

  2. BOption (b)

    CO + H2O → CO2 + H2

  3. COption (c)

    CH4+12O2→CO+2H2C{H_4} + \frac{1}{2}{O_2} \to CO + 2{H_2}

  4. DOption (d)

    C12H24 + 6O2 → 12CO + 12H2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2

Why this answer is correct

We Know that,

⇒   n = w/m, where n = number of moles and m = atomic mass

In the first equation

⇒   CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2 gives us

⇒   (12 + 4 = 16) gm + 1 gm = 6 gm

Since 16 gm will produce 6 gm of H2

Therefore 1 gm will produce 6/16 = 0.375 gm of H2

In the second equation

⇒   CO + H2O → CO2 + H2

⇒   (12 + 16 = 28) gm + 1 gm = 2 gm

Since 28 gm will produce 2 gm of H2

Therefore 1 gm will produce 2/28 = 0.0714 gm of H2

In the third equation

⇒   CH4+12O2→CO+2H2C{H_4} + \frac{1}{2}{O_2} \to CO + 2{H_2}

⇒  (12 + 4 = 16) gm + 1 gm = 4 gm of H2

Since 16 gm will produce 4gm of H2

Therefore 1 gm will produce 4/16 = 0.25 gm of H2

In the fourth equation

(144 + 24 = 168) gm + 1 gm = 24 gm of H2

Since 168 gm will produce 24 gm of H2

Therefore 1 gm will produce 24/168 = 0.142 gm of H2

Question 28

When a convex lens produces a real image of an object, the minimum distance between the object and image is equal to ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    the focal length of the convex lens

  2. BOption (b)

    twice the focal length of the convex lens

  3. COption (c)

    four times the focal length of the convex lens

  4. DOption (d)

    one half of the focal length of the convex lens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

four times the focal length of the convex lens

Why this answer is correct

Let I be the real image and O be the object, D be the distance between the image and the object.

If the distance of the image from the lens is X, then the distance between the object and the lens would be (D-X)

Then, u = - (D-X) and v = +X

Using the Lens formula

1/v - 1/u =1/f

Thus, we have -

[1/X] -[1/-(D-X)] = 1/f, solving which we get the binary equation

X2 - XD - fD = 0

For real image, X must be real. This means the root of the equation must be real. So solving the equation we get,

D ≥ 4f

Hence, the minimum distance between the object and the real image would be four times the focal length of the convex lens.

Question 29

The direction of magnetic field at any location on the earth’s surface is commonly specified in terms of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    field declination

  2. BOption (b)

    field 

  3. COption (c)

    both field declination and field inclination

  4. DOption (d)

    horizontal component of the field

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

both field declination and field inclination

Why this answer is correct

A three-dimensional vector is used to specify the direction of the magnetic field at any location of the surface of the earth.

  • A compass is used to determine the Magnetic North.
  • Using this, and the angle formed by the magnetic north relative to the true north is called the Variation or Deviation.
  • The angle formed by the Magnetic North with the horizontal is called the Magnetic Dip or Inclination.
  • Intensity is proportional to the force exerted by the magnetic field on the magnet.

Question 30

A circuit has a fuse having a rating of 5 A. What is the maximum number of 100 W-220 V bulbs that can be safely connected in parallel in the circuit?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

Let the number of bulbs = y

⇒  Current = I = 5 Ampere.

⇒  Resistance = 220 V

⇒  Power × Number of bulbs = Voltage × Current

⇒  100 × y = 5 × 220

⇒  y = 11 bulbs

Question 31

Which one of the following can extinguish fire more quickly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cold water

  2. BOption (b)

    Boiling water

  3. COption (c)

    Hot water

  4. DOption (d)

    Ice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Boiling water

Why this answer is correct

Boiling water can extinguish the fire more quickly.

  • The hot water sprinkled on the burning material is not only for cooling but also for reducing the oxygen around it with converted steam.
  • Coldwater to absorb a lot of heat. As others mentioned already, heat is one of the components to remove to extinguish a fire.

Question 32

In which of the following, heat loss is primarily not due to convection?

  1. AOption (a)

    Boiling water

  2. BOption (b)

    Land and sea breeze

  3. COption (c)

    Circulation of air around blast furnace

  4. DOption (d)

    Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament

Why this answer is correct

The inside of the bulb has a vacuum. The transfer of heat from the filament of the bulb takes place through radiation and not convection.

  • Boiling of water takes place through convection when the bottom layer of water receiving direct heat moves above and is replaced by the colder surface water.
  • Land and Sea Breeze occur due to the continuous heating and cooling of air above land and sea surface.
  • Circulation of Air in a Blast Furnace follows convection of the air from the bottom layer to the top layer.

Question 33

Which one of the following features is an indication for modification of stem of a plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    Presence of ‘eye’ on potato

  2. BOption (b)

    ‘Scale’ found in onion

  3. COption (c)

    ‘Tendril’ found in pea

  4. DOption (d)

    ‘Hair’ present in carrot

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Presence of ‘eye’ on potato

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Stem helps in providing structure and support to the plant, as well as helps in conduction. Some of the types of stem modification include.

  • Underground Stem Modification - In plants like ginger and potato, the stem stores large amounts of food and remains under the soil.
  • Sub-Aerial Modification - In grass and pumpkin, the stem lies horizontally and helps in vegetative propagation.
  • Aerial-Stem Modification - Auxiliary buds get transformed to tendril for protection in plants like Pea, Rose.

Explanation:

  • The presence of 'eye' on potato represents the nodes of a stem.
  • Nodes are a unique feature of stem only and is not found in other plant parts.
  • Therefore, presence of eye in potato is an indication for modification of stem of a plant.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 34

Which of the following roles is/are played by epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate in male reproductive system of human?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spermatogenesis and maturation of sperms

  2. BOption (b)

    Maturation and motility of sperms

  3. COption (c)

    Spermatogenesis and motility of sperms

  4. DOption (d)

    Motility of sperms only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maturation and motility of sperms

Why this answer is correct

Maturation of sperms occurs in Epididymis, while the vas deferens help in the motility of sperms.

  • Two glands storing and producing the fluid that makes up the semen are called the seminal vesicles.
  • The fluid from the seminal vesicles gets expelled to the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation.
  • The fluid then mixes with the sperm.
  • The prostate secretes a fluid that protects and nourishes the sperm.
  • Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules.
  • Seminiferous tubules are located in the male testes.

Question 35

Which one of the following is the special type of milk produced by a lactating mother, essential for the development of immune response of newborn baby in human?

  1. AOption (a)

    Breast milk produced after a month of childbirth

  2. BOption (b)

    Transitional milk

  3. COption (c)

    Colostrum

  4. DOption (d)

    Mineralized milk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Colostrum

Why this answer is correct

Colostrum or the first milk just after giving birth to a baby by a lactating mother in the late pregnancy is the most important component for the development of immunity in a newborn baby.

  • Colostrum in both humans and bovine are thick, yellowish, and sticky.
  • Colostrum in humans has high concentration of antibodies and nutrients.
  • As a newborn baby finds it difficult to digest fat, colostrum is high in protein, carbohydrates, and antibodies.

Question 36

Which one of the following statements explains higher mutation rate and faster evolution found in RNA virus?

  1. AOption (a)

    RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA.

  2. BOption (b)

    Virus can multiply only within the living cell of a host.

  3. COption (c)

    Metabolic processes are absent in virus.

  4. DOption (d)

    Virus can remain latent for a long period.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA.

Why this answer is correct

New viral genetic variants are constantly created due to the lack of proofreading activity of the RNA Virus polymerases.

  • RNA viruses mutate faster as compared to DNA viruses as enzyme RNA that depends on RNA Polymerase for synthesis does not perform proofreading.
  • On the other hand, DNA polymerase perform the same activity.
  • Hence, while the wrong bases get inherited in RNA, the same suit is not followed in DNA.
  • The mutation rate and evolution are faster in RNA Viruses.

Question 37

Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to percentage of urban population (2011)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu-Mizoram-Goa-Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Goa-Mizoram-Maharashtra-Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra-Kerala-Mizoram-Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram-Goa-Maharashtra-Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra-Kerala-Mizoram-Goa

Why this answer is correct

Goa has one of the highest percentage of urban population with 62.17% of the total population living in urban areas. The data according to Census 2011 is mentioned below

  • Mizoram - 51.51%
  • Kerala - 47.72%
  • Maharashtra - 45.23%

Question 38

Which one of the following places does not fall on leeward slope?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pune

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengaluru

  3. COption (c)

    Leh

  4. DOption (d)

    Mangaluru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mangaluru

Why this answer is correct

Mangaluru lies on the windward side of the Western ghats and hence receives more than average rainfall.

  • Leh is located on the leeward side of the Trans-Himalayan range.
  • Bengaluru falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
  • Pune lies on the leeward side of the Western Ghats, while Mumbai falls on the windward side.

