CDS General Knowledge 14 Feb 2016 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Correct Option – (a)

• High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is considered “good cholesterol”.
• Cholesterol is a type of fat found in our blood. More cholesterol in our body means that it can float around in the blood and can clog the blood vessels which can cause cardiac arrest.

Correct Option – (b)

Correct Option- (c)

The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the Force.

Momentum = Mass × velocity

Change of momentum →

d(momentum) = mass × d(velocity)

dt dt

Force = mass × acceleration

Correct Option- (d)

• Latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert the unit mass of liquid state material into vapour-state material without any change in temperature.
• Water sprinkled on the roof-top absorbs heat (energy) and evaporates leaving the roof-top cooler than before.
• Water has high specific heat because it needs to absorb a lot of energy to change its temperature.

Correct option- (a)

Correct Option – (d)

Key Points

• Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of Lesser Himalayas.

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only

Key Points

• Laterite soils:
• Laterite soils are generally red in colour because they are rich in iron and aluminium oxides. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They are deficient in nitrogen and potash. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Formation: Under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods, which leads to the leaching of soil, leaving only oxides of iron and aluminium.
• Major areas found:
• In higher areas of the Peninsular Plateau.
• Covers over 10% of the total geographical area, the Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, southern parts of Maharashtra, parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal Orissa, Jharkhand, Kerala, and Assam. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Agriculture on it:
• It is poor in nitrogen, so not fertile and is poor for agriculture.
• Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.
• Proper irrigation and use of fertilizers make it suitable for growing crops, such as tea, coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut, etc.
• Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Correct Option- (c)

• Mediterranean climate is known for hot, dry summers and mild to cool wet winters.
• During the summer, cold currents keep the climate dry and when the season changes, ocean current shifts too. Hence, during the winter, the water having been warmed up in summer moves in and keep the land warn and often brings rain.
• Hence, the annual range of temperature in the Mediterranean climate is lesser than that of Monsoon Climate.

Correct Option – (d)

Bakelite

The correct answer is Pesticides.

Key Points

• Union Carbide operated a pesticide plant in Bhopal.
• The Bhopal Gas Tragedy is considered as one of the world’s largest industrial disaster.
• The factory used to manufacture three pesticides:
• carbaryl, aldicarb and a formulation of carbaryl and gamma-hexachlorocyclohexane (g-HCH).
• It is estimated that about 40 tonnes of methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas and other chemicals leaked from the Union Carbide factory.
• In some cases, the impact of poisonous gas has passed on to the second and third generation.
• Union Carbide used trade secrecy as a prerogative to withhold information on the exact composition of the leaked gases.

• Germplasm is a living tissue which is maintained for the purpose of animal and plant breeding.
• Germplasm conservation is the most successful method to conserve the genetic traits of endangered and commercially valuable species.
• Germplasm conservation includes Wild species, breeding lines, commercial varieties, special genetic stocks, etc.
• Germplasm preservation includes In-situ conservation and Ex-situ conservation.

• Dengue is caused by Dengue virus (DENV), a mosquito-borne flavivirus. DENV is a single-stranded RNA positive-strand virus.
• Bone marrow is the manufacturing center of blood cells and Dengue fever induces bone marrow suppression resulting in a deficiency of blood cells which further leads to low platelet count.
• Endothelium cells line the interior surface of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels. These cells when infected with Dengue virus combine with platelets and destroy them.

The correct answer is Watt.

• Power is the amount of energy transferred per unit of time.

• Two physical systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium when there is no net flow of thermal energy when they are connected to each other in an isolated system.
• The "zeroth law" states that if two systems are at the same time in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

• German Silver is an alloy of Copper, Zinc, and Nickel, sometimes containing lead and tin too.
• It does not contain silver but it is named after its “silver-white” look.
• Although its composition varies as per commercial requirement, it is widely used in this proportion - copper (50%), zinc (20%) and nickel (30%).
• German silver is very hard and its resistance to corrosion make is favorable for industrial use

• Satluj is a part of the Indus river system on the western side and Brahmaputra (also known as Yaluzangbu or Tsangpo in China) is on the eastern side.
• In 2002, GoI and China signed an MoU for five years upon provision of Hydrological information on Yaluzangbu / Brahmaputra River during flood season by China to India. MoUs in this connection is being extended from time to time.
• In 2010, GoI and China signed an MoU upon provision of hydrological information of Satluj / Langqen Zangbo River during flood season by China to India. This MoU has also been renewed.
• In 2013, a separate “Memorandum of Understanding on Strengthening Cooperation on Trans-Border Rivers” was also signed, in which inter alia the scope of the provision of hydrological information of three hydrological stations has also been enhanced.

• Stalactites: It is a type of rock formation produced by the precipitation of minerals from water dripping through the cave ceiling. It hangs from the ceiling of a cave.
• Stalagmites: It is a type of rock formation that rises from the floor of a cave due to the accumulation of material deposited on the floor from ceiling drippings.

• According to NASA, the following are the estimated radii of planets in our solar system:

The order in which planets are away from the sun is - Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.

• Artificial Insemination is the placing of sperm inside the female’s cervix or uterine to achieve pregnancy.
• It is recommended to a couple having trouble in conceiving.
• Intracervical Insemination involves placing raw semen into the vagina by needleless syringe.
• Intrauterine Insemination involves injecting washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter.
• Intrauterine tuboperitoneal insemination involves injecting washed sperm into both the uterus and fallopian tubes.

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e 1, 2 and 4.

• When the DNA of a plant had been modified using genetic engineering methods, it is called Genetically modified crops.
• It is widely used to make crops resistant to certain pests and disease.
• It is also used to improve nutrition value in a crop.
• Insect-resistant crops contain genes from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
• GM crops are sometimes discouraged to consume due to the following potential threats: an allergic reaction (allergenicity), gene transfer and outcrossing.
• Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to introduction of DNA by removing the existing DNA, resulting in the change in traits.

