CDS General Knowledge 5 Feb 2017 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Polynucleotide is a molecule is a biopolymer composed of 13 or more nucleotide monomers covalently bonded in a chain.

The correct answer is Transcription.

Key Points

Following are major reasons for the transmission of HIV infection:

• Sexual intercourse through vaginal, rectal, or penile tissues.
• Direct injection with HIV-contaminated drugs, needles, syringes, blood or blood products.
• From HIV-infected mother to foetus in uterus, through intrapartum inoculation from mother to infant or during breast-feeding.

In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms leading to formation of benign and malignant tumours.

• Most viruses that infect plants possess single-stranded RNA.
• DNA- Deoxyribonucleic acid is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms.
• RNA-Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a polymeric molecule essential in various biological roles in coding, decoding, regulation, and expression of genes.

• When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then the doped silicon piece will become p-type.
• Doping is the process of adding impurities to intrinsic semiconductors to alter their properties. Normally trivalent and pentavalent elements are used to dope Silicon and Germanium.

• Power dissipated across a parallel combination = Sum of the power of each component (same as with series circuits)
• Power dissipated = V²/R

In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each of the components remains the same.

So, Power dissipated in the second circuit will be 3P.

• Semiconductor- A substance that has a conductivity between that of an insulator and that of most metals, either due to the addition of an impurity or because of temperature effects.
• Examples of Semiconductor Materials - Germanium, Seleniumand Silicon etc.

• Parallel Plate Capacitors are the type of capacitors which are formed by arrangement of two or more parallel conductive plates which are not connected or touching each other but are electrically separated either by air or by some form of a good insulating material.
• Capacitance is directly proportional to value of dielectric constant. Hence Capacitance will be 7C.

• For a ring the centre of mass lies outside the body i.e. at the centre of curvature of the ring.
• Centre of mass of a distribution of mass in space is the unique point where the weighted relative position of the distributed mass sums to zero, or the point where if a force is applied it moves in the direction of the force without rotating.
• The centre of mass may be located outside the physical body in case of hollow or open-shaped objects.

• Heating of platinum crucible is a physical change as in this process formation of new substance do not take place and the change is reversible.
• Physical change is the change from one phase of matter (solid, liquid, or gas) to another and the substance is not altered.
• Chemical change is a process in which a substance is permanently altered.

• The pH value of a sample of multiple-distilled water is very near to seven.
• pH stands for power of hydrogen, which is a measurement of the hydrogen ion concentration in the body.

Atomic number is the most characteristic property of an element.

Concept:

Key Points

• The mass number of both Calcium and Argon is 40.
• Calcium and Argon are isobars, as both have the same mass number and different atomic numbers.

• J. J. Thomson, who discovered the electron in 1897, proposed the plum pudding model of the atom in 1904 before the discovery of the atomic nucleus in order to include the electron in the atomic model.
• He proposed that atoms have a structure like a plum pudding, with tiny, negatively charged electrons embedded in a positively charged substrate. This was later shown to be incorrect.

Number of atoms = No: of moles × Avogadro no:

Given mass of Na (Sodium) = 46 g

Molar mass of Na = 23 g

No of moles = Given mass ÷ Molar mass

= 46 ÷ 23

= 2 moles

∴ Number of atoms = 2 moles × N (N = Avogadro constant)

= 2N

• For the purpose of Census 2011-A person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate.
• Census 2011: Total population: 1,210,193,422
• Literacy rate: 74.04%

• Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis (a series of floating islands) floating over it.
• The lake is located near Moirang town in Manipur state.

The correct answer is: Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

Key Points 

A volcano is a rupture in the crust of a planetary-mass object, such as Earth, that allows hot lava, volcanic ash, and gases to escape from a magma chamber below the surface. The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is a radial drainage pattern.

In mammalian heart the heartbeat originates from Sinoatrial node. Mammalian circulatory system is divided into three circuits: the systemic circuit, the pulmonary circuit, and the coronary circuit.

• Plant Growth Regulators are defined as small, simple chemicals produced naturally by plants to regulate their growth and development.
• Plant Growth Regulators can be of a diverse chemical composition such as Indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpenes
• Plant Growth Promoters – They promote cell division, cell enlargement, flowering, fruiting and seed formation.
• Examples are auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.

Visible light - that which is detectable by the human eye - consists of wavelengths ranging from approximately 750 nanometres (7.50 x 10-7 m) down to 380 nanometres (3.80 x 10-7 m).

