CDS General Knowledge 4 Feb 2018 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

• Caesium (Cs-133) is used as timekeeper in atomic clocks.
• Cesium is used because of its high resonant frequency of 9,192,631,770 Hz.
• Atomic clocks are the most accurate timekeeping device with an error of about 1 second in 100 million years.
• They are used to calculate International Atomic Time (IAT), local time around the world and in satellite navigation system.

• Potassium and Sodium are involved in the control of water content of blood.
• More Sodium and Potassium content results in more water content in blood
• This excess water in blood leads to high blood pressure.

The presence of Carbon dioxide in water makes an acidic solution. Carbon dioxide in addition with water forms Carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃ (Carbonic acid)

• Magnesium (Mg) is an essential component in the chlorophyll molecule.
• Magnesium helps in capturing the sunlight directly falling on the leaves, which is an essential ingredient for photosynthesis to take place.
• Each chlorophyll molecule contains 6.7 percent magnesium.

Chemical equation for photosynthesis -

6CO₂ + 6H₂O  C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

Carbon-di-oxide + Water  →  Glucose(energy) + Oxygen

In a balanced chemical equation, the no of atoms in reactant side are equal to number of atoms in product side.

Step 1- Balance Fe coefficients (a) L.H.S and (c) R.H.S.

Substitute a = 1, c = 2

Step 2- Now balance Carbon coefficients (b) and (d) must be the same 3 on each side.

b = d = 3

So,

a = 1, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3

The correct answer is To increase the life of the bulb.

Key Points

• Argon gas is an inert gas used in electric bulbs to prevent corrosion of its tungsten filament.
• Since it doesn't react with tungsten, it stops the filament from burning away in the presence of oxygen.
• Argon gas is used in fluorescent and incandescent light bulbs to stop the oxygen in the light bulbs from corroding the hot tungsten filament.
• The use of argon in light bulbs prevents the evaporation of the tungsten filaments, which results in increased light bulb life. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Argon gas is used in electric bulbs to stop the oxygen in the light bulbs from corroding the hot tungsten filament which results in an increase in the life of a bulb
• Argon is an inert gas and hence would not react with the tungsten filament. The bulb needs gas in it instead of a vacuum because a vacuum would encourage oxygen to come in from the exterior.

Additional Information

• Argon
• It is a chemical element with the symbol Ar and atomic number 18.
• It is in group 18 of the periodic table and is a noble gas.
• Argon is the third-most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere, at 0.934%.
• Symbol: Ar
• Atomic mass: 39.948 u
• Atomic number: 18
• Electron configuration: [Ne] 3s²3p⁶
• Boiling point: -185.8 °C
• Discoverers: William Ramsay, John William Strutt, 3rd Baron Rayleigh

0ºC is equivalent to 273.15K so add 273.15 in Celsius to obtain Kelvin.

• A sound wave cannot travel through a wooden hollow pipe placed in a vacuum.
• Sound energy transfer in the form of vibrations, these vibrations need matter to travel, absence of matter in a vacuum makes these waves impossible to travel.
• All mechanical waves that occur in nature, are called sound waves. It is the most important in everyday life. Also, the longitudinal waves in a medium usually in the air, are called sound waves.
• Sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

One nanometer (1 nm) is equal to 10⁻⁷ centimeters (cm) and 10⁻⁹ meters (m). 

• Nanometer to Meter: A nanometer is one billionth of a meter (10⁻⁹ m).
• Meter to Centimeter: A meter is equal to 100 centimeters (10² cm).
• Nanometer to Centimeter: Therefore, 1 nm = 10⁻⁹ m = 10⁻⁹ * 10² cm = 10⁻⁷ cm.

• Statement 1- For a body to be in equilibrium net force on the object must be zero which results in zero net moments.
• Statement 2- According to Newton’s First Law If a body continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. So linear momentum of a body on which no external force acts is conserved*.*
• Statement 3- In inelastic collision Kinetic energy is transferred from one body to another so kinetic energy always do not remain conserved. So only statement 1 and 2 are correct.

• Magnetic and chemical effect of current has no effect on the working of safety fuse.
• Magnitude and heating effect of current are responsible for the working of safety fuse. A fuse has a metal wire or strip with low melting point that melts when too much current flows through it. Melting of which depends on the amount of current passing through which causes heating effect.
• So only option 3 and 4 are correct.

The correct answer is Both statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Key Points

• Statement 1- Karst topography is formed by the dissolution of soluble rocks like limestone, sandstone, forming underground drainage sinkholes and caves.
• Statement 2- These sinkholes may vary in size in depth from a meter to a few hundred meters.
• Statement 1 shows the characteristic of Karst and Statement 2 defines sinkhole. Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Both the statements are individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Incised meanders form during the mature stage of the river at which rivers initially started flowing and there were only plain areas and not enough highlands. Now, with the passage of time as Mountains and Plateaus rise, the meandering course of these rivers starts vertical erosion and Incised meanders are formed.

The correct option is 'Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I'.

