CDS General Knowledge 23 Oct 2016 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

• Landfill gas is a complex mix of different gases created by the action of microorganisms within a landfill.
• Landfills depend on the nature of the waste.
• The dominant process in most landfills is the third process whereby anaerobic bacteria decompose organic waste to produce biogas, which consists of methane and carbon dioxide together with traces of other compounds.

Amphibians are small vertebrates that need water, or a moist environment, to survive. The species in this group include frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts. 

They are sometimes called "indicators." They are called indicators because they are very sensitive to change in their environment.

• They breathe through their skin and breathe toxic and non-toxic components with it too.
• Nearly 33% of the amphibian species of the world are categorized as threatened on the Red List.
• Amphibians are dependent for their survival on a plentiful supply of fresh water that is free of chemical contaminants and harmful microbes.

Extra Info-

Reptiles

• These are cold-blooded vertebrates. (Vertebrates have backbones.)
• They have dry skin covered with scales or bony plates and usually lay soft-shelled eggs. It usually refers to lizards, snakes, turtles, alligators, and crocodiles.

Mammals

• Mammals include humans and all other animals that are warm-blooded vertebrates (vertebrates have backbones) with hair.
• They feed their young with milk and have a more well-developed brain than other types of animals.

Insects

• All insects belong to the phylum Arthropoda.
• Insects live in nearly every habitat, and it’s estimated that there are currently 10 quintillion insects on the globe.
• So far scientists who study bugs, called entomologists, have named one million insect species but studies estimate that four million are still uncategorized.

Hence, it is clear from the above points that Amphibian is most sensitive to environmental change.

The correct answer is Thermal power plants.

Key Points

• Thermal power is the "largest" source of power in India.
• About 65% of the electricity consumed in India is generated by thermal power plants, 22% by hydroelectric power plants, 3% by nuclear power plants and rest by 10% from other alternate sources.

The correct answer is Lymphocytes.

Key Points

• HIV: Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
• HIV causes AIDS and interferes with the body's ability to fight infections.
• The virus can be transmitted through contact with infected blood, semen or vaginal fluids. It destroys Lymphocytes.

Additional Information

• Carboxyhaemoglobin or carboxyhaemoglobin (symbol COHb or HbCO) is a complex of carbon monoxide and haemoglobin (Hb) that forms in red blood cells upon contact with carbon monoxide.
• Carbon Monoxide inhibits body stability to distribute O₂.
• Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for CO.
• Haemoglobin that binds CO becomes 'poisoned' and can no longer bind oxygen, destroying its function.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The term allotrope refers to one or more forms of a chemical element that occurs in the same physical state. The different forms arise from the different ways, atoms may be bonded together.
• There are many allotropes of carbon. These include coal, diamond, graphite, graphene, carbon nanotubes, fullerenes, and carbon nanobuds.
• Hence, granite is not an allotrope of carbon.

Additional Information

• Granite is an igneous rock formed from the slow crystallization of magma deep beneath the Earth's surface.
• It is composed mainly of quartz, feldspar, and mica, with varying amounts of other minerals.
• Granite is known for its durability and strength, making it a popular choice for construction materials such as countertops, flooring, and monuments.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• Degumming is the process of removing natural gums, resins, and other impurities from raw plant material (like wood pulp, jute, or bamboo) to make it suitable for papermaking.
• Caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) is commonly used in this step because it:
• Breaks down lignin and hemicellulose
• Removes gummy substances
• Helps in fiber separation for smoother pulp

Additional Information

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

• Sulphuric acid – Too harsh; mainly used in digestion or chemical pulping, not for degumming.
• Bleaching powder – Used in the bleaching stage, not degumming.
• Nitric acid – Rarely used due to its oxidizing nature and high reactivity.

• Dolomite is an anhydrous carbonate mineral composed of calcium magnesium carbonate, ideally CaMg (CO₃)₂. The term is also used for a sedimentary carbonate rock composed mostly of the mineral dolomite
• Dolomite is being used as Fillers by detergents, steel, paints, and ceramics.
• It provides valuable nutrients to plants and helps change the pH of the soil by raising it to match the plant’s needs.

• Fluorine deficiency is a disorder which may cause tooth decay also called tooth caries.
• Tooth decay is the breakdown of dental tissues by the acidic products released by the bacterial fermentation of dietary carbohydrates.
• Prevention of dental caries includes regular cleaning of the teeth, a diet low in sugar, and small amounts of fluoride.
• Fluoride treatment can help recalcification of tooth enamel.

• One of the causes of groundwater pollution is the use of fertilizers and pesticides.
• Only a fraction of the nitrogen-based fertilizers is converted to produce and other plant matter. The remainder accumulates in the soil or lost as run-off.
• High application rates of nitrogen-containing fertilizers combined with the high water-solubility of nitrate lead to increased runoff into surface water as well as leaching into groundwater, thereby causing groundwater pollution.
• The heavy use of nitrogenous fertilizers in cropping systems is the largest contributor to anthropogenic nitrogen in groundwater worldwide.

