General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments.
• It is constituted by the President of India every five years or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary to ensure fiscal stability and cooperative federalism.
• The primary mandate of the commission is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, commonly referred to as vertical devolution.
• It also determines the allocation of these tax proceeds among the states themselves, known as horizontal devolution, based on various criteria like fiscal capacity and demographic performance.
• The commission specifies the principles that govern Grants-in-aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India as per Article 275.
• Its recommendations are advisory in nature and are laid before both Houses of Parliament by the President under Article 281.
• The 15^th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, recommended that the states be given 41% of the divisible pool of central taxes for the period 2021-2026.

 Additional Information

• NITI Aayog
• Established on January 1, 2015, it replaced the Planning Commission as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• It provides directional and policy inputs while fostering cooperative federalism through a bottom-up approach.
• Planning Commission
• Formed in 1950 as a non-constitutional and non-statutory body to formulate India's Five-Year Plans.
• It was dissolved in 2014 to make way for a more contemporary and collaborative institution.
• Parliament
• The supreme legislative body of India, governed by Articles 79 to 122 of the Constitution.
• While it approves the Union Budget and tax laws, it relies on the Finance Commission for professional recommendations on tax revenue sharing.

The correct answer is Reduce salaries of government employees.

Key Points

• Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if a situation has arisen where the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
• During the operation of a Financial Emergency, the executive authority of the Union extends to giving directions to any State to observe specified canons of financial propriety.
• The President is specifically authorized to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• Furthermore, the President can direct that all money bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature be reserved for their consideration after they are passed.

 Additional Information

• Emergency Provisions in India:
• National Emergency (Article 352): This is declared due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Under this, the President can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) as per Article 359.
• President's Rule (Article 356): This is imposed when the constitutional machinery in a state fails, allowing the President to dismiss State Governments and assume their functions.
• Dissolution of Parliament: While the President can dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85 on the advice of the Council of Ministers, it is not a specific feature or requirement of a Financial Emergency.
• Parliamentary Approval: A proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months by a simple majority and remains in force indefinitely until revoked.
• Historical Fact: To date, a Financial Emergency has never been declared in India, even during the severe economic crisis of 1991.

The correct answer is It uses many raga names still in use today.

Key Points

• The Raga Tarangini is a monumental work in the history of Indian classical music, authored by Pandit Lochana (also known as Lochan Kavi), who hailed from the Mithila region.
• The text is believed to have been composed around the 15^th century (specifically dated by many scholars to 1460 AD), serving as a crucial bridge between the ancient Gram-Murchana system and the modern Thaat or Mela system.
• Its primary importance lies in its nomenclature; it mentions and describes various ragas such as Bhairavi, Todi, Kafi, Kalyan, Sarang, and Kanada, which are still the backbone of modern Hindustani music.
• Pandit Lochana introduced a classification system based on 12 Melas (parent scales), which simplified the complex theoretical frameworks of earlier texts like the Sangeet Ratnakara.

 Additional Information

• Lochan Kavi's Contribution:
• His 12-Mela system acted as a precursor to the 10-Thaat classification system later standardized by Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande in the 20^th century.
• The work emphasizes the practical application of music, moving away from purely abstract ancient theories to reflect the actual performance practices of his time.
• Context of Other Options:
• Harmonium and Tabla: The Harmonium is a relatively modern instrument introduced to India in the 19^th century by European traders. While the Tabla is older, Raga Tarangini focuses on Melodic theory (Raga) rather than the introduction of these specific instruments.
• Southern Ragas: Although it shares the concept of Melas with Carnatic music, the text is fundamentally a pillar of North Indian or Hindustani musical evolution.
• Traditional Theories: Rather than rejecting traditional theories, the text evolved them to better suit the changing musical landscape of the medieval period.

The correct answer is The weight of the fluid displaced.