Key Points

• Statement I: Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.
• This statement is true.
• Glacial Troughs: A glacial trough is a U-shaped valley formed by the erosional activity of glaciers moving through pre-existing river valleys.
• Flat Floors: These valleys often possess broad and relatively flat floors because glaciers erode not only downward but also sideways, widening the valley considerably.
• Characteristic Feature: Flat valley bottoms along with steep valley walls are important geomorphological characteristics of glacial landscapes.
• Statement II: The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.
• This statement is also true.
• Uniform Ice Action: The large mass of glacier ice exerts pressure over a broad area of the valley floor, producing comparatively even abrasion and smoothing effects.
• Abrasion Process: Rock fragments embedded within the glacier act like abrasive tools that grind and smooth the valley bottom.
• Result: This erosional activity contributes to the development of relatively flat floors within glacial troughs.
• Evaluation of the Relationship Between Statement I and Statement II:
• Both statements are individually correct.
• However, Statement II does not fully explain Statement I because the flat floor of a glacial trough is not caused solely by uniform erosion.
• Other processes such as overdeepening, lateral erosion, and the overall movement and thickness of glacier ice also contribute significantly to trough formation.
• Therefore, Statement II is true, but it is not the complete or correct explanation of Statement I.

Additional Information

• Glacial Erosion: Glaciers modify landscapes through plucking and abrasion, which together reshape valleys into U-shaped troughs.
• Difference from River Valleys: River valleys are generally V-shaped because rivers mainly erode vertically, whereas glaciers erode both vertically and laterally.
• Examples of Glacial Troughs: Well-developed glacial troughs are found in Norway, the Alps, and Himalayan glaciated regions.

The correct answer is option 3.

• Tundra climate, a major climate type of the Köppen classification characterized by sub-freezing mean annual temperatures, large annual temperature ranges and moderately low precipitation.
• Tundra climate is usually found between the 60-75-degree latitude lines.
• Tundra climate areas experience a very harsh winter with a temperature and a cold summer.
• The tundra climate (ET) is so called after the types of vegetation, like low growing mosses, lichens and flowering plants. This is the region of permafrost where the sub soil is permanently frozen. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As a result, this region has less biodiversity.
• During summer, the tundra regions have a very long duration of daylight.
• The temperature comes down to about 10°C making this period suitable for reproduction. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Key Points

• Statement 1- Tides are the rise and fall of the levels of the ocean. Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon as well as the rotation of the Earth.
• Statement 2- The direction of rotation of Earth is from West to East or left to right.

Important Points

• The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a tide.
• The movement of water caused by meteorological effects (winds and atmospheric pressure changes) are called surges.
• Surges are not regular like tides. The study of tides is very complex, spatially and temporally, as it has great variations in frequency, magnitude and height.
• The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides.
• Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counterbalance gravity. Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth.
• The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the tide is channelled between islands or into bays and estuaries they are called tidal currents.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Tuberculosis is a communicable disease caused by transferring of bacteria from infected person to a normal person by sneezing or coughing and that do not deal with visiting a crowded place until infected person and bacteria in the air.

Both the statements are individually true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

Statement 1- Bioaccumulation is the process of accumulation of chemicals in an organism like pesticides, heavy metals and toxic substance that leads to threat to health, life and to environment.

Statement 2- Planktons are primary producer and large fishes are tertiary consumer which consume producers i.e. planktons and other small fishes that result in biomagnification or increase in the concentration of pesticides thus due to intake large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.

Flying fish is a true fish, others are not because they belong to the following phylum

Adipocyte are also known as lipocytes, their primary function is to store fat.

The function of other tissues are as follows

Chondrocytes - produce and maintain the cartilaginous matrix

Osteocyte- maintain strength and health of bone matrix.

Reticulocyte - Red blood cell formation.

Concept:

• Locomotion is the movement of organisms to propel themselves from one place to another.
• Different organisms use different locomotory organs

Explanation:

• The correct organ help in locomotion of the following are as follows

Euglena: Flagellum

Paramecium: Cilia

Nereis: Parapodia

Starfish: Tube Feet

• All are mentioned correctly except Nereis whose organ is Parapodia.
• Parapodia help the nereis in swimming

Lysosomes are formed by the fusion of Golgi network with endosomes, which contain molecules taken up by endocytosis at the plasma membrane. Lysosomes are tiny sack filled with fluid containing digestive enzymes that acts as a biological catalyst. The main function of lysosomes is to remove waste as well as destroying a cell after it has died. They are also known as garbage disposal of cells.

The protein synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum has to pass 3 double-layered membrane layers to reach the inner thylakoid space of the chloroplast.

Expansion and compression of air causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere.

As air is heated it becomes less dense and this air parcel moves to upper atmosphere. This air parcel continues to expand resulting in less heat available per unit volume which causes change in atmospheric temperature.

• Collision coalescence process is an important mechanism in formation of raindrops in warmer clouds or we can say whose temperature do not extend beyond the freezing level.
• This phenomenon cannot occur in cirrocumulus clouds because they are made up of ice crystals and supercooled water.

Leh is the place in India that experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter.

During the winter season, the weather in India is typically influenced by the pressure distribution in the Central and in Western Asia. A high-pressure centre is developed on the Northern side of the Himalayan range and it accounts for the air movement from the Northern side towards the Southern side of the mountain range.

Key Points 

Planetesimal Hypothesis (Chamberlin): This hypothesis, proposed by Thomas C. Chamberlin and Forest R. Moulton, suggests that a star once passed near our Sun, pulling out a stream of solar material. Tiny solid particles formed within this stream and, over time, these particles coalesced through gravity, forming the planets in our solar system.

