Previous Year Paper

CDS General Knowledge 19 Nov 2017 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2017

120 questions120 minutes
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English (120 questions)

Question 1

Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘Blue Mountains?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lambadas

  2. BOption (b)

    Gonds

  3. COption (c)

    Jarawas

  4. DOption (d)

    Todas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Todas

Why this answer is correct

Toda tribe is a Dravidian ethnic group that resides dominantly in the Blue (Nilgiri) Mountains of Tamil Nadu. Todas show co-existence with other tribal groups of Nilgiri like Kota, Badaga and Kurumba.

LambadasLambada or Lambadi tribe is a part of the Banjara tribes who are originally from Rajasthan.
GondsGond tribe supposed to have spread from central India (Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh) to other parts of the country.
JarawasJarawa tribe is a group of indigenous people of the Andaman Islands in India.
TodasResides dominantly in the Blue (Nilgiri) Mountains of Tamil Nadu.

Question 2

Who among the following geographers is related to ‘primate city’ concept?

  1. AOption (a)

    August Losch

  2. BOption (b)

    Mark Jefferson

  3. COption (c)

    Griffith Taylor

  4. DOption (d)

    W. Christaller

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mark Jefferson

Why this answer is correct

Famous geographer Mark Jefferson proposed the concept of the primate city in 1939. Jefferson gave the 'primate city' concept to explain the phenomenon of very large cities that hold such a large proportion of a country's population as well as its economic activity.

According to Jefferson, primate city as being "at least twice as large as the next largest city and more than twice as significant." Examples of 'primate city'are 'Tokyo' in Japan and 'Paris' in France etc.

Question 3

Which one of the following islands is the largest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Borneo

  2. BOption (b)

    Madagascar

  3. COption (c)

    New Guinea

  4. DOption (d)

    Sumatra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

New Guinea

Why this answer is correct

'New Guinea' is the largest island from the given options but Greenland is the world's largest island.

Greenland2,175,597 sq. kmNorth Atlantic Ocean (Autonomous constituent country within the Kingdom of Denmark)
New Guinea800,311 sq. kmSouthwest Pacific Ocean
Borneo744,108 sq. kmBetween Indian & Pacific Ocean (Indonesia holds south part; Brunei and Malaysia, north part)
Madagascar587,931 sq. kmIndian Ocean
Sumatra473,605 sq. kmNortheast Indian Ocean

Question 4

Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South:

  1. Dudhwa
  2. Panna
  3. Pench
  4. Indravati

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    4, 3, 2, 1

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 1, 4, 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3, 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3, 2, 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, 3, 4

Why this answer is correct

Dudhwa Tiger ReservesThe Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a protected area in northern state Uttar Pradesh that expands mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts.
Panna National ParkPanna National Park is located in Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India.
Pench Tiger ReservePench Tiger Reserve is one of the major tiger reserves of India. It stretches across two states - Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Madhya Pradesh holds the maximum area of Pench Tiger Reserve.
Indravati Tiger ReserveIndravati Tiger Reserve is located in Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh state of India.

Question 5

Which one of the following proteins gives lustrous shiny appearance to silk fibre?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fibrin

  2. BOption (b)

    Sericin

  3. COption (c)

    Collagen

  4. DOption (d)

    Nectin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sericin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sericin.

  • Sericin is a protein created by Bombyx mori (silkworms) in the production of silk. It constitutes 25-30% of silk protein.
  • It envelops the fibroin fibres with successive sticky layers that help in the formation of the cocoon.
  • Sericin gives a lustrous shiny appearance to silk fibre.

Important Points

FibroinSilk consists mainly of two proteins, fibroin and sericin. Silk consists of 70–80% fibroin and 20–30% sericin. Its primary structure mainly consists of the recurrent amino acid sequence.
CollagenCollagen is a structural protein mainly found in animal tissues. It is a component of connective tissues of tendon and ligaments.
NectinNectins are cell-adhesion molecules. Nectins are involved in adhesion of epithelial cells and neuronal synapse in animal tissue.

Question 6

Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of

  1. AOption (a)

    nitrite(NO2−)\left( {NO_2^ - } \right)

  2. BOption (b)

    sulphite (SO32−)\left( {SO_3^{2 - }} \right)

  3. COption (c)

    nitrate (NO3−)\left( {NO_3^ - } \right)

  4. DOption (d)

    sulphate (SO42−)\left( {SO_4^{2 - }} \right)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

nitrate (NO3−)\left( {NO_3^ - } \right)

Why this answer is correct

Blue baby syndrome (infant methemoglobinemia), is a type of illness where a baby's skin turns bluish. It begins when large amounts of nitrates in water are ingested by an infant and converted to nitrite by the digestive system.

These nitrites bind to the hemoglobin in the body, forming methemoglobin, which is unable to carry oxygen. This syndrome occurs due to a decreased amount of hemoglobin in the baby's blood.

Question 7

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Cell Organelle)List-II (Function)
A. Mitochondria1.Photosynthesis
B. Chloroplast2. Protein synthesis
C. Ribosomes3. Intracellular
D.  Lysosomes digestion4. ATP formation
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 1, C – 2, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Ribosomes and Lysosomes are the cell organelles present in Eukaryotic cell.

MitochondriaMitochondria are double-membrane bond organelles which are the main sites of Oxygenic respiration. This process results in the formation of energy currency of the cell, call as ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).
ChloroplastChloroplast are double-membrane bond organelles which are the main sites of photosynthesis in plants resulting in the production of Glucose by assimilation of CO2 and H2O.
RibosomesRibosomes are nucleoproteins that form proteins from m-RNA in cell.
LysosomesLysosomes are suicide bags which contain hydrolytic enzymes.

Question 8

Human insulin molecule is composed ofone α-chain having 21 amino acids andone β-chain having 30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One

Why this answer is correct

In some animals there are two insulin genes; however, in most others, including humans, a single gene is present. The insulin gene present on chromosome 11 in humans. The insulin is synthesized as 'proinsulin', which is modified to make two functional polypeptides.

Question 9

Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which one of the following is the main constituent of pearl?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium carbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium oxide

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium nitrate

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium sulphate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Calcium carbonate

Why this answer is correct

Pearl is a hard-sparkling object produced within the soft tissue (specifically the mantle) of a living shelled mollusk or another animal, such as a conulariid.

Pearl is composed of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) in minute crystalline form, which has been deposited in concentric layers.

Question 10

A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    biome

  2. BOption (b)

    community

  3. COption (c)

    abiotic environment

  4. DOption (d)

    ecosystem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ecosystem

Why this answer is correct

BiomeBiomes are large ecological areas on the earth's surface, with animals and plants adapting to their environment. A biome can be made up of many ecosystems.
CommunityA group of people living in the same place or having a particular characteristic in common known as community.
Abiotic environmentThe non-living components, e.g., air, water, soil etc. are called the abiotic components of an environment.
EcosystemA biological Community in an area is called the Ecosystem. An ecosystem consists of the species interacting with each other as well as with their physical environment.

Question 11

An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different.

  2. BOption (b)

    The speed of the electron will behigher than that of the proton.

  3. COption (c)

    The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron.

  4. DOption (d)

    The speed of the electron and theproton will be equal.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The speed of the electron will behigher than that of the proton.

Why this answer is correct

When accelerated from the rest, the energy is fully kinetic.

So, the Kinetic Energy (KE) = Charge x Potential Difference

=

MV2 = Q.V

  • From the above equation, it is obvious that the velocity of particle is inversely proportional to the mass of that particle.
  • So, electron will gain more speed as it has lower mass than proton. Also, the energy is fully kinetic in above case; hence, the electron will have greater energy as a result of greater velocity.

Question 12

Two wires are made having same length and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2.

  2. BOption (b)

    The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

  3. COption (c)

    The resistance of both the wires will be the same.

  4. DOption (d)

    If same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated in both the wires will be the same.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

Why this answer is correct

  • As it is given in the question that electrical conductivity of wire 1 i.e. made up of copper is greater than wire 2 i.e. made up of aluminium.
  • Electrical conductivity is inversely proportional to the resistance. So, the resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

Question 13

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to a surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror it undergoes a deviation of

  1. AOption (a)

    40°

  2. BOption (b)

    100°

  3. COption (c)

    90°

  4. DOption (d)

    80°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100°

Why this answer is correct

Angle of deviation: It is the angle made by the reflected ray and the original path of the incident ray (as shown in the diagram)

Angle of Deviation (𝛿)  = 180° - [ i + r ]  or  180°- 2i (as i=r) 

                                     = 180°- [ 40° + 40°]

                                     = 100°

Therefore, a ray of light will undergo a deviation of 100°

Question 14

Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations /light have different properties. Which one of the following statements related to these radiations/lights is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation.

  2. BOption (b)

    The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light.

  3. COption (c)

    The photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light.

  4. DOption (d)

    The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

Why this answer is correct

All the statements related to radiations/lights are correct except statement 4.

  • The wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation.
  • The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light.
  • The photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light.
  • The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

Note:

  • Order of frequency is as follows: Radio Waves< Microwaves< Infrared Radiation< Visible Light< Ultraviolet Radiation< X-rays< Gamma Rays.
  • Order of wavelength is as follows: Radio Waves> Microwaves> Infrared Radiation> Visible Light> Ultraviolet Radiation> X-rays> Gamma Rays.

Question 15

After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to the fact that

  1. Current produces heat in transformers
  2. Hysteresis loss occurs in transformers
  3. Liquid used for cooling gets heated

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Whenever Power Conversion occurs in any device or machine then there is an opposition to the energy conversion which is converted to power loss or the power loss may occurs during transmission of power either in mechanical or electrical.