Key Points

• Archimedes' principle is a fundamental law in fluid mechanics formulated by the Greek mathematician and inventor Archimedes of Syracuse.
• The principle states that any object, wholly or partially immersed in a fluid (liquid or gas), is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
• This upward force is known as the buoyant force or upthrust, and it acts through the center of buoyancy of the displaced fluid.
• Mathematically, the buoyant force is calculated as F_b = ρ × V × g, where ρ represents the density of the fluid, V is the volume of the displaced fluid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
• The magnitude of the buoyant force does not depend on the weight or the material of the submerged object, but strictly on the weight of the fluid it pushes aside.

 Additional Information

• Buoyancy and Density:
• The density of an object relative to the fluid determines whether it will sink or float.
• If the object's average density is less than that of the fluid, the buoyant force will be greater than the object's weight, causing it to rise and float.
• If the object's density is greater, it will sink as the gravitational pull exceeds the upthrust.
• Apparent Weight:
• An object submerged in a fluid appears to lose weight; this apparent weight is equal to the actual weight minus the buoyant force.
• Practical Applications:
• Shipbuilding: Huge steel ships float because their hollow structure displaces a volume of water whose weight is equal to the ship's own weight.
• Hydrometers: Used to measure the relative density of liquids based on the concept of buoyancy.
• Lactometers: Used to determine the purity of milk by measuring its density.
• Hot Air Balloons: They rise because the displaced air is heavier than the hot air and the structure of the balloon combined.

The correct answer is Chidambara.

Key Points

• Sumitranandan Pant was honored with the prestigious Jnanpith Award in the year 1968 for his poetic collection titled Chidambara.
• He was the first Hindi poet to receive the Jnanpith Award, which is India's highest literary honor, establishing a landmark in Hindi literature.
• Chidambara is a compilation of his selected poems that reflect his transition from the Chhayavaadi (Romantic) style to a more philosophical and humanistic approach influenced by the teachings of Sri Aurobindo.
• The work is highly acclaimed for its rhythmic structure, aesthetic sensibility, and the profound exploration of the universal consciousness and human spirit.

 Additional Information

• Sumitranandan Pant:
• Born in Kausani, Uttarakhand, he is famously known as the Prakriti ke Sukumar Kavi (Nature's Delicate Poet).
• He was one of the four main pillars of the Chhayavaad school of Hindi poetry.
• He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1961 and the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1960.
• Pallav:
• Published in 1928, it is considered one of the defining works of the Chhayavaad era, featuring a famous preface on Hindi poetics.
• Kala Aur Budhdha Chand:
• This collection earned him the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1960, showcasing his mastery over modern poetic forms.
• Veena:
• One of his earliest works published in 1927, primarily focusing on the raw beauty of nature and romantic themes.

The correct answer is Ganga and Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• The Sunderbans Delta, also known as the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, is the largest river delta in the world, located in the South Asia region.
• It is formed by the combined waters of the Ganga (Ganges) and Brahmaputra rivers, which empty into the Bay of Bengal after flowing through India and Bangladesh.
• The delta is a complex network of distributaries, islands, and tidal waterways, covering approximately 10,000 square kilometers of land and water.
• It is famously known for its vast mangrove forests, which act as a natural barrier against cyclones and storm surges from the ocean.
• The region is exceptionally fertile due to the continuous deposition of alluvial soil carried by the major river systems from the Himalayas.

 Additional Information

• Flora and Fauna:
• The delta is named after the Sundari tree (Heritiera fomes), which is the most dominant mangrove species in the area.
• It is the primary habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger, known for its unique ability to swim in saline water.
• International Recognition:
• The Sunderbans National Park in India was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987.
• The entire area is recognized as a Ramsar Site, marking its status as a wetland of international importance.
• River Systems:
• While the Ganga and Brahmaputra are the primary architects, the Meghna River also merges with them in Bangladesh to form the final discharge.
• In contrast, the Godavari and Krishna rivers form a delta on the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh, while the Mahanadi forms its delta in Odisha.