Wire A

Length = l

Radius = r

Resistance = $\rho \times l/\pi {r^2}$

Wire B

Length = l

Radius = 2r

Resistance = $\rho \times l/4\pi {r^2}$

Let R_p = Effective resistance of parallel combination

1/R_p= 1/R₁ + 1/R₂

1/R_p = 1/$\rho \times l/\pi {r^2}$+ 1/$\rho \times l/4\pi {r^2}$

1/R_p = $\rho l/5\pi {r^2}$

R_p = R/5

The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor depends upon

• The distance between the two plates of capacitor
• The area of parallel plates of capacitor
• Dielectric material

• The wavelength of X-ray photon is less than the wavelength of visible radiation photon.
• Both the photons have different energies.
• The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are same.
• The frequency of X-ray photon is higher than the frequency of visible radiation photon

• The ‘Project Tiger’ was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973.
• It was launched in order to ensure the conservation of the national animal of the country, tiger.
• The main objective is to ensure healthy population of tigers in India.
• The National Tiger Conservation Authority is the administering body of this program.
• At present, there are 50 tiger reserves in India among which Kamlang Tiger Reserve (Arunachal Pradesh), Orang Tiger Reserve (Assam) etc. are in the north-eastern part of India.

• Indian Railways manages the fourth-largest railway network in the world by size after USA, China and Russia.
• The railway network in India is well-connected except in the Himalayan Regions of the country.
• In India, there are 18 railway zones at present, including the Kolkata Metro.

• The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.
• Viticulture(grape cultivation) is a speciality of the Mediterranean region
• It is practised on both sides of the Mediterranean Sea in Europe and in North Africa from Tunisia to Atlantic coast, Southern California, Central Chile, south western parts of South Africa.
• This region is an important supplier of citrus fruits.

• Winter Solstice is an astronomical phenomenon when the day is the shortest whereas the night is the longest.
• It takes place when the North Pole has the maximum tilt away from the Sun.
• This generally falls on December 22 every year.
• On this day, the North Pole does not experience any sunlight.

• Tropical rainforests are rainforests that occur in areas of tropical rainforest climate in which there is no dry season – all months have an average precipitation of at least 60 mm – and may also be referred to as lowland equatorial evergreen rainforest.
• Tropical Rainforest biomes are known as the mega-thermal biomes because of the temperature in these areas.
• It is mainly observed in Amazon Basin in South America, Congo Basin in Africa and Indo-Malaysian Region.
• Tropical rainforest biome typically extends between 10° N and 10° S latitudes.

• A tsunami is basically is a series of waves that takes place due to displacement of large volume of water.
• It is also known as seismic sea waves or tidal waves but with high level of energy.
• Tsunami is a Japanese word which means ‘harbour wave’.
• The Pacific Ocean Coasts are exposed to tsunami waves more than any other place in the world.

The Correct answer is: 2 and 3 only

Key Points

• Sudden localized very heavy downpour with thunder and lightning:
• This statement is incorrect.
• While a cloudburst involves a sudden, very heavy downpour over a small area, the presence of thunder and lightning is not a defining feature.
• The critical factor is the intensity and short duration of rainfall, not the occurrence of thunder or lightning.
• Occurrence in hilly areas:
• This statement is correct.
• Cloudbursts are most common in hilly and mountainous regions such as the Himalayas, where orographic uplift forces moisture-laden winds to release rain suddenly.
• Steep terrain and rapid condensation make these regions highly prone to cloudbursts.
• Very high intensity rainfall (250–300 mm in a few hours):
• This statement is correct.
• A cloudburst is characterized by extremely high rainfall intensity, often exceeding 100 mm per hour.
• In some severe cases, rainfall may reach 250–300 mm within a couple of hours, leading to flash floods and landslides.
• Occurs only during daytime:
• This statement is incorrect.
• Cloudbursts can happen at any time of the day or night, depending on atmospheric conditions.
• They are not limited to daytime occurrences.

Additional Information

• Definition of Cloudburst:
• A cloudburst is an extreme rainfall event over a small geographical area within a very short period of time, often leading to flash floods.
• Impact of Cloudburst:
• They cause sudden flooding, landslides, and destruction of property, especially in hilly terrains with narrow valleys.
• Recent Examples:
• Cloudburst events are frequently reported in Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, particularly during the monsoon season.