• Sodium bicarbonate is a white solid that is crystalline.
• Potassium bicarbonate is the inorganic white coloured compound.
• Caesium bicarbonate is a chemical compound. It can be used for synthesizing caesium salts.
• A compound, LiHCO3, formed by the reaction of carbon dioxide with aqueous lithium carbonate and is known only in solution.

• 2011 Census was the 15^th Indian Census was conducted in two phases, house listing, and population enumeration.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• An earthquake is the shaking of the surface of the Earth, resulting from the sudden release of energy in the Earth's lithosphere that creates seismic waves.
• Place of occurrence:
• About 80% of earthquakes occur where plates are pushed together, called convergent boundaries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Point of occurrence:
• Focus (aka Hypocenter) is the location on the Earth where the earthquake starts. It is the Point of origin of the earthquake. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The epicentre:
• It is the point on the Earth's surface directly above a hypocentre or focus, the point where an earthquake originates.
• It is the first one to experience the waves.
• The intensity of the earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The epicentre of Earthquakes can be over both oceanic and continental surfaces; Epicentres above the oceanic surface are the cause of tsunamis of large intensity. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

• Madhya Pradesh has the largest Tribal population. It has more than 1.6 crore Schedule Tribe population who are 21% of state population according to 2011 census.
• The largest population in Madhya Pradesh is that of the Bhil tribe.
• The second highest tribal population is that of Odisha.
• The population of Mizoram in 2001 Census has been 888,573. Of them, 839,310 are Scheduled Tribes (STs) constituting 94.5 percent of the total population of the state.
• As per the Scheduled Tribes, Census of India 2001, Mizoram has 839,310 Scheduled Tribes (STs) constituting 94.5 percent of the total population of the state at that time.
• Nagaland is the highest percentage of the tribal population out of the total population of the state after Mizoram.

• The spring constant is the force applied if the displacement in the spring is unity.
• Hooke's law is a law of physics that states that the force needed to extend or compress a spring by some distance x scales linearly with respect to that distance. That is, where k is a constant factor characteristic of the spring: its stiffness. K is a spring constant.
• The spring constant will depend on the stiffness of the spring material, the thickness of the wire from which the spring is wound and, the diameter of the turns of the coil, the number of turns per unit length and the overall length of the spring.

• Gamma decay, type of radioactivity in which some unstable atomic nuclei dissipate excess energy by a spontaneous electromagnetic process.
• As only energy is emitted during gamma decay, the number of protons and neutrons remains the same. Hence, neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes.

• A transistor is a semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power. It is composed of semiconductor material usually with at least three terminals for connection to an external circuit.
• Bipolar Junction Transistor constructed with three doped Semiconductor Regions (Base, Collector, and Emitter) separated by two p-n Junctions.
• Emitter, Collector, and the Base is the correct order of decreasing impurities.
• Doping is the intentional introduction of impurities into an intrinsic semiconductor for the purpose of modulating its electrical, optical and structural properties.

Concept:

Measurement of any physical quantity involves comparison with a certain basic, arbitrarily chosen, internationally accepted reference standard called unit and Dimension is a mathematical tool used for studying the nature of physical quantities.

Planck’s constant: 

• It is a physical constant that is the quantum of electromagnetic action. It relates the energy carried by a photon to its frequency by, E = hν

Angular momentum:∴h=Ef

• the angular momentum is the momentum carried by particle under rotational motion and it is given as, L = mvr

And SI unit of angular momentum (L) is joule.sec or kg m2/sec

Where, 

E = energy,

f = frequency

h = Planck’s constant.

v = velocity of particle

r is radius.

Explanation:

• The audible frequency range, roughly 20 Hz - 20 kHz for Humans. The human ear is most sensitive to sounds between 1000 and 5000 Hz.
• Routine investigation for hearing loss usually involves an audiogram which shows threshold levels relative to a normal.
• How our ears perceive sound can be more accurately described by the logarithm of the intensity rather than directly to the intensity. The sound intensity level β in decibels of a sound having an intensity I in watts per meter squared is defined to be β(dB) = 10 log₁₀(I/I₀).
• When two or more waves traverse the same medium, the displacement of any element of the medium is the algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave.
• Longitudinal waves are waves in which the displacement of the medium is in the same direction as, or the opposite direction to, the direction of propagation of the wave. Longitudinal waves can travel in all media- Solids, Liquids, and Gases.

• An enzyme is a biological catalyst that accelerates a chemical reaction without altering its equilibrium.
• Enzymes are proteins functioning as catalysts that speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy.
• It remains unchanged after the reaction.
• Each enzyme has a temperature that it works optimally in, which in humans is around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit, 37 degrees Celsius - the normal body temperature for humans.

• Altitude Sickness is caused by rapid exposure to low amounts of oxygen at high elevation.
• Altitude sickness is a disorder caused by being at high altitude.
• Low level of haemoglobin suggests Anaemia.

