SSC Stenographer · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

2650 Total Questions53 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 101–120 of 2650Page 6 of 100
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 101

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements best links a current conservation initiative for the Great Indian Bustard with its geographical location?

  1. AOption (a)

    National Avian Research Centre in Maharashtra conducted habitat simulation for GIB.

  2. BOption (b)

    Kalyan Sanctuary in Karnataka now houses the largest wild GIB population.

  3. COption (c)

    India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

  4. DOption (d)

     A GIB conservation breeding centre was set up in Kutch, Gujarat for desert climate adaptation. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan..

Key Points

  • The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is critically endangered and is primarily found in the Thar Desert region of Rajasthan.
  • The National Breeding Centre for GIB in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, was established as part of a conservation program to prevent the species from extinction.
  • In 2020, India's first successful artificial insemination of a GIB was achieved at the breeding center, marking a significant milestone in the conservation of the species.
  • This initiative is part of a larger effort under the ‘Habitat Improvement and Conservation Breeding of Great Indian Bustard’ project funded by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • The breeding center aims to increase GIB population by ensuring successful reproduction under controlled conditions and eventual release into the wild.

Additional Information

  • Great Indian Bustard (GIB) Overview
  • The GIB is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world, listed as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List.
  • It is native to the Indian subcontinent, with its largest population in Rajasthan.
  • Key threats include habitat destruction, poaching, and collisions with power lines.
  • Conservation Breeding
  • Conservation breeding involves captive breeding of species to restore declining populations.
  • This approach is particularly useful for species like GIB that face high mortality in the wild.
  • Thar Desert Ecosystem
  • The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is a key habitat for GIB.
  • It is characterized by arid conditions, sparse vegetation, and a unique ecosystem that supports several endemic species.
  • Government Initiatives for GIB Conservation
  • The National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) includes specific actions for GIB conservation.
  • The ‘Project Great Indian Bustard’ was launched to mitigate threats like habitat loss and power line collisions.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 102

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the column:

column A (Conductor Type)Column B (Mobile Charge Carriers )
A.Metal1.Positive and negative ions
B.lonised gas2.Electrons and positively charged ions
C.Electrolyte3.Electrons
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 3, B - 2, C - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1.

Key Points

  • Metals conduct electricity through free electrons, which move under the influence of an electric field, making them good conductors.
  • An ionised gas (plasma) conducts via electrons and positively charged ions, as both species act as mobile charge carriers.
  • Electrolytes such as acids, bases, and salts conduct current by movement of positive (cations) and negative (anions) ions in solution.
  • This classification shows how different materials rely on different mobile charge carriers for conduction: electrons, ions, or both.
  • The correct mapping is: A–3 (Metal–Electrons), B–2 (Ionised gas–Electrons & Positive Ions), C–1 (Electrolyte–Positive & Negative Ions).

Additional Information

  • Conduction in Metals
  • Follows the electron sea model, where delocalised electrons move freely.
  • Examples: copper, silver, and aluminium—excellent conductors due to high electron density.
  • Conduction in Ionised Gas (Plasma)
  • Plasma is called the fourth state of matter.
  • Electricity conduction occurs due to free electrons and ions created by ionisation.
  • Examples: fluorescent lamps, auroras, lightning.
  • Conduction in Electrolytes
  • Electrolytes dissociate into ions in solution (e.g., NaCl → Na⁺ + Cl⁻).
  • Used in batteries, electrolysis, and biological systems.
  • Key Concept
  • The type of mobile charge carrier determines the mechanism of current flow.
  • Solids (metals) → electrons, Liquids (electrolytes) → ions, Gases (plasma) → ions + electrons.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 103

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Birth rate measures the number of children born per 1000 people annually. (2) Pull factors include opportunities that attract people to new regions. (3) Death rate is always higher than birth rate. (4) Push factors can include civil unrest and lack of jobs.

  1. AOption (a)

    All of the above 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 4 only.

Key Points

  • Birth rate refers to the number of live births per 1,000 people in a population per year. This is a key demographic indicator.
  • Pull factors are conditions or opportunities (e.g., jobs, better living standards, education) that attract individuals to migrate to a particular area.
  • The statement “Death rate is always higher than birth rate” is incorrect. In many cases, especially in developing countries, the birth rate is higher than the death rate.
  • Push factors are adverse conditions such as civil unrest, unemployment, or environmental disasters that drive people to leave their homes.