Thermal Contraction Theory (Jeffreys): Proposed by Harold Jeffreys, this theory suggests that our planet was once a molten sphere and that it has been cooling and contracting ever since. This contraction led to the formation of the planet's surface features, like mountains and valleys. However, this theory has been largely replaced by the theory of plate tectonics.

Geosynclinal Orogen Theory (Kober): This theory, developed by Leopold Kober, explains the development of major topographical features, especially mountain ranges. According to this theory, large linear troughs (geosynclines) filled with sediment eventually collapse under their weight, bend and fold upward, resulting in mountain ranges.

Hypothesis of Sliding Continent (Daly): Reginald Daly proposed this hypothesis as an early alternative to Alfred Wegener's drift theory. Daly suggested that continents moved due to their gravity, "sliding" down the flanks of the geoid and displacing the seafloor.

Propounder of given theories are as follows-

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• Xenon gas is used in photographer’s flashgun
• A Xenon flashgun produces an extremely intense full-spectrum white light for a very short duration.
• It consists of a glass tube filled with xenon gas which emits a short and very bright flash of white light when a high voltage is applied to it.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

• 1. Composition is variable
• ❌ Incorrect statement.
• A compound has a fixed composition (e.g., H₂O always has 2 H and 1 O).
• If composition varies, it’s a mixture, not a compound.
• 2. All particles of compound are of only one type
• ✔️ Correct. All molecules of a compound are identical.
• 3. Particles of compound have two or more elements
• ✔️ Correct. Compounds are formed from different elements chemically combined (e.g., NaCl, CO₂).
• 4. Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods
• ✔️ Correct. Separation requires chemical methods (electrolysis, reactions).

• Mg (HCO₃)₂ Magnesium Hydrogen Carbonate and Ca (HCO₃)₂ Calcium bicarbonate cause temporary hardness in water.
• Hard water is water that contains cations with a charge of +2, especially Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ Hence, both the salts mentioned above impart hardness to water. Hardness of water can be removed by boiling water, ion exchange process, Calgon process, by adding washing soda etc.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points 

• Isobars → Atoms of different elements that have the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z).
• Calcium (Ca):
• Atomic number (Z) = 20 → protons = 20.
• Mass number (A) = 40 → neutrons = 40 – 20 = 20.
• So, we are looking for another element with mass number = 40, but not with 20 protons (otherwise it would still be Ca).
• Step 2: Check each option
• 18 neutrons and 20 protons
• Protons = 20 → It’s Calcium itself, not an isobar. ❌
• 19 neutrons and 18 protons
• Protons = 18 → Argon.
• Mass number = 18 + 19 = 37 → Not 40. ❌
• 19 neutrons and 20 protons
• Protons = 20 → Calcium.
• Mass number = 20 + 19 = 39 → Not 40. ❌
• 22 neutrons and 18 protons
• Protons = 18 → Argon.
• Mass number = 18 + 22 = 40 ✅
• So, this is Argon-40 (⁴⁰Ar), which is an isobar of Calcium-40 (⁴⁰Ca).

The correct answer is the Principle of the Calorimeter.

Key Points

• A principle of calorimetry states that if there is no loss of heat in surrounding the total heat lost by hot body equal to the total heat gained by a cold body. i.e. heat loss = heat gained.
• The above statement does not represent thermal equilibrium as it states that, two bodies are said to be in thermal equilibrium if there is no net flow of thermal energy between them when they are connected by a path permeable to heat.

Resistivity = ($\rho$ l) A

Where,

π = resistivity

l = length of conductor

A = area of cross section ( R²)

In this case resistivity, length of conductor = same

If radius is 2 times, Resistance is ¼ times

When we connect the two wires in series R = R₁ + R₂

R = 1R + 1/4R

= 5/4 R

CONCEPT:

Rayleigh's law of scattering:

• According to Rayleigh's law of scattering, the intensity of light of wavelength λ present in the scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of λ, provided the size of the scattering particles is much smaller than λ. Mathematically,

$\Rightarrow I \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^4 }$

• Thus the scattered intensity is maximum for a shorter wavelength.

EXPLANATION:

• At the time of sunrise and sunset, the sun is near the horizon. The rays from the sun have to travel a larger part of the atmosphere.
• As the wavelength of red colour is more than that of blue colour (λb≪< λr) and the intensity of scattered light is $\propto\frac{1}{{{\lambda ^4}}}$ , therefore, most of the blue light is scattered away.
• Only a red colour, which is least scattered enters our eyes and appears to come from the sun. Hence the sun looks red, both at the time of sunrise and sunset.
• The red colour of the sun at sunset and sunrise is due to the scattering of sunlight. Therefore option 4th is correct.

The correct answer is 'Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables'

Key Points

• Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ):
• An EEZ is a sea zone prescribed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) over which a state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources.
• It generally extends 200 nautical miles from the coast of the sovereign state.
• Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits:
• Coastal nations have the exclusive right to explore and exploit mineral resources, such as oil, gas, and other marine mineral deposits, within their EEZ.
• Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing:
• The coastal state has exclusive rights to exploit renewable energy sources like wind, wave, and tidal energy as well as marine organisms, including fish.
• Conservation and management of marine resources:
• Nations have the authority to conserve and manage biological resources to prevent over-exploitation and ensure sustainable use within their EEZ.