Question 39

South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-west monsoon

  2. BOption (b)

    North-east monsoon

  3. COption (c)

    Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon

  4. DOption (d)

    Western disturbances

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

North-east monsoon

Why this answer is correct

Both South Arcot and Ramanathapuram are located in Tamil Nadu and receive the 50 percent annual rainfall due to the winter rains from North-East Monsoon.

  • North-East Monsoons cause rainfall in the Southern states, mainly in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and some parts of Telangana and Karnataka.
  • South-West Monsoons are the reason for 75% of the rainfall in India.
  • The Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoons causes rainfall in Myanmar and South-east Bangladesh.
  • A sub-part of this Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoons cause rainfall in North-East, particularly in the Garo region of Meghalaya.
  • Western Disturbances cause winter rainfalls in the northern parts of India.

Question 40

The Eight Degree Channel separates which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    India from Sri Lanka

  2. BOption (b)

    Lakshadweep from Maldives

  3. COption (c)

    Andaman from Nicobar Islands

  4. DOption (d)

    Indira Point from Indonesia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lakshadweep from Maldives

Why this answer is correct

Eight Degree Channel separates Lakshwadeep and Maldives.

  • India and Sri Lanka are separated by the Palk Strait.
  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by the Ten Degree Channel.
  • Six Degree Channel separates the Indira Point from Indonesia.
  • Entire Lakshadweep Island has been divided by eleven-degree channel, North of which has Amini Island and the South part has Canannore island.
  • Lakshadweep Island's capital is Kavaratti and Maldives capital is Male.

 

Channelchannel separate island
Ten DegreeAndaman and Nicobar Islands
Six DegreeNicobar Island and Sumatra Island
Eight DegreeLakshadweep and Maldives

Question 41

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Classification of Town)List-Il (Example)
A. Industrial Town1. Vishakhapatnam
B. Transport Town2. Bhilai
C. Mining Town3. Singrauli
D. Garrison/Cantonment Town4. Ambala
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

Why this answer is correct

  • Bhilai in Chattisgarh is an industrial town.
  • Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh is a Transport Town.
  • Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh is a Mining Town.
  • Ambala in Haryana is a Cantonment town.

Question 42

Which of the following statements with regard to the land-use situation in India is/are correct?

  1. There has been a tremendous decline in the area under forest in recent years.
  2. The rate of increase in land use in recent years is the highest in the case of the area under non-agricultural use.
  3. Land use such as barren and wasteland, the area under pastures, and tree crops have experienced a decline in recent years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), India recorded an overall jump of 1% in the area under forest. So, the 1st statement is incorrect.

  • The increasing involvement of the service sector and manufacturing in the Indian Economy means that the area under non-agricultural use is increasing.
  • Further, the decrease in the barren and wastelands, and areas and under pasture and tree crops can be explained due to the pressure of agricultural land.
  • Expansionary policies in cultivation and increasing rate of illegal encroachments on the common pasture lands and tree cropping area to feed the increasing population has led to an overall decline.

Question 43

Which one of the following was not a part of the strategies followed by the Government of India to increase food grain production in India immediately after Independence?

  1. AOption (a)

    Intensification of cropping over already cultivated land

  2. BOption (b)

    Increasing cultivable area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough

  3. COption (c)

    Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds

  4. DOption (d)

    Switching over from cash crops to food crops

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The use of High-Yield Variety (HYV) seeds only started after the Green Revolution in the mid-60s.

  • The First-five year plan also called the Dober-Mahalanobis Model, focused on the primary sector, agriculture, irrigation, and power projects.
  • Increasing intensive cropping over cultivated land, bringing fallow land under the plough, and switching from cash crops (for example Indigo Cultivation and the related Tinkathia Movement against the cultivation of cash crops) were a part of the first five-year plan.

Question 44

Which one of the following is a west-flowing river?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahanadi

  2. BOption (b)

    Godavari

  3. COption (c)

    Krishna

  4. DOption (d)

    Narmada

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Narmada

Why this answer is correct

The Narmada is a major west-flowing river in the Peninsular region.

  • The Narmada rises in the Maikala range in the Eastern Madhya Pradesh region.
  • Amarkantak is the place from where the Narmada river originates.
  • The Narmada, along with the Tapi river, flows through the faults in the Vindhya and Satpura range, instead of the valley.
  • The Narmada enters the Gulf of Khambat, just below Baruch.

 

Left tributaries of NarmadaRight tributaries of Narmada
1. Banjar 2. Kaveri 3. Tawa 4. Burhner 5. Sher 6. Shakkar1. Uri 2. Hiran 3. Orsang 4. Kolar

Major West-flowing rivers

  • Indus, Narmada, Tapi, Sabarmati, Mahi, Ghagghar, Luni, Sarasvati, Pumba, Periyar, Bharatpuza.

Major East-flowing rivers

  • Ganga, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai, Subarnarekha.

Question 45

Khasi language is included in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Munda branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family

  2. BOption (b)

    Mon-Khmer branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family

  3. COption (c)

    North Assam branch of Sino-Tibetan family

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam-Myanmari branch of Sino-Tibetan family

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mon-Khmer branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family

Why this answer is correct

Khasi language forms a part of the Mon-Khmer branch of the Austro-Asiatic sub-family.

Key Points

  • It is spoken in the Khasi and Jaintia Hills of the State of Meghalaya.
  • Khasi is one of the only Mon-Khmer languages spoken outside South-East Asia.
  • Santhali and  Khasi (Spoken Mostly in Meghalaya) are the languages in India that belong to the Austro-Asiatic language family.
  • Austro stands for "south" in Greek, so the name Austro-Asiatic.
  • The languages that belong to this family are mostly spoken in Southeast Asia.
  • The Austro-Asiatic family includes total 168 languages.
  • They are further divided into two branches: Mon-Khmer - 147 languages, and Munda - 21 languages
  • Munda branch of the Austro-Asiatic sub-family includes languages like Santhali, Ho, Mundari, Korku, Bhumij.
  • North Assam branch of Sino-Tibetan family includes languages like Mandarin, Wu, Xiang, Hakka, Yue, Cantonese.
  • Assam-Myanmari branch of Sino-Tibetan family includes languages like Lushai, Tibetan, Kachin, Garo.

Question 46

The headquarters of Metro Railway Zone is located in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata

  4. DOption (d)

    Chennai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kolkata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

  • Metro Railway Zone is located in Kolkata.
  • Further, the headquarters of Eastern and South-Eastern Railways too is located in Kolkata.
  • The headquarters of Western and Central Railways is located in Mumbai.

Additional Information

Given below is the list of all railway zones and their headquarters:

Railway ZoneHeadquarters
Central RailwayMumbai
Northern RailwayDelhi
North Eastern RailwayGorakhpur
Northeast Frontier RailwayGuwahati
Eastern RailwayKolkata
South Eastern RailwayKolkata
South Central RailwaySecunderabad
Southern RailwayChennai
Western RailwayMumbai
South Western RailwayHubballi
North Western RailwayJaipur
West Central RailwayJabalpur
North Central RailwayAllahabad
South East Central RailwayBilaspur
East Coast RailwayBhubaneswar
East Central RailwayHajipur
Metro RailwayKolkata
South Coast RailwayVisakhapatnam

Question 47

Which one among the following is not a tributary of river Luni?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khari

  2. BOption (b)

    Sukri

  3. COption (c)

    Jawai

  4. DOption (d)

    Banas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Banas

Why this answer is correct

Banas is a tributary of the Chambal River. Chambal is itself a tributary of the Yamuna river.

  • Luni is a west-flowing river located entirely in Rajasthan.
  • It is also known as the Sagarmati River.
  • It rises near Ajmer and flows southwest into the Rann of Kutch.
  • The major left bank tributaries of the Luni River include Jawai, Khari, Sukri, Sugai, Mithri, and Bandi.
  • The Right Bank tributaries of the Luni River is Jojri.

Question 48

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Major Dam)List-II (State)
A. Cheruthoni Dam1. Madhya Pradesh
B. Indira Sagar Dam2. Tamil Nadu
C. Krishnarajasagar Dam3. Karnataka Dam
D. Mettur Dam4. Kerala
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

Major Dams and their locations/states are as follows -

  • Cheruthoni Dam is located in the Idukki District of Kerala. It is a 138m tall concrete gravity dam.
  • This dam was constructed as part of the Idukki Hydroelectric Project along with two other dams at Idukki and Kulamavu.
  • Indira Sagar Dam is a multipurpose project of Madhya Pradesh on the Narmada River in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh in India.
  • The Krishna Raja Sagar Dam was built across river Kaveri for the Mysore and Mandya districts in Karnataka in 1932.
  • The Dam is the creation of one of the greatest engineers that India had produced, Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah.
  • The Mettur Dam is one of the largest dams in India and the largest in Tamil Nadu, located across the river Cauvery.