• Oxidation number, also called Oxidation State, the total number of electrons that an atom either gains or lose in order to form a chemical bond with another atom.
• The oxidation state of hydrogen is +1 in its compounds, except for metal hydrides, such as NaH, LiH, etc., in which the oxidation state for H is -1. Hence, it has more than one oxidation number.

• The Standard hydrogen electrode is a redox electrode which forms the basis of the thermodynamic scale of oxidation-reduction potentials.

• Electrode Potential is the electromotive force of a cell built of two electrodes.

• The standard hydrogen electrode (abbreviated SHE), is a redox electrode which forms the basis of the thermodynamic scale of oxidation-reduction potentials.

• Its absolute electrode potential is estimated to be 4.44 ± 0.02 V at 25 °C, but to form a basis for comparison with all other electron reactions, hydrogen's standard electrode potential (E°) is declared to be zero volts at any temperature.

Oxygen = 65%, Carbon = 18%, Hydrogen = 9.5%, Nitrogen = 3.2%, Calcium = 1.5%, Phosphorus = 1.2%

• In the stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude.
• In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude
• The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.

The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Key Points

Tributaries of Ganga:

Sharada is a tributary of Ganga and Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra

• The Soo Locks are a set of parallel locks, operated and maintained by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Detroit District, which enable ships to travel between Lake Superior and the lower Great Lakes.
• Superior and Huron are connected by Soo Canal.

• Total internal reflection refers to the complete reflection of a ray of light within a given medium from the surrounding surface. The ray of light continues to be reflected within the medium (glass, water, etc.) without being refracted off.
• The condition for total internal reflection requires the ray to bend away from the normal till 90 Degree angle is attained. It happens only when light travels from denser to rarer medium. The intensity remains the same.

• The amount of energy in photons is calculated by the equation, E = hf, where E is the energy of the photon in Joules; h is Planck's constant, which is always 6.63 * 10^-34 Joule seconds; and f is the frequency of the light in Hertz.
• A photon’s relativistic momentum is given by the equation, E = pc where p is the momentum.
• Energy = 10 MeV/c × c = 10 MeV

• In ferromagnets, the magnetic moments of the individual atoms line and reinforce each other, and that gives the material the large overall magnetic field. The molecules of liquid and gas rearranges every few picoseconds (10¹² times per second). Hence, they cannot show ferromagnetic properties.

• Light travels in straight lines. Once the light has been produced, it will keep traveling in a straight line until it hits something else.
• The refractive index of a material is a measure of the change in the speed of light as it passes from a vacuum (or air as an approximation) into the material.
• Light changes speed as it passes from one medium to another. Light will only travel in straight line if the medium is homogeneous and transparent

• Dogger Bank is located off the coast of United Kingdom.

2 and 3 only

 Key Points

• Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen.
• Black soils, also known as Regur soils, are highly known for their capacity to retain moisture.
• They are rich in minerals such as iron, magnesium, and aluminium but indeed lack nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter.
• Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and potassium.
• Laterite soils form under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate dry and wet periods.
• These soils are particularly rich in iron and alluminium due to intense leaching but are deficient in essential nutrients including nitrogen, potassium, lime, and phosphoric acid, making them less fertile

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only.

Key Points

• Syzygy is a straight-line configuration( 180° angle**) of three or more celestial bodies** (the sun, the earth, and either the moon or a planet) in a gravitational system. Hence option 1 is correct.

• All eclipses are Syzygy.

• A solar eclipse occurs when the moon comes between our planet and the sun. Syzygy conjunction causes a solar eclipse. Hence option 2 is correct.

• A lunar eclipse occurs when Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, blocking the sunlight from falling on the Moon. Syzygy opposition causes a lunar eclipse. Hence option 3 is correct.

• Perihelion and aphelion:

• It is the point in the orbit of a planet, asteroid or comet that is nearest to the sun.

• It is the opposite of the aphelion, which is the point farthest from the sun.

• Syzygy conjunction can occur at the time of perihelion as well as aphelion. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

• Wind gap - A wind gap is a gap through which a waterway once flowed that is now dry as a result of stream capture.
• Zeugen - A table-shaped area of rock found in arid and semi-arid areas formed when more resistant rock is reduced at a slower rate than softer rocks around it under the effects of wind erosion.
• Dreikanter - It is a type of ventifact that typically forms in the desert or periglacial environments due to the abrasive action of blowing sand.
• Demoiselle - These are rock pillars which stand as resistant rocks above soft rocks as a result of differential erosion of hard and soft rocks.

• Guindy National Park - It is a protected area of Tamil Nadu. The park has a role in both ex-situ and in-situ conservation and is home to 400 blackbucks, 2,000 spotted deer, 24 jackals, a wide variety of snakes, geckos, tortoises and over 130 species of birds.
• Namdapha National Park - It is a large protected area in Arunachal Pradesh. With more than 1,000 floral and about 1,400 faunal species, it is a biodiversity hotspot in the Eastern Himalayas.
• Jaldapara - It is a national park situated at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in northern West Bengal. it has the largest population of the Indian one-horned rhinoceros in the state, an animal threatened with extinction.
• Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary also is known as the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Little Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat state of India.