Additional Information

  • Demographic Indicators:
  • Demographic indicators like birth rate, death rate, and migration rates are essential for understanding population trends.
  • These indicators influence government policies on healthcare, education, housing, and employment.
  • Migration Push and Pull Factors:
  • Push factors: Include poverty, political instability, natural disasters, and lack of opportunities.
  • Pull factors: Include better employment opportunities, healthcare, education, and higher quality of life.
  • Population Growth Dynamics:
  • Population growth depends on the difference between birth and death rates, along with migration.
  • In developing countries, high birth rates are often coupled with declining death rates due to improved healthcare.
  • Global Trends:
  • Developed nations typically have low birth and death rates, leading to stable or declining populations.
  • Developing nations often experience high birth rates and declining death rates, leading to rapid population growth.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 104

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What does the term ‘capital formation’ refer to in macroeconomics? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Growth in production capacity through investment

  2. BOption (b)

    Decrease in foreign direct investment 

  3. COption (c)

    Expansion of consumer credit  

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase in financial savings  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Growth in production capacity through investment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Growth in production capacity through investment.

Key Points

  • Capital formation in macroeconomics refers to the process of increasing the stock of physical and human capital in an economy through investment.
  • It involves the allocation of resources to create infrastructure, machinery, tools, and other assets that enhance production capacity.
  • Investment in capital formation is crucial for economic growth, as it raises productivity and facilitates the production of goods and services.
  • Capital formation can be categorized into physical capital (e.g., factories, equipment) and human capital (e.g., education, training).
  • This process is typically driven by savings, investments, and financial intermediation within the economy.

Additional Information

  • Physical Capital
  • Refers to tangible assets like machinery, buildings, and infrastructure that aid in production.
  • Physical capital is considered a key factor in increasing an economy's output and efficiency.
  • Human Capital
  • Refers to the skills, knowledge, and expertise of the workforce.
  • Investment in education and training improves human capital, leading to higher productivity.
  • Savings and Investment
  • Savings are essential for capital formation, as they provide the funds needed for investment.
  • Higher savings rates in an economy generally lead to increased levels of investment.
  • Role of Financial Institutions
  • Financial institutions like banks and capital markets play a critical role in channeling savings into investments.
  • They act as intermediaries, ensuring efficient allocation of funds for productive purposes.
  • Impact on Economic Growth
  • Capital formation boosts production and generates employment, leading to sustained economic growth.
  • It helps economies transition from lower-income to higher-income stages over time.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 105

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following North-Eastern states has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Tripura

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipur

  3. COption (c)

    Nagaland

  4. DOption (d)

    Arunachal Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

​Tripura

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

  • The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in four North-Eastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • Tripura has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule, specifically the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC).
  • The Sixth Schedule provides for the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) to preserve the rights, customs, and identity of tribal communities.
  • The ADCs have legislative, judicial, and executive powers, including control over land, forests, and village administration in tribal areas.
  • Tripura's tribal areas constitute about 68% of the state's total geographical area, making the Sixth Schedule crucial for governance there.

Additional Information

  • Sixth Schedule:
  • Introduced to protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal communities in select areas.
  • Applies to certain areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • Provides for decentralization through Autonomous District and Regional Councils.
  • Empowers these councils to make laws on land, forests, agriculture, customs, and other local matters.
  • Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC):
  • Established in 1985 under the Sixth Schedule.
  • Covers tribal-dominated areas of Tripura.
  • Ensures protection of tribal rights and self-governance.
  • Other North-Eastern States:
  • Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh are not governed under the Sixth Schedule.
  • Nagaland has special provisions under Article 371A, but not the Sixth Schedule.
  • Importance of Sixth Schedule:
  • Preserves tribal culture, traditions, and autonomy in governance.
  • Promotes development while ensuring tribal identity is not diluted.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 106

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the punishment for abetment of an offense under the POCSO Act?

  1. AOption (a)

    Same punishment as the offense

  2. BOption (b)

    Half the punishment prescribed for the offense

  3. COption (c)

    No punishment

  4. DOption (d)

    Community service

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Same punishment as the offense

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Same punishment as the offense.