• At 20°C, the speed of sound in air is about 343 meters per second.
• The speed of sound depends on medium, temperature, and pressure of the medium.
• The speed of sound decreases when it passes from solid to the gaseous state of the medium.
• The speed of sound in aluminum is 6420 m/s, in seawater is 1531 m/s and in Hydrogen gas is 1284 m/s.

• The sound of frequencies higher than 20 kHz is known as ultrasonic sound or ultrasound**.**
• The audible range of sound for human beings varies between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
• Ultrasonic devices are used to detect objects and measure distances. Ultrasound imaging or sonography is often used in medicine.
• Ultrasonic waves are generated by a transducer that includes a piezoelectric crystal that converts electrical energy (electric current) to mechanical energy (sound waves).

• Pernicious Anemia is a decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B1.
• Vitamin B₁₂ is also referred to as cobalamin because it contains a metal ion.
• Cyanocobalamin is used in vitamin supplements and pharmaceuticals.
• Symptoms of Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency is the smoothness of the tongue, gastrointestinal disturbances, nervous symptoms.

​The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India:
• Ferrous minerals: These minerals contain iron.
• Ferrous group of minerals in India:
• ​The major "hematite" type iron deposits(Examples: Manganese and iron) are located in well-defined belts in the States of Orissa, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.
• Coals:
• They are found on the East Coast of India- Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh.-  mostly south of the Vindhyan range.
• Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Peninsular India:
• It formed from erstwhile Gondwana land.
• Gondwana:
• It was an ancient supercontinent that contained Africa, South America, Australia, Antarctica, the Indian subcontinent and the Arabian Peninsula.
• Hence statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Port Blair.

Key Points

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park or Wandoor National Park:
• It is Located in Wandoor, Port Blair in the Andaman islands.
• It was established in 1983 under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
• Objective:
• Protection of marine life such as corals and the nesting sea turtles prevalent in the area.
• Major island groups in the park:
• Twin Islands
• Labyrinth Islands.
• The type and composition of vegetation vary from island to island.

Additional Information

• Pirotan Island:
• It is an island in the Marine National Park, Arabian Sea at a distance from Jamnagar District of Gujarat state, India.
• Rameswaram Island:
• Also called Pamban island, it is located between peninsular India and Sri Lanka, on the Rama Setu archipelago.
• Ganga Sagar Island:
• It is in the Ganges delta in the Bay of Bengal, south of Kolkata, West Bengal

The correct answer is 1 and 3.

Key Points

• Perihelion:
• The point at which an orbiting planet is closest to the sun.
• It generally occurs on January 3. Hence option 1 is correct and option 2 is incorrect.
• Aphelion:
• The point at which an orbiting planet is farthest from the sun.
• It generally occurs on July 4. Hence option 3 is correct and option 4 is incorrect**.**

Additional Information

• Solstice: 
• It is a natural phenomenon that occurs twice every year, once in the summer and again during winter
• Summer Solstice:
• Occurs on the 21^st of June.
• It is the longest day and shortest night of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.
• On this day, countries in the Northern Hemisphere are nearest to the Sun.
• Winter Solstice:
• Occurs on the 21st of December.
• It is the shortest day and longest night of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.

​The correct answer is Reunion island.

Key Points

• Reunion Island:
• Location:
• It is in the Indian Ocean east of Madagascar and southwest of Mauritius and is a region of France.
• This island is above a hotspot in the Earth’s crust.
• It is a volcanic island born some three million years ago with the emergence of the Piton des Neiges volcano. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Vulcanism:
• The hotspot is believed to have been active for over 66 million years.
• It created the Mascarene Islands, which include Mauritius, Reunion, and Rodrigues.
• Volcanoes:
• The Piton de la Fournaise (a shield volcano)
• Piton des Neiges

Additional Information

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
• It is one of the Eight Union Territories of India.
• It formed due to a collision between the Indian Plate and Burma Minor Plate.
• Lakshadweep Islands:
• They had been formed by the accumulation of coral on the volcanic tops of the Indian Ocean ridge. **The Maldives:**​
• They are a series of coral atolls built up from the crowns of a submerged ancient volcanic mountain range.

• Glucose has a molecular formula - C₆H₁₂O₆.
• It is one of the groups of carbohydrates known as monosaccharides.
• It is mainly made by plants and by most of the algae when they photosynthesize.
• It is the main source of energy in all living organisms.
• It is mainly starch in plants and glycogen in animals.
• Diabetes occurs when the body is unable to regulate levels of glucose in the blood either because of a lack of insulin in the body or the failure, by cells in the body, to respond properly to insulin.
• An increases intake of glucose may also lead to obesity.

The correct answer is Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles.

Key Points

• The cytoplasm is basically the colour less liquid and other material within the cell excluding the nucleus.
• When cytoplasm and nucleus are included, it is called Protoplasm.
• Protoplasm
• It is the living part of the cell, which comprises different cellular organelles.
• It is a jelly-like, colourless, transparent, and viscous living substance present within the cell wall.
• The term protoplasm was proposed in the year 1835 and is known as the primary substance, as it is responsible for various living processes.
• It was believed that cells were containers of protoplasm.
• However, the concept could not explain the origin of structures formed within the cell, primarily the nucleus.
• The cytoplasm is the initial component of protoplasm, which is found between the cell membrane and the cell nucleus in a eukaryotic cell.
• In the cell, a cytoplasm plays a vital role in maintaining the cell environment, maintaining the shape of cells, and also stores substances required by the organelle.
• The nucleus is the second component of the protoplasm, which stores the genetic information of an organism.
• Ribosomes are also found in the nucleus, which is essential for the production of proteins in the cell.
• Prokaryotes contain a nucleoid instead of a nucleus where all the genetic information is found.
• Protoplasm comprises the cytoplasm, nucleus, and organelles.
• Proteins, fats, enzymes, hormones, all make up the protoplasm.
• Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• These are either dissolved or suspended in the water component of the protoplasm.