The correct answer is Western Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Himalayan mountain range exhibits a significant variation in its width from west to east, stretching across an arc of approximately 2,400 km.
• The Western Himalayas, which include the regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, and parts of Himachal Pradesh, constitute the widest sector of the entire mountain system.
• In this western sector, the width of the mountains reaches approximately 400 km to 500 km, providing a broad geographical expanse for various sub-ranges like the Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zanskar.
• In stark contrast, the Eastern Himalayas, primarily located in Arunachal Pradesh, narrow down considerably to a width of about 150 km.
• The variation in width is geologically linked to the intensity of the tectonic compression between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate; the compression was more intense in the east, resulting in a narrower but steeper mountain profile.

 Additional Information

• Central Himalayas:
• This sector lies between the Kali River in the west and the Teesta River in the east, primarily covering the territory of Nepal.
• It serves as a transitional zone in terms of width and contains the highest peaks in the world, including Mount Everest.
• Shiwalik Himalayas:
• Also known as the Outer Himalayas, this is the southernmost and youngest range of the Himalayan system.
• Their width is quite small compared to the overall sector, ranging only from 10 km to 50 km, with altitudes rarely exceeding 1,500 meters.
• Eastern Himalayas:
• This region receives the highest monsoonal rainfall, leading to dense forest cover and high biodiversity.
• The abrupt rise from the Brahmaputra plains to high peaks is a hallmark of this narrower eastern sector.

The correct answer is Virat Kohli.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli was named the ICC Men's ODI Cricketer of the Year for 2023, marking his fourth win in this category (previously in 2012, 2017, and 2018), which is the most by any player.
• He had an exceptional year in One Day Internationals, scoring a total of 1,377 runs in 27 matches at a remarkable average of 72.47 and a strike rate of 99.13.
• During the 2023 ICC Men's Cricket World Cup hosted by India, Kohli broke the record for the most runs in a single edition of the tournament, amassing 765 runs in 11 innings.
• He reached a historic milestone during the World Cup semi-final against New Zealand by scoring his 50^th ODI century, surpassing the legendary Sachin Tendulkar's record of 49 centuries.
• His consistent performance throughout the year included six centuries and eight half-centuries, helping India reach the finals of the ODI World Cup and win the Asia Cup 2023.

 Additional Information

• Other major ICC Award winners for 2023 include:
• Pat Cummins: The Australian skipper won the Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for ICC Men's Cricketer of the Year after leading his team to the WTC title and World Cup glory.
• Usman Khawaja: Named the ICC Men's Test Cricketer of the Year for his prolific run-scoring at the top of the order for Australia.
• Suryakumar Yadav: Won the ICC Men's T20I Cricketer of the Year for the second consecutive year due to his innovative batting and high strike rate.
• Rachin Ravindra: The New Zealand all-rounder was named the ICC Men's Emerging Cricketer of the Year.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report uses six key variables to measure and explain the variation of self-reported happiness across different nations globally.
• GDP per Capita: This variable represents the economic power of a country and is adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) to reflect the relative living standards of its citizens.
• Social Support: This is measured by the national average of binary responses to the Gallup World Poll question asking if individuals have relatives or friends they can count on in times of trouble.
• Healthy Life Expectancy: This metric is derived from World Health Organization (WHO) data, estimating the number of years a person is expected to live in full health.
• Freedom to Make Life Choices: This captures the individual autonomy within a society, based on survey responses regarding satisfaction with the freedom to choose what to do with one's life.
• Generosity: This is calculated by comparing the average of responses on whether individuals have donated money to charity in the past month, adjusted for the country's GDP per capita.
• Perceptions of Corruption: This variable measures the trust in institutions by averaging responses on whether corruption is perceived as widespread in government and business sectors.

 Additional Information

• World Happiness Report (WHR) Context:
• The report is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
• The ranking is primarily based on the Cantril Ladder, where respondents rate their own current lives on a scale of 0 to 10.
• Finland has frequently secured the top position as the happiest country in the world for several consecutive years.
• The report includes a benchmark called Dystopia, an imaginary country with the world's least-happy people, used as a regression baseline.
• The first report was launched in 2012 to support the UN High-Level Meeting on well-being and happiness.