Key Points

  • Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act, abetment of an offense is treated with the same punishment as the offense itself.
  • The Act ensures stringent penalties for individuals who aid, encourage, or facilitate the commission of sexual offenses against children.
  • Abetment is broadly defined to include instigating, engaging in conspiracy, or intentionally aiding the offense, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the Act.
  • POCSO provides legal protection to children (individuals below 18 years of age) against a wide range of sexual offenses, including abetment.
  • These provisions aim to strengthen the deterrence against child abuse and ensure accountability for all parties involved.

Additional Information

  • POCSO Act Overview:
  • The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to address child sexual abuse comprehensively.
  • It defines offenses such as penetrative sexual assault, non-penetrative sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography involving children.
  • The Act makes it mandatory to report offenses and prescribes penalties for failure to do so.
  • Abetment Under Indian Penal Code (IPC):
  • In the IPC, abetment refers to instigating, conspiring, or aiding the commission of an offense.
  • The POCSO Act builds upon IPC provisions to ensure specific protections for children.
  • Child-Friendly Procedures:
  • The POCSO Act mandates child-friendly procedures during investigation and trial, such as avoiding direct confrontation with the accused.
  • It ensures the confidentiality of the victim and provides assistance through special educators or interpreters.
  • Judicial Interpretation:
  • Indian courts have consistently reinforced strict adherence to POCSO provisions, emphasizing punishment for abetment.
  • Judgments highlight the importance of protecting the vulnerable sections of society, especially children.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 107

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere is primarily responsible for absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Thermosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Stratosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Mesosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Troposphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stratosphere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stratosphere.

Key Points

  • The Stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere, located above the Troposphere and below the Mesosphere.
  • It contains the ozone layer, which plays a vital role in absorbing the majority of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
  • The ozone layer is concentrated between 15 to 35 kilometers above Earth's surface within the Stratosphere.
  • Ultraviolet radiation absorption by ozone molecules prevents excessive UV exposure on Earth's surface, protecting living organisms from DNA damage.
  • Human activities, such as the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), have historically caused damage to the ozone layer, leading to international agreements like the Montreal Protocol to phase out ozone-depleting substances.

Additional Information

  • Ozone Layer:
  • Ozone is a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms (O3).
  • It is formed naturally through the interaction of ultraviolet light with oxygen molecules (O2) in the Stratosphere.
  • The ozone layer absorbs UV-B and UV-C radiation, while allowing UV-A radiation to pass through.
  • Atmospheric Layers:
  • The Earth's atmosphere is divided into five main layers: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, and Exosphere.
  • The Troposphere is the lowest layer, where weather occurs, while the Stratosphere is above it and houses the ozone layer.
  • The Mesosphere is known for meteoroid burning, and the Thermosphere includes the ionosphere, crucial for radio communication.
  • Ultraviolet Radiation:
  • UV radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum emitted by the Sun.
  • It is classified into three types: UV-A, UV-B, and UV-C based on wavelength.
  • Excessive UV exposure can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and immune system suppression in humans.
  • Montreal Protocol:
  • Signed in 1987, this international treaty aims to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.
  • It has been highly successful in reducing chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other harmful chemicals, aiding in ozone layer recovery.
  • The protocol is considered one of the most effective environmental treaties globally.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 108

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In the context of Mughal administration, who were referred to as Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Central Asian nobles of Turkic origin serving the Mughals

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajput converts elevated to noble ranks for loyalty

  3. COption (c)

    Persian-trained officers recruited from Safavid Iran

  4. DOption (d)

    Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule.

Key Points

  • Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis referred to indigenous Muslims, primarily those who were born in India and held administrative roles in the Mughal Empire.
  • They were distinct from the foreign-born nobles such as Persians, Afghans, or Central Asians who also served the Mughal court.
  • This group formed a significant part of the Mughal bureaucracy and contributed to the stability and governance of the empire.
  • The term "Hindustanis" emphasized their regional association with the Indian subcontinent, distinguishing them from immigrant elites.
  • Shaikhzadas often acted as a bridging community between the Mughal rulers and the local populace, facilitating smoother administration.