  • In a transformer energy is converted to magnetic field and back to electrical energy, thus there exists magnetic losses i.e. hysteresis loss and Eddy current loss and electrical loss i.e. Cooper loss.
  • These energy losses are dissipated in the form of heat thus generating heat in transformer.

Question 16

A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

  1. AOption (a)

    By sneezing

  2. BOption (b)

    By jumping

  3. COption (c)

    By running

  4. DOption (d)

    By rolling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

By sneezing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. He can move by a certain distance on this ground by sneezing.
  • This is because of Newton’s 3rd law of motion. As he sneezes, air from his nose blows out with a strong force, as a result of this forward flow of air, there will be an opposite reaction that will lead to the backward movement of the person.
  • Note: Newton’s 3rd law states that, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Question 17

In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water

HSO4−;+;H20→;−≫;H30++SO42−{\rm{HSO}}_4^ - {\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}{{\rm{H}}_2}0 \to {\rm{;}} - {\rm{\gg ;}}{{\rm{H}}_3}{0^ + } + {\rm{SO}}_4^{2 - }

the water acts as:

  1. AOption (a)

    an acid

  2. BOption (b)

    a base

  3. COption (c)

    a salt

  4. DOption (d)

    an inert medium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a base

Why this answer is correct

Bronsted and Lowry proposed the concept of acids and bases in the year 1923.

  • As per the concept, acid is defined as a substance which has the tendency to give a proton while base is defined as a substance which has a tendency to accept a proton.
  • In the above reaction, water accepts proton, hence it acts as a base.

Question 18

How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H1206)?

  1. AOption (a)

    3.01 × 1022

  2. BOption (b)

    1.20 × 1023

  3. COption (c)

    2.40 × 1023

  4. DOption (d)

    6.02 × 1022

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6.02 × 1022

Why this answer is correct

There are 12 atoms of hydrogen per molecule of glucose, which has a molecular mass of 180g/mol. Hence, the number moles of hydrogen = 12 x 1.50 = 0.10 mol. Hence, the number of hydrogen atoms is found by multiplying this by the Avogadro Constant, 6.02 x 1023. This will give 6.02 × 1022.

Question 19

The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Bleaching Powder

  2. BOption (b)

    Plaster of Paris

  3. COption (c)

    Powder of Zinc oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Lime Powder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Plaster of Paris

Why this answer is correct

  • Plaster of Paris (POP), quick-setting gypsum plaster consisting of a fine white powder (calcium sulfate hemihydrate), which hardens when moistened and allowed to dry.
  • It is also known as the Plaster of Paris because for the preparation of POP, the abundant gypsum found near the capital city of France i.e. Paris.
  • The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO4.12\frac{1}{2} H2O.

Question 20

Among the following types of glasses, which one is used for making optical instruments?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pyrex glass

  2. BOption (b)

    Soft glass

  3. COption (c)

    Hard glass

  4. DOption (d)

    Flint glass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Flint glass

Why this answer is correct

  • Flint glass is considered as the softer glass than any other glass.
  • It is clearer and transparent. For making optical glass Potassium and lead silicates are used.
  • The main use of flint glass is in the manufacturing of lenses, prisms, and other optical instruments.

Question 21

Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

  1. AOption (a)

    Ionosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Troposphere

  3. COption (c)

    Stratosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Mesosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Stratosphere

Why this answer is correct

Most ozone gas (about 90 %) is located in the atmospheric layer of Stratosphere.

Based on temperature variation our atmosphere can be classified into the following layers mainly;

  • Troposphere – From Earth’s surface up to 10 km. Here, temperature decreases with increasing height. We, humans, live in the troposphere, and nearly all weather occurs in this lowest layer. Most clouds appear here.
  • Stratosphere – From 10 km above the surface to 50 km above the surface. Here, temperature increases with increasing height due to the presence of the ozone layer. Ozone gas is capable of absorbing harmful UV rays and due to the absorption the temperature increases. All the aeroplanes fly in this zone as due to high temperature there is less turbulence and hence smoother flights are possible.
  • Mesosphere – From 50 km above the surface to 85 km above the surface. Here, the temperature again decreases with increasing height. Most meteors burn up in the mesosphere
  • Ionosphere – Beyond 85 km there is thermosphere layer and Ionosphere is a series of regions in parts of the mesosphere and thermosphere.
<br>

Note: Ozone(O3) is blue in colour and has strong odour while Oxygen(O2) is colourless and odourless.

Question 22

What are the main constituents of biogas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methane and Sulphur dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane and Carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Methane and Nitric oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Methane and Carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

BIOGAS:

  • Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by anaerobic degradation of biomass in the presence of water but in the absence of oxygen.

EXPLANATION:

  • It is a renewable source of energy on account of its production from vastly and continuous organic wastes.
  • From the above, it is clear that biogas is a mixture of gases produced during the decomposition of biomass necessarily in the absence of oxygen.
  • The spent slurry, being rich in nitrogen and phosphorus, thus it is good manure.
  • Biogas generation reduces soil and water pollution
  • Biogas is mainly composed of methane (up to 75%), CO2 (25%), and traces of other gases such as nitrogen and hydrogen. Therefore option 2 is correct.
  • Whereas methane is a high-value calorific fuel, carbon dioxide is an inert gas. Therefore it has a high heating capacity.

Question 23

In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

  1. Punjab
  2. Haryana
  3. Karnataka
  4. Rajasthan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

  • Rajasthan and Haryana are theonly states who have made it necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections.
  • Karnataka, Gujarat and Chhattisgarh have put a restriction of having a toilet at home to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections.
<br>

Note: Part IX relates to the three-tier Panchayati Raj Institutions and was added to the Constitution by the 73rd Amendment in 1993.

Question 24

Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?

  1. It is the abdication of responsibility.
  2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.
  3. It is subject to supervision and review.
  4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

​The correct answer is 3 and 4.

Key Points

  • Delegation is the act of empowering to act for another. In the other words, it is a group of persons chosen to represent others.
  • Each member of the delegation is called a delegate.
  • Delegation is the assignment of authority to another person to carry out specific activities.
  • It is the process of distributing and entrusting work to another person. Hence, statement 1 is Not correct.
  • Delegation is widely accepted as an essential element of effective management.
  • Delegation begins when the manager passes on some of their responsibilities to a subordinate. Hence, statement 2 is Not correct.
  • The process of delegation requires ‘preparation, initiation, implementation, and closure.
  • It is strongly dependent on a supervisor's ability to communicate, motivate and understand individual preferences and differences. Hence, It is subject to supervision and review. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Delegation is one of the best-known methods for efficiently managing time and leads to numerous benefits within an organization. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Question 25

Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?

  1. Rule of Law
  2. Law-making Procedure
  3. Independence of Judiciary
  4. Parliamentary System

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 i.e. Rule of Law, Law Making procedure and Parliamentary system.

Features borrowed from the British constitution:

  • Nominal Head i.e. President
  • Cabinet System of Ministers
  • Post of PM
  • Parliamentary system
  • Bicameral Parliament
  • Lower House more powerful
  • Council of Ministers responsible to Lowe House
  • Speaker in Lok Sabha
  • Rule of Law
  • Law Making procedure
<br>

Note: Independence of judiciary and judicial review was borrowed from the USA.

Did you know?

70% of our constitution is based on the 1935 Government of India Act.

Question 26

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fifth Schedule

  2. BOption (b)

    Third Schedule

  3. COption (c)

    Sixth Schedule

  4. DOption (d)

    Fourth Schedule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Fourth Schedule

Why this answer is correct

The fourth schedule is the correct answer.

  • The fourth schedule has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state.
  • The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each state.
<br>

Note: There are 12 schedules in the Indian constitution.

How to remember all the schedules: Code for 12 schedules is TEARS OF OLD PM

1st Schedule: T- Territory, 2nd Schedule: E- Emoluments/salary, 3rd Schedule: A- Affirmation/Oath, 4th Schedule: R- Rajya Sabha, 5th Schedule: S- Scheduled Tribes, 6th Schedule: O- Other Tribes, 7th Schedule: F- Federal (Division Of Powers), 8th Schedule: O- Official Regional Languages, 9th Schedule: L- Land Reform, 10th Schedule: D- Defection (Anti-Defection Law), 11th Schedule: P- Panchayati Raj, 12th Schedule: M- Municipal Corporation

Question 27

Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016-17 is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The area under horticulture crops has increased over the previous year.

  2. BOption (b)

    Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year.

  3. COption (c)

    The rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year.

  4. DOption (d)

    The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year.

Why this answer is correct

In 2016-2017 the rate of increase in potato production was more than the onion production in comparison to 2015-2016. Hence, the 3rd statement is not correct, and rest all are true.

Note: Horticulture is the cultivation, processing, and sale of fruits, nuts, vegetables, ornamental plants, and flowers. Many additional services are also associated with it.

Question 28

The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    A sharp decline in the total population

  2. BOption (b)

    An increase in the working age population

  3. COption (c)

    A decline in infant mortality rate

  4. DOption (d)

    An increase in sex ratio

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

An increase in the working age population

Why this answer is correct

Option two is correct.

  • The demographic dividend is an economic benefit resulting from the increase in the working age population.
  • For a demographic dividend, a country must go through a demographic transition where it switches from a largely rural agrarian economy with high fertility and mortality rates to an urban industrial society characterized by low fertility and mortality rates.
  • India is currently going through the phase of the demographic dividend.
<br>

Note: The term, “demographic dividend”, was first coined by David Bloom.