Additional Information

• Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables:
• This activity is not exclusively under the control of the coastal nation in their EEZ.
• International law ensures that the freedom of navigation and the laying of submarine cables and pipelines is respected, allowing ships from any nation to pass through the EEZ without prior consent.
• These freedoms are in line with the principle of high seas freedom as recognized by UNCLOS.
• Rights and Responsibilities:
• While coastal nations have rights to resource exploitation within their EEZ, they also have responsibilities to protect and preserve the marine environment.
• This includes taking measures to prevent pollution and overfishing, and ensuring the sustainable management of marine resources.
• Impact of EEZs on Global Maritime Policies:
• EEZs play a crucial role in international maritime governance and are vital for the economic development of coastal states.
• Disputes over EEZ boundaries can lead to international conflicts, making diplomatic negotiations and legal adjudications important in resolving such issues.

• Integrated Coastal Zone Management Program is supported by world bank which aims to build national capacity for implementation of comprehensive coastal management approach in the country.
• ICZM approach in 3 states namely Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal. Central Government has ensured livelihood security to the fisher communities and other local communities living in the coastal areas.
• The main aim of ICZM project include mapping, demarking of hazardous lines, plan for the coastal sediment cell that includes the Gulf of Kachchh.

Statement 1- National Water Academy (NWA) is a training institution of the Ministry of Water Resources, Government of India. NWA conducts training programs that cover all aspects of water resources development and management at basin scale, viz. hydrology, planning and formulation of river valley projects, designing of dams /barrages gates/ hydro-power structures and water policy etc.

Statement 2- NWA is located atKhadakwasla, about 15 Km from the Pune city center.

So only statement 1 is correct.

• A wire of copper having length I and area of cross-section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminum wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be > P.
• Aluminum has higher resistance as compared to Copper for same length, current flown through it, and power dissipated is directly proportional to resistance, so power dissipated will be > P.

The above expression is associated with Pascal’s law

Pascal's principle state that “A change in pressure at any point in an enclosed fluid at rest is transmitted undiminished to all points in the fluid”.

The composition of gases in atmosphere is as follows-

So, the correct sequence will be 1-4-2-3

As per 2011 Census, Lakshadweep (94.8 percent) has the highest percentage of ST population, followed by Mizoram (94.4 percent), Nagaland (86.5 percent).

State with lowest proportion of Scheduled Tribes Goa (0.04%).

The correct answer is the Himalayas. 

Key Points

• Extrusive volcanoes do not found in the Himalayas.
• It Passes through the nations of India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Bhutan & Nepal.

Important Points

• When a volcanic activity takes place above ground, so that hot molten magma is released onto the landscape, we say that the volcanic activity is extrusive, meaning it is on the exterior, or outside of the Earth.
• Alaska, Rocky & Andes all have extrusive volcanoes.

Additional Information

• Magma that reaches the service is known as lava. These types of volcanoes are found in a ring of fire or circum-pacific belt which has 75% of the world’s active and dormant volcanoes.

• Karewas are lacustrine deposits (deposits in lake) in the Valley of Kashmir and in Bhadarwah Valley of the Jammu Division.
• These are the flat-topped mounds that border the Kashmir valley on all sides. They are characterized with fossils of mammals and at places by peat. The various crops grown in this area are saffron, almond, apples, walnut, peaches, pears, cherry, plum, etc.
• Ling nut is grown in tropical and subtropical, in area of West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand etc.

The place of meeting of various tributaries of Ganga when arranged from east to west are as follows-

So, the correct answer is 2-1-3-4

All national parks mentioned above are UNESCO world heritage sites except Ranthambore national park.

The correct answer is 4-3-2-1

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Lymph is a clear fluid that forms part of the body’s lymphatic system, playing a key role in immune function and fluid balance.

• Statement 1: "Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries"
• ✅ Correct
• Lymph is formed when plasma leaks out of blood capillaries into surrounding tissues.
• Most of this fluid returns to the blood, but some enters the lymphatic capillaries and becomes lymph.
• Statement 2: "Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC."
• Incorrect: Lymph does not contain red blood cells (RBCs). It may contain white blood cells (WBCs), especially lymphocytes.
• Statement 3: "Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart"
• Incorrect: The heart does not pump lymph.
• Lymph moves through lymph vessels by muscle movement, valves, and pressure changes.
• Statement 4: "Lymph only transports hormones"
• Incorrect: Lymph transports more than just hormones, including fats, immune cells, and waste products.

The correct answer is Amphibia and Reptilia

Explanation:

Amphibia and Reptilia have three-chambered heart.

• Accumulation of lactic acid leads to cramping in the muscles of sprinters.
• Muscle cramps may be defined as the painful involuntary skeletal muscle contraction. It could be exercise related or non-exercise related.
• They typically affect large muscles during or immediately after an exercise. They can last for a few seconds to a few minutes.

• An ETF is a marketable society traded on stocks, commodity, or a basket of assets.
• It trades like a stock exchange where price changes throughout the day based on live stocks.
• A mutual fund has its net asset value calculated at the end of every day and ETF does not follow this.