​The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Norman Borlaug:
• An American agronomist, often known as “the Father of the Green Revolution”.
• Nobel prize:
• Won the Nobel peace prize in 1970.
• Contributions:
• He contributed to the green revolution.
• The World Food Prize was created by Norman Borlaug in 1986.
• He gave a lifetime of work to feed a hungry world.
• Introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Development of high-yielding crops. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Modernization of irrigation infrastructure. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Other awards:
• Presidential Medal of Freedom
• Congressional Gold Medal.

• Myopia is an eye condition in which you can see objects near to you clearly but far ones are blurry. It is also called near-sightedness.
• Myopia can be corrected by Concave lens.
• A Dioptre is a unit of measurement of the optical power of a lens.
• It is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length.
• D = 1/F 🡪 -1.25 = 1/F 🡪 Focal length is in centimetres. 🡪 F = -100/1.25
• F = -80.

Focal Length is – 80 cm.

Hence, the concave lens is used.

• Latent heat: The heat required to change one state of matter into another (solid into a liquid or vapor, or a liquid into a vapor) without in change of temperature.
• The liquid water to be formed when ice melts will be at 0° Celsius.
• Given: Latent heat of melting of ice = 333.6 J/g.
• 1 gm of ice requires 333.6 J heat to melt,
• For 100 gm, it is 33360 Joules.

Key Points 

• Chemical Change: When a substance reacts with another substance to form a new substance, it is called chemical change. It involved the rearrangement of atoms.
• The carbon compounds in the paper are oxidized into carbon dioxide and water vapor on burning.
• There is no change in chemical composition in the magnetization of soft iron, dissolution of cane sugar in water and preparation of ice cubes from water.

​The correct answer is the Melting of ice sheets.

Key Points

• Sea-level change:
• The sea level is currently rising at a rate of 0.13 inches per year.
• It has risen 8.9 inches between 1880 and 2015, much faster than in the previous 2,700 years.
• Factors responsible:
• Climate change, especially global warming,
• Thermal Expansion,
• Melting Ice sheet and
• Loss of Greenland and Antarctica’s ice sheets. Hence option 4 is correct.

Confusion Points

• Melting of icebergs v/s Melting of ice sheets:
• Icebergs:
• ​They are ice that broke off from glaciers and are floating in open water.
• Melting of icebergs or ablation release fresh water and reduce the salinity of the surrounding sea. This instance can lead to a sudden sea level rise but may not contribute significantly to long-term sea level change . Hence option 3 is incorrect.
• Ice sheets are huge and they create broad domes and spread out from their centres in all directions.
• The melting of ice sheets is the cause of long-term sea-level change.

Additional Information

• Atmospheric disturbances:
• Atmospheric pressure changes can bring strong on-shore winds within a storm (hurricane/ cyclone/typhoon). But do not lead to long-term sea level changes. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• Change in marine water density:
• It can happen due to Ocean warming which contributes to global mean sea level rise by reducing the density of seawater. However, it does not lead to long-term sea level changes. Hence option 2 is incorrect.

• The Brahmaputra river flows through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh
• In India, the Brahmaputra flows for 916 km. However, the total length of the river is 2900 km.
• It has many left and right tributaries.
• Lohit river rises from a region in Tibet.
• Teesta river rises from Tso Lhamo lake of North Sikkim Himalayas.
• Subansiri river rises in the Himalayas in China.
• Sankosh river rises in northern Bhutan.

• The Coriolis force is a pseudo force. The earth's rotation deflects moving objects (such as projectiles or air currents) to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
• The impact of the Coriolis effect is most significant with high speeds or long distances.
• The Coriolis force is perpendicular to the object's axis. The Earth spins on its axis from west to east. The Coriolis force, therefore, acts in a north-south direction.
• It is pertinent to note that the Coriolis force is not a real force. The ground is just moving at a different speed than an object in the air.

A cyclone is a general term for a weather system in which winds rotate inwardly to an area of low atmospheric pressure.

• For large weather systems, the circulation pattern is in a counterclockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere and a clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Types of cyclones include tropical cyclones, extratropical cyclones and tornadoes.​
• An eye of the cyclone is the calmest area/part of the cyclones because it has the lowest pressure area of the cyclone and the strong winds around the eye never converges in the centre of the eye but deflects because of Coriolis force.
• The eye of the storm is a low-pressure area, where wind speeds are markedly lower than anywhere else in the cyclone.
• A tremendous volume of air converging from 360 degrees around the hundreds of miles of the storm, all converging on the eye and spiralling up with an intense updraft, creating a very low pressure near the surface in the eye/core.
• High above the eyewall, this upflow begins to spread out.
• This permits cool dry air above the eye to sink down into the central core of the eye (that is why the eye is often clear and cloud free).
• The storm had a very warm eye, from the ocean to the top of the lower atmosphere at around 10 miles altitude.
• The warmest part of Erin's eye was almost 21 degrees (Fahrenheit) warmer than the surrounding air, a dramatic difference from the air around it.
• Hence, one can conclude that the eye of the cyclone has high temperature and low pressure.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only 

 Key Points

Acid Rain: 

• Acid rain means the precipitation of acidic components such as Sulfuric or Nitric acid.
• Sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen get into the upper atmosphere by wind or air currents and get mixed with water.
• The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids.
• Normal rain has a pH value of 5.6.
• It is slightly acidic due to the presence of carbon dioxide which gets dissolved into the water forming weak carbonic acid.
• However, acid rain usually has a pH between 4.2 and 4.4 because of the large quantity of acids.
• The main source of SO2 is coal fuel power plants in which SO2 emission can be reduced by new combustion techniques.
• Whereas the main source of NO2 in the atmosphere is through vehicular exhaust which can be controlled by using internal combustion engines.
• Deposition of sulfur dioxide increases the rate of corrosion on limestone.