The correct answer is 1960.

Key Points

• The India men's national football team made its last appearance at the Olympic Games during the 1960 Rome Olympics. Since then, the team has not been able to qualify for the final rounds of the tournament.
• In the 1960 Rome Olympics, India was drawn into a highly challenging group, often referred to as the Group of Death, which included Hungary, France, and Peru.
• During this tournament, India delivered one of its most spirited performances by holding France to a 1-1 draw, with the legendary Tulsidas Balaram scoring the equalizer.
• The team was led by P.K. Banerjee as the captain and coached by the visionary Syed Abdul Rahim, who is credited with the Golden Era of Indian football between 1951 and 1962.
• Despite the draw against France, India lost to Hungary (2-1) and Peru (3-1), leading to an early exit from the competition, marking the end of India's consistent presence on the world stage at the Olympics.

 Additional Information

• 1956 Melbourne Olympics
• This was India's most successful Olympic campaign where they finished in 4^th place.
• Neville D'Souza became the first Asian to score a hat-trick in the Olympics during a 4-2 victory over Australia.
• India narrowly lost the bronze medal match to Bulgaria with a score of 3-0.
• Other Olympic Appearances
• India first participated in the 1948 London Olympics, which was their first major international tournament as an independent nation. They played barefoot and lost 2-1 to France.
• The team also participated in the 1952 Helsinki Olympics but suffered a heavy defeat against Yugoslavia in freezing conditions.
• Historical Context
• The decline in Olympic qualification coincided with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and FIFA introducing age-restriction rules (U-23) for the tournament starting from 1992.

The correct answer is Event Horizon Telescope.

Key Points

• The Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) is a large telescope array consisting of a global network of radio telescopes that are synchronized to function as a single, Earth-sized virtual observatory.
• On April 10, 2019, the EHT collaboration released the first-ever direct visual image of a black hole and its shadow, marking a historic milestone in astrophysics.
• The image depicts the supermassive black hole located at the center of Messier 87 (M87), a massive galaxy in the Virgo galaxy cluster, situated approximately 55 million light-years from Earth.
• This feat was accomplished using Very Long Baseline Interferometry (VLBI), a technique that allows researchers to observe celestial objects with incredibly high angular resolution by combining signals from multiple stations.
• The observation revealed a bright, ring-like structure caused by the bending of light in the intense gravity around the black hole, which has a mass 6.5 billion times that of the Sun.

 Additional Information

• Hubble Space Telescope:
• Launched in 1990, it orbits Earth and provides high-resolution images in visible, ultraviolet, and near-infrared light.
• While it has provided indirect evidence of black holes through stellar movement, it cannot resolve the event horizon directly.
• Spitzer Space Telescope:
• Launched in 2003 as part of NASA’s Great Observatories program, it specialized in infrared astronomy.
• It was used to study the hidden regions of the universe, such as dusty nebulae and the centers of galaxies, before being decommissioned in 2020.
• Kepler Space Telescope:
• Launched in 2009, its primary mission was to discover Earth-sized planets orbiting other stars.
• It used the transit method to identify over 2,700 confirmed exoplanets during its operational lifetime.

The correct answer is 117 N.

Key Points

• Mass is an intrinsic property of matter that represents the amount of substance in an object and remains constant regardless of the gravitational environment; in this case, the astronaut's mass is 70 kg.
• Weight is a measure of the gravitational force exerted on an object and is calculated using the formula Weight (W) = mass (m) × acceleration due to gravity (g).
• The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s², but for many standardized calculations and competitive exams, it is approximated as 10 m/s² to facilitate cleaner arithmetic.
• The Moon's gravity is significantly weaker than Earth's, specifically about 1/6^th of the gravitational pull found on Earth's surface.
• To find the weight on the Moon, we first determine the weight on Earth (70 kg × 10 m/s² = 700 N) and then divide by 6, or directly multiply the mass by the Moon's gravity: 70 kg × (10 / 6) m/s².
• The resulting calculation 700 / 6 equals approximately 116.67 N, which, when rounded to the nearest whole number, gives 117 N.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Differences:
• Mass is a scalar quantity measured in kilograms (kg) using a beam balance and does not change with location.
• Weight is a vector quantity measured in Newtons (N) using a spring balance and varies based on the gravitational field strength.
• Gravitational Values:
• The precise value for gravity on Earth is 9.807 m/s², while on the Moon, it is approximately 1.62 m/s².
• If using 9.8 m/s², the weight on Earth is 686 N, and 1/6^th of that is roughly 114.3 N; however, the option 117 N aligns with the standard g = 10 m/s² approximation.
• This distinction is vital for physics problems where the choice of the gravitational constant (9.8 vs 10) can slightly alter the final numerical result.