Additional Information

  • Nobility in Mughal Administration:
  • The Mughal nobility was a mix of ethnic groups, including Persians, Turks, Afghans, and Hindustanis.
  • They were ranked based on the mansabdari system, which determined their military and administrative responsibilities.
  • The mansabdars were categorized into zat (personal rank) and sawar (cavalry rank).
  • Central Asian Nobles:
  • These were elites of Turkic or Timurid origin who migrated from regions such as Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan.
  • They played a critical role in the early Mughal conquests and administration.
  • Persian Influence:
  • Persian culture and language heavily influenced the Mughal court.
  • Many Persian-trained officers were recruited due to their expertise in governance and military strategy.
  • Rajput and Hindu Nobles:
  • The Mughal emperors, especially Akbar, allied with Rajput rulers, integrating them into the Mughal nobility.
  • This policy helped in reducing resistance and strengthening the empire.
  • Role of Indigenous Muslims:
  • Indigenous Muslims or Shaikhzadas were crucial for local administration and revenue collection.
  • Their deep understanding of local conditions enhanced the efficiency of the Mughal governance system.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 109

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following bodies has the power to create new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States?

  1. AOption (a)

    The President of India by issuing an executive order.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Union Cabinet by a simple majority.

  3. COption (c)

    The Prime Minister with the consent of all Chief Ministers.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

Key Points

  • The creation of new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States requires a special resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha, as per Article 312 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Such a resolution must be supported by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Once the resolution is passed, Parliament gains legislative authority to enact laws for the establishment of the new All-India Service.
  • All-India Services include existing services like the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and the Indian Forest Service (IFS).
  • The Rajya Sabha's special role reflects the federal structure of India, ensuring that states have representation in decisions affecting shared administrative services.

Additional Information

  • Article 312 of the Indian Constitution:
  • This article empowers the Parliament to create new All-India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.
  • It ensures coordination between the Union and the States in key administrative functions.
  • All-India Services:
  • The All-India Services are unique to India's federal structure, where officers serve both the Union and State governments.
  • These services ensure uniformity in administrative practices across the country.
  • Special Majority:
  • A special majority requires the support of at least two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  • This ensures that major decisions have widespread support in the legislative body.
  • Rajya Sabha's Role:
  • The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) represents the states in India's federal structure.
  • Its special role in creating All-India Services underscores the importance of states in the decision-making process.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 110

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Arrange the following RBI Governors in the correct chronological order of their tenure (from earliest to latest):

  1. Dr. Y.

V. Reddy 2. Dr. D. Subbarao 3. Dr. Urjit R. Patel 4. Shri Sanjay Malhotra

  1. AOption (a)

    1,3,2,4

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3, 1, 4

  3. COption (c)

    2,1,3,4

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2,3,4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,2,3,4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Key Points

  • **Dr. Y.

V. Reddy** served as the Governor of RBI from 6 September 2003 to 5 September 2008.

  • Dr. D. Subbarao succeeded Dr. Y.

V. Reddy and held office from 5 September 2008 to 4 September 2013.

  • Dr. Urjit R. Patel served as the Governor of RBI from 4 September 2016 to 10 December 2018.
  • Shri Sanjay Malhotra is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Before becoming the Governor, he was a senior bureaucrat and served as the Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS) in the Government of India.

  • The chronological order of tenure based on the provided names is: 1 (Dr. Y.

V. Reddy), 2 (Dr. D. Subbarao), 3 (Dr. Urjit R. Patel), 4 (Shri Sanjay Malhotra).

Additional Information

  • RBI Governors:
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has had several Governors since its establishment in 1935.
  • The Governor is responsible for overseeing monetary policy, managing inflation, and ensuring financial stability in India.
  • RBI Governors are appointed by the Government of India for a term of 3 years (renewable).
  • Dr. Urjit Patel:
  • He succeeded Dr. Raghuram Rajan as the Governor of RBI.
  • Dr. Patel is known for his work on inflation targeting and the implementation of the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement.
  • Dr. D. Subbarao:
  • Dr. Subbarao implemented several measures to counter the effects of the global financial crisis during his tenure.
  • He introduced steps to increase transparency in monetary policy decisions.
  • Important Role of RBI Governors:
  • The RBI Governor plays a critical role in influencing India's economic growth and stability.
  • Key responsibilities include managing the country's currency, foreign exchange reserves, and banking regulations.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 111

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which is the largest island of India in terms of area? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Rameswaram

  2. BOption (b)

    Great Nicobar Island

  3. COption (c)

    Sriharikota

  4. DOption (d)

    Majuli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Great Nicobar Island

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Great Nicobar Island.