• Aridisol is generally observed in the arid and semi-arid areas of the world such as the deserts.
• These have a very low density of organic matters resulting in very less vegetative production.
• Lack of water is also very common in case of this type of soil.
• Due to the accumulation of carbonates, gypsum, the subsoil surfaces are cemented.

• Basically there are four normal states of a matter – Solid, Liquid, Gas and Plasma whereas some states such as glass or liquid crystal are known to exist.
• Certain states such as Bose-Einstein Condensates, neutron-degenerate, quark-gluon plasma are known to exist only in extreme conditions.
• The states of matter are defined as the distinct forms in which a matter can exist.

• Chemical properties of an element depend on the number and the configuration of their valence electrons. According to this, all the elements are sorted into 4 blocks: s, p, d, f elements.
• Valence Electron is the outer shell electron that is associated with an atom.

• Cathode Ray is a beam of electrons emitted from the cathode of a vacuum tube.
• Cathode rays themselves are invisible.
• Television picture tubes are the most common examples of the cathode-ray tubes.
• The characteristic of cathode rays does not depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray tube

• Normality (N) - gram - equivalent of solute dissolved in one litre (or one cubic decimetre) of solution.
• Equivalent weight of sulphuric acid = Molecular weight/Valance = 98/2 = 49
• Gram Equivalent of sulphuric acid = Given Mass/ Equivalent weight of sulphuric acid = 49/49 = 1
• Normality = equivalent mass /litre of solution = 1/1 = 1
• Hence answer is One Normal.

• Jet streams are narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere, more particularly, troposphere.
• It follows the wave path near the tropopause at an elevation of 8 km to 15 km.
• They are generally continuous over a long distance and can be thousands of miles long also.
• The polar-front jets are best developed in winter and early spring.

• The Gulf Stream is similar to the Kuroshio Current in the North Pacific Ocean.
• It is a warm and swift current that drifts towards the polar region.
• This is mainly responsible for the climactic conditions along the east coast of the USA.

• Peninsular India is better for sugar production because of tropical climate resulting in higher yield per hectare of land.
• The content of sucrose is high in peninsular India whereas the crushing season is almost double in this part of the country as compared to Northern India.
• Most of the sugar mills are based in Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu in case of peninsular India.

• Mormugao  ports is located on an estuary which is made by  Zuari river.

The correct answer is option 1.

Important Points

• It will replace all central taxes, duties, etc. only with a single tax. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• GST subsumed many taxes levied and collected only by the States like State VAT, Purchase Tax, Entertainment Tax and Amusement Tax, Entry Tax, etc. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• GST would apply to all goods and services except Alcohol for human consumption. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
• GST on five specified petroleum products would be applicable:
• Crude, Petrol, Diesel, ATF & Natural Gas. Hence Statement 4 is not correct.
• GST was passed as the 101st Amendment Act of 2016.
• GST(Goods and Services Tax): is a comprehensive indirect tax on the manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services throughout India.
• The four basic rate structures of GST are 5%. 10%, 18% and 28%.

Key Points

• The motto of GST - "One Nation, One Tax, One Market".
• Three types of taxes in Indian GST are State GST(SGST)/ Union Territory GST(UTGST), Central GST(CGST), and Integrated GST(IGST).
• GST bill was passed by Rajya Sabha on 3rd August 2016.
• GST bill was passed by Lok Sabha on 8th August 2016.
• GST bill was signed by President on 8th September 2016.
• GST came into effect from 1st July 2017.
• Articles deals with the formation of the GST council is 279A.
• The Chairman of the GST council is Union Finance Minister.
• The first Chairman of the GST council is Arun Jaitley.
• The concept of GST was first presented in Parliament by P. Chidambaram in 2005.
• India has chosen the Canadian model of dual GST.
• The first country to introduce GST: France in 1954.

Additional Information

• 102nd Constitution Amendment Act 2018 granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
• 106th Constitution Amendment Bill 2006 proposes to insert a new part IX B in the Constitution (adding Articles 243ZH through 243ZT), which provides for incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies.

• The sensitive information leaked in August 2016 concerns India's Scorpene submarine fleet.
• Around 22400 pages have been leaked in this incident pertaining to the secret design and structure of this class of submarines.

The correct answer is China is the only country with Observer status in SAARC.