The correct answer is 1960s.

Key Points

• The Minimum Support Price (MSP) system was established in India during the 1960s to stabilize agricultural prices and ensure food security.
• The Agricultural Prices Commission (APC) was constituted in January 1965 to suggest appropriate price policies for agricultural commodities.
• The first MSP was declared by the Government of India for Wheat in the 1966-67 marketing season, following the recommendations of the L.K. Jha Committee.
• The policy was a key component of the Green Revolution strategy, intended to encourage farmers to adopt high-yielding varieties (HYV) and modern agricultural practices without fear of price crashes.
• It serves as a floor price, acting as a guarantee from the government to purchase crops at a fixed rate if market prices fall below the set threshold.

 Additional Information

• Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
• In March 1985, the Agricultural Prices Commission was renamed the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• The CACP is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare that recommends MSP for various crops based on production costs.
• The final decision on MSP levels is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister.
• Currently, the government announces MSP for 22 mandated crops, including 14 Kharif crops, 6 Rabi crops, and 2 commercial crops (Jute and Copra), along with the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane.
• The price determination factors include cost of production, demand-supply balance, price trends in domestic and international markets, and terms of trade between agricultural and non-agricultural sectors.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The Make in India initiative was officially launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, on September 25, 2014, at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
• It is a major national program designed to facilitate investment, foster innovation, enhance skill development, protect Intellectual Property, and build best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure within the country.
• The initiative is spearheaded by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• The primary objective of the program is to increase the manufacturing sector growth to 12−14% per annum and to raise the sector's contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) from 16% to 25% by 2025.
• It aims to create 100 million additional manufacturing jobs in the Indian economy by 2022 (later revised) to harness the country's demographic dividend.

 Additional Information

• Four Pillars of Make in India:
• New Processes: Improving the Ease of Doing Business through deregulation and the introduction of the e-Biz portal for single-window clearances.
• New Infrastructure: Developing Industrial Corridors, Smart Cities, and integrating state-of-the-art technology to support logistics and supply chains.
• New Sectors: Opening up Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in 25 focal sectors, including significant liberalization in Defense, Railways, and Space.
• New Mindset: Changing the role of government from a regulator to a business facilitator.
• Key Highlights:
• The Logo of the initiative is a striding lion made of cogs, symbolizing manufacturing, strength, and national pride.
• The program promotes the Zero Defect Zero Effect slogan, which encourages high-quality manufacturing with zero environmental impact.
• Focal sectors include Automobiles, Aviation, Biotechnology, Chemicals, Electronic Systems, Food Processing, and Renewable Energy.

The correct answer is Bhargavastra.

Key Points

• In 2025, India successfully developed and tested Bhargavastra, an advanced indigenous micro-missile system.
• The system is specifically engineered to counter modern asymmetric threats, focusing on the destruction of unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), low-flying aerial platforms, and light tactical ground assets.
• It incorporates high-end miniaturized seeker technology and precision-guided solid propulsion, ensuring high kill probability with a minimized collateral damage footprint.
• The Bhargavastra is highly versatile and capable of integration with man-portable air-defense systems (MANPADS), combat drones, and light utility vehicles.