Key Points

  • Great Nicobar Island is the largest island in India in terms of area, covering approximately 921 square kilometers.
  • It is part of the Nicobar Islands, which are located in the southeastern region of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Union Territory.
  • The island is known for its diverse flora and fauna, including the famous Nicobar megapode, a rare bird species endemic to the region.
  • Great Nicobar Island is home to the Indira Point, the southernmost point of India.
  • The region is sparsely populated and primarily inhabited by the indigenous Shompen tribe and Nicobarese people.

Additional Information

  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of 572 islands located at the juncture of the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.
  • The islands are divided into two main groups: the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands.
  • The archipelago is known for its pristine beaches, coral reefs, and tropical rainforests.
  • Indira Point:
  • Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India, located on Great Nicobar Island.
  • It was formerly known as Parsons Point and was renamed in honor of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • Indira Point was submerged during the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, causing significant geographical changes in the area.
  • Shompen Tribe:
  • The Shompen are one of the oldest and most isolated tribes of the Nicobar Islands.
  • They practice a hunter-gatherer lifestyle and are considered a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
  • Their population is concentrated in the interior regions of Great Nicobar Island.
  • Biodiversity in Great Nicobar:
  • Great Nicobar Island is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
  • The island is home to unique species such as the Nicobar crab-eating macaque and saltwater crocodiles.
  • The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve ensures the protection of its rich ecosystem.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 112

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Where was the National shooting Championship 2024 held? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhubaneswar, Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai, Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Panaji, Go

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The National Shooting Championship 2024 was held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, a prominent location for hosting sports events in India.
  • This championship is one of the most prestigious events for Indian shooters and serves as a platform to identify and nurture talent for international competitions.
  • Bhopal has emerged as a significant center for national-level sports events, with its modern infrastructure and facilities.
  • The championship features various categories, including rifle, pistol, and shotgun events, catering to athletes from across the country.
  • The event is organized under the aegis of the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI), the governing body for shooting sports in India.

Additional Information

  • National Rifle Association of India (NRAI):
  • Established in 1951, NRAI is the governing body for shooting sports in India.
  • It is affiliated with the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) and represents India in global shooting events.
  • NRAI works to promote the sport of shooting and support athletes with training and resources.
  • Shooting Sports in India:
  • Shooting is one of India's most successful sports in international competitions, including the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.
  • Prominent Indian shooters include Abhinav Bindra, Gagan Narang, and Manu Bhaker, who have brought laurels to the country.
  • The sport is categorized into rifle, pistol, and shotgun events, with further subdivisions based on distance and targets.
  • Facilities in Bhopal:
  • The city is equipped with state-of-the-art sports facilities, including shooting ranges that meet international standards.
  • Bhopal's infrastructure supports large-scale events, making it a preferred choice for national sports championships.
  • Significance of National Shooting Championship:
  • It serves as a selection event for international competitions, including the Olympics and World Championships.
  • The championship fosters healthy competition among athletes and provides them with exposure to high-pressure situations.
  • It also encourages young talent to take up shooting as a professional sport.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 113

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is correctly matched with their leadership role in the Constituent Assembly (During the making of the Indian constitution)?

  1. AOption (a)

    G.V. Mavalankar - Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Head of the Committee on the Functions of the Assembly

  3. COption (c)

    N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar - Chairman of the Order of Business Committee

  4. DOption (d)

    K.M. Munshi-Leader of the Committee on Fundamental Rights

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

G.V. Mavalankar - Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is G.V. Mavalankar - Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly.

Key Points

  • G.V. Mavalankar, a prominent figure in the Constituent Assembly, served as the Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly.
  • The Committee was responsible for laying down the procedural framework for the Constituent Assembly.
  • Mavalankar also played a significant role as the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha post-independence, showcasing his leadership capabilities.
  • His contributions were instrumental in ensuring a smooth and structured functioning of the Assembly during the drafting of the Constitution of India.
  • The Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly focused on defining the scope and operational procedures of the Assembly, ensuring clarity in its roles.

Additional Information

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
  • He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
  • Ambedkar is widely regarded as the architect of the Indian Constitution due to his pivotal role in drafting it.
  • Constituent Assembly:
  • The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 to draft the Constitution of India.
  • It consisted of representatives from various regions and communities to ensure inclusivity.
  • The Assembly held extensive debates and discussions before finalizing the Constitution in November 1949.