• The age of joining National Pension Scheme (NPS) under the NPS-Private sector is 18-65 years.
• National Pension Scheme was launched on 1 May 2009. Its aim is to provide social security after retirement.
• All the new entrants of Central Government service after 1 Jan 2004 will compulsorily join this scheme.
• All citizens of India can voluntary join this scheme with a minimum contribution Rs. 6000 per year.

• Y.M Deosthalee will be head of the newly constituted task force of RBI on Public Credit Registry (PCR)
• Reserve Bank of India has formed a task force which help to develop transparent and real time PCR in India.
• The task force will review the current availability on credit in India. The task force will go through best international public credit registry and will use it to make the new credit structure in India.

• The first consignment of wheat of 1.1 million tons of wheat was sent to Afghanistan through Chabahar port in Iran.
• The shipment of wheat is considered as a landmark moment as it will pave the way for operation of the Chabahar port as an alternate connectivity for Afghanistan.

• Indian Post Payments Bank has been incorporated as a Public Limited company under department of posts.
• It is governed by Reserve Bank of India and will be operational by April 2018 in all 650 districts. With its Headquarters in New Delhi.
• It started its operation by opening first two branches in Ranchi and Raipur.

So only statement 1 is correct.

• Indian Post Payment Bank payment bank which was launched on 12^th January 2017, it is governed by Reserve Bank of India and will be operational by April 2018 in all 650 districts. With its Headquarters in New Delhi. IPPB is offering three types of accounts:
• Sugam (basic savings bank deposit account)
• Safal (regular account)
• Saral (basic savings bank deposit account - Small).

• All above mentioned are the functions of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established on October 12,1993. NHRC is constituted by the central government consists of a chairperson who is a retired Chief Justice of India.
• Its main aim is the protection of Human Rights Act 1993. A victim or any person can file a complaint against various cases of violation of human rights.

A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person violates any of the mentioned fact.

Along with the above-mentioned following are the facts on ground of which a person can also be disqualified for being chosen and for being a Member of any House of Parliament.

• He has ceased to be a citizen of India.
• He is disqualified under any other law by parliament.
• He must not have been dismissed from government service due to corruption or disloyalty to state.

He must not have been punished for supporting social crimes such as untouchability, sati, dowry etc.

The correct answer is at least four States.

Key Points

• According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in at least 4 states.
• The Election commission of India (ECI) is the sole authority which declares any party as the National party or State Party.
• The conditions for any political party to get the status of a National Party are as follows-
• Recognized as a State Party in at least 4 states
• Able to get 6% valid votes in at least 4 states in the Lok Sabha election.
• Win 2% i.e. 11 seats in Lok Sabha from 3 different states.

It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.

• Antrix corporation is defined as the commercial arm of (ISRO) Indian Space Research Organisation.
• It is wholly owned Government of India Company under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
• Antrix is engaged in providing Space products and services to international customers worldwide.

Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in all 3 traditions mentioned below.

• Kabir bijak (preserved by Kabirpnath which means path or sect of Kabir in Varanasi)
• Kabir Granthawali (which is associated with Dadupanth in Rajasthan)
• Adi Granth Sahib (His compositions are also found in Adi Granth Sahib in Punjab).

All of the manuscripts have been compiled long after death of Kabir.

Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystalize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify-

1. continuous link between the master and disciple
2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad
3. the transmission of spiritual powers and blessing to devotees.

Note - The Sufi movement is believed to have begun in Persian countries. The first epoch of Sufism is said to begun in 7^th A.D.

Sufism entered in India in 12^th century with Muslim invaders. Sufi saints believed that love and devotion are only means of reaching God. They give great importance to Prophet Muhammed along with their ‘murshids’ or ‘pir’ (guru). They do not believe in caste system and preached in Arabic, Persian and Urdu etc.

The correct answer is Surya Sukta.

Key Points

• The Surya Sukta is found in the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda (Hymn 85 – Rigveda 10.85).
• It is one of the earliest references to marriage ceremonies in Vedic literature.
• The hymn describes the marriage of Surya (the daughter of the Sun God) and is still used in Hindu wedding rituals today.
• It reflects the Vedic ideals of marital relationships, roles of husband and wife, and the sacredness of the marriage bond.

Additional Information

Other Options:

• Purusha Sukta (10.90) – Describes the cosmic being and origin of the varnas. Not about marriage.
• Dana Stutis – Hymns praising the generosity of donors; unrelated to marriage.
• Uma Sutra – Not found in the Rigveda; this option is not valid.

Only statements 2 & 3 are correct with reference to the Non-Cooperation movement.

Key Points

• During the Non-Cooperation Movement, the focus was primarily on boycotting British goods, educational institutions, courts, and administrative services.
• The movement gained support from various sections of society, including students, urban middle class, and some sections of the working class, but it did not witness significant participation from peasants in Karnataka or any other region.
• Non-Brahmin lower caste in Madras and Maharastra and lack of labour unrest in Assam, Bengal and Madras showed significant participation in the movement.
• After the Chauri Chaura incident on February 4, 1922, Mahatma Gandhi halted the Non-Cooperation Movement on February 12, 1922 completely.

Note-

• The non-Cooperation movement was officially announced on 1 August 1920
• The movement arose from the widespread outcry in India over the Jallianwala Bagh massacre on 13 April 1919.
• It was the first mass movement in India because of the participation of every section in India.
• The movement was non-violent consisting of resigning of titles, boycotting government services, elections, foreign goods etc.
• It is also known for rebirth of Congress because of Nagpur session of 1920.