Key Points

• SAARC stands for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
• It is a regional intergovernmental organization.
• It was founded on 8 December 1985 in Dhaka.
• It aims to promote the development of economic and regional integration.
• It is headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• The South Asian Free Trade Area was launched on 1st January 2006 to create a free trade zone between its members.
• Md. Golam Sarwar is the current Secretary-General.
• The 18^th summit of SAARC was held in Kathmandu, Nepal from 26 November to 27 November 2014. The theme of the summit was Deeper Integration for Peace and Prosperity, focused on enhancing connectivity between the member states for easier transit-transport across the region.
• Given below is the list of all members of SAARC:
• Afghanistan
• Bangladesh
• Bhutan
• India
• Maldives
• Nepal
• Pakistan
• Sri Lanka
• Afghanistan became the newest member of SAARC at the 13th annual summit in 2007.
• SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population, and 3.8% (US$2.9 trillion) of the global economy.
• China, European Union, Iran, Japan. South Korea, Mauritius, Myanmar, the United States Of America, and Australia are 9 Observers countries to SAARC. Hence, option 2 is Not correct.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points 

• It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
• ✅ Correct – The Ilbert Bill of 1883 proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to Indian judges (mainly for cases involving native officials). They would be allowed to try Europeans in criminal cases, but only for certain offences, under supervision of European magistrates. This was the limited provision that stirred controversy.
• It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.
• ❌ Incorrect – The Ilbert Bill did not propose complete jurisdiction. It only proposed limited jurisdiction for Indian judges in criminal cases, not complete civil and criminal jurisdiction over Europeans.
• The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India.
• ✅ Correct – The Bill faced significant opposition from the European community in India, especially the British, who feared it would lead to unfair trials by Indian judges. They felt the Bill undermined their privileged legal status.
• In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.
• ❌ Incorrect – The Bill did pass, but not without modifications. Due to the strong opposition from the European community, several amendments were made, including limiting the jurisdiction of native officials and introducing certain safeguards. It was finally passed with compromises.
• Conclusion: The correct statements are 1 and 3.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

• The word Swaraj means self-rule.
• Gandhi Ji's call for a ‘Swaraj in Ideas’ was meant to bring about an ethically grounded cognitive transformation in the Indian status quo.
• According to Gandhi Ji, it is Swaraj when we learn to rule ourselves.
• He told that embracing whole-heartedly one’s own civilization was the first step towards attaining Swaraj.
• Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Statement 3 and 4 are opposites of each other. So, if statement 3 is correct then statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• it was Lokmanya Tilak who popularized the concept of Swaraj.
• During the Home Rule Movement of 1916, B. G. Tilak gave the slogan “Swaraj is my birth-right and I shall have it”.
• For Tilak, Swaraj meant the establishment of a democratic state in which the rights and liberties of the people were held to be sacrosanct.
• Hence we can say that swaraj has two senses, one political and one beyond the realm of politics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths
• He was also deeply influenced by the theosophists.
• Gandhi was very much influenced by authors such as Leo Tolstoy.

In 1920 the emerging Akali leadership summoned a general assembly of the Sikhs holding all shades of opinion on 15 November 1920 in the vicinity of the Akal Takht in Amritsar. Hence, it began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the beginning 20^th century.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi delivered an important speech at the opening ceremony of Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916. The university was founded through the efforts of Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya and was attended by many princes, landlords, and members of the Indian elite.
• In this speech, Gandhi strongly criticized the wealthy Indian elite for their lack of concern toward the poor masses. He pointed out the stark contrast between the luxurious lifestyle of the princes and the poverty of the common people of India.
• Gandhi emphasized that India’s real strength lies in its villages and that the salvation of the country can come only through farmers and labourers. He highlighted that true national progress depends on uplifting the rural population.
• The speech also referred to the social injustices prevailing in Indian society, including the neglect and oppression of the untouchables. Gandhi stressed the need to address social inequality and improve the condition of marginalized communities.
• His bold criticism shocked many members of the audience, including some princes and elites, and the speech is often regarded as one of Gandhi’s earliest major political interventions after returning to India from South Africa in 1915.
• The speech marked the beginning of Gandhi’s efforts to connect the national movement with the problems of ordinary people such as peasants, labourers, and socially oppressed groups.

Additional Information

• Banaras Hindu University (BHU): Banaras Hindu University was established in 1916 by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya with support from several Indian princes and leaders. It became one of the largest and most prominent residential universities in Asia and played an important role in promoting modern education along with Indian cultural values.
• Mahatma Gandhi’s Return to India: Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915 after leading successful struggles against racial discrimination. Under the guidance of Gopal Krishna Gokhale, he initially travelled across India to understand the conditions of the people before entering active politics.
• Ahmedabad Mill Workers’ Strike (1918): In 1918, Gandhi mediated a dispute between mill owners and workers in Ahmedabad. He supported the workers’ demand for a wage increase and used the method of satyagraha and fasting to secure justice for labourers.
• Gandhi’s Early Mass Movements: After the BHU speech, Gandhi soon led major movements such as the Champaran Satyagraha (1917) for indigo farmers in Bihar, the Kheda Satyagraha (1918) for peasants suffering from crop failure, and the Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918). These struggles helped establish Gandhi as a national leader and introduced new methods of non-violent resistance in India’s freedom struggle.

Following are the necessary conditions to fight for Panchayat election according to Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015:

• Have a functional toilet at home.
• Have payment slips of power bills
• Not be a cooperative loan defaulter
• Minimum education qualification is class X for general candidates, Class VIII pass for women and Dalit Class V for Dalit women.
• Persons who are charged in a criminal case for an offence that could be punished with imprisonment for not less than 10 years.

• Devendra Jhajharia is an Indian Paralympic javelin thrower competing under the classification of F46 events.
• The first Indian Paralympian to win two gold medals at the Paralympics.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 4.

Key Points

• Clause 2 of Article 243C of Part IX says that All the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area and, for this purpose, each Panchayat area shall be divided into territorial constituencies in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it shall, so far as practicable, be the same throughout the Panchayat area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• According to Article 243 clause (b) - Gram Sabha means a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• According to Article 243G Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government and such law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats at the appropriate level, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to:-
• The preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
• The implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Article 243G mentions "Subjected to the provisions of this Constitution, the Legislature of a State" which says that Panchayats are under the umbrella of the Constitution. Hence, statement 3 is Not correct.

Additional Information

• 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 inserted Part IX (The Panchayats) in the Indian Constitution.
• Article 243, 243A to 243O under Part IX has been included in the Indian Constitution.
• 74rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 inserted Part IXA (The Municipality) in the Indian Constitution.
• Article 243p to 243Z and 243ZA to 243ZG under Part IXA have been included in the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• 4th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
• Article 80 of the Constitution says that the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories.
• All States do not have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is Not correct.
• According to Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament may by law form new States and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States.  Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India is said to be a Quasi-federal state because:-
• The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government as it contains all the usual features of a federation, viz., dual administration, division of powers, written Constitution, the supremacy of Constitution, the rigidity of Constitution, an independent judiciary, and bicameralism.
• However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features such as single citizenship, the union has more power than states, etc. Moreover, Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Supreme Court in Kuldip Nayar v Union of India held that Federalism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India and it is unique in its nature and is tailored according to the specific needs of the country.

Additional Information

• Federal features of the Constitution-
• Dual Polity
• Written Constitution
• Division of Powers
• The supremacy of the Constitution
• Rigid Constitution
• Independent Judiciary
• Bicameralism
• Unitary features of the Constitution-
• Strong Centre
• States not Indestructible
• Single Constitution
• Flexibility
• No Equality of state representation
• Emergency provisions
• Single citizenship
• Integrated Judiciary
• All India Services
• Integrated Election Machinery
• Veto over state bills, among others.

The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization.

• GDP at market prices: If goods and services produced in a year are valued at prevailing market prices in that particular year called GDP at market prices.
• GDP at constant prices: If goods and services produced in a year valued at the prices of base year called GDP at constant prices.

India is not a founder member of TPP.

• Bit coin is a cryptocurrency, a form of electronic cash. It is a decentralized digital currency without a central bank or single administrator.
• It is generated through complex computer software systems.
• Reserve Bank of India does not recognize it as a legal tender.

Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircrafts named “Tejas” to the Indian Air Force in 2016.

Lionel Messi: Born in central Argentina, Messi was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency as a child.

The second observation of gravitational waves was made on 26 December 2015 and announced on 15 June 2016.

• Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of two black holes at about 1.4 billion light-years distant. Only Statement 3 is incorrect.

In the year 2016, the Government of India announced a ₹6,000 core special package for the textile and apparel sector which aims to help in creating one crore jobs, mostly for women, in the next three years. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at Kochi, Kerala at INS Venduruthy.

The correct answer is option (1): A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2

Additional Information

• Rowlatt Act
• The Rowlatt Act was passed in February 1919.
• The official name of this Act was the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act.
• The Act authorized the government to imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial in a court of law.
• The Act curtailed the civil liberties of people and the practice of Habeas Corpus.
• Chauri Chaura Incident
• In February 1922, an angry mob set fire to the police station at Chauri Chaura (Gorakpur district, UP) and 22 policemen were burnt to death.
• Due to this Gandhiji abruptly called off the Non-Cooperation Movement on 11 February 1922.
• Salt March
• Salt March was an act of nonviolent civil disobedience in colonial India led by Gandhiji to produce salt from the seawater in the coastal village of Dandi (now in Gujarat).
• Salt March was also called Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha
• Time Period - From 12 March 1930 to 6 April 1930.
• Significance- A direct action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly.
• Second Round Table Conference
• It was held in London from 7th September 1931 to 1st December 1931.
• British delegates belonging to various political parties including the British Prime Minister, James Ramsay Macdonald.
• Indian princely states are represented by Maharajas, princes and divans.
• British Indians were represented by Indian National Congress (INC) Mahatma Gandhi, Rangaswami Iyengar, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Muslims by Md. Ali Jinnah, Aga Khan III, Muhammad Iqbal, etc. Hindus by M R Jayakar, etc., Depressed classes by Dr B R Ambedkar, Women by Sarojini Naidu, etc.

The correct answer is 2, 3, and 4.

Key Points

• Salt March was an act of nonviolent civil disobedience in colonial India led by Gandhiji to produce salt from the seawater in the coastal village of Dandi (now in Gujarat).
• Salt March was also called Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha
• Time Period - From 12 March 1930 to 6 April 1930.
• Significance- A direct action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly.
• Mahatma Gandhi led a march to break one of the most widely disliked laws in British India, which gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt.
• Gandhi Ji was released from custody in January 1931 and began negotiations with Lord Irwin aimed at ending the satyagraha campaign. A truce subsequently was declared, which was formalized in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact that was signed on March 5. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was a freedom fighter, social reformer, and was the driving force behind the renaissance of Indian handicrafts, handlooms, and theatre in post-independence India.
• Kamala Devi was part of Gandhi’s salt satyagraha and was arrested for trying to sell contraband salt in the Bombay Stock Exchange.
• She was imprisoned for almost one year.
• She was a feminist of her age and even spoke against Gandhi’s stance of not including women in the Dandi March.
• It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press.
• The New York Times and other media outlets began following the walk’s progress, quoting Gandhi as he denounced the salt tax as “monstrous” and chided the British for “being ashamed to arrest me.”  Hence statement 2 is correct and 1 is Not correct.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only

Key Points 

• The Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces - the three exceptions being Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh.
• The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province.

• Arya Samaj is an Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas.
• The Samaj was founded by the Sannyasi Dayanand Saraswati on 7 April 1875. It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh.

Tarabai Shinde was a feminist activist from Maharashtra who protested patriarchy and caste in 19^th century India. She is known for her published work, Stripurush Tulana ("A Comparison between Women and Men"), originally published in Marathi in 1882.

• The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses was first demonstrated by Johannes Kepler.
• Kepler's laws of planetary motion are three scientific laws describing the motion of planets around the Sun. The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.

During the mid 19^th century Industrial Revolution, the average life span of workers in Manchester was 17 years.

George Washington commanded the Continental Army in the American Revolutionary War (1775–1783).

• At the end of the year in both 1775 and 1776, he had to deal with expiring enlistments, since the Congress had only authorized the army's existence for single years.

Alexander Kerensky was a Russian lawyer and revolutionary who was a key political figure in the Russian Revolution of 1917.

• He was head of the Provisional Government in Russia before the October Revolution

• All the above mentioned options were considered as challenges for inclusiveness.
• Inclusiveness - the quality of including many different types of people and treating them all fairly and equally.

• Saakshar Bharat is a government of India initiative launched by thenPrime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh to create a literate society through a variety of teaching learning programmes for non-literate and neo-literate of 15 years and above.
• It was launched on 8 September 2009 as a centrally sponsored scheme.
• The scheme seeks to reduce the literacy gap between the males and females, and so, it is directed towards women in particular. It aims to target 60 million women across the country.
• The scheme also considers the illiteracy in disadvantages group and it aims to target 410 districts in 27 states/UTs.
• The scheme targets 70 million people from the age of 15 years and beyond to improve literacy ration of India.
• It also aims at providing opportunity to continue education to those who have left due to financial and other constraints and to impart skill-based education.
• The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj institutions and Local Self-Governments to facilitate grass-root level penetration of the education.

• Mozambique signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/Tur another pulses in July 2016.
• The basic focus of the MoU for India is to have a stable source to import pulses as the price of pulses have seen inflation over the past few months.
• The trade of pulses under the signed MoU would occur either directly through the government channels or governments of both the countries may involve private players as well.
• Apart from this, the MoU between both the countries also focussed on the drug-trafficking, sports and medicines.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Article  52 of the Indian constitution says that there shall be a President of India.
• Article 53:- Executive power of the Union.

1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. Hence statement 2 is not correct and statement 1 is correct.
2. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by the law.  Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Article 72:- Power of President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
• Article 77 of the Indian constitution deals with the Conduct of business of the Government of India.

1. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
2. Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President, and the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President.
3. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

• Article 123:-  Power of President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
• Article143:- Power of President to consult Supreme Court.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of life and personal liberty.
• No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• .This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
• The scope and applicability of Article 21 have been defined and formulated tie and again by the Supreme Court of India. The ‘life’ has been defined by the Supreme Court in Munn v. Illinois case that means more than the animal existence.
• Article 21 is one of the prime Articles comprising Part III of the Constitution of India dealing with fundamental rights.
• Article 21 is the protection of life and personal liberty.
• No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• It guarantees life and personal liberty to all persons irrespective of caste or gender.
• It guarantees the right of persons to live with human dignity.
• All the aspects of life go to make a person's life meaningful, complete, and worth living.
• Article 21 provides freedom from wrongful detention, arrest, and confinement.
• Article 21 can be altered only through a procedure established by law. The state has no authority to violate this right. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgment in the Menaka Gandhi (1978) case under Article-21 Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity.
• Article 21 also provides for the right against sexual harassment, the right to a clean environment, the right to compensation, right to privacy.
• Under Article 21 of the Indian constitution, women's reproductive Choice falls under the right to personal liberty.
• The right to personal liberty also includes women's reproductive choice, the same was held in the case of Suchitra Srivastava and ors V. Chadi. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

• Right to Education Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, through the 86^th Constitutional amendment 2002.
• 86th Constitutional amendment 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Indian Constitution.
• According to Article 21A, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The article incorporates the word “free” in its title. What it means is that no child is liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education.
• Under the provisions of the Right to Education Act, it is mentioned that:-
• It is the duties of the respective governments, the local authorities and parents in ensuring the education of a child. It also specifies the sharing of the financial burden between the central and the state governments.
• It also provides for the pupil-to-teacher ratio to ensure qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
• It specifies standards and norms for infrastructure and buildings, working days of the school, and for the teachers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social, and cultural background.  Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It forbids mental harassment and physical abuse of the children and also seeks to curb child labor.

The correct answer is Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.

Key Points

• Article 25 to 28 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• Article 25:- Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion. 

1. Subject to public order, morality, and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice, and propagate religion.
2. Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law:-

• Regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
• Providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
• Article 26:- Freedom to manage religious affairs.
• Subject to public order, morality, and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right:-
• To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• To manage its own affairs in matters of religion. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• To own and acquire movable and immovable property. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• To administer such property in accordance with the law.
• Article 27:- Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
• No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
• Article 28:- Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

1. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
2. Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to an educational institution that is administered by the State but has been established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution.
3. No person attending any educational institution recognized by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to take part in any religious instruction that may be imparted in such institution or to attend any religious worship that may be conducted in such institution or in any premises attached thereto unless such person or, if such person is a minor, his guardian has given his consent thereto. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.

Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:

(i) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.

(ii) Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.

(iii) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.

(iv) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.

• The shift from the Wholesale Price Index to the Consumer Price Index for calculating the inflation was recommended by the Urijit Patel Committee.
• The Inflation using WPI is also calculated but is not considered for the policy target.
• The CPI allows the calculation of inflation at the end of the consumer, hence it allows the calculation of the factors that are not included in the WPI, like, foods and beverages, tobacco, clothing and footwear, fuel and other items.

• Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally without any discrimination under the WTO agreements.
• The MFN status under WTO implies that a country shall treat its all trading partners with parity and shall not make partial provisions.
• Hence, all the countries that are trading partners to a country shall enjoy the MFN status.