**Important Points:**Important Committees of the Constituent Assembly and Their Chairmen:

Committee on the Rules of ProcedureRajendra Prasad
Steering CommitteeRajendra Prasad
Finance and Staff CommitteeRajendra Prasad
Credential CommitteeAlladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
House CommitteeB. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Ad hoc Committee on the National FlagRajendra Prasad
Committee on the Functions of the Constituent AssemblyG.V. Mavalankar
Order of Business CommitteeK.M. Munsi
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 114

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following correctly pairs a monument with its architectural style? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Khajuraho Temples - French 

  2. BOption (b)

    Qutub Minar - Indo-islamic

  3. COption (c)

    India Gate - Rajput

  4. DOption (d)

     Lotus Temple - Mughal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Qutub Minar - Indo-islamic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Qutub Minar - Indo-Islamic.

Key Points

  • Qutub Minar, located in Delhi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the finest examples of Indo-Islamic architecture.
  • It was initiated by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1192 and completed by Iltutmish, reflecting the architectural blend of Islamic and Indian styles.
  • The tower is primarily constructed from red sandstone, with intricate carvings of Arabic inscriptions and geometric patterns, showcasing Islamic artistry.
  • Its tapering structure stands at a height of approximately 73 meters and consists of five distinct storeys.
  • The Qutub Minar is surrounded by other historically significant structures, such as the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque and the Iron Pillar, adding to its cultural importance.

Additional Information

  • Indo-Islamic Architecture:
  • A distinctive blend of Indian and Islamic architectural styles that emerged during the medieval period in India.
  • Features include domes, minarets, arches, intricate calligraphy, and geometric patterns, often combined with Indian motifs like lotus and floral designs.
  • Prominent examples include Qutub Minar, Taj Mahal, and Humayun's Tomb.
  • Qutb-ud-din Aibak:
  • Founder of the Delhi Sultanate and the first ruler of the Slave Dynasty.
  • Initiated the construction of Qutub Minar as a victory tower to commemorate his conquest of Delhi.
  • Iron Pillar at Qutub Complex:
  • Located near Qutub Minar, it is a 7-meter-high pillar made of wrought iron and dates back to the Gupta period.
  • Known for its rust-resistant composition, it is a marvel of ancient Indian metallurgy.
  • Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque:
  • Situated within the Qutub Complex, it is one of the earliest mosques built in India.
  • Constructed using materials from 27 demolished Hindu and Jain temples, showcasing the amalgamation of cultural influences.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 115

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

How did Second Generation Reforms impact foreign investment in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    It reduced foreign investment

  2. BOption (b)

    It had no impact on foreign investment

  3. COption (c)

    It restricted foreign companies from entering India

  4. DOption (d)

    it increased foreign investment by improving the investment climate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

it increased foreign investment by improving the investment climate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is it increased foreign investment by improving the investment climate.

Key Points

  • The Second Generation Reforms in India were introduced in the 1990s to further liberalize the economy after the initial wave of economic reforms in 1991.
  • These reforms focused on improving the investment climate, including deregulation of industries, reducing bureaucratic red tape, and enhancing ease of doing business.
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limits were increased in several key sectors, such as telecommunications, insurance, and banking, making India more attractive to global investors.
  • Policy measures like tax reforms, financial sector liberalization, and better infrastructure development were implemented to bolster investor confidence.
  • As a result, foreign investment in India increased significantly, contributing to higher GDP growth and employment generation.

Additional Information

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
  • FDI involves investment made by a foreign entity into the business or assets of another country.
  • It plays a critical role in boosting economic growth, generating employment, and improving technological capabilities.
  • Second Generation Reforms in India:
  • Introduced after the 1991 economic crisis, they aimed to deepen the economic liberalization process.
  • They emphasized privatization, trade liberalization, infrastructure development, and financial sector reforms.
  • Sectors Opened to FDI:
  • Key sectors like telecom, aviation, retail, and insurance witnessed an increase in FDI limits.
  • This encouraged multinational corporations to invest in India's growing market.
  • Impact of Reforms:
  • India's FDI inflows surged from $2.1 billion in 1991 to over $40 billion in recent years.
  • These reforms contributed to India becoming one of the fastest-growing major economies globally.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 116