Question 29

Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India:

  1. Mahalanobis Model
  2. Plan Holiday
  3. Rolling Plan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 2, 1

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2, 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) i.e. 1, 2, 3

All are related to Five-year plans of the Planning Commission

  • Mahalanobis Model – Second Five-year plan. The essence of the model is a shift in the pattern of industrial investment towards building up a domestic consumption goods sector.
  • Plan Holiday – After the failure of the third Five-year plan. The government declared plan holidays (from 1966–67, 1967–68, and 1968–69) and there were annual plans instead of Five-year plans.
  • Rolling Plan - The Janta Government terminated the fifth Five-year plan in 1977-78 and launched its own sixth Five-year plan for period 1978-83 and called it a Rolling Plan
<br>

Note:Planning Commission is now replaced by NITI Aayog

Question 30

The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools?

  1. Bank rate
  2. Open market operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is1 and 2 only

Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank.

  • It involves the management of the money supply and interest rate
  • It is used to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation, consumption, growth and liquidity.

Monetary policy in India is governed by RBI through various tools like

  • Cash Reserve Ratio
  • Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  • Open market operations
  • Bank rate
  • Moral suasion
<br>

Note: According to the fourth bimonthly policy of 2018-19**, CRR is 4 and SLR is 19.5%**

Question 31

Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Domestic goods remain constant

  2. BOption (b)

    Exports become cheaper to importers

  3. COption (c)

    Imports remain constant

  4. DOption (d)

    Exports rise proportionately

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Exports become cheaper to importers

Why this answer is correct

Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of exports become cheaper to importers. Hence, b is the answer.

  • Devaluation is the reduction in the value of currency and is generally used to combat trade imbalances.
  • It will be more beneficial because more forex will inflow into our country.
<br>

Note: Devaluation is a monetary policy tool used by countries that have a fixed exchange rate or semi-fixed exchange rate.

Question 32

Directions

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II: Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Why this answer is correct

Statement I is true and statement II is false.

  • The main reason for skin cancer is ultraviolet radiations getting exposed to the body and ultraviolet radiation passes through the Stratosphere butStratosphere is not responsible for ultraviolet radiation entering to earth from the sun.
  • Due to the depletion of ozone layer present in the Stratosphere, UV rays are entering the earth.
<br>

Note:

  • UV radiations can be categorized into UVA, UVB and UVC. UVB is mainly responsible for the skin cancer.
  • Ozone layer depleted due to the excessive use of CFCs.

Question 33

Directions

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

Statement II: The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  • The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season because the interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.
  • Rain shadow is the lee side of a mountain and Western Ghats receives mostly orographic precipitation due to its topography.
<br>

**Note: **Orographic precipitation happens when moist air is lifted as it moves over a mountain range. As the air rises and cools, orographic clouds form and serve as the source of the precipitation, most of which falls upwind of the mountain ridge.

Question 34

Directions

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

Statement II: The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  • Global warming is the phenomenon of increasing average air temperature near the surface of Earth over the past one to two centuries.
  • It is mainly due to presence of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
<br>

Note:

  • Greenhouse gas is a gas that has the property of absorbing infrared radiation emitted from Earth’s surface and reradiating it back to Earth’s surface, thus contributing to the greenhouse effect.
  • Carbon dioxide, Methane, and Water Vapour are the most common greenhouse gases.

Question 35

Directions

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

Statement II: By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Key Points

  • After the 1917 Russian Revolution, Important congress leaders got impressed with the leftism. Leaders of the Communist Party of India started working in collaboration with the leaders of congress. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • But in 1928, the leaders of the Communist Party of India declared Congress leaders as Capitalist and got separated from them. After that, the communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • In 1931, the communists also left the all India Trade Union Congress.

Additional Information

  • All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded in 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president.
  • Congressmen, Socialists, Communists worked in the AITUC which was the central trade union organization of workers of India.
  • Subsequently, the trade union movement got split into political lines.
  • The aim and objective of the All India Trade Union Congress is as follows:-
  • To establish a socialist state in India.
  • To socialize and nationalize the means of production, distribution, and exchange as far as possible.
  • To ameliorate the economic and social conditions of the working class.
  • To watch, promote, safeguard and further the interests, rights, and privileges of the workers in all matters relating to their employment.
  • To secure and maintain for the workers: The freedom of speech, The freedom of the press, The freedom of association, The freedom of assembly, The right of the strike; and The right to work or maintenance
  • To co-ordinate the activities of the trade unions affiliated to the AITUC;
  • To abolish political or economic advantage based on caste, creed, community, race, or religion; to fight against all forms of social oppression and injustice;
  • To fight against all forms of atrocities against women and harassment at place of work.
  • The AITUC shall endeavor to further the aforesaid objects by all legitimate, peaceful, and democratic methods such as legislation and, in the last resort, by strikes and similar other methods, as the AITUC may, from time to time, decide.

Question 36

Directions

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.

Statement II: Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  • The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.
  • The tribes were organized as patriarchal groups and in the early stages, the chief of tribe was merely the tribal leader. They were not for a specific territory
<br>

Hence, they couldn’t measure up to a state.

Note: The family or the kulawas the smallest unit of political structure during the early vedic period.

Question 37

Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)

  2. BOption (b)

    Birsaite Ulgulan (1899-1900)

  3. COption (c)

    Pabna Revolt (1873)

  4. DOption (d)

    Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)

  • Phulaguri Dhawa Struggle (1861): Along with the land revenue under Ryotwari System, the British also introduced many oppressive taxation measures like grazing tax, tax on cutting grass and trees in jungles.
  • From opium, bamboo, woods to jungle and water, there was no item of regular use that was spared from taxation.
  • The amount and forms of revenue collection was so high as well as diverse that soon the people became restless.
<br>

Note: It was the first organized Peasant’s movement in Assam.

Question 38

Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true?

  1. AOption (a)

    They brought Jahandar Shah to power.

  2. BOption (b)

    They wielded administrative power.

  3. COption (c)

    They followed a tolerant religious policy.

  4. DOption (d)

    They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They brought Jahandar Shah to power.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

  • Sayyid brothers didn’t bring Jahandar Shah to power. Hence correct option is option A.
  • Jahandar Shah was the first puppet ruler of the Mughal dynasty, having been placed on the throne by powerful noble Zulfiqar Khan. His reign was short and turbulent, lasting more than a year.
  • The Sayyid brothers became king makers after the death of Aurangzeb. They played with the throne until 1710s and later on, helped Bahadur shah I to capture the throne.
  • After the death of Bahadur Shah I, his successor Jahandar Shah was assassinated on the orders of the Sayyid Brothers.
<br>

Note: The term Sayyid brothers refers to Syed Abdullah Khan and Syed Hassan Ali Khan Barha.

Question 39

Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct?

  1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva.
  2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.
  3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman.
  4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

All the given statements are correct.

  • Buddhism Says: This life is a suffering, and the only way to escape from this suffering is to dispel one's cravings and ignorance by practicing the Eightfold Path.
  • Jainism Says: Respect all living things. Attain liberation by avoiding and shedding of bad karma which is the cause of rebirths and all sufferings.
  • End goal of both Buddhism and Jainism is to attain Nirvana.
  • The languages spoken by the masses of Jainism and Buddhism were Prakrit and Pali.
<br>

Note: Buddhism and Jainism movements were started to reform the Hinduism

Question 40

Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    1789 : Napoleonic Code

  2. BOption (b)

    1791 : Tennis Court Oath

  3. COption (c)

    1792 : National Convention

  4. DOption (d)

    1804 : New Constitution of France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1792 : National Convention

Why this answer is correct

The answer is option c i.e. 1792: National Convention

The perfect match is as following:

Year: Event

1804: Napoleonic Code

1789: Tennis Court Oath

1792: National Convention

1791: New Constitution of France

Note: French revolution lasted from 1789 until 1799.

Question 41

Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract?

  1. AOption (a)

    Voltaire

  2. BOption (b)

    Hobbes

  3. COption (c)

    Locke

  4. DOption (d)

    Rousseau

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rousseau

Why this answer is correct

Jean-Jacques Rousseau is the author of the book, The Social Contract.

Note:

  • It is a book of 1762 in which Rousseau theorized about the best way to establish a political community in the face of the problems of commercial society.
  • Rousseau asserts that only the people, who are sovereign, have that all-powerful right

Question 42

Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shankha Ghosh

  2. BOption (b)

    Raghuveer Chaudhari

  3. COption (c)

    Pratibha Ray

  4. DOption (d)

    Rehman Rahi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shankha Ghosh

Why this answer is correct

Shankha Ghosh is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016.

  • Jnanpith Award is an Indian literary award.
  • The award is bestowed onlyto Indian writers writing in Indian languages included in the Eighth schedule of Indian Constitution and English.
  • The Bhartiya Janpith rewards Rs. 11,00,000 to the recipient.
  • It was first awarded in 1965 to G. Sankara Kurup.
<br>

Note:

  • The Bhartiya Jnanpith is a research and cultural institute founded in 1944 by industrialist Shahu Shanti Prasad Jain.
  • Krishna Sobti was awarded for the year 2017 who is Hindi fiction writer and an essayist.

Question 43

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which were adopted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year

  1. AOption (a)

    2020

  2. BOption (b)

    2030

  3. COption (c)

    2040

  4. DOption (d)

    2050

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2030

Why this answer is correct

Answer is option b i.e. 2030

  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012.
  • The objective was to produce a set of universal goals that meet the urgent environmental, political and economic challenges facing our world. The aim is to achieve 17 (SDGs) by the year 2030.