 Additional Information

• Astra-II:
• It is a next-generation Beyond-Visual-Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• It utilizes an advanced dual-pulse solid rocket motor to intercept highly maneuvering supersonic aerial targets at ranges exceeding 160 kilometers.
• Pralay:
• It is a canisterized, surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) developed for the tactical regiment of the Indian Army.
• It features a payload capacity of 350 kg to 1000 kg with an operational strike range of 150 to 500 kilometers.
• Vibhavasu:
• Representing conceptual high-energy or thermal research parameters, it does not denote any active tactical micro-missile system in India's current weapon catalog.

The correct answer is Wholesale Price Index.

Key Points

• The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a primary measure used to track the changes in the price of goods traded and sold in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
• In India, the Office of Economic Adviser, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is responsible for compiling and releasing the WPI data on a monthly basis.
• The base year for the current WPI series in India is 2011-12, which provides a benchmark for comparing price fluctuations over time.
• The index specifically tracks price movements at the producer level or the 'first point of sale', providing insights into the inflationary pressures within the production and manufacturing sectors.
• The WPI basket consists of three major commodity groups: Manufactured Products (which carries the highest weightage at 64.23%), Primary Articles (22.62%), and Fuel and Power (13.15%).
• Unlike other indices, the WPI only accounts for goods and does not include the price changes of services, making it a specialized tool for industrial and commercial price analysis.

 Additional Information

• Consumer Price Index (CPI)
• Measures the average change in prices paid by retail consumers for a basket of goods and services.
• It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) and is the primary tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for inflation targeting and monetary policy.
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Deflator
• A comprehensive measure of inflation that reflects the prices of all domestically produced final goods and services in an economy.
• Calculated as the ratio of Nominal GDP to Real GDP multiplied by 100.
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
• An indicator that measures the growth rate in different industry groups of the economy in a fixed period.
• It tracks the physical volume of production rather than prices and is published by the NSO under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

The correct answer is High dependence on monsoonal variability.

Key Points

• Indian agriculture is famously described as a gamble on the monsoons because approximately 52% of the country’s Net Sown Area remains rainfed, lacking access to assured irrigation.
• The Southwest Monsoon (June to September) provides nearly 75% of India’s total annual precipitation, making the Kharif crop cycle entirely dependent on the timing and spatial distribution of these rains.
• Structural vulnerability arises from temporal and spatial variability; even a slight delay in the monsoon onset or prolonged dry spells can lead to massive crop failures and reduced yields in water-intensive crops like paddy and sugarcane.
• High dependence on rainfall limits the cropping intensity (the ability to grow more than one crop a year), as many farmers cannot sustain a Rabi season crop without significant groundwater or canal support.
• Climatic phenomena such as El Niño frequently disrupt rainfall patterns, causing droughts that directly impact the Agricultural GDP and national food security.

 Additional Information

• Mitigation Strategies:
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) was launched to achieve Har Khet Ko Pani (Water for every field) and improve water-use efficiency through Per Drop More Crop.
• Development of climate-resilient and drought-tolerant seed varieties is being prioritized by organizations like ICAR.
• Analysis of Other Constraints:
• Inadequacy of Fertile Soils: While soil erosion is a challenge, India possesses vast tracts of naturally fertile Alluvial and Black Cotton soils; thus, it is not the primary limiting factor compared to water.
• Agricultural Labor: India actually experiences disguised unemployment in rural areas, meaning there is a surplus of labor rather than a chronic shortage.
• Market Linkages: Weaknesses in the supply chain and e-NAM integration affect farmers' income and price realization rather than the physical productivity of the land itself.

The correct answer is December 2024.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Education officially notified the scrapping of the No-Detention Policy for Class 5 and Class 8 in schools under the Central Government in December 2024.
• This move allows central government-run institutions, such as Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs), to hold back students if they fail to clear the prescribed examinations.
• The decision is based on the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2019, which modified the original RTE Act of 2009 to give states and the Centre the power to decide on detention.
• According to the notification, students who fail the regular examination will be given remedial coaching and a opportunity for a re-examination within two months of the declaration of results.
• If a student fails the re-examination, the educational institution is now authorized to detain the child in the same grade to ensure they achieve the required learning outcomes.