Important PointsThe bad effects of acid rain

• When acid rain falls and flows as groundwater to reach rivers, lakes etc, it affects plants and animal life in the aquatic ecosystem
• Acid rain is harmful to agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and washes away nutrients needed for their growth
• It causes respiratory ailments in human beings and animal
• It may also cause corrosion in many buildings bridges, monuments, fencing etc
• It causes irritation in the eyes and skin of human beings
• This rain reduces the lustre of the metals too
• Acid rain damages buildings and other structures made of stone or metal
• The Taj Mahal in India has been affected by acid rain

Additional InformationEutrophication:

• Eutrophication is an enrichment of water by nutrient salts that causes structural changes to the ecosystem.
• It results in the reduction of dissolved oxygen.
• They can have a large impact on the health of rivers and estuaries such as increased production of algae and aquatic plants, depletion of fish species, and general deterioration of water quality.
• Eutrophication is an indicator of water pollution.

• Bar magnet: a magnet in the shape of a bar with a North pole at one end and the South Pole at another.
• The magnetic force is strongest at each pole and equal in magnitude.
• The like poles repel and unlike poles attract each other when two bar magnets are placed closely.
• A bar magnet attracts ferromagnetic materials.
• The magnetic field lines do not intersect each other and they form closed loops.
• The magnetic lines of force leave the North pole and enter the south pole forming a closed loop.

The correct answerHydrogen has no isotopes.

Key Points

• It is an element with the symbol H and atomic number 1.
• Hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table.
• Isotopes are the atoms of the same element with different masses.
• The three most stable isotopes of hydrogen: are protium, deuterium, and tritium.
• Deuterium is also called heavy hydrogen.
• A tritium is a radioactive form of Hydrogen.

Additional Information 

• After one set of hydrogen and oxygen molecules have reacted, the energy released triggers molecules in the surrounding mixture to react and release greater energy.
• The result is an explosive, rapid reaction that releases energy quickly in the form of heat, light, and sound.

An atom is a fundamental piece of matter or basic building block of any matter

• The atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom.
• The atomic mass number is the total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
• Isotope – When an element has the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. It means the same element can have a different mass number.
• Isotopes of different elements can have the same mass number, e.g., carbon-14 (6 protons and 8 neutrons) and nitrogen-14 (7 protons and 7 neutrons).
• Atoms of a particular element must have the same number of protons. It can not differ.
• All the atoms of an element will not always have the same number of neutrons. It can have a different number of neutrons.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The chemical industry:
• It comprises companies that produce industrial chemicals.
• The oldest chemical industry is the Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical Works,1892.
• It is one of the oldest in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India's rank is 4th, after the US, Japan, and China.
• Dyestuff sector:
• Dye is a colouring substance that changes the colour of the material permanently.
• The textile sector is a major consumer of Dyestuffs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is one of the important segments of the chemical industry. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India accounts for approximately 16% of the world's production of dyestuff and dye intermediates.
• Major producers in India:
• Maharashtra and Gujarat account for 90% of dyestuff production in India.

​The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• India’s scientific and research mission in Antarctica:
• It is India's third Antarctic research facility.
• Dakshin Gangotri is being used as a supply base station.
• Dakshin Gangotri:
• It is located at a distance of 2,500 kilometres from the South Pole.
• It was established in 1984, it was the first scientific base station in Antarctica. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was abandoned in 1988-1989 as a scientific base station. 
• ​It is currently being used as a supply base and transit camp. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Maitri: 
• It is India's second permanent research station in Antarctica, established in January 1989.
• About 25 people are constantly conducting glaciological, biological and meteorological studies in the station, so it is manned throughout the year for scientific activities. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Other Active permanent research station - Bharati:
• It is​ India's third Antarctic research facility was established in March 2013.

• Natural rubber is an elastomer or an elastic hydrocarbon polymer.
• In rubber, the monomer is a carbon compound called isoprene that has two carbon-carbon double bonds.
• It is an elastic substance obtained from the latex sap of trees belonging to Hevea and Ficus.
• Rubber trees are grown in regions that are hot and moist.
• Vulcanization is a chemical process for converting natural rubber by adding sulfur or other curative.
• Vulcanization makes rubber much stronger, more flexible, and more resistant to heat and other environmental conditions.
• Thailand is the leading natural rubber producing country, followed by Indonesia.

• An echo is a sound that is repeated because the sound waves are reflected back again and again.

Distance= velocity × time

= 340 × 0.3

= 102 m

But the distance of the wall from the person will be half of it.

= 102/2 = 51m

The correct answer is 3-2-4-1.

Key Points 

Additional Information

• Mussoorie:
• It is known as Queen of the Hills.
• Location: Distance of 35 km from Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
• Height: 2006 m above sea level.
• Shimla:
• It is the capital city of Himachal Pradesh.
• In 1864, Shimla was declared the summer capital of British India.
• Ooty:
• Location: It is in the Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu.
• It is popularly called the Queen of Hill Stations.
• Darjeeling:
• Location: In the state of West Bengal.
• It is known as the Land of the Celestial Thunderbolt and is famous for its toy train, and tea plantations.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• Hind Swaraj:
• It is a book written by Gandhi in 1909 before the Indian struggle for freedom was started by him.
• It is written in a dialogic form between the Reader and the Editor.
• In this book, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of a good life for the individual as well as society. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was not the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against the Colonial Raj in India.
• Reasons to write Hind Swaraj:
• Gandhiji was dejected by the treatment in South Africa.
• His exposure to western civilization during his study days.
• His growing interest in freeing India from British colonialism led him to write Hind Swaraj.
• It was not the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against the Colonial Raj in India.
• Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Language of Hind Swaraj:
• The book was written in Gujarati and later translated into English.
• Primarily Hind Swaraj deals with two issues:
• A critique of modern civilization.
• The nature and structure of Indian Swaraj and the means and methods to achieve it.