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the Following 

Column A - Literary WorkColumn B - Type
A.Naukar Ki Kameez(i)Poetry collection
B.Lagbhag Jai Hind(ii)Novel
C.Peed Par Kamra(iii)Short story collection
D.Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya(iv)Poem
  1. AOption (a)

    A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv

  3. COption (c)

    A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii

  4. DOption (d)

    A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • A - Naukar Ki Kameez: This is categorized as a Novel (ii).
  • B - Lagbhag Jai Hind: This literary work falls under Poetry Collection (i).
  • C - Peed Par Kamra: Identified as a Short Story Collection (iii).
  • D - Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya: This is a Poem (iv).
  • Thus, the correct matching is: A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv, corresponding to Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Naukar Ki Kameez: Authored by Vinod Kumar Shukla, this novel captures the struggles and aspirations of the common man in Indian society with subtle humor and deep insight.
  • Lagbhag Jai Hind: A poetry collection by noted Hindi poet Agyeya, reflecting themes of patriotism, individuality, and existentialism.
  • Peed Par Kamra: Penned by Vinod Kumar Shukla, this short story collection is known for its unique narrative style and depiction of ordinary lives in extraordinary ways.
  • Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya: A poignant poem by renowned Hindi poet Shamsher Bahadur Singh, exploring themes of loss, departure, and the transient nature of human existence.
  • Literary Genres: Novels, poetry collections, short stories, and poems are distinct literary forms, each offering unique ways of storytelling and expression.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 117

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the radius of the centre circle in a football field? 

  1. AOption (a)

    5.5 m

  2. BOption (b)

    10.5 m

  3. COption (c)

    11 m

  4. DOption (d)

    9.15 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9.15 m

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 9.15 m.

Key Points

  • The radius of the center circle in a standard football field is 9.15 meters, as per FIFA Laws of the Game.
  • The center circle is used during kick-off to ensure that the opposing team maintains a minimum distance of 9.15 meters from the ball.
  • The center circle is marked around the center spot, which is located at the midpoint of the halfway line of the field.
  • This measurement ensures uniformity across official football fields worldwide for fair gameplay.

Additional Information

  • FIFA Laws of the Game:
  • The Laws of the Game are the set of rules codified by FIFA, governing the play of football globally.
  • Law 1 outlines the dimensions and markings of the field, including the center circle.
  • Purpose of the Center Circle:
  • The center circle ensures players of the opposing team maintain a minimum distance from the ball during kick-off.
  • This rule promotes fair play and reduces interference during the game's start or after a goal.
  • Other Standard Dimensions:
  • The penalty area is 16.5 m from the goal line and extends 16.5 m on either side of the goal.
  • The goal area is 5.5 m from the goal line and 5.5 m from each goalpost.
  • Regulations for Markings:
  • The field must be rectangular, with touchlines longer than the goal lines.
  • All markings must be clear, typically in white, and follow the dimensions specified by FIFA.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 118

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

According to the Constitution of India, what is the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament?

  1. AOption (a)

    One-third of the total number of members of the House.

  2. BOption (b)

    Fifty members in the Lok Sabha and twenty-five members in the Rajya Sabha.

  3. COption (c)

    One-tenth of the total number of members of the House.

  4. DOption (d)

    One-fourth of the total number of members of the House.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

One-tenth of the total number of members of the House.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is One-tenth of the total number of members of the House.

Key Points

  • As per Article 100(3) of the Constitution of India, the quorum required to conduct meetings of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
  • The term "quorum" refers to the minimum number of members that must be present for the proceedings of a legislative body to be valid.
  • If the quorum is not met, the meeting of the House cannot proceed, and it may be adjourned.
  • The quorum ensures effective participation and functioning of the legislative process, preventing decisions being made by an insufficient number of members.
  • This provision applies to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, ensuring consistency in parliamentary practices.