Italy was a focus country of ‘World Food India’ event in November 2017 in New Delhi.

Note-

• World Food India festival was organized by Ministry of Food Processing Industries in New Delhi.
• Japan Denmark and Germany were partner countries to World Food India with Italy and Netherlands were the focus countries.
• The theme of 2017 event was ‘Transforming the Food Economy’. It was the first time when India hosted an event for food processing industry. Companies from 22 different countries participated in the event.

• Goa hosted the Nobel Prize Series-India 2018 from 1-2 Feb 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition.
• This was the second edition of Nobel Prize Series India earlier it was held in Gujarat.
• The event was jointly organized by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science and Technology, India along with the Government of Goa and Nobel Media AB.
• The event hosted a combination of lectures, conferences, exhibitions, round tables and other meeting spaces, providing a unique opportunity for students, researchers and the common man to interact with Nobel laureates and eminent scientists from India and abroad.

• The main objective of ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’ is to increase the reach of philately.

 Important Points

• The SPARSH stands for Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby.
• Philately may be defined as a hobby of collection and study of Postage stamps.
• Government will provide an annual scholarship for children of class 6 to 9 pursuing Philately as a hobby with a good academic record.
• Each postal circle will select 40 scholarships for 10 students from each class 6 to 9 and provide them scholarships of Rs. 6000 per annum @ 500 per month.
• The selection will be based on performance in the Philately Quiz and evaluation of project work on philately.

Sri Ranganatha swami Temple, Srirangam India has won the UNESCO ‘Asia Pacific Award of Merit’ 2017 for cultural heritage conservation. It is first temple from Tamil Nadu to grab the prestigious honor from the UN body.

About Sri Ranganatha swami Temple:

• It is a temple devoted to Sri Ranganatha a Hindu deity. The temple is constructed in the Tamil or Dravidian style of temple architecture.
• The temple occupies an area of 155 acres (63 ha) with 50 shrines, 21 towers, 39 pavilions. This temple is located on an island formed by twin rivers Cauvery and Coleroon.

• India won the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017 by defeating China by 5-4 in the final match.
• It was the 9^th edition of Women’s Hockey Asia Cup. The tournament was held from 28 October to 5 November 2017 in Kakamigahara, Gifu, Japan.
• The winner of this tournament qualified for the 2018 Women’s Hockey World Cup in England.

Statement 1 - India has a coastline of about 11,098 km with 9 states and 2 union with coastal boundaries. India has 13 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.

Statement 2 - 95 percent of India's trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport. Kandla port in Gujarat handles the maximum cargo.

Statement 3 - India has a total coastline of 11,098 km.

Statement 4 - In Maritime agenda the aim is to create a port capacity of around 3200 MT not 300 MT to handle the expected traffic of about 2500 MT by 2020.

So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Statement 4 is not correct in reference to MTCR (Missile Technology Control Regime).

Note- MTCR was established in April 1987 by G-7 countries USA, UK, France, Germany, Canada, Italy, and Japan, to check the spread of unmanned delivery systems capable of carrying nuclear weapons. Now it has 35 members including India. On 27 June 2016, India became a full member of the MTCR.

The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2015 at Malta.

So, option d is not correct.

On 1 January 2004 Atal Bihari Vajpayee government passed 91 amendment act according to which 91^st amendment act states that the size of the council of ministers and in the respective state governments should not be more than 15% (Fifteen Percent) of the total members of lower house (i.e. 15% strength of Lok Sabha in the parliament and 15% strength of lower houses of respective states legislatures .The minimum strength in the case of small states (Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa) is being 12.

All statements mentioned below are true about of Indian Coast Guard,

Note-

• Indian Coast Guard was set up on 18 August 1978. It protects the India’s maritime interests and enforces maritime law.
• The Indian Coast Guard's motto is "वयम रक्षामः" (Vayam Rakshamah), which means "We Protect". The mission of Coast Guard is to safety and protection of fisherman, people, coastal boundaries of the country.
• It works with Indian Navy, Department of Fisheries and Department of Revenue.

Nirbhay is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms. Note-

• Nirbhay is a long-range surface-to-surface nuclear-capable subsonic cruise missile developed indigenously by the DRDO.
• It is capable to engage several targets in a single flight. It is capable of carrying multiple payloads including nuclear warheads.
• It can be launched from multiple platforms from air, from lorry and even from underwater vessels.

Shri P.D. Siwal has been appointed as the chairman of Committee to investigate into the causes of the accident on 1^st November 2017 at NTPC, Unchahar, which lead to 38 deaths and 90+ non-fatal injuries. Most deaths were caused due to explosion in boiler.

• Dheeraj Jindal directed the movie The School Bag which won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal.
• The movie was based on a story in Pakistan where a boy Farooq, a child with a simple demand, wants a new school bag on his birthday.

India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam in 48 kg by defeating North Korea’s Kim Hyang Mi by a 5-0 margin.

• 5 December is celebrated as world Soil Day.
• It aims to spread the awareness about the importance of soil quality for food security, healthy ecosystems and human well-being.
• The theme for World Soil Day 2017, as dedicated by the Global Soil Partnership, was "Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground”.

• H. S. Prannoy won the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017 in Nagpur. In his final match he defeated Kidambi Srikanth by 21-15, 16-21, 21-7.
• The women’s title was won by Saina Nehwal defeating PV Sindhu.

Both the statements are true with reference to ‘barbarian’.

Statement 1 - It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.

Statement 2 - Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.

Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 4 is not correct

Hujwiri was also known as Datta Ganj Baksh or Data Sahib, He said that Sufis believed in the Brahmanical theories. They do not deal with the theory of the division of the human body.

The above statement was made by Francisco Pelsaert, a Dutch traveller in response to condition of peasants in Mughal India. This statement was made when he visited the subcontinent in early 17th century and saw how miserably the people lived in the Mughal era in India.

• Ginan, is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who a branch of the Ismaili sect.
• Ginans are composed in many languages of South Asia, especially Gujarati, Urdu, Punjabi, Sindhi and many more.
• Khoja are the diverse people that were converted into Islams in India and Pakistan. The word ‘Khoja’ has been derived from word ‘Khwaja’.

• Nalayira Divya Prabandham is a collection of 4,000 Tamil verses composed by Alvars.
• Alvars were the tamil poet-saints of Southern India. They were devoted to hindu supreme god ‘Vishnu’.
• They compiled Nalayira Divya Prabandham in 9th and 10th century.

Rank of Indian Air Force is not correct, the correct sequence is-

Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal.

The correct answer is 3 only.

Key Points

• Article 76 deals with the Attorney-General for India.

1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney-General for India. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
2. It shall be the duty of the Attorney-General to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the President, and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this Constitution or any other law for the time being in force.
3. In the performance of his duties, the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
4. The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. Hence, statement 3 is Not correct.

• He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Though the Attorney-General of India is not a member of the Cabinet, he shall also have the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament or in any committee thereof, but shall have no right to vote. By virtue of his office, he is entitled to the privileges of a member of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The 36th Amendment Act 1974 introduced Sikkim into the Union Of India.
• On 26 April 1975, Sikkim became a state of India via the 36 Amendment Act.
• In 1975, the Sikkimese Parliament appealed to the Indian Parliament to grant Sikkim as the status of a state of India.
• With an area of 7,096, km² Sikkim has 4 districts with 1 Rajya Sabha and 1 Lok Sabha seats.

The correct answer is Hong Kong.

Key Points

• Hong Kong became a part of China on 1, July 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems when the control of the territory was passed from Britain to China. Hence option 2 is correct.
• “One country, two systems”:
• It was proposed by Deng Xiaoping with the aim to unify China and Taiwan.
• Under it, Hong Kong exercises a high degree of autonomy while preserving its own economic, social, and common law systems.
• The Hong Kong-China relationship: 
• It paved its way back in 1984 when the Sino-British Joint Declaration (a legally binding treaty)was signed.
• According to the joint declaration, Hong Kong was to be handed to China in 1997.
• It comes under the category of special administrative state with an area of 2775 km².

Additional Information

• Tibet:
• It came under the control of the Qing dynasty of China in 1720. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• Xinjiang:
• The takeover of Xinjiang by China was largely achieved through political means.
• Chinese army entered Xinjiang in October 1949 and controlled most of the vast region by the spring of 1950. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
• Inner Mongolia :
• China's Communists set up Inner Mongolia in 1947. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

The correct answer is option 4.

(Note - Jammu and Kashmir is no longer a state and Article 370 has been abolished in 2019.)

Key Points

• In the year 2019, the parliament abrogated Article 370.
• It designated Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh as a union territory.
• Currently, India comprises 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

Additional Information

• Article 1 of the Constitution of India (the Constitution) describes India as a Union of States. Although, the Constitution is federal in structure, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar while submitting the draft clearly specified the advantages of using the term union over the federation.
• Usage of the term union indicates that the Indian state is not the result of some sort of arrangement among the states and these states have no right or freedom to secede from India
• States in India can't have their own constitution.
• As per Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution, the number of Cabinet Ministers cannot exceed ten percent of Delhi assembly seats. Hence the statement 4 is incorrect.

All the statements are true in reference to National Wildlife Action Plan.

• National Wildlife Action Plan has been launched by Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• This is the 3^rd National Wildlife Action Plan 2017-2031. The third National Wildlife Action Plan is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
• The NWAP has five components, 17 themes, 103 conservation actions and 250 projects.

• Growth in production (in percent) of natural gas in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative.
• Out of the eight core industries, fertilisers, refinery products, coal and cement reported healthy output.
• Eight Core Industries are electricity , steel, refinery products, crude oil, coal, cement, natural gas and fertilizers.

• eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National E-Governance Plan (NEGP) of the Government of India.
• eBiz is being implemented by Infosys Technologies Limited (Infosys) under the guidance of Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
• eBiz will allow business users to obtain a customized list of licenses, permits, and regulations that they require or need to comply with across all levels of Central, State and Local governments.

• Only option 1&2 are correct with reference to olive ridley turtles.
• Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and the most abundant sea turtles found in the world. They got their name olive ridley turtles because of their olive coloured carapace.
• They are found in warm waters of Pacific and Indian oceans. Gahirmatha in Odisha coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

The above statement is attributed to Mahatma Gandhi.

Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. In that year, he wrote a letter to a Tamil colleague in South Africa, explaining why sport was not, for him, an ideal form of physical exercise. At that time Gandhiji gave this quote.

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Key Points

• Phoenix Settlement:
• It was founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1904 in Durban South Africa. Hence option 1 is correct.
• It was at this Settlement that Gandhiji started his journey of transforming from a successful Lawyer to a simple Peasant with a passion for liberation, nonviolence and spirituality.
• It was the place where Gandhi ji practised his first 3 principles Satyagrah, Sarvoday, and Ahimsa.
• As per Gandhiji, This would be a place where everyone would labour, and draw the same salary.

Additional Information

• Rabindranath Tagore:
• He set up **Santiniketan(**The Abode of Peace)  in 1901 which is located in Kolkata. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• Advaita Ashrama, Mayavati, is a branch of the Ramakrishna Math, founded on 19 March 1899 at the behest of Vivekananda. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

• The correct answer is **Mahanavami Dibba.**​

Key Points

• Mahanavami Dibba is a beautiful stone platform located within the Royal Enclosure of Hampi.
• Mahanavami Dibba is also called as Dasara Dibba.
• It was built during the Vijayanagara period by King Krishnadevaraya to commemorate his victory over Udaygiri.
• It was the place where the King of Vijayanagar used to celebrate the festival of Dasara (Dussehra).
• The Dasara Dibba is in a ruined state now with damaged carvings on the side of the platform. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information 

• The 12 meters high Dasara Dibba consists of a massive square granite-faced base in three diminishing tiers, the lowest being 40-meter square and the topmost 24-meter square.
• The walls are covered with auspicious carvings of horses, elephants, warriors, caravans, hunting games scenes, dancers, musicians, and many other royal cultural scenes of the by-gone culture.
• UNESCO and the Government have taken proper steps in preserving the heritage for future generations.

• ‘Farr-i Izadi’ was developed by Sufi saint Shihabuddin Suhrawardi.
• According to Farr-i Izadi, Mughal ruler receive power from God, there was a hierarchy according to which the Divine Light was transmitted to the king who becomes the source of spiritual guidance.

The correct answer is Mahavamsa

• History of Buddhist Snaga which is a part of Mahavamsa contains text about Ashoka.
• Mahavamsa is written in the form of poem, which is divided into 4 parts.

Ashoka:

• Ashoka is referred as Buddhsakya in Maski Inscription and Dharmakosa in his Sarnath Inscription.
• He was known as Devampiya i.e. beloved oof Goda, and as Piyadassi i.e. of pleasing appearance.
• Ashoka believed in the policy of Dhamma.
• Ashoka's visit to Lumbini and exemption of Lumbini from tax was mentioned in Rumminidei Pillar Inscription.
• The Kandhar Inscription speaks about the success of his policy with the hunters and fishermen.
• Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription: It mentions that Ashoka increased the height of the stupa of Buddha Konakamana to its double size.

• They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.
• The Buddhist stupa serves as a marker for a sacred space, a symbolic representation of the Buddha’s burial mound.
• A stupa is a mound-like or hemispherical structure containing relics that is used as a place of meditation.
• Buddhist sources claim that during the 3rd century BCE, the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka the Great ordered these eight stupas to be opened, further distributed the relics of the Buddha into 84,000 portions, and had stupas built over them all over the expanding Buddhist world.
• They were located on trade routes in order to propagate Buddhism.
• However, there were no evidence of them being located in rural areas.

The no of seats in legislative Assembly are highest in West Bengal among the following.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Neither 1 nor 2

• Both statements are false in reference to the discretionary powers of the governor because-
• Statement 1- It is not a discretionary power, rather it comes under legislative powers of a Governor.
• Statement 2- The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
• Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue ordinances when the state assembly is not in session.
• Article 155 deals with appointment governors of states.
• The Governor of the state is appointed by President of India.

• Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide was done in 1973 and not in 1985.
• Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) allows the banks and financial institutions to send and receive details about financial transactions worldwide in a secure and reliable environment.

• All the statements are true with reference of ITBP except statement 4.
• ITBP (Indo Tibetan Border Police) was raised on 24 October 1962.
• It is a part 5 of Central Armed Police Forces in India.
• The strength of ITBP is around 89,000 personals with 56 battalions.
• The motto of ITBP is Shaurya – Dridhata – Karm Nishtha.

• Declaration on the Right to Development is not a part of International Human Rights Treaty.
• International Human Rights Treaty consists of 9 core treaties that are responsible for the international system for the promotion and protection of human rights.

• VVPAT stands for Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail.
• In VVPAT system when a voter presses the button for his choice in EVM (Electronic Voting Machine), A paper ballot containing the name, poll symbol gets printed for the voter.
• This verification system for EVM allows the voters to verify their casted votes and help to detect faults and frauds in voting by EVM.

• All the statements are true with reference to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) except 4, it is not the objective of PMKSY.
• PMKSY was launched with an objective to provide water to every field and make more efficient use of water to irrigate fields.
• It has 4 components, Accelerated Irrigation benefit program (AIBP), Har Khet ko Paani, Per drop more crop and Watershed development.

• Niryat Bandhu scheme was launched on 9 september 2015 with an aim is to reach potential exporters and mentors through counselling session, facilitation program etc to boost exports from India.
• This program will support two schemes namely Skill India and Digital India.