Note: The SDGs replaced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), which started a global effort in 2000 to tackle the indignity of poverty.

Question 44

Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M. S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in

  1. AOption (a)

    Kannada classical vocal

  2. BOption (b)

    Kajari dance

  3. COption (c)

    Bihu dance

  4. DOption (d)

    Pandavani, a traditional performing art

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pandavani, a traditional performing art

Why this answer is correct

Teejan Bai is an exponent of Pandavani, a traditional performing art.

  • The Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Awardswere given to seven of India’s most-respected women artistes.
  • Each of the awardees was given a shawl, a cut-out of MsSubbulakshmi, a cheque of Rs. 1 lakh and a CD with a collection of her songs.
<br>

Note: Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi was an Indian Carnatic singer from Tamil Nadu. She was first musician ever to be awarded the Bharat Ratnaand also the first Indian musician to receive the Ramon Magsaysay award.

Question 45

Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nana Patekar

  2. BOption (b)

    Manoj Kumar

  3. COption (c)

    Javed Akhtar

  4. DOption (d)

    K. Viswanath

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

K. Viswanath

Why this answer is correct

K. Viswanath was the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016

  • Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India’s highest award in cinema.
  • It is awarded for outstanding contribution to growth and development of Indian cinema.
  • The Directorate of Film Festivals rewards Golden Lotus, A shawl and Rs. 1,000,000 to the recipient.
  • It was first awarded in 1969 to Devika Rani
<br>

Note: In 2017, Vinod Khanna received the award and he was the second to receive the award post humously after Prithviraj Kapoor (1971).

Question 46

The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

  1. AOption (a)

    David J. Thouless

  2. BOption (b)

    F. Duncan M. Haldane

  3. COption (c)

    J. Michael Kosterlitz

  4. DOption (d)

    All of them

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of them

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of them.

  • Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to all of them for theoretical discoveries of topological phase transitions and topological phases of matter
  • In 2018, the Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2018 was given for invention in the field of laser physics to Arthur Ashkin, Gérard Mourou and Donna Strickland.

Note:

  • Nobel prize is awarded for outstanding contributions for humanity in chemistry, literature, peace, physics, and physiology or medicine and economics.
  • It was first given in 1901.
  • The winner gets $1 million as cash prize, a medal and a diploma

Question 47

Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?

  1. AOption (a)

    People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipur Resistance Alliance

  3. COption (c)

    Tribal Resistance Party

  4. DOption (d)

    Revolutionary People’s Party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

  • After having a hunger strike for almost 16 years, Irom Sharmila founded People’s Resurgence and justice Alliance in 2016 in Manipur.
  • In 2017, the party contested two Assembly constituencies but was not even able to get 100 votes.
<br>

Note: The Goal of the party is to end the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act in the state of Manipur.

Question 48

Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sun

  2. BOption (b)

    Neptune

  3. COption (c)

    Saturn

  4. DOption (d)

    Jupiter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Saturn

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Saturn

  • The Cassini–Huygens mission, commonly called Cassini, sent a probe to study the planet Saturn.
  • It was the first to orbit Saturn and even first one to land in the outer solar system.

Note: Cassini–Huygens was a collaboration between NASA, the European Space Agency, and the Italian Space Agency

Question 49

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Strait)                        List-II (Countries)

A. Bass Strait                       1. UK and France

B. Davis Strait                      2. Australia and Tasmania

C. Dover Strait                     3. USA and Cuba

D. Florida Strait                    4. Canada and Greenland

  1. AOption (a)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

(Strait)(Countries)
Bass StraitAustralia and Tasmania
Davis StraitCanada and Greenland
Dover StraitUK and France
Florida StraitUSA and Cuba

 

Note: Strait is a narrow passage of water connecting two seas or two other large areas of water.

Question 50

List-I (Pass)                          List-II (Place)

A. Zoji La                               1. Himachal Pradesh

B. Shipki La                           2. Uttarakhand

C. Lipulekh                            3. Jammu and Kashmir

D. Nathu La                           4. Sikkim

  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

PassPlace
Zoji LaJammu and Kashmir
Shipki LaHimachal Pradesh
LipulekhUttarakhand
Nathu LaSikkim

 

Note: Pass is a path for crossing a mountain.

Question 51

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Concern)                        List-II (Product)

A. TISCO                                   1. Chemicals

B. BALCO                                  2. Iron & Steel

C. BPCL                                    3. Electronics

D. BEL                                      4. Aluminium

  1. AOption (a)

    A-2, B-1, C-4,D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

(Concern)(Product)
TISCOIron & Steel
BALCOAluminium
BPCLChemicals
BELElectronics

 

Note: Headquarter of TISCO and BPCL is in Mumbai while BALCO’s Headquarter is in New Delhi and BEL’s Headquarter is in Bengaluru.

Question 52

Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (National Highway)           List-II (Route)

A. NH -2                     1. Delhi-Jaipur- Ahmedabad-Mumbai

B. NH-4                      2. Thane-Pune-Bengaluru-Chennai

C. NH -7                     3. Delhi-Agra-Allahabad-Kolkata

D. NH-8                      4. Varanasi-Jabalpur-Nagpur-Hyderabad - Bengaluru-Madurai-Kanyakumari

  1. AOption (a)

    A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

  2. BOption (b)

    A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-2 C-4, D-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-3, B-2 C-4, D-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

National HighwayRoute
NH -2Delhi-Agra-Allahabad-Kolkata
NH-4Thane-Pune-Bengaluru-Chennai
NH -7Varanasi-Jabalpur-Nagpur-Hyderabad
NH-8Delhi-Jaipur- Ahmedabad-Mumbai

 

Note: National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is the nodal agency responsible for building, upgrading and maintaining most of the national highways network

 

Additional Information

  • NH -7 is now renamed as NH-44.
  • But, in the government documents it is still refreed as NH-7.

Question 53

One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

  1. AOption (a)

    100 kg of carbon

  2. BOption (b)

    100 kg of carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    1000 kg of carbon

  4. DOption (d)

    1000 kg of carbon dioxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1000 kg of carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to 1000 kg of carbon dioxide.

Carbon credit:

  • It is the difference between the carbon emissions allowed and actually emitted carbon.

Key Points

  • A carbon credit is a permit that allows the company that holds it to emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases.
  • One credit permits the emission of a mass equal to one ton of carbon dioxide.
  • One credit permits the emission of a mass equal to one ton of carbon dioxide.

Additional Information

  • The United Nations' Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) developed a carbon credit proposal to reduce worldwide carbon emissions in a 1997 agreement known as the Kyoto Protocol.
  • The agreement set binding emission reduction targets for the countries that signed it.
  • Another agreement, known as the Marrakesh Accords, spelt out the rules for how the system would work.

Note:

A proposal for Carbon credit was presented by IPCC and ratification of the International carbon credit system is in agreement with the Kyoto Protocol.

Question 54

An emulsion consists of

  1. AOption (a)

    One liquid and one solid

  2. BOption (b)

    One liquid and one gas

  3. COption (c)

    Two liquids

  4. DOption (d)

    Two solids

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Two liquids

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is two liquids

  • An emulsion is a special type of colloid made by combining two liquids that normally don't mix.
  • Examples of emulsions are Egg yolk, butter etc.
  • Even though the liquids that form them may be clear, emulsions appear cloudy or colored because light is scattered by the suspended particles in the mixture.
<br>

Note: An emulsion is a type of colloid, but not all colloids are emulsions.

Question 55

Which of the following radioactive substances enters/enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders?

  1. AOption (a)

    Strontium-90

  2. BOption (b)

    Iodine-131

  3. COption (c)

    Cesium-137

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above

All these radioactive substances enters the human body through food chain and causes many physiological disorders.

  • Strontium-90 is particularly dangerous for growing children and is believed to contribute to bone cancer and leukemia
  • High exposure to Iodine-131 affects the thyroid gland
  • Exposure to Cs-137 can increase the risk for cancer because of exposure to high-energy gamma radiation.

Question 56

‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

  1. AOption (a)

    Landscaping related to save water

  2. BOption (b)

    Landscaping related to save soil erosion

  3. COption (c)

    Weathering of rock surface

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Landscaping related to save water

Why this answer is correct

Xeriscaping reduces or eliminates the need for supplemental water by proper landscaping and gardening.

Note:

Xeriscaping is based on the following principles:

  • Planning and Design
  • Soil Improvement
  • Practical Turf Area
  • Efficient Irrigation
  • Mulch
  • Low Water-Use Plants
  • Appropriate Maintenance

Question 57

Joule-Thomson process is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

  1. AOption (a)

    Isobaric process

  2. BOption (b)

    Isenthalpic process

  3. COption (c)

    Adiabatic process

  4. DOption (d)

    Isochoric process

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Isenthalpic process

Why this answer is correct

The answer is Isenthalpic process

  • Joule-Thomson process is a throttling process in which the temperature of a gas or liquid decreases when it is forced through an insulated valve.
  • The gas-cooling throttling process is used in refrigeration processes such as air conditioners, heat pumps, and liquefiers.
<br>

Note: Hydraulic oil gets warm when throttled and can be used to detect leakages.

Question 58

Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

  1. AOption (a)

    Ferromagnetic material

  2. BOption (b)

    Ferrimagnetic material

  3. COption (c)

    Piezoelectric material

  4. DOption (d)

    Pyroelectric material

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Piezoelectric material

Why this answer is correct

Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of piezoelectric material.