Question 49

Which one among the following Union Territories of India shares the shortest length of National Highways?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandigarh

  2. BOption (b)

    Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Daman and Diu

  4. DOption (d)

    Dadra and Nagar Haveli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chandigarh

Why this answer is correct

Among the Union Territories mentioned, Chandigarh has a mere 15 km length of National Highway which it shares.

  • Delhi - 79 km
  • Daman and Diu - 22 km
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli - 31 km
  • The total length of National Highways has been enhanced from about 91,287 km as on 31.03.2014 to about 1,31,326 km at present.
  • The aggregate distance of the road network is of 4.7 million km.
  • The longest National Highway in India is NH 44. It was previously known as National Highway 7.
  • This highway passes through the 11 Indian states.
  • States connected by NH 44 - Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
  • The overall length of the Golden quadrilateral Highway is 5,846 km.

 

Major highlights of the Golden Quadrilateral.

  • It is the largest highway project completed in India.
  • It is the fifth-longest highway project in the world.
  • The overall length of the Golden quadrilateral is 5,846km.
  • The Golden Quadrilateral passes through 13 states of India.
  • The Golden Quadrilateral constitutes only the national highways of the country and not state highways and rural-urban roadways.
  • The project was estimated to cost INR 600 bn but was one such project which was completed at about half of the estimated costs at INR 308.58 bn.

Question 50

Which one among the following passes links Lhasa with Ladakh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lanak La

  2. BOption (b)

    Burazil

  3. COption (c)

    Babusar

  4. DOption (d)

    Khyber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lanak La

Why this answer is correct

  • Located in the Aksai Chin region, Lanak La connects Ladakh and Lahasa.
  • It is on the southeastern boundary of the Aksai Chin region that is controlled by China.
  • Burazil Pass connects Gilgit to Srinagar in Kashmir.
  • Babusar Pass connects Gilgit Baltistan to Khyber Pakhtunkhwa.
  • Khyber Pass connects Kabul to Peshawar.

 

PassLinks
Mintaka PassKashmir and China
Bara Lacha LaHimachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir
Banihal PassKashmir and China
Shipki LaHimachal Pradesh and Tibet
Aghil PassLadakh region and Xinjiang
Chang-LaLadakh and Tibet
Lanak LaIndia and China

Question 51

According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on State finances, capital spending is maximum on ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    rural development

  2. BOption (b)

    water supply and sanitation

  3. COption (c)

    urban development

  4. DOption (d)

    education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

rural development

Why this answer is correct

According to the RBI Report analyzing the State Finances - A Study of Budgets, which was released in July 2018, rural development has the highest capital spending. The following is the data on capital spending (in billions) for 2018-19

  • Rural Development - 425.9
  • Education, Culture, Sports, and Art - 208
  • Water Supply and Sanitation - 356.9
  • Urban Development - 250

Question 52

According to the World Banks Doing Business Report, 2018, India’s ranking has improved in 2018 as compared to 2017 in which of the following areas?

  1. Paying taxes
  2. Resolving insolvency
  3. Starting a business
  4. Getting electricity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Ease of Doing Business Report 2018, released by The World Bank, ranked India at 100 among the 190 countries.

  • Previously, India was ranked at 130 in the rankings of 2017.
  • Of the 10 indicators assessed, India improved its rankings in 6.
  • India's rankings improved in Paying Taxes (172 to 119), Resolving Insolvency (136 to 103), Getting Credit (44 to 29), Enforcing Contracts (172 to 164), Protecting Minority Investors (13 to 4), and Construction Permits (185 to 181).

Question 53

The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax proceeds to the States:

  1. Income distance
  2. Population
  3. Demographic changes
  4. Area

Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in terms of their weights.

  1. AOption (a)

    1-2-3-4

  2. BOption (b)

    1-2-4-3

  3. COption (c)

    1-3-2-4

  4. DOption (d)

    4-3-2-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1-2-4-3

Why this answer is correct

Finance Commission, under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, is required to be set up for five years.

  • Y.V Reddy, former RBI Governor, was the chairman of the 14th Finance Commission.
  • The Finance Commission was set up for a period between 1st April 2005 to 31st March 2020.
  • The percentage devolution of the Union Taxes to the state was increased from 32% to 42%.
  • The parameters considered for distribution of tax proceeds include Income Distance, Population (Census 1971), Demographic Change, Area, and Forest Cover.
  • Weightage given to each of the parameters includes Income Distance (50%), Population Census 1971 (17.5%), Area (15%), Demographic Change (10%), and Forest Cover (7.5%)

Question 54

The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was advocated by _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Milton Friedman

  2. BOption (b)

    A. W. Phillips

  3. COption (c)

    J. M. Keynes

  4. DOption (d)

    R. G. Lipsey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Milton Friedman

Why this answer is correct

The 'natural rate of unemployment hypothesis' was advocated by Milton Friedman.

  • According to this hypothesis, a minimum level of unemployment was important to prevent a continuous rise in inflation levels.
  • This would ensure lesser demand in the market because of the decreasing purchasing power capacity of the potential workforce, which is still unemployed.
  • Philips Curve, on the other hand, also finds a relationship between unemployment levels and inflation.
  • According to it, when the inflation level increases, unemployment levels will decline and vice-versa.
  • According to the Phillips curve as the Inflation rate increases, they show the relationship between economic growth and inequality rate of Unemployment decreases which means there is an inverse relationship between the Unemployment rate and inflation rate.

Question 55

The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to which one of the following major sites of that civilization?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harappa

  2. BOption (b)

    Mohenjo-daro

  3. COption (c)

    Lothal

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalibangan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mohenjo-daro

Why this answer is correct

Kot Diji forms a part of the Harappan Civilization. It is nearest to Mohenjo-Daro.

  • It is an ancient flood channel located on the bank of the Indus River.
  • Consists of a stone rubble wall.
  • Surrounds a citadel.
  • Dated 3500 B.C - Early Harappan Period.
  • Mohenjo-Daro lies on the bank of the Indus river in the Larkana district of Sindh Province of Pakistan.
  • Mohenjo-Daro was discovered by Mr. R D Banerji in 1922 and it was designated as UNESCO's World heritage site in 1980.
  • Mohenjo-Daro does mean 'Mound of the dead'. The modern name for the site has been interpreted as "Mound of the Dead Men" in Sindh interpreted as "Mound of the Dead Men" in Sindhi.

 

Indus Valley SiteImportance
Dholavira- It is the latest site which is present in Gujarat. - It was divided into 3 parts, unlike other sites that had 2 parts. - There exist a middle town apart from the lower town.
Lothal- It has an artificial Brick dockyard. - It has evidence of the earliest cultivation of Rice. - It served as a seaport for Indus Valley People.
Mohenjodaro- It is the largest of all Indus cities. - The Great Bath is also present here. - Bronze dancing girl and a seal bearing Pashupati are also found here.

Question 56

The story Gandatindu Jataka was written in which language?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sanskrit

  2. BOption (b)

    Telugu

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil

  4. DOption (d)

    Pali

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pali

Why this answer is correct

The Jataka tales were written in the Pali language. The stories mostly deal with Buddha from previous births.

  • Gandatindu Jataka was written in Pali Language.
  • One of the stories describes how a wicked king went into disguise to know what his subjects taught of him.
  • Each of the subjects he met in disguise cursed him for his miseries.
  • They escaped, abandoning villages, and living in the forest as a result.

 

‘The Jataka’, related to Buddhism, refers to stories of Buddha’s Birth.

  • Jataka in Pali and Sanskrit means Birth.
  • A Buddhist scholar, Buddhagosa is said to have gathered about 550 Jataka stories.

Note:

  • Buddhism is World's fourth-largest religion and its followers are known as Buddhists.
  • Buddhist traditions have the goal of overcoming worldly suffering and the attainment of Nirvana(Enlightenment).
  • The Buddhist religion is attributed to the teachings of Gautama Buddha.

Question 57

According to the Tamil Sangam texts, who among the following were the large landowners?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gahapatis

  2. BOption (b)

    Uzhavars

  3. COption (c)

    Adimais

  4. DOption (d)

    Vellalars

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vellalars

Why this answer is correct

According to the Tamil Sangam texts -

  • Vellalar were the large landowners.
  • Uzahavars were ordinary ploughmen.
  • Adimai and Kadaisiyar were landless laborers.
  • Gahapatis or Grihapati were small landowners.
  • Dasa Karmakaras were slaves who worked under the Gahapatis.
  • Gram-bhojakas were village headmen.

Question 58

According to the Manusmriti, women can acquire wealth through which of the following means?

  1. AOption (a)

    Purchase

  2. BOption (b)

    Investment

  3. COption (c)

    Token of affection

  4. DOption (d)

    Inheritance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Token of affection

Why this answer is correct

Manusmriti declares seven means of acquiring wealth for men, while six means for acquiring wealth for women.

  • For men - Inheritance, Finding, Conquest, Purchase, Investment, Work, and acceptance of gifts from good people.
  • For women - Streedhana (at the time of marriage)/Bridal Processions, Token of Affection (Whatever she got from her brother, mother, or father), subsequently a gift acquired after marriage from her husband, yet again, as a token of affection.