The correct answer is Shola forests are found mainly in the upper reaches of the Himalayas.

Key Points

• Sal tree:
• It is found in moist deciduous forests. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Teak, Sal, Shisham, hurra, Mahua, Amla, Kusum, sandalwood, etc. are other species found here.
• Region: These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of the Himalayas, and the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
• Casuarinas:
• They are a non-native group of plants in India with wide-ranging adaptability to grow in different environments.
• It is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Coniferous Forests:
• They are Temperate Forests, Found in the middle and upper elevations of the eastern Middle Himalayas and N-E Indian states like Arunachal Pradesh.
• Deodar is a coniferous species of tree, It has a conic crown with level branches and drooping branchlets. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The shola forest-grassland:
• It is the tropical montane forest found in the upper reaches of India's Western Ghats, in the Nilgiris, Anaimalai hills and Palani hills. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

• Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants - Khud-kashta and Pahi-kashta.
• Pahi-kastha - These peasants were basically outsiders but cultivated the rented land in a village either by staying in the same village (residential pahi-kasht) or by staying in the neighbouring villages (non-residential pahi-kasht).
• People became pahi-kashta either out of choice – for example when terms of revenue in a distant village were more favourable – or out of compulsion – for example, forced by economic distress after a famine.
• The second Statement is the correct explanation of the first statement.

• During the Mughal Empire, zamindars belonged to the nobility and formed the ruling class. Emperor Akbar granted them mansabs and their ancestral domains were treated as jagirs. The zamindari system was more prevalent in the north of India because Mughal influence in the south was less apparent
• Zamindari System was introduced by Cornwallis in 1793 through the Permanent Settlement Act.
• Peasants and zamindars faced various kinds of problems. Sometimes their crops would be destroyed by floods or famines. Sometimes the prices of crops would be so low in the market that the peasants got very little money when they sold their crops. When this happened, they found it difficult to pay their taxes.
• The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in Northern India in the seventeenth century.
• Hence, both statements are correct. But the 2^nd statement is not an explanation to the first statement.

• The Kalinga War was fought in what is now India between the Maurya Empire under Ashoka and King of Raja Ananth of the state of Kalinga.
• The huge casualties of the war are described in the Rock Edict XIII.
• Ashoka was deeply moved by the massacre in this war. The war caused great suffering to the brahmana priests and Buddhist monks, and this, in turn, brought upon Ashoka much grief and remorse.
• Ashoka became a patron of Buddhism. He began strenuous efforts for promoting the Dhamma.
• In spite of Asoka’s conversion to Buddhism in extreme cases death penalty) would be given. Although Asoka was not in favour of capital punishment he did not do away with the practice.
• Hence, Statement l is false and Statement II is correct.

• Battle Tank is a tank that fills the armour-protected direct fire and manoeuvre role of many modern armies.
• T-55, T-72, and T-90 battle are USSR/Russian origin battle tanks and are respectively based on first, second and third generation battle tank technologies
• T-155 Fırtına is a Turkish 155 mm self-propelled howitzer.

• In Hinduism, lokapāla refers to the Guardians of the Directions associated with the eight, nine and ten cardinal directions.
• In Buddhism, lokapāla refers to the Four Heavenly Kings, and to other protector spirits, whereas the Guardians of the Directions are referred to as the 'dikpāla.
• Guardians of four directions

1. Kubera (North)
2. Yama (South)
3. Indra (East)
4. Varuṇa (West)

• Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act, but not including the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Significance of 26 November 1949:
• India adopted the constitution, which was signed by 284 members. The day is celebrated as National Law Day or Constitution Day.
• The day was chosen to spread the importance of the constitution and to spread the thoughts and ideas of Ambedkar.
• Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392, 393, and 394 of the constitution came into force on 26 November 1949.
• Articles 5 – 11 of the Constitution:
• They deal with the concept of citizenship. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Articles 324 to 329  of the Constitution:
• They deal with elections in India. Hence option 2 is correct.
• ​After 26 January 1950, the Constituent Assembly became the Provisional Parliament of India until 1952. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Fundamental Rights (Part-III of the Constitution) of the citizens came into force on 26 January 1950. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

• The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. It consists of indirectly elected representatives, was established to draft a constitution for India.
• Universal Adult Franchise means that the right to vote should be given to all adult citizens without the discrimination of caste, class, colour, religion or gender. It is based on equality, which is a basic principle of democracy. In India, the Universal Adult Franchise was introduced only in the post-independence period during the first general elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies.
• The Constituent Assembly consisted of 389 members, of which 292 were elected by the elected members of the provincial Legislative Assemblies while 93 members were nominated by the Princely States

• Centre for Science and Environment is a not-for-profit public interest research and advocacy organisation based in New Delhi, India.
• Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India. The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.
• The CSE study had found that 84% of 38 commonly available brands of pre-packaged bread, including pav and buns, tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate. These two food additives are banned in many countries and listed as “hazardous” for public health.
• According to CSE, potassium bromate typically increases dough strength, leads to uniform finish to baked products while potassium iodate is a flour treatment agent.
• Neurotoxins are toxins that are destructive to nerve tissue. Potassium bromate is not a neurotoxin.

• The European Union is an economic and political partnership involving 28 European countries.
• A referendum - voting took place on 23 June 2016, to decide whether the UK should leave or remain in the European Union. Leave won by 51.9% to 48.1%.
• England and Wales voted for Brexit. Scotland and Northern Ireland both backed staying in the EU.
• The UK is due to leave the European Union at 23:00 GMT on 31 October 2019.

• The Indian Space Research Organisation is the space agency of the Government of India headquartered in the city of Bengaluru.
• It was founded on 15 August 1969 by Vikram Sarabhai.
• On May 23, 2016, ISRO successfully tested India's first winged body aerospace vehicle operating in hypersonic flight regime.
• It was launched from the First Launch Pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
• The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing.

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation is an agency of the Government of India, charged with the military's research and development, headquartered in New Delhi, India.
• It was founded in 1958.
• BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and the Russian Federation.
• The Sukhoi Su-30MKI is a twinjet multirole air superiority fighter developed by Russia's Sukhoi and built under licence by India's Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
• Samir V Kamat is the Chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Secretary in the Department of Defence Research & Development (DDR&D).

• Documents from Western India - Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra - record petitions sent by women to the village panchayat, seeking redress and justice. Wives protested against the infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household, the Grihasthi.
• While male infidelity was not always punished, the state and “superior” caste groups did intervene when it came to ensuring that the family was adequately provided for.
• In most cases when women petitioned to the panchayat, their names were excluded from the record: the petitioner was referred to as the mother, sister or wife of the male head of the household.

• The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011.
• It began in 1872, the first complete census was taken in 1881.
• It has been undertaken every 10 years
• All the censuses since 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act. The last census was held in 2011. The next will be held in 2021.

The correct answer is Tripurantaka.

Key Points

• The Chola dynasty was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in history.
• The earliest datable references to this Tamil dynasty are in inscriptions from the 3rd century BCE left by Ashoka, of the Maurya Empire
• Brihadeeshvara Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, India. It is one of the largest South Indian temples and an exemplary example of fully realized Dravidian architecture.
• Tripurantaka is a manifestation of the Hindu god Shiva. In this aspect, Shiva is depicted with four arms wielding a bow and arrow.

• The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial principle that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the parliament.
• It gives extra power to the court to review and strike down any constitutional amendments and act enacted by the Parliament
• In 1973, the basic structure doctrine triumphed in the judgement of the Kesavananda Bharati case. The Court adjudicated that while Parliament has "wide" powers, it did not have the power to destroy or emasculate the basic elements or fundamental features of the constitution
• Articles of the constitution which can be amended by the special majority as laid down in Article 368. Article 368 does not enable Parliament to alter the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.
• In the Golaknath case, the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.

• Fundamental Rights available to only citizens and not foreigners.
• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
• Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
• Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions (Article 19).
• Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29).
• Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
• Article 21 of the Constitution [right to life and liberty] applies to all citizens, whether Indian or foreign nationals. Their right to liberty could not be restrained by the police due to a business dispute.

• Articles 5 to 11 (Part II) of the Constitution of India contains conferment of a person as a citizen of India.
• The President of India is termed the First Citizen of India.
• The Citizenship Act 1955 prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz. renunciation, termination, and deprivation:
• Article 9 of the Indian Constitution says that a person who voluntarily acquires citizenship of any other country is no longer an Indian citizen.
• The Indian Citizenship Amendment Bill was proposed in Lok Sabha on July 19, 2016, amending the Citizenship Act of 1955.
• If this Bill is passed in Parliament, illegal migrants from minority communities like Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian coming from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan will then be eligible for Indian citizenship excluding people from the Muslim community

• Article 20 (Part III), Fundamental Rights contains Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
• (1) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the Act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
• (2) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
• (3) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

• He was a quizmaster.
• He was credited for conducting the first formal well-organised quiz in Calcutta.
• Brien served as a member of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly from 1977 to 1991 and became a nominated Anglo-Indian Lok Sabha MP in 1996.

• He was an English theoretical physicist, cosmologist, and author.
• Hawking was diagnosed with an early-onset slow-progressing form of motor neuron disease (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis "ALS" or Lou Gehrig's disease) that gradually paralysed him over the decades.
• He was famous for his black hole theories. Hawking postulated what became known as the second law of black hole dynamics, that the event horizon of a black hole can never get smaller.
• Hawking died on 14 March 2018.

• The Dhanush is a 155 mm towed howitzer used by the Indian Army.
• A Howitzer is a short gun for firing shells on high trajectories at low velocities.
• The gun has been developed by the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
• It is often referred to as the “Desi Bofors”.

• In 2016, Novak Djokovic was the defending champion and successfully defended his title defeating Andy Murray
• It was the 104^th edition of the Australian Open, and the first Grand Slam tournament of that year
• In 2017, Roger Federer won the Australian Open defeating Nadal.
• In 2018, Roger Federer was the defending champion and successfully defended his title, defeating Marin Cilic.

• Shankaracharya is a commonly used title of heads of monasteries called mathas in the Advaita Vedanta tradition. The title derives from Adi Shankara, an 8th-century AD reformer of Hinduism.
• Shankaracharya explained the basic ideas of Upanishads. He established the importance of monastic life as sanctioned in the Upanishads and Brahma Sutra.
• He is credited with unifying and establishing the main currents of thought in Hinduism It is with his teacher Govinda, that Shankara studied Gaudapadiya Karika, as Govinda was himself taught by Gaudapada.
• The most popular of beliefs about Sankara is that he established four or five monastic centres called Amanaya-mathas in the different parts of the country. Many historians believe that mathas were established several centuries later and attributed to Shankara in order to give them prestige.

The correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

• The Deccan Riots of 1875 exposed the dire circumstances of the peasantry in the Deccan region, primarily related to the oppressive loan recovery practices of moneylenders. In response, the British colonial administration enacted the Deccan Agriculturalists' Relief Act of 1879, aiming to provide some level of protection to the farmers by regulating money lending practices and offering relief from usurious debts. This legislation was an acknowledgment of the peasants' grievances and an attempt to mitigate such issues in the future. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Deccan Riots, while significant, did not extend across the entirety of Maharashtra, largely due to the British colonial authorities' efforts to suppress them. The British were keen on quickly quelling the unrest to maintain order and prevent the spread of rebellion. Their efforts included the deployment of military forces and the implementation of legal measures to address some of the peasants' grievances. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This statement suggests a widespread failure on the part of the British to contain the riots, which is not accurate. Although the riots indicated substantial social and economic unrest, they were largely contained to the Deccan region. The British administration's swift response played a key role in preventing the riots from spreading across Maharashtra. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The American Civil War (1861-1865) led to a dramatic increase in the demand for cotton from India, including the Deccan region, which initially resulted in a lucrative cotton boom for local farmers. However, once the war ended and American cotton returned to the global market, prices plummeted. This bust, combined with already existing challenges such as high taxation and exploitative practices by moneylenders, severely impacted the economic well-being of peasants in the Deccan. Their impoverishment was one of the critical factors that fueled the discontent leading to the 1875 riots.Hence statement 4 is correct.

• Sinti and Roma were regarded as Gypsies. The Sinti and Roma spoke dialects of a common language called Romani, based in Sanskrit, the classical language of India.
• Gypsies are believed to have arrived in Europe from northern India in the 1400s. They were called Gypsies because Europeans thought they came from Egypt.
• For centuries Europeans regarded Gypsies as social outcasts - a people of foreign appearance, language, and customs.

• Upari refers to a category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha Regime.
• The Government used to assign land to various cultivators for cultivation and getting maximum revenue. The land allotted to original settlers of villages came to be known as Mirasi land whereas the land assigned to the migrant settlers was known as the Upari land.
• In case, these migrant settlers failed to pay the requisite revenue, the land was reverted by the Government. The land was also given as jagir to the efficient people in war administration and other areas of life for their outstanding contribution, such people were called Jagirdars.

The correct answer is producing strong threads of yarn.

Key Points

• Richard Arkwright was an English inventor and a leading entrepreneur during the early Industrial Revolution.
• The water frame is a spinning frame that is powered by a water-wheel.
• The water frame was able to spin 128 threads at a time, which was an easier and faster method than ever before.
• It was developed by Richard Arkwright, who patented the technology in 1769.
• The water frame, which Richard Arkwright (1732-92) invented in 1769, produced a much stronger thread than before.
• This also made it possible to weave pure cotton fabrics rather than fabrics that combined linen and cotton yarn.

Hence, the correct answer is producing strong threads of yarn.

• The Kuomintang/ Guomindang is a Chinese political party that ruled China 1927-48 and then moved to Taiwan. The name translates as "China's National People's Party"
• KMT had a left wing and a right wing, the left being more radical in its pro-Soviet policies. The right wing under Chiang Kai-shek prevailed, and continued radical policies against private merchants and industrialists, even as they denounced communism
• Dr Sun Yat-sen of KMT divided livelihood into four areas: food, clothing, housing, and transportation; and planned out how an ideal (Chinese) government can take care of these for its people.

• Edo is the earlier name of Tokyo.
• Tokyo is the capital of Japan.
• Osaka: It is a large port city and commercial centre on the Japanese island of Honshu. It's known for its modern architecture, nightlife, and hearty street food.
• Kyoto: It is a city on the island of Honshu. It's famous for its numerous classical Buddhist temples, as well as gardens, imperial palaces, Shinto shrines, and traditional wooden houses
• Samurai: They were the military nobility and officer caste of medieval and early-modern Japan.

• As a literary work, Silappadikaram is held in high regard by the Tamil people.
• It is written by poet-prince from Ilango Adigal.
• The epic revolves around Kannagi, who having lost her husband to a miscarriage of justice at the court of the Pandyan Dynasty, wreaks her revenge on his kingdom.

• Rakshasa marriage is the marriage of a maiden involving her forcible abduction from her home after her kinsmen have been slain or wounded.
• The groom will force battles with the bride’s family, overcome them and carry the bride away to convince her to marry him.
• This is condemned in the Manusmriti as a base and sinful act.

• CONMEBOL Copa América, known until 1975 as the South American Football Championship, is a men's international football tournament contested between national teams from CONMEBOL. It is the oldest international continental football competition.
• The competition determines the continental champion of South America.
• The Copa América football championship Final took place on 26 June 2016 at the MetLife Stadium in East Rutherford, New Jersey, United States.
• The match was contested by Argentina and Chile, making it a rematch of 2015 final. Chile ultimately won on penalty kicks 4-2 after a 0-0 draw.

• The Missile Technology Control Regime is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal political understanding among 35 member states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. The Regime was formed in 1987 by the G-7 industrialized countries.
• It was founded by Japan in 1986.
• The MTCR seeks to limit the risks of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction (WMD) by controlling exports of goods and technologies that could make a contribution to delivery systems (other than manned aircraft) for such weapons.
• The MTCR is not a treaty and does not impose any legally binding obligations on members.
• The People's Republic of China is not a member of the MTCR but has agreed to abide by the original 1987.
• Israel, Romania, and Slovakia have also agreed to voluntarily follow MTCR export rules even though not yet members.

• The Tejas is an Indian single-engine, delta wing, multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy.
• All squadrons of Tejas will be made up of 20 planes in total, including four in reserve. As per the plan, while 20 would be inducted under the "Initial Operational Clearance", another 20 will be inducted later with Beyond Visual Range Missile (BVR).

• The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific is one of the five regional commissions under the jurisdiction of the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
• It was founded on 28 March 1947.
• It was established in order to increase economic activity in Asia and the Far East, as well as to foster economic relations between the region and other areas of the world.
• The headquarters is in Bangkok, Thailand.

• A bank run occurs when a large number of people withdraw their money from a bank because they believe the bank may cease to function in the near future.
• As more people withdraw their deposits, the likelihood of default increases, and this encourages further withdrawals. This can destabilize the bank to the point where it faces bankruptcy.

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Domestic currency heads for depreciation
• Inflation leads to a decline in the purchasing power of the domestic currency.
• This decreases the value of the domestic currency in relation to other currencies.
• A depreciated currency means that it takes more units of the domestic currency to buy foreign goods, indicating depreciation.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier
• When the domestic currency depreciates, foreign goods become more expensive, leading to costlier imports.
• However, domestic goods become cheaper for foreign buyers, making exports more competitive.
• This dual effect impacts both the trade balance and the overall economy.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: Cost of borrowing decreases
• Generally, during inflationary periods, central banks raise interest rates to combat inflation.
• This results in increased borrowing costs rather than a decrease.
• Inflation typically leads to higher nominal interest rates to maintain real yields.
• Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4: Bondholders get benefitted
• Inflation erodes the real value of fixed-income payments from bonds.
• Bondholders suffer unless the bonds have inflation protection clauses.
• Fixed-rate bonds lose value as inflation rises, harming bondholders.
• Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Inflation:
• Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services rises, eroding purchasing power.
• It is measured by various indexes such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI).
• Moderate inflation is common in growing economies, but hyperinflation can be damaging.
• Domestic Currency Depreciation:
• Depreciation of currency makes exports cheaper and imports more expensive.
• It can improve a country's trade balance by boosting export competitiveness.
• Interest Rates:
• Central banks, like the Federal Reserve in the US, often increase interest rates to fight high inflation.
• Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive and can slow down economic growth.
• Bondholders and Inflation:
• Inflation diminishes the real returns on fixed-income investments such as bonds.
• Inflation-protected securities, like TIPS in the US, are designed to help bondholders avoid losses due to inflation.

• The classical theory of employment is based on the assumption of the flexibility of wages, interest, and prices. This means that wage rate, interest rate, and price level change in their respective markets according to the forces of demand and supply.
• The classical economists had a notion that labour and other resources are utilized completely or fully employed. According to classical economists, over-production is a general condition of an economy. Therefore, the condition of unemployment does not occur in the economy.
• According to Classical Economists, if the condition of unemployment occurs, it is a temporary or abnormal condition in the economy. In addition, classical economists also propounded that the condition of unemployment occurs due to the interference of government or private organizations in the normal mechanism of market forces.

• Capital deepening is a situation where the capital per worker is increasing in the economy. This is also referred to as an increase in the capital intensity. Capital deepening is often measured by the rate of change in capital stock per labour hour.
• Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output.