  • Ultrasonic waves are used to detect objects and measure distances.
  • They have frequency greater than 20 kHz and humans can’t hear it.
<br>

Note: Piezoelectricity means electricity resulting from pressure and latent heat.

Question 59

A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object -(i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the object?

  1. AOption (a)

    The object will move with acceleration.

  2. BOption (b)

    The object will move with deceleration.

  3. COption (c)

    The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

  4. DOption (d)

    The object will move with constant velocity.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The object will move with constant velocity.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Newton’s Third Law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  • Newton’s first law states that an object that remains in uniform motion will remain in uniform motion unless it is acted upon by an external force.
  • Force: The interaction which after applying on a body changes or try to change the state of rest or state of motion is called force.

Force (F) = Mass (m) × acceleration (a)

EXPLANATION:

  • If the net resultant force is zero, then the acceleration of the body will be zero, and the state of motion is not changed and hence the object will move with constant velocity. So option 4 is correct.

Question 60

Consider the following statements:

  1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.
  2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.
  3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘criticality’ in case of a nuclear bomb.
  4. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is / are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

  • The main difference between nuclear reactor and nuclear bomb is the amount of fissile material used.
  • In nuclear reactor less fissile material is present while in nuclear bomb around 90% fissile material is present.
  • The rate of energy release in atomic bomb is high.
<br>

Note: The first moderator used was Graphite in Chicago Pile 1.

Question 61

The foul smell of urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial decomposition of

  1. AOption (a)

    Urea into sulphur dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Sugar into carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    ​Lipids into methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Urea into ammonia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Urea into ammonia

Why this answer is correct

The answer is Urea into ammonia

  • Some bacteria can produce enzymes which decompose urea present in urine into ammonia and carbon dioxide.

Note: Urease is the enzyme which decomposes urea**.**

Question 62

Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is

  1. AOption (a)

    Larger than osmotic pressure

  2. BOption (b)

    Smaller than osmotic pressure

  3. COption (c)

    Equal to osmotic pressure

  4. DOption (d)

    Equal to atmospheric pressure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Larger than osmotic pressure

Why this answer is correct

The answer is “Larger than osmotic pressure”

  • Reverse osmosis is a process by which a solvent pass through a porous membrane in the direction opposite to that for natural osmosis.
  • For reverse osmosis to happen the pressure applied should be larger than osmotic pressure.
<br>

Note: Osmotic pressure is the minimum pressure which needs to be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of its pure solvent across a semipermeable membrane**.**

Question 63

Which one of the following polymers does not contain glucose units?

  1. AOption (a)

    Glycogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Starch

  3. COption (c)

    Cellulose

  4. DOption (d)

    Rubber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rubber

Why this answer is correct

The answer is Rubber.

  • Glycogen, starch and cellulose are made up of hundreds of glucose monomers while rubber is made up of isoprene monomers.
<br>

Note: Starch is an energy reservoir for plants while glycogen is for animals.

Question 64

Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Water

  2. BOption (b)

    Acetone

  3. COption (c)

    Alcohol

  4. DOption (d)

    Potassium Iodide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Acetone

Why this answer is correct

The answer is acetone.

  • Tincture of Iodine is an antiseptic liquid whose ingredients are iodine, potassium iodide, water and alcohol.
  • Tincture of Iodine can also be used for water purification.

Note: It is also referred as Weak Iodine solution and it can destroy both bacteria and viruses.

Question 65

The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    A proclamation of National Emergency

  2. BOption (b)

    An Act passed by the Parliament

  3. COption (c)

    An amendment to the Constitution of India

  4. DOption (d)

    The judicial decisions of the Supreme Court

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A proclamation of National Emergency

Why this answer is correct

Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the constitution of Indian can be suspended only by a proclamation of National Emergency.

  • Right to freedom is automatically suspended but Right to life and personal liberty cannot be suspended. Such suspension needs parliament approval.
<br>

Note: Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the Emergency under Article 359 of the constitution

Question 66

Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct?

  1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three-tier system of Government.
  2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years.
  3. There should be a mandatory reservation of one-third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 inserted Part IX (The Panchayats) in the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 243, 243A to 243O under Part IX has been included in the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 243D deals with the reservation of seats in the Panchayats. It says that not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women and such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • 74rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 inserted Part IXA (The Municipality) in the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 243p to 243Z and 243ZA to 243ZG under Part IXA have been included in the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 243T deals with the reservation of seats in The Municipality. It says that not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Municipality shall be reserved for women and such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Municipality. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Article 243E:- Duration of Panchayats.
  • Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
  • Article 243U:- Duration of Municipalities.
  • Every Municipality, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer Provided that a Municipality shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Few states like Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and some other tribes area don’t have a three-tier system of government. The act does not apply to these areas. Hence statement 1 is Not correct.

Question 67

A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills?

  1. Money Bill
  2. Constitutional Amendment Bill
  3. Ordinary Bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 only

Why this answer is correct

The answer is 3 only

  • A bill which requires special majority in both the houses cannot be introduced in a Joint sitting of the Parliament. We know that, for amending the Constitution, special majority in both the houses is required. Hence, it can’t be introduced in the joint sitting.
  • Even, for Money Bill, Rajya sabha can only recommend some changes and it is Lok Sabha only which passes the money bill. Hence there is no point in introducing the Money Bill in the joint bill. Therefore c i.e. 3 only is the answer
  • Ordinary Bills require Simple majority in both the houses.
<br>

Note: According to Article 108, a joint sitting is called by the President and presided over by the Speaker**.**

Question 68

Which of the following statements is / are correct?

  1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.
  2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.
  3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The answer is 1 and 2 only.

  • Directive principles – According to article 38 of the constitution the state shall endeavour to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by social, economic and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
  • Fundamental Rights – Certain restrictions can be imposed on fundamental rights. According to 19(2), Right to freedom of speech and expression can be restricted by state if it is in the interest of sovereignty or integrity of the state.
  • Secularism – It is nothing but the separation of religion from state. India is a secular country while countries like Afghanistan, Algeria etc. are not secular.
<br>

Note: Fundamental Rights are justiciable, as they can be enforced, whereas directive principles are not justiciable

Question 69

The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following?

  1. Both the Houses of the Parliament
  2. The Legislative Assemblies of States
  3. The Legislative Councils of States
  4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The answer is 1, 2 and 4.

Key Points

  • President:
  • President is the head of the Union Executive.
  • He is indirectly elected by an electoral college, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • Qualifications:
  • ​He should be a citizen of India.
  • He should have completed 35 years of age.
  • He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any State Government or any local authority or any other public authority.
  • Article 60 deals with the Oath and Affirmation of the President.
  • The oath of the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • According to Article 56, the President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office.
  • President is Indirectly elected in India.
  • Except for the Legislative Councils of States, the President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of both the Houses of the Parliament, the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry.
  • The total weightage in the voting of all the MPs and MLAs is roughly the same and among states, the weightage is according to the population.
<br>

Important Points

  • The manner of election of the President is provided by Article 55 of the Constitution.

Question 70

Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India :

  1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.
  2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the State.
  3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the State.
  4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only

Key Points

  • Article 15 deals with the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. But it also says “Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of Article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes”.Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true
  • Article 30 deals with the Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions and not with the admission of schedule castes and scheduled tribes to the minority educational institutions. Hence the Statement 4 is wrong

 

  • The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes comprise about 16.6% and 8.6%, respectively, of India's population.

Question 71

Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes

  1. Rights of transgenders
  2. Rights of craniopagus twins
  3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The Article 21 includes all the three points mentioned above, i.e.

  • Rights of trans genders
  • Rights of craniopagus twins
  • Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child
<br>

Note:

**Article 21 says that “**No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.”

  • Right to life: ‘Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person’.
  • Right to personal liberty: In this country it is a fundamental right of everyone to live with dignity and a life free from exploitation.

Question 72

Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

  1. AOption (a)

    N. G. Ayyangar

  2. BOption (b)

    K. M. Munshi

  3. COption (c)

    B. N. Rau

  4. DOption (d)

    Muhammad Saadulah

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B. N. Rau

Why this answer is correct

Among the given options B.N Rau was not the member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent assembly.

  • There were 7 members in the drafting committee and one Constitutional Adviser
  • Drafting committee was headed by B.R Ambedkar
<br>

Note: B.N Rau was the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly.

Question 73

Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century?

  1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits
  2. The discovery of steam power
  3. The introduction of railways
  4. The regular supply of raw materials

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The factors for Industrial Revolution in England were all of the options given.

  • The large deposits of iron and coal near the surface provided the raw materials, which enhanced the Industrial revolution.
  • The icon of the Industrial Revolution was the steam engine, which were used in all sorts of applications.
  • Mainly the raw materials was the basis of industrialisation in the industrial revolution.
<br>

Note:

  • The Industrial Revolution was a process of change from an agrarian and handicraft economy to the one dominated by machines and industries.
  • It began in the 18th century in Britain.

Question 74

Which of the following indicators have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016-17?