Question 59

The dialogue on Varna between king Avantiputta and Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one of the following Buddhist texts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Majjhima Nikaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Samyutta Nikaya

  3. COption (c)

    Anguttara Nikaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Ambattha Sutta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Majjhima Nikaya

Why this answer is correct

Based on the Buddhist Text Majjhima Nikaya which has been written in Pali, the story if about a dialogue that took place between Avantiputta and Kachchana.

  • While Avantiputta was the king, Kachchana was the disciple of Buddha.
  • The text reveals the kind of attitude that King had towards the Varna system.
  • Samyutta Nikaya is the third volume of Sutta Pitaka and deals with subjects like 'What is a Buddha' and 'What is a Tathagata'
  • Anguttara Nikaya deals with the philosophical teachings of Buddha.
  • Ambattha Nikaya talks about denouncing the caste system, as well as the pretensions of Brahmins.

Question 60

In the first century AD, which among the following was not a major item of Indian exports to Rome?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pepper

  2. BOption (b)

    Spikenard

  3. COption (c)

    Tortoiseshell

  4. DOption (d)

    Nutmeg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nutmeg

Why this answer is correct

India and Rome traded in luxury goods and not articles of daily use.

  • Romans imported Spices from South India.
  • Precious stones, including gems and pearl stones, were imported by Rome from Central and South India.
  • Iron goods and Cutlery formed the part of India's export to the Roman Empire.
  • Romans were extremely fond of Indian Pepper, called Yavanpriyai.
  • Spikenard was actually fragrant and was used by the wealthy in Rome. It was imported from India.
  • According to Moti Chandra, Romans were really fond of the tortoiseshells from the Indian Ocean, however, the most significant ones were from Suvamadvipa.
  • Nutmeg didn't form a part of exports from India to Rome.

Question 61

Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct?

  1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company.
  2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British.
  3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company.

  • ✅ Correct
  • The Government of India Act, 1858 formally ended the rule of the East India Company.
  • Sovereignty and administration of India were transferred to the British Crown.

2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British.

  • ✅ Correct
  • This Act was the first major law passed by the British Parliament to establish direct Crown rule in India.

3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country.

  • ✅ Correct
  • The Act strengthened centralized and autocratic control.
  • There was no representation of Indians in administration or legislation.
  • All authority rested with the Crown, the Secretary of State for India, and the Governor-General.
  • Final Answer: 1, 2, and 3 (All statements are correct)

Additional Information

The Government of India Act, 1858 is also known as the Act for Better Government of India.

  • It changed the designation of Governor-General of India to Viceroy of India.
  • The administration of India was taken from the East India Company and placed directly under the British Crown.
  • Thus, the country was kept under the direct rule of the British and the Cabinet.
  • A new post called 'Secretary of State' was added who would be directly responsible to the British Cabinet and also a part of it.
  • The act also ended the double government which was started by the Pitts India Act,1784.
  • A 15-member advisory council to the Secretary of State was formed.

Question 62

Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct?

  1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members in the Governor-General’s Executive Council.
  2. The members were nominated and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor-General.
  3. The Governor-General did not have effective legislative power.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Indian Councils Act, 1861 provided for the following -

  • A fifth member was added for executive functions of the Council.
  • Portfolio system was added by the then Viceroy and Governor-General, Lord Canning.
  • Three Indians were added to the Viceroy Council as non-official members.
  • These were Raja of Benaras, Sir Dinkar Rao, and the Maharaja of Patiala.
  • The nominated non-official members were confined exclusively to the legislative proposals placed before by the Viceroy.
  • They could not discuss financial matters.
  • Further, with the ordinance-making power, the Secretary of State could overrule any legislative decision taken by the Governor-General.\
  • Assent of the Governor-General was necessary on legislative matters.

Question 63

Which of the following’ statements relating to the historic Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly, is/are correct?

  1. The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages.
  2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge.
  3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The Objectives Resolution was moved by Nehru before framing of the Indian Constitution in 1946.

  • The ideas of Equality, Democracy, Liberty, Fraternity were drawn from this Objective Resolution.
  • The Objective Resolution also talked about the different parts within India being autonomous units in itself.
  • It focused on drawing all the power and authority from the people.
  • Justice - Social, Economic, Political - enshrined in the Preamble have been inspired by the Objective Resolution.
  • Equality before Law and Equal Protection from Law, along with other Fundamental Rights like the Freedom of Speech and Expression, have been derived from the Objective Resolution.
  • Other safeguards like those given to the minorities of the country under Article 28-30 have been derived from them.

Question 64

The 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in September 2018 between ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their US counterparts

  2. BOption (b)

    Finance and Defence Ministers of India with their Russian counterparts

  3. COption (c)

    Home and Defence Ministers of India and their counterparts in Pakistan

  4. DOption (d)

    External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their counterparts in Pakistan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their US counterparts

Why this answer is correct

The inaugural India-US Ministerial 2+2 Dialogue was held on 6th September 2018.

  • Minister of Defence Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman and External Affairs Minister Smt Sushma Swaraj welcomed the Secretary of State Michael R. Pompeo and Secretary of Defense James N. Mattis to India.
  • The talks focussed on reaffirming India's designation as the Major Defense Partner.
  • The talks also reaffirmed the support to India's proposed United Nations Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism.

Question 65

Who is the Chairman of the Defence Planning Committee set up in April 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Prime Minister 

  2. BOption (b)

    The National Security Advisor

  3. COption (c)

    The Defence Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    The Chief of the Army Staff

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The National Security Advisor

Why this answer is correct

The Defence Planning Committee (DPC) a new institutional mechanism to drive the security and military strategy of the country.

  • The committee will also spearhead the defence equipment acquisitions.
  • The chairman of the Defence Planning Committee is the National Security Advisor Ajit Doval.
  • Defence Planning Committee would be a permanent body that will prepare the draft national security strategy.
  • The composition includes Foreign Secretary, Chairman Chiefs of the Staff Committee (COSC), Secretary (Expenditure) in the Finance Ministry, Defence Secretary, and service chiefs.

Question 66

‘Tejas’ is the name of which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Main battle tank

  2. BOption (b)

    Nuclear submarine

  3. COption (c)

    Light combat aircraft

  4. DOption (d)

    Aircraft carrier

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Light combat aircraft

Why this answer is correct

Tejas is a Light Combat Aircraft.

  • It is the smallest and the lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft.
  • It is a tailless, single-engine, compound-delta wing, that is designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Agency, along with Hindustan Aeronautical Limited as the principal partner.
  • The various other partners include the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), BEL, DRDO, Directorate General of Aeronautical Quality Assurance(DGAQA), and IAF.
  • This ensures that the variety of needs of the Indian Navy and Indian Air Force are met.

Question 67

As per the extant policy, Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route up to which one of the following limits?

  1. AOption (a)

    26 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    74 percent

  3. COption (c)

    51 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    49 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

49 percent

Why this answer is correct

Under the automatic route, 49% of Foreign Direct Investment is allowed.

  • Above 49% requires prior approval from the Government of India.
  • The reason for FDI above 49% may include access to modern technology.
  • The defense industries are subject to two laws - Arms Act, 1959 dealing with the manufacturing of small arms and ammunition.
  • The next law is Industrial License under the Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951.

Question 68

The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. Which of the following is not among the four segments identified by the Ministry for acquisition through the strategic partnership route?

  1. AOption (a)

    Artillery guns

  2. BOption (b)

    Fighter aircraft and helicopters

  3. COption (c)

    Submarines

  4. DOption (d)

    Armoured fighting vehicles and main battle tanks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Artillery guns

Why this answer is correct

A policy on Strategic Partnerships in Defense Sector was finalized by the Government of India.

  • It was promulgated as a part of the Defense Procurement Policy (DPP) 2016.
  • The policy envisions increasing private participation in the manufacturing activities of defense equipment.
  • Four segments have been identified under Strategic Partnership Route for acquisition.
  • These include Fighter Aircraft, Helicopter, Armored Fighting Vehicles/Main Battle Tanks, and Submarines.
  • Artillery Guns are not part of the four segments.

Question 69

The acronym ‘CAATSA’ refers to a piece of legislation enacted by which one of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    United Kingdom

  2. BOption (b)

    United States of America

  3. COption (c)

    Russia

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

CAATSA is a United States federal law.

  • It imposed sanctions on North Korea, Iran, and Russia.
  • It also engages in sanctions against the country that engage in any kind of a transaction with Russia vis-a-vis defence deals and intelligence sharing.
  • Under CAATSA, the US President can impose up to 5 of the listed 12 sanctions on anyone who engages in any type of significant transaction with Russia.

Question 70

Who among the following is the Convener of the ‘Task Force’ set up in November 2017 by the Government of India to review the Income-tax Act and draft a new direct tax law?