• Constitutional bodies in India are bodies that are mentioned in the Indian constitution. It derives its power from the Constitution. It can be created or modified only by passing the Constitutional Amendment Bill.
• Statutory Body in India is the non- constitutional body and created by an act of Parliament. A resolution is passed to create such a body.
• As per the 89^th Amendment Act, 2003, National Commission of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was divided into National Commission of Scheduled Castes and National Commission of Scheduled Tribes by inserting Article 338-A.
• National Commission for Women is a statutory body advising the government on policy matter related to Women.
• National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body set up under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 to safeguard and provide fundamental rights to Minorities.
• National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body set up in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It works towards granting the rights relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points 

• The Bandung Conference, 1955:
• Place: Bandung, Indonesia
• Participation: 29 countries of Asian and African States in 1955.
• Organized by: Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The core principles:
• Political self-determination, mutual respect for sovereignty, non-aggression, non-interference in internal affairs, and equality.
• Significance:
• The Conference was an important step towards the Non-Aligned Movement as it aimed to promote Afro-Asian economic and cultural cooperation and to oppose colonialism by any nation.
• The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Participating leaders in The Bandung Conference**:**
• Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru,
• Burmese Prime Minister U Nu,
• Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser, and
• Chinese Premier and Foreign Minister Zhou Enlai.

The correct answer is Amalananda Ghosh.

Key Points

• The Indus Valley Civilisation:
• It was a Bronze Age civilization in the north-western regions of South Asia,
• It lasted from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE, and in mature form from 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE.
• Harappa was the first site to be discovered.
• Early/Pre-Urban Harappa:
• It means the earlier phase of the Harappan culture, which paved the base stone for the urban phase.
• The settlements were often small.
• They had a distinct, specialised style of making pottery and other crafts.
• The mature Harappan culture:
• It lasted from c. 2600–1900 BCE.
• A large number of urban centres appeared throughout the geographical extent of the civilization.
• Amalananda Ghosh was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture. Hence option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• Daya Ram Sahani:
• He supervised the excavation of the Indus Valley site at Harappa in 1921-22.
• He became the first Indian to be appointed Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India(A.S.I.).
• John Marshall:
• ​He was the Director-General of the A.S.I. from 1902 to 1928.
• He oversaw the excavations of Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
• RD Banerjee:
• He is known as the discoverer of Mohenjo-Daro.

Correct Answer Both are carved out from solid rocks.

Key Points

• Kailasanath temple is one of the largest Indian megalith temples located in the Ellora, Maharashtra.
• It is said to be constructed by Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
• Shore Temple at Mamallapuram is a structural temple, built with blocks of granite.
• It was built during the reign of Narasimhavarman II of the Pallava dynasty.
• The Gupta period was from 3^rd century to mid 6^th century.

The correct answer is 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Rajput Paintings:
• It originated in late 16th and early 17th century in Rajasthan.
• Influences: Since the Mughals ruled the area, the painting has a strong reflection of Mughal influence.
• The main themes:
• Great epics of Ramayana and the Mahabharata.
• The life of Lord Krishna.
• Landscapes and humans
• Ragas, Ragini, and their sons and daughters.
• The deeds of Hamza and The deeds of Babur are not depicted in the Rajput paintings. Hence statements 3 and 4 are correct.
• Base:
• They were done on the walls of palaces, inner chambers of forts, etc.
• An 18th-century Rajput painting by the artist Nihal Chand:

Additional Information

• Schools of Rajput Painting:
• Bikaner School
• Bundi-Kota Kalam School
• Jaipur School
• Kishangarh School
• Marwar School
• Mewar School
• Raagamala School
• Amber and Jaipur

The correct answer is: '1 and 2 only'.

Key Points

• It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation.
• This statement is correct.
• The Phillips Curve illustrates an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment, showing that as inflation rises, unemployment tends to fall, and vice versa. This trade-off is primarily considered in the short run.
• The downward sloping curve of the Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run.
• This statement is correct.
• In the short run, the Phillips Curve is downward sloping, indicating a trade-off between inflation and unemployment. However, this relationship is often considered invalid in the long run, where other factors come into play.

Incorrect Statements

• In the long run, the Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU).
• This statement is incorrect.
• In the long run, the Phillips Curve is typically considered vertical, not horizontal, at the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU). This implies that there is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment in the long run, and the economy returns to its natural rate of unemployment regardless of inflation.

Hence, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Phillips Curve and Its Interpretations:
• Short Run: The Phillips Curve is downward sloping in the short run, indicating a trade-off between inflation and unemployment.
• Long Run: In the long run, the Phillips Curve is vertical at the natural rate of unemployment (NAIRU), implying no trade-off between inflation and unemployment. The long-run view suggests that unemployment cannot be reduced by increasing inflation in the long term.

• Eurasian Economic Union is a union comprising countries located in northern Eurasia.
• Belarus, Kazakhstan, Armenia, and Russia are the founding member countries of this union. It was founded in 2015.
• The EAEU ensures the free movement of goods, services, labor and capital between the states.
• As of May 2018 member states included Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia.

The correct answer is Fortaleza, Brazil (2014).