  1. Efficiency enhancer sub index
  2. Innovation and sophistication factors sub index
  3. Life expectancy enhancer sub index

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The answer is 1 and 2 only

Indicators used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016-17 were:

  • Efficiency enhancer sub index
  • Innovation and sophistication factors sub index
<br>

Note:

  • The Global Competitiveness Index evaluates the potential of countries to provide welfare to their citizens.
  • The Index basically measures the economic prosperities

Question 75

In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004-05 to

  1. AOption (a)

    2007-08

  2. BOption (b)

    2008-09

  3. COption (c)

    2010-11

  4. DOption (d)

    2011-12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2011-12

Why this answer is correct

The base year of the Gross domestic product series has been shifted from 2004-2005 to 2011-12

Note:

  • The Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, revises the base year of the macroeconomic indicators, as a regular exercise, to capture structural changes in the economy and improve the quality and representativeness of the indices.
  • In this direction, the base year of the all-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) has also been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 to not only reflect the changes in the industrial sector but to also align it with the base year of other macroeconomic indicators like the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

Question 76

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List**-I (Type of Deficit)**List-II (Explanation)
(A) Fiscal Deficit(1) Total Expenditure Revenue Receipts & Non-debt Capital Receipts
(B) Revenue Deficit(2) Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
(C) Effective Revenue Deficit(3) Revenue Deficit - Grants for Creation of Capital Assets
(D) Primaiy Deficit(4) Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Why this answer is correct

The perfect match is follows:

(Type of Deficit)(Explanation)
Fiscal DeficitTotal Expenditure Revenue Receipts & Non-debt Capital Receipts
Revenue DeficitRevenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
Effective Revenue DeficitRevenue Deficit - Grants for Creation of Capital Assets
Primary DeficitFiscal Deficit - Interest Payments

 

Note: A deficit is an amount by which something, especially a sum of money falls short of a mark.

Question 77

Consider the following:

  1. Tughlaqabad Fort
  2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden
  3. Qutub Minar
  4. Fatehpur Sikri

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of building the above monuments?

  1. AOption (a)

    3, 1, 4, 2

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 1, 2, 4

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3, 2, 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3, 4, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3, 1, 2, 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct chronological order is:

  • Qutub Minar
  • Tughlaqabad Fort
  • Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden
  • Fatehpur Sikri

Note:

  • Qutub Minar - Qutub-ud-din-aibak, founder of Delhi Sultanate, started the construction of Qutub Minar’s first storey around 1192.
  • Tughlaqabad Fort - It was built by Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, founder of Tughlaq dynasty in 1321.
  • Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden - It was constructed in 1490 CE.
  • Fatehpur Sikri - The city was founded as the capital of Mughal Empire in 1571.

Question 78

With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among the following scholars argued that “the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Irfan Habib

  2. BOption (b)

    Satish Chandra

  3. COption (c)

    Athar Ali

  4. DOption (d)

    J. F. Richards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Irfan Habib

Why this answer is correct

The answer is Irfan Habib

With regard to nature of Mughal State, Irfan Habib argued that “the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation”.

Note: Irfan Habib argued for the crisis related to cultivated land, he broadly accepts the concentrated nature of Mughal polity and the large amount of surplus that the land-tax represented.

Question 79

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Type of Land)                           List-II (Meaning)

A. Urvara                                           1. Land watered by a river

B. Maru                                              2. Fertile land        

C. Nadimatrika                                   3. Land watered by rain     

D. Devamatrika                                  4. Desert land

  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-1, C-4, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows

Type of landMeaning
UrvaraFertile land
MaruDesert land
NadimatrikaLand watered by a river
DevamatrikaLand watered by rain

 

In Amarakosha, land has been grouped according to fertility, physical composition and situation like-

  • Urvara - Fertile land
  • Usara - Barren land
  • Maru - Desert land
  • Aprahata - Fallow land
  • Saadvala - Grassy land
  • Pankila - Muddy land
  • Jalapraayamanupam - Wet land
  • Nadimaatraka - Land watered by river
  • Devamaatraka - Land watered by rain
<br>

Note: In Vedic age, land was classified as Urvara (cultivable land), Khila (barren land), Dhanva (waste land) and Aranya (forest)

Question 80

Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890?

  1. AOption (a)

    K. T. Telang

  2. BOption (b)

    Veeresalingam

  3. COption (c)

    N. G. Chandavarkar

  4. DOption (d)

    K. N. Natarajan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

K. N. Natarajan

Why this answer is correct

The editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890 was K. N. Natarajan (Kamakshi Natarajan).

Note: The journal Indian Social Reformer worked to grow the small rural society into the modern society.

Question 81

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Industrial Region)            List-II (Country)

A. Leipzig                                     1. USA

B. Detroit                                      2. UK         

C. Lorraine                                   3. France 

D. Cumberland                             4.  Germany

  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

Industrial regionLocation
LeipzigGermany
DetroitUSA
LorraineFrance
CumberlandUK

 

Note:

  • Industrial regions are the areas, where centralisation of industries has occurred due to favourable geo-economic conditions.
  • These are areas within which manufacturing industry is carried out on a relatively large scale and employs a relatively large proportion of population.

Question 82

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Mountain Range) 

List-II (Location in Map)

A. Satpura

B. Vindhya

C. Aravalli

D. Mahadeo

  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Why this answer is correct

  • Satpura mountain range is the part of Deccan plateau. The hills stretch for some 900 km across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states.
  • Vindhya mountain range from Gujarat state on the west, it extends about 1,086 km across MadhyaPradesh state to touch Ganga River valley near Varanasi, UttarPradesh.
  • Aravalli mountain range runs north-east for 560 km and mostly in Rajasthan
  • Mahadeo mountain range is in the northern part of the Satpura range, in the southern Madhya Pradesh state.
<br>

Note:

India has seven highest mountain ranges:

  • The Himalaya Range
  • Karakoram and Pir Panjal Range
  • Eastern Mountain range or The Purvanchal Range
  • The Satpura and Vindhaya Range
  • The Aravalli Range
  • The Western Ghats
  • The Eastern Ghats

Question 83

Which of the following statements in respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau are correct?

  1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South.
  2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.
  3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers.
  4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaean granite and gneiss rocks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

  • The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South. It extends over 8 Indian states
  • The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers. Its highest point is Dhupgarh
  • The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaean granite and gneiss rocks. Its highest point is Pareshnath Hill.
  • Vindhyan scarps forms the southern wall of the Malwa plateau in Madhya Pradesh. Malwa plateau is of volcanic origin.

Additional Information

  • Peninsular Plateau is triangular shaped, the extension of this is from the south of Indo-Ganga Plain to the Kanyakumari.
  • It is one of the oldest surfaces of the earth and represents a segregated part of the old Gondwanaland.

Question 84

Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of States in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Population

  2. BOption (b)

    Income distance

  3. COption (c)

    Area

  4. DOption (d)

    Tax effort

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Income distance

Why this answer is correct

The answer is “Income distance”

  • Article 280 of the Indian Constitution requires the composition of the Finance Commission in every five years
  • The Finance Commission is required to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes of the Union between the Union and the States
  • The recommendation of tax devolution at 42% is a huge jump from the 32% recommended by the 13th Finance Commission
  • Y. V. Reddy is the chairman of 14th Finance commission
  • Criteria and weights for the horizontal distribution of the tax is as follows;

 

CriteriaWeight (%)
1. Income Distance50
2. Population (1971)17.5
3. Area15
4. Demographic Change (2011)10
5. Forest Cover7.5

 

  • Uttar Pradesh has the biggest share in the taxes of union government followed by the Bihar and Madhya Pradesh.
<br>

Note: N.K. Singh is the Chairman of 15th Finance Commission.

Question 85

A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Two

Why this answer is correct

A Money bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, for a period of fourteen days, i.e. ‘two weeks’.

  • Rajya Sabha can’t vote on Money bill
  • Decision of Speaker of Lok Sabha on Money bill is final and can’t be challenged.
<br>

Note: A Money bill is a bill that is simply concerned with taxation or appropriation of money, as opposed to changes in public law.

Question 86

Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 310

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 311

  3. COption (c)

    Article 312

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 317

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 311

Why this answer is correct

Constitutional safeguards available to the civil servants are ensured by the Article 311 of the Indian constitution.

Note: The article 311 acts as a safeguard to civil servants.

The procedure laid down in Article 311 is intended to assure,

  • A measure of security of tenure to Government servants, who are covered by the Article.
  • To provide certain safeguards against arbitrary dismissal or removal of a Government servant or reduction to a lower rank.

Question 87

A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mandamus

  2. BOption (b)

    Habeas corpus

  3. COption (c)

    Certiorari

  4. DOption (d)

    Prohibition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Habeas corpus

Why this answer is correct

A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is Habeas corpus.

  • Mandamus means ‘We command’. It is an order from the Supreme Court or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform a public or statutory duty.
  • Certiorari means ‘To be certified’. The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme Court or any High court for quashing the order already passed by an interior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
  • Prohibition means to forbid or to stop and it is popularly known as ‘Stay order’.
<br>

Note:

  • The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part 3 of the Indian Constitution under Article 32.
  • The power to issue writs is primarily a provision made to make available the Right to constitutional remedies to every citizen.

Question 88

Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?

  1. AOption (a)

    Constitutional Amendment

  2. BOption (b)

    CAG Report

  3. COption (c)

    Annual Financial Statement

  4. DOption (d)

    Bill to alter the boundaries of any

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Annual Financial Statement

Why this answer is correct

Annual Financial Statement cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha.

Note: Annual Financial Statement is a document presented to the Parliament in every financial year as a part of Budget process under the Article 112 of the constitution of India.

Question 89

The National Commission for Women was created by

  1. AOption (a)

    an amendment in the Constitution of India

  2. BOption (b)

    a decision of the Union Cabinetज़

  3. COption (c)

    an Act passed by the Parliament

  4. DOption (d)

    an order of the President of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

an Act passed by the Parliament

Why this answer is correct

The National Commission for Women was created under the provisions of the Indian Constitution by an Act passed by the Parliament

Note:

  • The National Commission for Women was established in January in 1992.
  • Its objective is to represent the rights of women in India and to provide a voice for their issues and concerns including dowry, politics, religion, and equal representation for women in jobs.