Additional Information

  • Article 100 of the Indian Constitution:
  • It deals with voting in Houses, quorum, and the validity of proceedings.
  • Clause (3) specifically mentions the quorum requirement as one-tenth of the total members.
  • Lok Sabha:
  • The Lok Sabha is the lower house of India's Parliament and consists of 543 elected members.
  • For a quorum in Lok Sabha, at least 55 members must be present.
  • Rajya Sabha:
  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of India's Parliament and has a maximum strength of 250 members.
  • For a quorum in Rajya Sabha, at least 25 members must be present.
  • Importance of Quorum:
  • It prevents decision-making by an unrepresentative minority.
  • Ensures a fair and democratic legislative process.
  • Adjournment Due to Lack of Quorum:
  • If the quorum is not met, the Speaker or Chairman may adjourn the session until the required number of members are present.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 119

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Indian Union Territory has the most Scheduled Castes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Chandigarh

  3. COption (c)

    Ladakh

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakshadweep

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

  • Delhi has the highest population of Scheduled Castes among Union Territories in India, as per census data.
  • The Scheduled Castes population in Delhi is concentrated in areas like Najafgarh, Karol Bagh, and other regions with significant urban settlements.
  • Scheduled Castes in Delhi include various communities such as Chamars, Valmikis, and others identified under the SC category.
  • The urbanization of Delhi has led to higher employment opportunities for Scheduled Castes in sectors like construction, sanitation, and labor-intensive industries.
  • Government schemes like Scheduled Caste Sub-Plan (SCSP) are actively implemented in Delhi to uplift the socio-economic conditions of SC communities.

Additional Information

  • Scheduled Castes (SCs)
  • Scheduled Castes are officially designated groups of historically disadvantaged people recognized in the Constitution of India.
  • They are provided with reservations in education, employment, and political representation under Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution.
  • Census Data
  • The Census of India collects detailed population data about Scheduled Castes and other communities.
  • It provides insights into demographic distribution, literacy rates, and socio-economic conditions.
  • Scheduled Caste Sub-Plan (SCSP)
  • SCSP is a targeted development program aimed at improving the socio-economic conditions of Scheduled Castes.
  • It ensures adequate budgetary allocations for SC-specific schemes across sectors.
  • Urbanization and SCs
  • Urbanization has led to increased participation of Scheduled Castes in non-agricultural sectors such as construction and services.
  • However, challenges like discrimination and social exclusion persist despite economic opportunities.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 120

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following best describes the main objective of the Indo-French Megha-Tropiques satellite mission? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Understanding convective systems and the water cycle in tropical regions

  2. BOption (b)

    Studying polar ice melt and its impact on global sea levels  

  3. COption (c)

    Mapping mineral resources in the Himalayan region

  4. DOption (d)

    Monitoring ozone depletion over the equator

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Understanding convective systems and the water cycle in tropical regions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Understanding convective systems and the water cycle in tropical regions.

Key Points

  • The Indo-French Megha-Tropiques satellite mission aims to study convective systems, the water cycle, and energy exchanges in tropical regions.
  • It was launched on 12 October 2011 by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in collaboration with the French space agency CNES.
  • The satellite carries four advanced instruments—SAPHIR, SCARAB, MADRAS, and ROSA—to monitor precipitation, atmospheric humidity, and radiation in tropical areas.
  • Megha-Tropiques is particularly designed to gather data for climate and weather predictions, focusing on tropical cyclones, monsoons, and extreme weather events.
  • The satellite contributes significantly to global climate studies by providing high-resolution and frequent observations of the tropics.

Additional Information

  • Convective Systems:
  • Convective systems are large-scale atmospheric phenomena that involve the vertical movement of air masses.
  • They play a crucial role in the formation of clouds, precipitation, and weather patterns.
  • Studying these systems aids in understanding monsoon dynamics and climate variability.
  • Tropical Water Cycle:
  • The tropical water cycle involves processes like evaporation, condensation, and precipitation, which are essential for sustaining ecosystems.
  • Data from Megha-Tropiques helps in analyzing how water vapor contributes to heat transfer and energy balance in the atmosphere.
  • Instruments on Megha-Tropiques:
  • SAPHIR: Measures humidity profiles in the atmosphere.
  • SCARAB: Monitors Earth's radiation budget.
  • MADRAS: Tracks rainfall and cloud properties.
  • ROSA: Observes GPS signals for atmospheric studies.
  • Significance for Global Climate Studies:
  • Megha-Tropiques contributes to global satellite-based climate monitoring efforts like GEWEX (Global Energy and Water Exchanges).
  • Its data is used by meteorological agencies worldwide to improve weather forecasting and climate modeling.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Stenographer?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.