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court to seek justice when they feel that their fundamental right is being exploited or they are being deprived of their fundamental rights. The apex court is given the authority to issue directions or orders for the execution of any of the rights bestowed by the constitution as it is considered ‘the protector and guarantor of Fundamental Rights’.
• The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay.
• Fundamental rights are contained in Part III (Article 12 to 35) of the Constitution of India.
• The six fundamental rights recognised by the Indian constitution are the:

1. Right to equality
2. Right to freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right to freedom of religion
5. Cultural and Educational Right
6. Right to constitutional remedies

• Writs are issued by Supreme Court and High Court for enforcement of the Fundamental Rights given in Part III of the Constitution. The Supreme Court has the power to issue a writ to make available “Right to Constitutional Remedies” to every citizen.

• The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
• The fundamental duties of citizens were added to the constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• It shall be the duty of every citizen of India —

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
7. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
8. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
9. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
10. Who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of 6 to 14 years.

• A national emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory under Article 352. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).
• The provision is taken from Germany.
• The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act replaced the phrase ‘internal disturbance’ with the ‘armed rebellion’ to avoid its misuse by the government in power.
• The term Internal Disturbance might also include political agitations and public strike in the country. Hence, it was removed.

• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to protect women from domestic violence. It was brought into force by the Indian government from 26 October 2006.
• Primarily meant to provide protection to the wife or female live-in partner from domestic violence at the hands of the husband or male live-in partner or his relatives, the law also extends its protection to women living in a household such as sisters, widows or mothers.
• Domestic violence under the act includes actual abuse or the threat of abuse whether physical, sexual, verbal, emotional or economic.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• National Investment and Infrastructure Fund is India’s first sovereign wealth fund that was set up by the Government of India in February 2015.
• The objective behind creating this fund was to maximize economic impact mainly through infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects.
• The National Investment Fund (NIF) was set up in November 2005 for channelizing the proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises.
• From the fiscal year 2013-14, the disinvestment proceeds were credited to the existing NIF which is a ‘Public Account’ under the Government Accounts. The funds would remain there until withdrawn/invested for the approved purposes.

 Additional Information

• NIIF (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund) and NIF (National Investment Fund) are two separate organizations.
• The National Investment Fund (NIF) is a fund established by the Government of India in 2005 as a vehicle to monetize its stake in profitable public sector companies. The fund is managed by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• On the other hand, the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a sovereign wealth fund established by the Government of India in 2015 to catalyze infrastructure development in the country. NIIF has two components: the NIIF Master Fund, which primarily invests in greenfield, brownfield and stalled infrastructure projects; and the NIIF Fund of Funds, which invests in funds managed by third-party managers in India.
• Although both organizations have investment-related mandates, they serve different purposes and operate under different names.

• The Andaman and Nicobar Command is the first and only Tri-service theatre command of the Indian Armed Forces, based at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, a Union Territory of India.
• It was created in 2001 to safeguard India's strategic interests in Southeast Asia and the Strait of Malacca by increasing the rapid deployment of military assets in the region. It provides logistical and administrative support to naval ships which are sent on deployment to East Asia and the Pacific Ocean.
• Vice Admiral Bimal Verma AVSM took over as the 13^th Commander-in-Chief of the Andaman & Nicobar Command (CINCAN) on 29 Feb 16.

• The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee is the head of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. The most senior chief of staff is appointed to serve as a chairman until he retires. The current chairman is the Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral Sunil Lanba.
• The Chairman is responsible for inter-service synergy. However, as the CoSC only serves as Primus inter pares (a first among equals) to the other Chiefs of Staff, he does not wield any power. The Chairman is assisted by the Integrated Defence Staff.

• The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is an infantry regiment of the Indian Army. Its origins lay in the Jammu and Kashmir State Forces of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir. After the accession of the state to the Indian Union in October 1947, the State Forces came under the command of the Indian Army.
• The Rashtriya Rifles or RR is a branch of the Indian Army under the authority of the Indian Ministry of Defence. The RR is a counter-insurgency force made up of soldiers deputed from other parts of the Indian Army.

• A regiment is a military unit. Their role and size vary markedly, depending on the country and the arm of service. In Medieval Europe, the term "regiment" denoted any large body of front-line soldiers, recruited or conscripted in one geographical area, by a leader who was often also the feudal lord of the soldiers.
• Mechanized infantry is distinguished from motorized infantry in that its vehicles provide a degree of protection from hostile fire, as opposed to "soft-skinned" wheeled vehicles (trucks or jeeps) for motorized infantry.
• The Corps of Electronics and Mechanical Engineers (EME) is an arms and service branch of the Indian Army. The Corps has varying responsibilities related to the design, development, trial, inspection, and refit of weapon systems and equipment. It Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers.
• Indian Army Service Corps (IASC) is a corps and an arm of the Indian Army, which handles its logistic support function.

• The Indian army operates six operational commands and one training command. Each command is headed by General Officer Commanding-in-Chief with the rank of lieutenant general. Each command is directly affiliated to the Army HQ in New Delhi.