  1. AOption (a)

    Girish Ahuja

  2. BOption (b)

    Mukesh Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Arbind Modi

  4. DOption (d)

    Mansi Kedia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arbind Modi

Why this answer is correct

Arbind Modi will be the convenor of the eight-member committee, who is a member of the Central Board of Direct Taxes.

  • Arvind Subramanian would be a permanent special invitee in the Task Force.
  • Girish Ahuja would be a member of the Task force.

Question 71

With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maximum in which one of the following crops?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jowar (Hybrid)

  2. BOption (b)

    Bajra

  3. COption (c)

    Maize

  4. DOption (d)

    Soya bean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bajra

Why this answer is correct

The registered increase in the MSP has been the highest in Bajra since 2009-10 (37%)

  • The increase in MSP of Ragi has been 53%.
  • The increase in MSP of Sunflower seed has been 31%.
  • The increase in MSP of Niger Seeds has been 45%.
  • The increase in MSP of long-staple cotton has been 26%.

Directions:

The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Code:

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 72

Statement I:

The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017-2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level of 3 percent for the third successive year

Statement II:

Special Category States had run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-2018 compared to 2016-2017.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

According to RBI Reports, the overall fiscal deficit of the states in the FY 2017-18 came down to 2.7%, which was at 3.5% for the FY 2016-17.

  • Hence, the first statement is wrong.
  • The Special Category States, the run-up to a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-18 as compared to 2016-17.
  • While the fiscal deficit of FY 2016-17 was at -1.2%, it deteriorated to 0.6% in the FY 2017-18.
  • Hence, while the second statement is correct.

Question 73

Statement I:

There has been a sharp decline in the savings rate in the Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016.

Statement II:

There has been a fall in household and public savings.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

According to the CEIC data, the savings rate fell sharply from 37.8% in 2008-09 to 32.2 in 2015-16.

  • One of the biggest factors leading to the fall in savings rate is the fall in household and public savings. Hence, Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  • India's Gross Savings Rate is measured at 30.1% in 2019-20, a fall from the previous year's 32.4%.
  • However, the fall in savings rate has not registered a continuous downward trend, with preliminary reports from RBI between 2013-14 to 2015-16 showing a marginal rise in savings rate from 7.3% in the former, to 7.5% in the latter.
  • Still, household savings rates have continued to be low due to the lower returns on invaluable and assets, leading to an overall decline in household savings.

Question 74

Statement I:

Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India.

Statement II:

Universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option b.

Key Points

  • According to the Economic Survey 2018-19, the private investments in India severely lacked in research as compared to public investments in research.
  • In comparison, countries like the US and China, private investments were a major source of research activities being carried out in the country.
  • The Survey, however, states that public investment in research has been stagnant at 0.6-07% of GDP over the past two decades.
  • One of the major reasons is the small role played by universities in research activities in the country.
  • While public universities like IITs and IISERs invest in research activities, private universities lack behind in this feat too.

Question 75

Statement I:

Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment.

Statement II:

There has been no decline in the volatility of agricultural growth in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

Agriculture sector continues to employ nearly half of the workforce in the country.

  • Still, the sector's contribution to GDP remains as low as 17.5% (Current Prices 2015-16)
  • Agriculture's GDP contribution fell from 50% of GDP in the 1950s to 15.4% in 2015-16 (Constant Prices).
  • The growth rate in Agriculture has been fairly volatile over the past decade.
  • The growth rate ranged from 5.8% in 2005-06 to 0.4% in 2009-10.
  • In the year 2014-15, the agricultural growth rate decreased to -0.2%.

Question 76

Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Duarte Barbosa

  2. BOption (b)

    Manucci

  3. COption (c)

    Tavernier

  4. DOption (d)

    Bernier

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Manucci

Why this answer is correct

Niccolo Manucci, a versatile traveler from Venice, Italy, settled in India till his last in Chennai, 1720.

  • Over the time of his stay in India, he worked for the Portuguese, British, and also worked as free-agent many times.
  • Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese traveller who wrote details on the life and trade in South India.
  • Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a french-jeweller who travelled to India six-time and compared India to the empires in Ottoman and Iran.
  • Francois Bernier was a Frenchman, a political philosopher, a historian, and a doctor who came to the Mughal Empire in search of opportunities.
  • He worked with Dara Shikoh and later with Danishmand Khan, an Armenian noble.

Question 77

The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Village Chieftains

  2. BOption (b)

    Senior Civil Servants

  3. COption (c)

    Tributary Chiefs

  4. DOption (d)

    Military Commanders

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Military Commanders

Why this answer is correct

Amar Nayakas were military commanders in the Vijayanagara empire.

  • They were given territories to govern by the Raya/King.
  • Taxes and dues were collected from the peasants, traders, and craftspersons of the area.
  • A part of the revenue was used for personal use, and to maintain a fixed contingent of elephants and horses.
  • The contingent of elephants and horses helped the Raya with effective offensive capabilities in a war-like situation.
  • Some of the revenue collected was also used to maintain the irrigation infrastructure and maintenance of temples.
  • They also offered gifts and precious tributes to the King personally.
  • Lands were called amaram.

Question 78

The important source for Akbar’s reign, Tarikh-t-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arif Qandahari

  2. BOption (b)

    Bayazid Bayat

  3. COption (c)

    Abdul Qadir Badauni

  4. DOption (d)

    Nizamuddin Ahmad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Arif Qandahari

Why this answer is correct

Tarikh-i-Akbari is a well-known chronicle written on Akbar and an important source of the Mughal Administration during the rule.

  • Also known as Muzzaffar Nama, the work was compiled by Muhammad Arif Qandhari with the help of Muzaffar Khan.
  • After completion, he was conferred a Khilat.
  • He worked under Bairam Khan and Muzzafar Khan.
  • Later in his life, he was made the diwan of Punjab.

Question 79

The aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was a great favourite of which Mughal Emperor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Akbar

  2. BOption (b)

    Jahangir

  3. COption (c)

    Farrukhsiyar

  4. DOption (d)

    Shah Alam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jahangir

Why this answer is correct

Aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was the great favorite of Jahangir.

Key Points

  • According to Irfan Habib, despite being a physician, who generally were not regarded as a part of the Mughal Aristocracy, Muqarrab Khan was respected with high regard during the rule of Jahangir.
  • It was because of his likeliness for Muqarrab Khan, that Jahangir gave him the title Shaikh Hasan Hassu.
  • He attained a high mansab of 5,000 Zats and 5,000 Swadr.
  • He was also appointed as the governor of three provinces during Jahangir's reign.
  • Famous ruler chronologically are-

Babur (1526 - 1530), Humayun (1530 - 1540), Akbar (1556 - 1605), Jehangir (1605 - 1627), Shah Jahan (1628 - 1658), Aurangzeb (1658 - 1707).

TitleDescription
diwanWazir or chief minister
Mir Bakshihandled the military pay and accounts and related duties
Khan-i-SamanHe dealt with matters relating to maintaining record and requirement of the state karkhanas, stores, order, interactions and internal relations.
Sadrthe head of religious donations and contributions
Faujdarwas responsible for maintaining law and order in his jurisdiction
Amilrevenue collector
Qanungokeeper of land record
Muqaddamsarpanch

Question 80

Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nawab Safdarjung

  2. BOption (b)

    Nawab Saadat Ali Khan

  3. COption (c)

    Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula

  4. DOption (d)

    Nawab Saadat Khan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nawab Saadat Khan

Why this answer is correct

Nawaab Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk (AD 1722-1739) founded Awadh as an autonomous state.

  • He was appointed as governor by Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah.
  • He was made the king of Awadh to negotiate with Nadir Shah.
  • Safdar Jung/ Adbdul Mansur (AD 1739-1754) took part in the Battle of Manpur against Ahmed Shah Abdali.
  • Shuja-ud-doula (AD 1754-1775) was the son of Safdar Jung and an ally of Ahmed Shah Abdali.

Question 81

According to the French traveller Tavernier, the majority of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    brick and mud

  2. BOption (b)

    stone and thatch

  3. COption (c)

    wood and stone

  4. DOption (d)

    brick and stone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

brick and stone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is brick and stone.

Key Points

  • Houses in Varanasi in the 17th century were constructed with mud and stone.
  • Jean Baptiste Tavernier came to Varanasi in 1655.
  • He wrote extensively about the art and culture of Varanasi.
  • He also wrote about the river Ganga and pointed out the concern of the pollution in the river.
  • He was a French Gem merchant who bought the Hope diamond.
  • He has given detailed account in his book 'Travels of India.'

Question 82

Which of the following statements relating to the duties of the Governor is/are correct?

  1. The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament.
  2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the State under President’s rule, his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

  • The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament.
  • The Constitution makes it clear that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called into question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Governor has some Discretionary Powers conferred by the Constitution.
  • These include Constitutional Discretion and Situational Discretion.
  • On matters of, let's say a time when the Government in power in a state falls because the majority cannot be proven on the floor of the house, the power to appoint a Chief Minister can be done by the discretion of Governor. He is not liable to answer the Parliament.
  • However, his decisions are subject to Judicial Review as per the S.R Bommai Case. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Question 83

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the special provision with respect to the state of Assam?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 371A

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 371B

  3. COption (c)

    Article 371C

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 371D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 371B

Why this answer is correct

Article 371B enables the President to provide for the Constitution, as well as the functions of the committee of the State Legislative Assembly to consist of members elected from the tribal areas of Assam. 