Key Points

• BRICS:
• It is the acronym for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• Founded in: 2006. South Africa, however, was included in 2010.
• The New Development Bank(NDB):
• It is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states.
• Formation of NDB:
• In the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). Hence option 3 is correct.
• Headquarter: Shanghai
• Key areas of operation:
• NDB’s key areas of operation are clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member countries.

Important Points 

• 14th BRICS Summit 2022:
• It was virtually hosted by China.
• Key Highlights:
• Beijing Declaration: It states that BRICS supports talks between Russia and Ukraine.
• Initiative on Denial of Safe Haven to Corruption.
• Humanitarian Situation in Ukraine.

• Mudra Yojana provides loans to new entrepreneurs under three categories: Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun
• Shishu: Loans up to Rs. 50,000 is provided
• Kishor: Loans up to Rs. 5 lakh is provided
• Tarun: Loans up to Rs. 5 lakh to 10 lakh is provided

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

• The Speaker can be removed from office only on a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by the effective majority. It is also mandatory to give a minimum of 14 days' notice of the intention to move the resolution.
• The Speaker may at any time by order in writing delegate to the Deputy Speaker. The vote of the Speaker is called “Casting Vote”.
• The first speaker of Lok Sabha was Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar. The current speaker is SumitraMahajan.
• The first female speaker of Lok Sabha is Meira Kumar.
• Current Speaker of Lok Sabha - Om Birla (19 June 2019 - present).

The administrative Reforms Commission is the committee appointed by the Government of India to give recommendations for reviewing the public administration system of India.

Key Points ​

• The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on 31 August 2005, as a Commission of Inquiry, under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily.
• The Commission submitted its report in 15 parts from June 2006 to May 2009.
• The ARC is the committee appointed by the Government of India for giving recommendations for reviewing the public administration system of India.

Additional Information 

• The first ARC was established on 5 January 1966.
• Morarji R Desai chaired the first administrative reforms commission of India.
• Following are some of the recommendations of ARC:
• Setting up of interstate council.
• Empowering the local governing bodies.
• To reduce the political interference in National development Council and Panning Commission.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Writs:
• They are issued by the Supreme Court and High Court.
• Purpose: for enforcement of the Fundamental rights given in Part III
• Articles of the Constitution- 
• Article 32 for Supreme Court
• Article 226 for the High court
• Writ of Prohibition:
• Prohibition simply means ‘To forbid.’
• The mandate of ‘Prohibition’:
• It is issued by a higher court against a lower court to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Scope of Prohibition Writ:
• Prohibition writ can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Prohibition Writ can’t be issued against administrative authorities, legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.
• Quo warranto is used to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• There are five types of writs:

The correct answer is Accomplished sculptor.

Key Points

• Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti):
• Location:
• It was first inscribed on the Ashokan Pillar in Kausambhi, near Allahabad.
• It was later relocated to the Allahabad fort.
• Inscriptions attribute to Samudragupta:
• The conquests of Samudragupta and the bounds of the Gupta Empire
• Harissa describes Samudragupta as a "hero of 100 wars"
• In his coins, he is shown playing the Veena.- Fine musical performances.
• He gave the king of Ceylon permission to construct a monastery in Bodhgaya.
• that he was a patron of the arts of poetry as well as a poet- The poetical talent of a genius.
• Sharp and polished intellect.
• Prayag Prashasti does not describe Samudragupta as an Accomplished sculptor.

Additional Information

• Samudragupta:
• Reigned: 335/336 CE to 375 CE
• Called ‘Napolean of India’ by V.A. Smith.
• His campaigns are mentioned in the Eran inscription (Madhya Pradesh) and The Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayaga – Prashasti).
• He followed the policy of war and conquest.
• He issued coins with the legend “restorer of the asvamedha”.

• Kamandaka’s Nitisara is based on Kautilya’s Arthashastra.
• This book was written during the Gupta Period.
• It depicts the political life, diplomacy, and statecraft in ancient times in India.

• Lilavati is a book written on Mathematics by mathematician Bhaskara II.
• The book dates back to 1150. There are 13 chapters in the Book.
• A Persian translation of the Lilavati was commissioned in 1587 by Emperor Akbar and it was executed by Faizi. It is believed that Lilavati was the name of Bhaskara’s daughter.

​The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Key Points

• Economic efficiency:
• It refers to the state that manifests optimum resource allocation, the minimum cost for producing goods and services, and the maximum outcome.
• It is when no possible organization of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The production Possibility Frontier(PPF):
• It shows the maximum possible output one can achieve when goods and services are efficiently employed.
• The PPF is a decision-making tool for managers to decide on the optimum product mix for the company.
• An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF). Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Pareto efficiency or Pareto Optimality’:
• It is an economic state where resources cannot be reallocated to make one individual better off without making at least one individual worse off.
• It states that any point within the PPF curve is considered inefficient because the total output of commodities is below the output capacity.
• Allocational efficiency is a characteristic of an efficient market in which capital is allocated in a way that is most beneficial to the parties involved.
• So, the terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, ‘Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all essentially one and the same which denotes ‘efficiency in resource allocation’. Hence statement 4 is correct.

The correct answer is Suva.

Key Points

• Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC):
• It is a multinational grouping.
• Developed in 2014 for cooperation between India and 14 Pacific Islands.
• The islands are the Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu, etc.
• First meet:
• In Suva, Fiji where the annual summit was conceptualised. Hence option 2 is correct.
• India's interest:
• India has grown commercially around the Indian Ocean and it wants to expand its horizon and engage with Pacific boundaries.

Additional Information

• Summits of FIPIC:

The correct answer is Sri Lanka.

Key Points

• 2015 Sri Lankan parliamentary election:
• Elections were held in Sri Lanka on 17 August 2015, ten months ahead of schedule, to elect 225 members to Sri Lanka's 15th Parliament. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Results:
• It reaffirmed support to the National Government of President Maithripala Sirisena and Prime Minister Ranil Wickremesinghe.
• Ranil Wickramasinghe was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka.
• The United National Front for Good Governance won 106 seats but failed to secure a majority in Parliament.