Question 90

Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?

  1. AOption (a)

    M. Hidayatullah

  2. BOption (b)

    A. S. Anand

  3. COption (c)

    A. M. Ahmadi

  4. DOption (d)

    P. N. Bhagwati

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

P. N. Bhagwati

Why this answer is correct

P. N. Bhagwati, was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System.

Note: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is the legal practice to help the poor people or an action initiated for the protection of Public interest.

Question 91

Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harsha

  2. BOption (b)

    Govindachandra

  3. COption (c)

    Lakshmidhara

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalidasa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lakshmidhara

Why this answer is correct

The twelfth century Sanskrit scholar who was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts was ‘Lakshmidhara’.

Note: The compilation of nibandhas is known as Kalpataru, which is based on the various Hindu aspects such as dharmas, vedas and puranas.

Question 92

Who among the following scholars argued that “capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bill Warren

  2. BOption (b)

    Paul Baran

  3. COption (c)

    Geoffrey Kay

  4. DOption (d)

    Lenin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Geoffrey Kay

Why this answer is correct

Geoffrey Kay’s not so famous dictum is “capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough”.

Note: “Development and Underdevelopment: A Marxist Analysis” is one of the books written by Geoffrey Kay.

Question 93

Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cauvery

  2. BOption (b)

    Godavari

  3. COption (c)

    Saraswati

  4. DOption (d)

    Ganges

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cauvery

Why this answer is correct

  • The fifth century Tamil epic Silappadikaram, praises the river Cauvery.
  • It features an unusual praise of the Sun, the Moon, the river Cauvery and the city of Poompuhar at its beginning, the contemporary tradition being to praise a deity.

Note: Silappadikaram is one of the five great epics and the earliest poem in the Tamil literature.

Question 94

Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

  2. BOption (b)

    It marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

  3. COption (c)

    It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

  4. DOption (d)

    It marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

Why this answer is correct

Harappan Culture didn’t mark the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

  • It was the first civilization in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Harappans are believed to have used Indus Script, a language consisting of symbols. The script has not been deciphered yet but it is known that they used to write from right to left.
  • Male torso and the Bearded priest are the two remarkable stone sculptures of Harappa civilization.
<br>

Note: Copper and bronze were in use during the Harappa civilization.

Question 95

Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

  1. AOption (a)

    Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha

  2. BOption (b)

    Varman Dynasty of Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Nanda Dynasty of North India

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Varman Dynasty of Assam

Why this answer is correct

  • Bhaskara belonged to Varman Dynasty of Assam.
  • He was the most eminent of the monarchs of the ancient kingdom of Kamarupa
<br>

Note: It was established by Pushyavarman.

Question 96

Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh?

  1. Tso Kar
  2. Pangong Tso
  3. Tsomgo
  4. Tso Moriri

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “1, 2 and 4”

  • Tsomgo lake is in Sikkim and rest all other lakes are in Ladakh.
  • Tso kar is a fluctuating salt lake.
  • During winter the Pangong Tso lake freezes completely, despite being saline water.
  • Tso moriri is the largest high-altitude lake in India
<br>

Note: Tsomgo lake is also known as Changu Lake

Question 97

‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why?

  1. AOption (a)

    Potato plant that could grow in high altitude

  2. BOption (b)

    Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found

  3. COption (c)

    New innovative technology to meet global warming

  4. DOption (d)

    A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise”

  • Tuvalu is a group of nine tiny islands in the South Pacific
  • Its population is around 10000
  • No point in the country is higher than 4.5m above sea level in the country and is in a threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise due to global warming
<br>

Note: It won Independence from the United Kingdom in 1978

Question 98

Which of the following statements related to latitude are true?

  1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.
  2. The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.
  3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6°45' N latitude.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

Statement 1: Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.

  • At equator, the rainfall is maximum, and amount of rainfall generally decreases away from equator.
  • Temperature also generally decreases away from the equator.
  • Vegetation depends upon rainfall and temperature and hence it also varies with latitude.
<br>

Statement 2: The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.

  • At latitude 0° (the Equator) day length will be approximately 12 hours.
  • Areas on the Equator have a constant 12 hours of day light all year round.
  • Moving away from the Equator as latitude increases to polar circles - north or south-day length can be seen to increase to 24 hours in summer or decrease to zero in winter.
<br>

Statement 3: Indira Point is located approximately at 6°45' N latitude. It is the southern-most tip of India.

Note:

  • Latitudes are the angular distances of a place north or south of the earth's equator, or of the equator of a celestial object.
  • For reference Equator is taken as 0° and the latitudes of both the poles are at 90° to the Equator.

Question 99

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Lake)List II (Type of Lake)
A.  Bhimtal1.  Lagoon
B.  Ashtamudi2.  Landslide
C.  Gohna3.  Tectonic
D.  Lonar4.  Crater
  1. AOption (a)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-2, C-1 D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-2 C-1 D-3

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

(Lake)(Type of Lake)
Bhimtal (Uttrakhand)Tectonic
Ashtamudi (Kerala)Lagoon
Gohna (Uttrakhand)Landslide
Lonar (Maharashtra)Crater

 

Note:

  • Tectonic lakes are lakes formed by the deformation and resulting lateral and vertical movements of the Earth's crust
  • Lagoon lakes are shallow bodies of water which got separated from a larger body of water by some barrier or reefs
  • A landslide dam or barrier lake is a natural damming of a river by some kind of landslides, such as debris flows and rock avalanches, or by volcanic eruptions
  • A crater lake is a lake that forms in a volcanic crater or caldera

Question 100

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.
  2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.
  3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only

Statement 1: Himalayan rivers are perennial. Hence, 1st statement is wrong.

Statement 2: Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity and cause less erosion. Hence, 2nd statement is true.

Statement 3: Himalayan rivers are generally in a young state and depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion. Hence, 3rd statement is true.

Note:

  • The longest river in India is Ganga stretching over 2525 km.
  • Nile is credited as the longest river in the world stretching over 6695 km

Question 101

Match List— I with List— II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (States of NE India)

 

List-II (Location in Map)                     

A.         Tripura

B.         Mizoram                                            

C.         Nagaland                                                        

D.         Manipur

  1. AOption (a)

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Why this answer is correct

Note: Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram share their border with Myanmar while Tripura and Mizoram share their border with Bangladesh.

Question 102

Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

  2. BOption (b)

    The State shall endeavor to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

  3. COption (c)

    It is not enforceable by any Court.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is not enforceable by a Court, yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

Key Points

  • Article 44 - It is a directive principle for the state but not a fundamental right of every citizen. Hence the statement 1 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Article 44 of the Constitution says that there should be a Uniform Civil Code.
  • According to this article, “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”. Since the Directive Principles are only guidelines, it is not mandatory to use them.
  • Article 36-51 deals with the directive principles of state policy.
  • Though they are not enforceable by any court but should be fundamental in the governance of our country and the state shall endeavor to secure them for citizens throughout the territory of India.
  • Hence the statement 2,3 and 4 are correct.

 

  • Directive principles of our state are inspired by the Constitution of Ireland.

Question 103

Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

  1. Atmiya Sabha
  2. Brahmo Samaj
  3. Prarthana Samaj
  4. Arya Samaj
  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

  • Atmiya Sabha and Brahmo Samaj were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  • Prarthana samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang
  • Arya samaj was founded by Dayanand Saraswati
<br>

Note: Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known as the father of the Indian Renaissance

Hence, Answer is 1 and 2 only

Question 104

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

noList-I (Harappan Site)NOList-II (Modem Name)
ADholavira1Saurashtra
BRakhigarhi2Hisar
CBhirrana3Kadir Island
DBhogavo4Haryana
  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct match is as follows:

Harappan siteFamous forModern name
DholaviraStone buildings, Lake cityKadir Island
RakhigarhiBiggest Harappan siteHisar
BhirranaOldest Harappan siteHaryana
BhogavoA tributary of Sabarmati riverSaurashtra

 

Note: The entire population was settled around the basins of the Indus River and Ghaggar-Hakra river.

Question 105

Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian History is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

  2. BOption (b)

    The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

  3. COption (c)

    Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

  4. DOption (d)

    Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

Why this answer is correct

  • The condition of women in the Gupta Empire period slowly deteriorated and the women were given secondary position in the Gupta Empire society.
  • It was expected from a woman to obey her father before she was married, then after marriage obey her husband and finally to obey her son.
  • Since education was given importance during this period, women were permitted to obtain an education. They were however restricted from studying sacred texts or even participate in any rituals.
  • Right to property was not there for women
<br>

Note: The time of the Gupta Empire is referred to as Golden Age of India in Science, Mathematics, Astronomy, Religion and Philosophy.

Question 106

Which one of the following statements about the All India Services is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.

  2. BOption (b)

    The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

  3. COption (c)

    The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC..

  4. DOption (d)

    The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament”.

  • The All India Services comprises the three prestigious civil services of India and they are the Indian Administrative Service (IAS); Indian Police Service (IPS); and Indian Forest Service (IFS).
  • The common exceptional feature of the All India Services is that the candidates selected for these civil services are recruited by the Center, however, their services are allotted under various State Cadres and they have the accountability to serve both under the State and the Centre.
  • The officers of these three civil services acts in accordance with the All India Services Rules that includes paying, deportment, leave, several allowances and etc.
  • All India Service can be created only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares, by resolution supported by not less than a two-thirds majority, that it is necessary in the national interest to create one or more such All India Services.
<br>

Note: Article 312 provides for the creation of All India Services.

Question 107

Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.

  3. COption (c)

    Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.
  • The Governor does not have the power to declare any of the three types of emergency, but he can send a report to the President on the need to impose state emergency.
  • Article 360 deals with the provisions related to a financial emergency.

Additional Information

Sr. no.Emergency provisions basics
1The Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360.
2These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
3The rationality behind the incorporation of these provisions in the Constitution is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution.
4During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all-powerful and the states go into total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
5The kind of transformation of the political system from federal during normal times to unitary during Emergencies is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution.
6Dr. B.R. Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly that "All federal systems including American are placed in a tight mold of federalism. No matter what the circumstances, it cannot change its form and shape. It can never be unitary. On the other hand, the Constitution of India can be both unitary as well as federal according to the requirements of time and circumstances. In normal times, it is framed to work as a federal system. But in times of Emergency, it is so designed as to make it work as though it was a unitary system."

Question 108

The National Handloom Day is observed on

  1. AOption (a)

    7th June

  2. BOption (b)

    17th July

  3. COption (c)

    7th August

  4. DOption (d)

    17th September

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7th August

Why this answer is correct

The date August 7 has been chosen as National Handloom Day

  • It was on this day that the Swadeshi Movement was launched in 1905.
  • The movement involved revival of domestic products and production processes.
  • In keeping with this, every year artisans and weavers are presented with ‘Sant Kabir’ awards to promote their handiwork and Indian crafts.
<br>

Note: First National Handloom Day was observed in 2015

Question 109

Venus, the first environmental research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which one of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    Israel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Israel

Why this answer is correct

Israel launched its first environmental satellite into space from the Centre Spatial Guyana’s in French Guiana

  • It is an earth observation and exploratory mission of the Israel Space Agency (ISA) and the French CNES space agency
  • It is equipped with an innovative electric propulsion system for operation in a special orbit
  • The satellite weighed 265 kg upon launch and entered Sun-synchronous orbit
<br>

Note:                                                                                                   

  • Venus stands for Vegetation and Environment monitoring on a New Micro Satellite
  • It is dedicated to monitoring the effects of climate change on vegetation.

Question 110

Which one of the following was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    Green Economy ∶ Does it include you?

  2. BOption (b)

    Connecting People to Nature

  3. COption (c)

    Think, Eat, Save

  4. DOption (d)

    Many Species, One Planet, One Future

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Connecting People to Nature

Why this answer is correct

The answer is “Connecting People to Nature”

  • World Environment Day is the UN's most important day for encouraging worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment.
  • It was celebrated for first time in 1974
  • Host country for 2018 was India
<br>

Note: The theme for 2018 was beating plastic pollution

Question 111

The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not one of them?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fremantle

  2. BOption (b)

    Lyttelton

  3. COption (c)

    Port Stanley

  4. DOption (d)

    Durban

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Durban

Why this answer is correct

  • NavikaSagarParikrama is the name of expedition for circumnavigation the globe on INSV Tarini by Indian Navy's Women Naval Officers
  • The six-member all-woman team was led by Lieutenant Commander Vartika Joshi
  • During their circumnavigation journey the crew made four stopover –

            

Fremantle (Australia)

Lyttleton (New Zealand)

Port Stanley (Falklands)

Cape Town (South Africa)

Note: INSV Tarini is the second sailboat of the Indian Navy.

Question 112

Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?

  1. AOption (a)

    States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

  2. BOption (b)

    GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.

  3. COption (c)

    The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

  4. DOption (d)

    The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.

Why this answer is correct

GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case is the correct answer.

  • Through Article 246, the Constitution provides for clear division of powers in respect of taxation between the Centre and states and divisions are mentioned under the Seventh Schedule of the constitution.
  • While before the constitutional amendment, the Centre didn’t have the right to tax sale of goods, except in the case of inter-state sale and states couldn’t levy tax on services.
  • Therefore, Constitutional amendment was required to introduce GST.

Note: In the case of Inter-state supply of goods or services or both, only Parliament will have the power.

Question 113

Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Lahore

  3. COption (c)

    Amritsar

  4. DOption (d)

    Islamabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Amritsar

Why this answer is correct

  • The museum is located in the heart of Amritsar
  • The museum is a Non-profit trust
  • It is World’s first Partition Museum

 

Note:

  • Companies like Airtel and the Hindustan Times have donated for the museum
  • The Punjab government donated the space

Question 114

The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India is a programme for

  1. AOption (a)

    Building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

  2. BOption (b)

    Building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

  3. COption (c)

    Building roads to connect coastal areas

  4. DOption (d)

    Training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

Why this answer is correct

Setu Bharatam programme is for building bridges for safe and seamless travel on National Highways.

  • Setu Bharatam programme aims to make all National Highways free of railway level crossings by 2019.
  • 208 Railway Over Bridges (ROB)/Railway Under Bridges (RUB) will be built at the level crossings
  • About 1500 old and worn-down bridges will also be improved.
<br>

Note:

The Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has also established an Indian Bridge Management System (IBMS). The aim is to carry out conditions survey and inventorization of all bridges on National Highways in India by using Mobile Inspection Units

Question 115

Which one of the following statements about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’, is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The size of the project is about USD 25 million.

  2. BOption (b)

    The duration of the project is 15 years.

  3. COption (c)

    The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the project.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The duration of the project is 15 years.

Why this answer is correct

  • The project duration is 5 years and not 15 years.
  • The objective of the Project is to strengthen the institutional capacity of the Departments of Forestry and Community Organizations to enhance forest ecosystem services and improve the livelihoods of forest dependent communities in Central Indian Highlands.
  • It is being implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC)
<br>

Note: States of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are chosen for implementation.

Question 116

UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation, stands for

  1. AOption (a)

    Union Basic Income

  2. BOption (b)

    Undefined Basic Income

  3. COption (c)

    Unconditional Basic Income

  4. DOption (d)

    Universal Basic Income

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Universal Basic Income

Why this answer is correct

UBI stands for “Universal Basic Income”

  • It was recommended by the Economic Survey 2016-17 as an alternative to the various subsidy focused social welfare schemes that aim to reduce poverty.
  • As per the Survey, UBI that reduces poverty to 0.5 per cent would cost between 4-5 percent of GDP
<br>

Note: Iran is the first country to Introduce basic income at a national level

Question 117

Which one of the following authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and ‘FASTag Partner?

  1. AOption (a)

    Telecom Regulatory Authority

  2. BOption (b)

    National Highways Authority

  3. COption (c)

    Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

  4. DOption (d)

    National Disaster Management Authority

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

National Highways Authority

Why this answer is correct

National Highways Authority of India launched two mobile Apps – MyFASTag and FASTag Partner.

  • These apps were launched to facilitate the availability of FASTags for Electronic Toll Collection.
  • Electronic Toll Collection aims to make travel more convenient, faster and environment friendly for people.
<br>

Note: MyFASTag is a consumer App while FASTag Partner is a merchant App

Question 118

‘Pragati’ scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Higher education of girls

  2. BOption (b)

    Technical education of girls

  3. COption (c)

    Secondary education of girls

  4. DOption (d)

    Elementary education of girls

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Technical education of girls

Why this answer is correct

Pragati is aimed at providing assistance for Advancement of Girls pursuing Technical Education.

  • “Pragati” is an MHRD Scheme
  • Eligibility for getting the scholarship-
<br>

Girls belonging to a family having only two girl child and not earning more than 8 lakhs are eligible.

  • Total Number of Scholarship - 4000 per Annum
  • Amount of scholarship: Tuition Fee of Rs. 30,000/- or at actual, whichever is less and Rs. 2000/- per month for 10 months as incidental charges each year.
<br>

Note: It is being implemented by AICTE

Question 119

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)?

  1. AOption (a)

    It focuses on community participation.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament.

  3. COption (c)

    It aims at creating infrastructure for the village.

  4. DOption (d)

    A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It aims at creating infrastructure for the village.

Why this answer is correct

Its aim is to develop villages and not only infrastructure.

Key Points

Features of Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana:

  • Each Member of Parliament (MP) will take up the responsibility of providing infrastructure and developing three villages by 2019.
  • The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by Government of India.
  • The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.
  • It focuses on community participation. Social mobilization of village community can trigger a chain of other development activities in the village. For instance, reducing risk behaviours like alcoholism, smoking, substance abuse (drugs/tobacco/gutkha etc) among all age groups of population.
  • A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat so as to empower the poor families.
  • Gram Panchayat would be the basic unit for development
<br>

Note: It aims at developing 2500 villages by 2019

Question 120

Which one of the following is NOT included in the National Air Quality Index?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sulphur dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitrogen dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Lead

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Disclaimer: We have changed the statement and options of this question slightly as UPSC dismissed this question in the official answer key.

All of them are included in the National Air Quality Index

  • Concentration of Air pollutants like PM10, PM2.5, NO2, O3, CO, SO2, NH3 and Pb in the air is computed to determine the Air Quality through National Air Quality Index.
  • It is aimed at balancing environment, conservation and development.
  • The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change launched ‘The National Air Quality Index’ (AQI) in New Delhi
  • There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.
<br>

Note: National Air Quality Index is ‘One Number- One Colour-One Description’ for the common man to judge the air quality within his vicinity.

120 questions in the full paper