  • Article 371A provides for the special provision to the state of Nagaland.
  • Article 371C provides for the special provision to the state of Manipur.
  • Article 371D provides for the special provision to the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 84

Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 238

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 370

  3. COption (c)

    Article 371

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 371G

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 370

Why this answer is correct

Article 370 provides for a special status for the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

  • In accordance with the provision of Article 370, Parliament needs the concurrence of the state government to apply any law except those on subjects related to
  • Defense
  • Foreign Affairs
  • Communications
  • Finance
  • Further, no citizen from outside the state can buy a land in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Provision of dual citizenship.
  • Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution don't apply to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Note - Currently, Article 370 stands repealed and the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been bifurcated to the two union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

Question 85

Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?

  1. AOption (a)

    Third Schedule

  2. BOption (b)

    Fourth Schedule

  3. COption (c)

    Fifth Schedule

  4. DOption (d)

    Sixth Schedule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sixth Schedule

Why this answer is correct

Sixth schedule under the Indian Constitution provides for 10 Autonomous District Councils in 4 states.

  • The states are Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
  • Article 244 deals with the administration of tribal areas in states under the sixth schedule.
  • The Fifth Schedule is concerned with Scheduled Areas as declared by the President - Article 244(1)
  • The Fourth Schedule is concerned with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
  • The Third Schedule is concerned with the Oath and Affirmations for Union and State Ministers, MPs, MLAs, MLCs, etc.

Question 86

In which one of the following States was ‘DEFEXPO 2018’ held in April 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil Nadu 

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tamil Nadu 

Why this answer is correct

  • DEFEXPO India is an exhibition of naval, international land, and internal security.
  • The 2018 edition was held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
  • The exhibition helps in displaying India as a brand which can export strategic defence systems and components required for all the three services.
  • It is the 10th edition.
  • This will be the first time that the defence expo would be held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
  • Until now, all the DEFEXPO was held in Delhi, except for the 2017 edition, held in Goa.

Question 87

The two defence industrial corridors announced by the Finance Minister in his 2018 Budget speech are coming up in which of the following States?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha and West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab and Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarat and Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The finance minister in his budget speech of 2018-19 announced the setting up of two Defence Industrial Corridors in India.

  • It was thus decided that the two corridors would be set up in the state of Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
  • In pursuance to this, six nodes have been identified in Uttar Pradesh, and five nodes have been identified in the Tamil Nadu corridor.

Question 88

What is India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC) called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vikrant

  2. BOption (b)

    Virat

  3. COption (c)

    Vaibhav

  4. DOption (d)

    Varaha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vikrant

Why this answer is correct

INS Vikrant is the first indigenously developed Aircraft Carrier in India.

  • It has a carrying capacity of 40,000 tonnes.
  • The gross displacement is greater than INS Viraat but lesser than INS Vikramaditya.
  • Being constructed at Cochin Shipyard Limited.
  • INS Viraat was an aircraft carrier that was commissioned in 1959 as the Royal Navy's HMS Hermes.
  • INS Vaibhav is a Vishwast class offshore patrol vessel inducted by the Indian Coast Guard in 2013.
  • INS Varaha is the 51st offshore patrol vessel designed indigenously by Larsen and Turbo.

Question 89

Which one of the following manufacturers is engaged in upgradation of the Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzer under the project ‘Dhanush’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharat Electronics Limited

  2. BOption (b)

    Ordnance Factory Board

  3. COption (c)

    Bharat Dynamics Limited

  4. DOption (d)

    Mishra Dhatu Nigam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ordnance Factory Board

Why this answer is correct

Dhanush is an upgraded version of Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzers.

  • These Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzers were procured in the mid-1980s by India.
  • Has a 155mm x 45mm calibre artillery gun.
  • Is developed by Ordnance Factory Board (OFB), Kolkata.
  • The design is based on the requirements of the Indian Army.
  • It has been manufactured by Gun Carriage Factory, Jabalpur.
  • Strike range of 38 km.
  • First indigenous long-ranged artillery gun.

Question 90

Which one of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games?

  1. AOption (a)

    Soohorang

  2. BOption (b)

    Vinicius de Moraes

  3. COption (c)

    The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard

  4. DOption (d)

    Miraitowa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Miraitowa

Why this answer is correct

A smiling and futuristic looking Miraitowa is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Summer Olympic Games.

  • Soohorang was the official mascot of the South Korean Winter Olympics held in 2018.
  • Vinicius, named after the Brazilian lyricist Vinicius de Moraes, was the official mascot of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games held in Brazil.
  • The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard were the mascots in the Sochi Winter Olympic Games, 2014.

Question 91

'Mission Satyanishtha’, a programme on ethics in public governance, was launched recently by the

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian Railways

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Bureau of Investigation

  3. COption (c)

    Supreme Court

  4. DOption (d)

    Enforcement Directorate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Indian Railways

Why this answer is correct

Indian Railways organized an event on Ethics in Public Governance, launching “Mission Satyanishtha” at National Rail Museum, New Delhi.

  • It is a first-of-its-kind event.
  • The event was organized on 27th July, 2018 to sensitize the railway employees about ethics and the importance of adhering to it in governance.
  • The event dealt with ethical dilemmas that are faced in life, and in Public Governance.
  • All the 13 lakh employees of the Indian Railways will take turns to swear an oath publicly to “bring about integrity” and “eradicate corruption”. Termed “Mission Satyanishtha”.
  • The program will involve railwaymen attending a formal training course on probity and integrity in public life.
  • Railway Board members and all senior officers of the ministry will swear the oath of ethics and integrity.

Question 92

The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor-Generals?

  1. AOption (a)

    Warren Hastings

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Cornwallis

  3. COption (c)

    Richard Wellesley

  4. DOption (d)

    William Bentinck

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Richard Wellesley

Why this answer is correct

Lord Richard Wellesley was the Governor-General of India between 1798 to 1805.

  • He founded the Fort William College on 10th July 1800.
  • This attempt was made to train the civil servants.
  • The idea was to teach the British Civil Servants the local oriental culture, law, tradition, and administration to improve governance.
  • Lord Wellesley was also responsible for the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, Second Anglo-Maratha War, Subsidiary Alliance, and Censorship Act.
  • After the Regulating Act, of 1773, the Governor of Bengal was made the Governor-General of Bengal and Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General.
  • Lord Cornwallis is known for introducing Permanent Settlement in India.
  • William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India after the passing of the Charter Act, of 1833.

Question 93

The Economic historian, who has used the data collected by Buchanan-Hamilton to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century India, is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tirthankar Roy

  2. BOption (b)

    Amiya Kumar Bagchi

  3. COption (c)

    Sabyasachi Bhattacharya

  4. DOption (d)

    Irfan Habib

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amiya Kumar Bagchi

Why this answer is correct

It was Amiya Kumar Bagchi who used Buchanan-Hamilton's data to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century.

  • He examined the evidence from the Handloom industry as well as the other traditional industries in the Gangetic plain region of Bihar.
  • His evidence suggests that a major decline was registered in the industrial employment share during the first half of the 19th century.
  • His evidence suggests a decline of 21 percent in deindustrialization.
  • Tirthankar Roy, a well-known economist also suggests that the number of people employed in the industries was more in the 1800s as compared to the 1900s.
  • Irfan Habib suggests that there might have been an increase in insurance rates during the 18th century.
  • While Sabyasachi Bhattacharya is a known historian of Modern India, he hasn't suggested any research papers on deindustrialization in the 19th century India.

Question 94

Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Joseph Banks

  2. BOption (b)

    James Cook

  3. COption (c)

    Robert Fortune

  4. DOption (d)

    Robert Owen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Robert Fortune

Why this answer is correct

In 1843, a Scottish Horticulturalist Robert Fortune traveled to China to study the tea plantations there.

  • He returned to India in 1849.
  • He smuggled around 13,000 plants and 10,000 seeds in glass bottles through Calcutta and Hong Kong.
  • It was after this, that the Britishers were able to dig their feet deep into the Tea Industry in Eastern India.

Question 95

Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ in which of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Japan

  2. BOption (b)

    Austria

  3. COption (c)

    Germany

  4. DOption (d)

    Malaysia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Germany

Why this answer is correct

Azad Hind Radio was a radio service that was started by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1942 in Germany, while the Quit India Movement was in full swing in India.

  • Initially, it was based in Germany, but its headquarters later shifted to Singapore, and later Rangoon.
  • Different languages were used to propagate nationalistic sentiments like English, Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, Bengali, Gujarati, and Poshto.

Question 96

Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Hindu Mahasabha

  2. BOption (b)

    The Congress

  3. COption (c)

    The Muslim League

  4. DOption (d)

    The Unionist Party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Muslim League

Why this answer is correct

The Muslim League on June 6 and the Congress on June 24, 1946 accepted the long-term plan put forward by the Cabinet Mission.

  • Each party or group looked at the plan from its own point of view.
  • Congress: To the Congress, the Cabinet Mission Plan was against the creation of Pakistan since grouping was optional; one constituent assembly was envisaged; and the League no longer had a veto.
  • Muslim League: The Muslim League believed Pakistan to be implied in compulsory grouping.
  • Further, J.L Nehru in a public speech raised objections that may be drawn against the proposed groupings from the North Western Frontier Province, and Assam.
  • Later, when Jinnah got to know about the plan of Nehru to use majority in Constituent Assembly to change the scheme in future, he rejected it on behalf of the grouping.

Question 97

The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944), was ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sahajananda Saraswati

  2. BOption (b)

    Vinoba Bhave

  3. COption (c)

    Achyut Rao Patwardhan

  4. DOption (d)

    Narendra Dev

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sahajananda Saraswati

Why this answer is correct

The All India Kisan Sabha held its eighth session in Bzwada, now called Vijaywada in Andhra Pradesh.

  • The session was held between 14-15th March 1944.
  • Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was elected as the president of this session.
  • The first All India Kisan Sabha - a peasant-based organization - was held in 1936.
  • It was also formed by Sahajanand Saraswati at the Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress.

Question 98

Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five years from the date of election

  2. BOption (b)

    Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the election

  3. COption (c)

    Six years from the date of administration of Oath

  4. DOption (d)

    Six years from the date of election

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the election

Why this answer is correct

The elected members of the Autonomous District Council have a term of five years after the first meeting of the Council.

  • Article 244 have provision of District Council.
  • Article 275 have provision of Regional Council.
  • There are 30 members in the Councils with 4 members nominated, and 26 members elected.
  • Currently, there are 10 councils in the states of Assam, Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya.

Question 99

Who among the following shall cause the accounts of the Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be audited?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Chartered Accountant empanelled by the Government of India

  3. COption (c)

    The State Government Auditors

  4. DOption (d)

    Any Chartered Accountant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Why this answer is correct

Not just 'any Chartered Accountant' can audit the funds of a body having constitutional backing. So option 4 is clearly wrong.

The State Government Auditors or a Chartered Accountant impaneled by the Government of India doesn't have a defined Constitutional provision to audit the accounts of the District or Regional Council Funds under the Sixth Schedule. So, option 1 and option 2 are also wrong.

  • According to the Sixth Schedule, for each autonomous region, there will be a district fund where the money received by the District or Regional Council shall be credited.
  • The Governor shall decide on matters of withdrawal, custody, or any matter connected with these funds.
  • The accounts of the District Council or the Regional Council shall be kept in such form as the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India may, with the approval of the President, prescribe.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall audit the accounts of the Regional and District Councils in a manner that he may think fit.
  • The reports of the CAG shall be submitted to the Governor, who shall lay them before the Council. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Question 100

Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Councils?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Governor

  2. BOption (b)

    The President 

  3. COption (c)

    The Chief Minister of the State

  4. DOption (d)

    The Prime Minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Governor

Why this answer is correct

The Autonomous and District Councils form part of the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

  • Through these councils under the Sixth Schedule, the tribal communities are provided with considerable autonomy.
  • The states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura have autonomous regions under the Sixth Schedule.
  • Articles 244 deals with the Sixth Schedule and the four states under it having autonomy.

 

At any time, if the Governor is satisfied that the act or a resolution passed by the Autonomous District or Regional Council can endanger the safety of the country or is prejudicial to public order, he may either suspend or annul the act or resolution.

  • Any order made by the Governor in relation to the annulment or suspension of the act/resolution has to be laid down before the State Legislature, and the order shall continue to be in force for a period of 12 months unless it is revoked by the State Legislature.
  • The Governor can also increase or decrease the areas or change the name of the autonomous district if and when required.
  • The Parliamentary Acts or acts by the State Legislature shall not be applied to these councils or shall be applied with exceptions and modifications.

Question 101

The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    the President

  2. BOption (b)

    the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    the Prime Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    the Vice President

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the President

Why this answer is correct

Article 151 says that the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India submit the reports in relation to the accounts of the Union to the President, who shall further lay it before each of the houses in the Parliament.

  • Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority, established by Article 148 of the Constitution of India.
  • His term is 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • He is appointed by the President following a recommendation by the Prime Minister.
  • He can be removed only on an address from both houses of parliament on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
  • Article 148 deals with the appointment, conditions of service, and oath of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
  • Article 149 deals with the powers and duties of the CAG.
  • CAG is the independent authority that acts as the chief guardian of the public purse.

Question 102

Which of the following is not related to the powers of the Governor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diplomatic and military powers

  2. BOption (b)

    Power to appoint Advocate General

  3. COption (c)

    Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature

  4. DOption (d)

    Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Diplomatic and military powers

Why this answer is correct

The diplomatic and military powers are held by the President.

  • Diplomatic Powers - International treaties and agreements are negotiated and concluded on behalf of the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Military Powers - The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India. He appoints the Chief of the Indian Navy, Indian Army, and Indian Air Force.
  • While both the President and the Governor have pardoning powers, the Governor cannot grant pardon on death sentences. Only the President can grant pardons on death sentences.
  • Under Article 165, the Governor can appoint the Advocate General who is qualified to be appointed as a High Court Judge.
  • Power to summon, prorogue and dissolve the state legislature is provided to the Governor under Article 174 of the Indian Constitution.

Question 103

Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    To discuss State matters

  2. BOption (b)

    To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities

  3. COption (c)

    To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an Undertaking under the control of the Union Government

  4. DOption (d)

    To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial labour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To discuss State matters

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

  • The issues on matters related to the state can not be taken up by the Parliament.
  • Discussions over the recent NRC and violence associated with it is discussed in the Parliament.
  • Labor comes under concurrent list and hence can be discussed both by the Parliament, and the State Legislature.

Question 104

Which of the following is not under the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls

  2. BOption (b)

    Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the Legislature of each State

  3. COption (c)

    Conduct of election to the office of the President and the Vice President

  4. DOption (d)

    Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to assist’ the Election Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to assist’ the Election Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission

Why this answer is correct

It is the President who has the power to appoint Regional Commissioners in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner. He does this in order to provide assistance to the Election Commission.

Some more powers include:

  • Determining the territorial areas of the electoral constituency.
  • Granting recognition of Political Parties and allocating symbols.
  • Making sure the elections are conducted in a free and fair manner.

 

Article 320States about the Function of public service commission.
Article 322States about the Expences of public service commissions.
Article 323States about the Report of public service commissions.
Article 323BStates about the Tribunals for other matters.
Article 321States about the Power to extend the function of a public service commission.
Article 324States about the Superintendence direction of control of elections to be vested in the election commission.
Article 325States about the NO person to ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on the ground of religion race cast or sex.
Article 323AStates about the Administrative tribunals.

Question 105

Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?

  1. AOption (a)

    At least five years as a Judge of a High Court

  2. BOption (b)

    At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court

  3. COption (c)

    In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist

  4. DOption (d)

    At least twenty years as a Sub- Judicial Magistrate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

At least twenty years as a Sub- Judicial Magistrate

Why this answer is correct

A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years, or
  • He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years, or
  • He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.

Thus, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. Also, it is not required for an experience of twenty-years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate.

Question 106

Which one of the following is not among the duties of the Chief Minister?

  1. AOption (a)

    To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation

  2. BOption (b)

    To furnish information relating to the administration of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for

  3. COption (c)

    To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report

  4. DOption (d)

    To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but has not been considered by the Council if the Governor so requires

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report

Why this answer is correct

Article 167 puts the responsibility of the Chief Minister to

  • Keeping the Governor informed of all the decisions of the Council of Ministers with regards to legislation and administration.
  • He is required to furnish the Governor with all the details on the matters called for by him.
  • The decision, if already taken by only one minister, the same can be placed in front of the Council of Ministers if the Governor so desires.
  • Article 167 corresponds to Article 78 with respect to the duties of the Prime Minister.
  • He doesn't have to communicate to the President regarding the decisions taken by the Council of Ministers with regard to the administration of the state.
  • Instead, the Prime Minister has to do so if and when the President may desire, under Article 78.

Question 107

Which one of the following is not considered a part of the Legislature of States?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Governor

  2. BOption (b)

    The Legislative Assembly

  3. COption (c)

    The Legislative Council

  4. DOption (d)

    The Chief Minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Chief Minister

Why this answer is correct

The Legislature of States consist of Governor, Legislative Assembly, and the Legislative Council.

According to Article 164, Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.

  • The Chief Minister is the real executive of the state.
  • Similarily, the Legislature at Centre consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and President.
  • It is because it is only after the consent of the President/Governor, that a bill becomes an act.

Question 108

Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is not a discretionary power.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.

  3. COption (c)

    The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session.

  4. DOption (d)

    The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.

Why this answer is correct

Under Article 213 of the Indian Constitution, Governor has the power to promulgate an ordinance on any matter of utmost importance.

  • The ordinance has the same effect as a legislature of the state.
  • However, the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not discretionary.
  • This means that the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister are mandatory to promulgate or withdraw an ordinance.
  • The ordinance ceases to operate within six weeks of the reassembly of the state legislature.
  • Withdrawal before six weeks can be done by passing a resolution disapproving the ordinance by the state legislative assembly, and agreed upon by the legislative council (in case of the bicameral legislature).
  • Similar powers are held by the President under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution.

Question 109

Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The UN General Assembly adopted the Human Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948.

  2. BOption (b)

    Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to the provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

  3. COption (c)

    The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

  4. DOption (d)

    India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Why this answer is correct

Article 17 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights reads

  • Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others.
  • No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.

About the Universal Declaration of Human Rights

  • The Declaration was proclaimed on 10th December 1948 in the United Nations General Assembly.
  • It was adopted in Paris, France.
  • There are a total of 30 Articles in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
  • While Right to Property forms a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, it is not a part of the Fundamental Rights prescribed by the Indian Constitution.
  • However, many of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution draws similarity with those in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Question 110

Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human nights around the globe.

  3. COption (c)

    It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN.

Why this answer is correct

Not all the members of the United Nations are a part of the United Nations Human Rights Council.

  • There is a total of 193 member countries in the United Nations.
  • United Nations Human Rights Council, on the other hand, is an inter-governmental body under the ambit of United Nations
  • It replaced the United Nations Commission on Human Rights in 2006.
  • The original United Nations Commission on Human Rights was founded in 1946.
  • The body is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights across the globe.
  • It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

Question 111

Ace athlete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hammer throw

  2. BOption (b)

    Javelin throw

  3. COption (c)

    Shot put throw

  4. DOption (d)

    Discus throw

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Javelin throw

Why this answer is correct

Neeraj Chopra is a known Javelin throw player.

  • He clinched the silver medal at the Zygmunta Selesta Memorial in Warsaw, Poland.
  • His spear throw was 79.3 m.
  • In 2020, he threw the spear at 87.86m, qualifying for the Tokyo Olympics.
  • The throw of 87.86m is his second-best behind 88.06m.
  • He achieved a Gold Medal at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games for this feat.

Question 112

According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of GDP)

Which one of the following is not ahead of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Japan

  2. BOption (b)

    UK

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    Germany

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

France

Why this answer is correct

The World Bank updated the GDP figures for the year 2017.

  • The data shows India surpassing France in the GDP figures.
  • India has surpassed France to come in the sixth place, while France has moved down to seventh place.

Note - India has moved to 5th place surpassing the United Kingdom.

  • India's GDP - $2.94 trillion
  • Germany's GDP: $3.86 trillion
  • Japan's GDP: $5.15 trillion
  • China's GDP: $14.14 trillion
  • United States's GDP: $21.44 trillion

Question 113

Which one of the following is correct about ‘Aaykar Setu’?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a mechanism for achieving excellence in public sector delivery related to GST.

  2. BOption (b)

    With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a communication strategy designed to collect information and build a database of tax defaulters.

  4. DOption (d)

    It enables electronic filing and processing of import and export declarations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes.

Why this answer is correct

Aaykar Setu is an online application facility provided to the taxpayers facilities by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).

  • The applications help in filing income tax returns online.
  • It helps in locating the nearest Tax Return Prepares (TRP).
  • Helps in managing PAN and Tax Deduction at Source (TDS).
  • The application was launched in July 2017.
  • The application is an initiative under the Digital India Initiative.

Question 114

SWAYAM is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    a network that aims to tap the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs towards global excellence.

  2. BOption (b)

    a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform.

  3. COption (c)

    an empowerment scheme for advancing the participation of girls in education

  4. DOption (d)

    a scheme that supports differently abled children to pursue technical education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform.

Why this answer is correct

SWAYAM is a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative where aspirants of higher education get access to the same for free.

  • It has been started by the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
  • Provides Video Lectures, Reading Material, Assignments, Quizzes.
  • More than 400 Courses in higher education - Undergraduate and Postgraduate level.
  • Both Engineering and Non-Engineering courses available.
  • Platform constructed by Microsoft.

Question 115

Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the following has not been identified as a religious site for development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ajmer (Rajasthan)

  2. BOption (b)

    Haridwar (Uttarakhand)

  3. COption (c)

    Somnath (Gujarat)

  4. DOption (d)

    Velankanni (Tamil Nadu)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Haridwar (Uttarakhand)

Why this answer is correct

Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spirituality Augmentation Drive - PRASAD Scheme has identified 41 sites in 25 states for development.

  • The cities are Amaravati, Gaya, Dwaraka, Amritsar, Ajmer, Kanchipuram, Vellankani, Puri, Varanasi, Mathura, Kedarnath, and Kamakhya.
  • The scheme is being implemented under the Ministry of Tourism.
  • It was launched in 2014-15.
  • It seeks to promote Art, Culture, Cuisine, Handicraft is the selected sites to increase tourism and other opportunities.

Question 116

Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame (till July 2018).

  1. AOption (a)

    Rahul Dravid

  2. BOption (b)

    Sunil Gavaskar

  3. COption (c)

    Sachin Tendulkar

  4. DOption (d)

    Anil Kumble

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sachin Tendulkar

Why this answer is correct

NOTE - Sachin Tendulkar has been inducted in the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame in July 2019.

  • The ICC Cricket "Hall of Fame" has been inducting cricketing legends into the list since 2009.
  • Until now, 90 players have been inducted in the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame, of which the highest - 28 players from England is the highest inclusion from any cricketing nation.
  • Bishan Singh Bedi (2009), Kapil Dev (2009), Sunil Gavaskar (2009), Anil Kumble (2015), Rahul Dravid (2018) have been inducted in the ICC Hall of Fame from India.
  • To be inducted in the ICC Hall of Fame, it is important to have retired from international cricket for 5 years.
  • Only 8 women have been inducted in the ICC Hall of Fame.

Question 117

The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative agreement with which one of the following entities for flood forecasting?

  1. AOption (a)

    Skymet

  2. BOption (b)

    Google

  3. COption (c)

    MetService

  4. DOption (d)

    AccuWeather

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Google

Why this answer is correct

Central Water Commission has collaborated with Google to improve on the flood prediction systems.

  • It uses Tech Giant's Earth Engine.
  • This will help in Flood Management.
  • Central Water Commission (CWC) functions as an attached office under the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation.
  • CWC's recent figures show that the total water storage available is only 22 percent of the total storage capacity of the reservoirs.

Question 118

The tagline ‘Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India’ is associated with the logo for ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Archaeological Survey of India

  2. BOption (b)

    India Tourism Development Corporation

  3. COption (c)

    Geological Survey of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Geographical Indications (GI) of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Geographical Indications (GI) of India

Why this answer is correct

Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recently released the Tricolor logo of Geographical Indication.

  • The new logo and tagline for GI are to increase awareness related to Intellectual Property Rights, as well as the importance of products with GI Tag.
  • Geographical Indication tag is the sign or name used for certain products to show the speciality of the thing from a specific geographic location
  • GI Tags are governed by the World Trade Organization's TRIPS Agreement.
  • Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection Act), 1999 govern the GI Tag in India.

Question 119

Who took over the 'Eka Movement’ started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhagwan Ahir

  2. BOption (b)

    Madari Pasi

  3. COption (c)

    Baba Ramchandra

  4. DOption (d)

    Shah Naeem Ata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Madari Pasi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madari Pasi.

Key Points

  • Eka Movement was started as an offshoot of the Non-Cooperation Movement by Madari Pasi at the end of 1921.
  • The movement started in Bahraich, Sitapur, and Hardoi.
  • The initial thrust of the movement was provided by both Non-Cooperation leaders and Khilafat Leaders.
  • Higher rent - more than 50 per cent was one of the major reasons for the movement.
  • The movement was, though, spontaneous and died out in a short time.

Question 120

Which organization was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sanatan Dharma Sabha

  2. BOption (b)

    Dev Samaj

  3. COption (c)

    Brahmin Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    Hindu Mahasabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hindu Mahasabha

Why this answer is correct

  • Hindu Mahasabha was founded in 1914 by Madan Mohan Malviya.
  • It worked with Arya Samaj and other Hindu organizations.
  • It was directly link with Rashtriya Swam Sevak Sangh (RSS) found in 1925 at Nagpur by K.B.Hegewar.
  • The first All India Hindu Mahasabha Conference was organized at Hardiwar Kumbh Mela in 1915.
  • The Sabha became more aggressive after 1929 and started propagating Hindu Rashtra which was different from Gandhiji’s Ram Rajya.

120 questions in the full paper