Additional Information

• Current trends:

The correct answer is Greece.

Key Points

• The severe economic crisis in the year 2015 in Greece:
• Greece became the first developed country to fail to make an IMF loan repayment on time.
• It missed a €1.6 billion payment to the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Reasons:
• In 2001, Greece joined the Eurozone, which to some, precipitated Greece's downfall.
• Greek economy suffered structural problems.
• Systematic tax evasion.
• High inflation, high fiscal and trade deficits, low growth, and problems with exchange rates.
• Between 2009 and 2017, the critical debt-to-GDP ratio reached 179% due to the severe GDP drop in the Greek economy.

The correct answer is  2, 3 and 4.

Key Points

• No-Confidence Motion:
• In India, a motion of no confidence can be introduced only in the LokSabha.
• At least 50 members of the Lok Sabha should support the motion of No Confidence.
• If a majority of the members of the House vote in favour of the motion, the motion is passed and the Government is bound to vacate the office.
• Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• The Following Prime Ministers were defeated by a vote of confidence in the respective year
• Viswanath Pratap Singh - 1990
• H. D. Deve Gowda - 1997
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee - 1999

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Rajya Sabha:
• It is also known as the Upper House of Parliament.
• Ex-officio Chairman: The Vice President of India
• Rajya Sabha is not subjected to dissolution.
• Composition:
• The maximum strength is 250, out of which:
• 238 members are representatives of the states & UTs (elected indirectly). Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.
• 12 are nominated by the President.
• Election Representatives:
• The representatives of states are elected by the members of state legislative assemblies.
• All-India Services:
• Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and the states(Article 312) (Exclusive power of it as the Lok Sabha does not have this power ). Hence option 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Special Powers of Rajya Sabha:
• Legislation on Matters of the State List
• Proclamation of the President’s Rule
• Creation of All India Services
• Removal of Vice President

• Under Article 72, President has to power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases.
• The power includes to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted for the offense.
• Article 123 of the Constitution of India grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
• The maximum validity of an ordinance is 6 months and 6 weeks.
• The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved even in the case of Emergency.
• Article 331 empowers the President to nominate a maximum of two members from the Anglo-Indian community (before the 104th Constitutional Amendment).

Important Points

• In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.

• The followers of Gorakhnath are known as Yogi/Jogi, as Nath Yogis, Gorakhnathis, Kanphatas.
• He is believed to be the founder of Kanphata yogis, that stresses the physical and spiritual disciplines of Hatha Yoga. Hatha Yoga is a technique or philosophy that uses mastery of the body as the means to spiritual perfection.

• Sikhism was founded in Punjab by Guru Nanak in the 15th Century.
• Sikh religion is believed to be have ten gurus- Guru Nanak, Guru Angad, Guru Amar Das, Guru Ram Das, Guru Arjan, Guru Hargobind, Guru Har Rai, Guru Har Krishan, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Gobind Singh.
• Misl is a term which originated in the eighteenth-century history of the Sikhs to describe a unit or brigade of Sikh warriors.
• The 'Misldar' was the leader or commander.

• Article 44 contains the provision of Uniform Civil Code. The Directive Principles of State Policies say that “the state shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”
• Article 32 contains the power given the Supreme Court for enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of India. Article 226 contains the power of the High Court.
• The Supreme Court has the power to enforce the Fundamental Rights of a person but the High Courts have the power to deal with Fundamental Right as well as the legal rights of a person/entity. Hence, we can say High Courts enjoy more power that the Supreme Court.
• Supreme Court of India is the highest Constitutional court in India. It was established in 1950. It replaced both the Federal Court of India and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council which were then at the apex of the Indian court system.

​The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Transfer payment:
• It is a one-way payment to a person or organization which has given or exchanged no goods or services for it.
• Examples: government payments to individuals through social programs such as welfare, student grants, subsidy, Social Security Payments, Old age Pensions, etc.
• Unemployment Allowance:
• It is the allowance made to people who are unemployed. It is usually made by Governments for social security. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Payment of Salary:
• ​This cannot be a transfer payment as payment is being made for the service being provided. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Social Security Payments:
• It includes Retirement, health, old age, disability, unemployment and maternity benefits. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The old age pension:
• ​It is given when a person attains a particular age. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Old age pension schemes in India:
• Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme:
• It covers Indians who are 60 years and above and live below the poverty line.
• National Pension System:
• It is available to all Citizens (can join in the age group of 18-65) of India since May 2009.
• Atal Pension Yojana:
• Any citizen of India(who subscribes between 18-40 years) can join it, It provides a minimum guaranteed pension ranging from Rs 1000 to Rs 5000 upon attaining 60 years of age.

The correct answer is Bangkok.

Key Points

• 17 August 2015 Bangkok bombing:
• A bombing took place inside the Erawan Shrine at the Ratchaprasong intersection of Bangkok, Thailand.
• The attack killed 20 people and injured 125.  Hence option 1 is correct.
• Erawan Shrine:
• It houses a statue of Phra Phrom, the Thai representation of Brahma, the Hindu god of creation.
• It was built in 1956 to ward off bad luck from a hotel that had just been built nearby.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique identity number that can be obtained by residents of India. Hence, statement 1 is true.
• The data is collected by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), a statutory authority established in January 2009.
• The Aadhaar number is linked to the resident's basic demographic and biometric information such as a photograph, ten fingerprints and two iris scans, which are stored in a centralized database. Hence, statement 2 is also true.
• The Aadhaar card has been in controversy for the breach of privacy. In 2018, the Supreme Court judgment said that no private company or bank can ask for an individual's Aadhaar as a mandatory document for verification.
• New Aadhaar cards and PDF versions of the identity document have started including a more explicit and prominent disclaimer that they are “a proof of identity, not of citizenship or date of birth,” signalling to government departments and other organisations to not use it for those purposes. Hence, statement 3 is false.