 Additional Information

• No-Detention Policy (NDP):
• Originally implemented under Section 16 of the RTE Act, 2009, it mandated that no child be held back in any class until the completion of elementary education (up to Class 8).
• The primary objective was to reduce school dropout rates and eliminate the fear of failure among children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Reasons for Scrapping:
• Several committees, including the T.S.R. Subramanian Committee, highlighted that the policy led to a lack of accountability and a significant decline in academic standards and learning levels.
• Data from the National Achievement Survey (NAS) indicated that many students in higher classes lacked basic literacy and numeracy skills.
• Alignment with NEP 2020:
• The National Education Policy 2020 emphasizes a shift toward competency-based learning and regular assessment to track the progress of students effectively throughout their schooling.

The correct answer is Saadat Ali Khan.

Key Points

• Saadat Ali Khan I, also known as Burhan-ul-Mulk, was the founder of the independent state of Awadh in 1722. He served as the Subahdar of Awadh under the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah and was never associated with the administration of Bengal.
• Alivardi Khan was the Nawab of Bengal from 1740 to 1756. He was a strong ruler who seized power after defeating Sarfaraz Khan in the Battle of Giria and is noted for his successful military campaigns against the Maratha invaders.
• Sirajuddaulah, the grandson of Alivardi Khan, was the Nawab of Bengal from 1756 to 1757. His reign is historically significant due to the Battle of Plassey in June 1757, where he was defeated by the British East India Company forces led by Robert Clive.
• Mir Qasim served as the Nawab of Bengal from 1760 to 1763. He succeeded his father-in-law Mir Jafar with British support but later formed an alliance with the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Shuja-ud-Daula of Awadh to fight the British in the Battle of Buxar in 1764.

 Additional Information

• Nawabs of Bengal Dynasty:
• Murshid Quli Khan (1717−1727) was the first independent Nawab who transferred the capital from Dacca to Murshidabad.
• The Nawabi rule effectively ended after the Battle of Buxar, leading to the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765, which granted Diwani Rights to the British.
• Nawabs of Awadh Dynasty:
• Saadat Ali Khan I was responsible for establishing a semi-independent state as the Mughal Empire declined. He was succeeded by Safdar Jung.
• The Awadh rulers were known for their patronage of Urdu literature, architecture, and the distinct Lucknowi culture before the state was annexed in 1856.

The correct answer is Awadh.

Key Points

• Sir Henry Lawrence was a prominent British military officer and administrator who was appointed as the Chief Commissioner of Awadh (Oudh) in March 1857.
• He arrived in Lucknow just weeks before the outbreak of the Great Revolt of 1857, tasked with stabilizing the province after its controversial annexation by the British.
• Lawrence is best remembered for his leadership during the Siege of Lucknow; he anticipated the rebellion and moved the British population and loyal Indian troops into the fortified Lucknow Residency.
• His strategic foresight in stockpiling provisions and strengthening the defenses of the Residency complex is credited with the survival of the garrison during the prolonged siege.
• During the conflict, Lawrence was severely wounded by a fragment of an exploding shell on July 2, 1857, and succumbed to his injuries on July 4, 1857.

 Additional Information

• Awadh (Oudh):
• The province was formally annexed by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 on the grounds of maladministration by the then-ruler, Wajid Ali Shah.
• This annexation caused widespread resentment among the Taluqdars and the Bengal Army sepoys, many of whom hailed from this region, making it a major center of the 1857 uprising.
• Punjab:
• Before his posting in Awadh, Henry Lawrence served as the President of the Board of Administration in Punjab following its annexation in 1849.
• His brother, John Lawrence, was the Chief Commissioner of Punjab during the 1857 revolt and later became the Viceroy of India.
• Odisha and Maharashtra:
• While these regions saw localized disturbances, they were not the primary administrative focus of Henry Lawrence during the peak of the 1857 rebellion.