​The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4.

Key Points

• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
• He is the head of the Indian audit & account department and chief Guardian of the Public purse.
• The CAG is an independent office under Article 148, The powers of the CAG are derived from the Constitution of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Term of office:
• The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes office.
• He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6-year term. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Appointment:
• CAG is a single-member body appointed by the President of India following a recommendation by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Removal:
• The CAG can be removed only on an address from both houses of parliament on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Current CAG of India(since 8th August 2020): 
• ​Sh. Girish Chandra Murmu
• First CAG of India:
• V. Narahari Rao

The correct answer is UNDP.

Key Points

• Human Development Report:
• It is published by the Human Development Report Office of the United National Development Programme. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Goal: The goal is to contribute toward the expansion of opportunities, choice and freedom.
• Indices published:
• Human Development Index, Gender Development Index, Gender Inequality Index, Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), etc.

Important Points

• Human Development Report 2021-22:
• India's rank slipped from 130 in 2020 to 132 in 2022.
• India’s HDI value stood at 0.633 in 2021
• Drop in Life Expectancy- 71.4 years in 2021.

Additional Information Major institutions and their headquarters:

The correct answer is The obverse generally had the king’s portrait and the reverse had an image of a deity or a motif.

Key Points

• Coins of the Gupta rulers:
• They are also known as dinars and were mostly found in North India.
• The coins depicted the ruling king on the obverse and carried legends with the figure of a goddess on the reverse. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The Gupta coins were issued in gold mostly.
• Coins have also shown rulers like Samudragupta and Kumaragupta playing Vina.
• Guptas kept the practice of writing the king's name perpendicularly on the left hand in Chinese script.
• Coin of Samudragupta:

​

Additional Information

• Gupta Empire:
• Founder: Sri Gupta
• It existed from the early 4th century CE to the late 6th century CE.
• The most notable rulers: were Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II.
• This period had great scholars like Kalidas, Aryabhatta, etc.

• The grant of land or money given by kings to Brahmins for religious purposes. It may include maintaining temples, offering made to God in temples, maintaining the educational institution, etc.
• These are mainly found in the Southern part of India.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points 

• Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006:
• It is recognized to those who have been occupying the land before October 25, 1980. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments. Hence option 2 is correct.
• It recognises the rights of forest-dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers (FDST and OFTD) to forest resources on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs. Hence option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Rights Under the Forest Rights Act:
• Title rights
• Use rights
• Relief and development rights
• Forest management rights

• Leander Paes is an Indian Tennis Player. He has been awarded Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Arjuna Awards.
• Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with Martina Hingis.

• Fazle Hasan Abed of Bangladesh, the internationally renowned founder and chairperson of BRAC, was honored with 2015 World Food Prize for his unparalleled achievement in building a unique, integrated development organization that many have hailed as the most effective anti-poverty organization in the world.
• Dr. Sanjaya Rajaram was the winner of the 2014 World Food Prize.
• Baldev Singh Dhillon is an internationally renowned agricultural scientist.
• Rajender Singh Paroda is a former Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research and Secretary.

The correct answer is Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980).

Key Points

• Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980):
• Supreme Court stated that Capital punishment in India can be given only in the rarest of rare cases. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• It laid down the principle that the death penalty ought not to be awarded unless the alternative of life imprisonment is “unquestionably foreclosed”.
• Rarest of the Rare Cases:
• When the murder is committed in an extremely brutal, ridiculous, revolting, or reprehensible manner so as to awaken the intense and extreme anger in the community.
• When total wickedness and cruelty are the motives behind a murder.

Additional Information

• Capital punishment:
• It stands for the most severe form of punishment.
• It is the punishment which is awarded for the most heinous and grievous crimes against humanity.
• Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala(1980):
• Supreme Court laid down the law that a person in prison shall be given legal aid at the expense of the State by the court assigning counsel.
• Dr Upendra Baxi v. State of UP (1983):
• Supreme Court entertained a letter sent by two professors of Delhi University seeking enforcement of the constitutional rights of the inmates of a Protective Home who were living in an inhuman and degrading condition.
• Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra(1979):
• Supreme Court held that there is a world of difference between “sexual intercourse” and “rape”.

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The President of India:
• The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India.
• The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
• Under Article 78:
• The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation. Hence statements 2 and statement 3 are correct.
• It is the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.

• The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act was a controversially named landmark legislation passed by the parliament of India in 1986.
• The Act was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi government to nullify the decision in Shah Bano case.
• In Bano case, the Supreme Court held that divorced Muslim women had the right to maintenance even after the period of iddat was over.
• In Danial Latifi vs Union of India, a divorced Muslim woman is entitled to reasonable and fair provision and maintenance from her former husband and this should be paid within the period of iddah.

​The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4.

Key Points

• Vijayanagara Empire:
• Founders: Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty in 1336.
• Four Dynasties ruled Vijayanagar from A.D. 1336 TO 1672:
• Sangama
• Saluva
• Tuluva
• Aravidu
• Early Vijayanagar rulers were followers of Saivism. Virupaksha was their family God.
• The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In 1352, Bukka Raya assumed the title of Hinduraya Suratrana. 
• Suratrana means protector of gods, indicating their close links with the Gods. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The administrative and court languages of the Empire were Kannada and Telugu.
• All royal orders were signed “Shri Virupaksha”, usually in the Kannada script only. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Royal portrait sculptures were displayed in temples as the king’s visit to the temple was considered a special occasion. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Some Foreign travellers who visited the Vijaynagar empire: