General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Governor of a state has the constitutional authority under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution to recommend the imposition of President’s Rule (also known as State Emergency).
• This recommendation is made when the Governor is satisfied that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, signifying a breakdown of constitutional machinery.
• While the President is the authority who officially issues the proclamation, they generally act based on a formal report submitted by the Governor, though the President can also act independently if a grave situation arises.
• Upon the imposition of President’s Rule, the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister is dismissed, and the state administration comes under the direct control of the Union Government through the Governor.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 356: Inspired by Section 93 of the Government of India Act, 1935, it allows the Center to take over state administration.
• Parliamentary Approval: Every proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both houses of Parliament within two months (60 days) by a simple majority.
• Duration: Once approved, it continues for six months and can be extended up to a maximum of three years with periodic parliamentary approval every six months.
• Judicial Oversight:
• S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994): A landmark Supreme Court judgement that established the power of judicial review over the President’s proclamation to prevent the arbitrary dismissal of state governments.
• The court ruled that the floor test in the State Legislative Assembly is the only valid way to check the majority of a government.
• Related Emergency Provisions:
• Article 352: Relates to National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Article 360: Relates to Financial Emergency, which has never been declared in India to date.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• According to Article 164 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of the state.
• While the Governor normally appoints the leader of the party that secures a majority in the State Legislative Assembly, they exercise situational discretion when no single party or alliance has a clear majority.
• In the event of a hung assembly, the Governor is responsible for appointing a person who is most likely to command the confidence of the house to ensure a stable government.
• The Governor generally invites the leader of the single largest party or a post-poll alliance to form the ministry and prove their majority on the floor of the house through a vote of confidence.
• This discretionary power is a vital constitutional function meant to prevent a constitutional breakdown or political instability within the state executive.

 Additional Information

• President:
• The President of India appoints the Prime Minister under Article 75 but does not have the authority to appoint a State Chief Minister.
• The President acts as the nominal head of the Union, whereas the Governor acts as the nominal head of the state.
• Speaker of the Assembly:
• The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Vidhan Sabha, elected by its members.
• The Speaker’s role is limited to legislative proceedings and maintaining house decorum; they hold no executive power to appoint the Chief Minister.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the real executive head of the Union Government.
• While the PM may influence political decisions through the party hierarchy, the Constitution does not grant the PM any formal power in the appointment process of a Chief Minister.

The correct answer is Human origin and elements like sound, tone, and rhythm.

Key Points

• To study the history of Indian music, one must trace back to the human origin, as music is intrinsically linked to the biological and psychological development of mankind.
• The fundamental element of music is Nada (Sound); ancient Indian musicology identifies it as the primordial vibration from which the universe emerged, often termed Nada Brahma.
• Swar (Tone) is the melodic foundation that differentiates musical sound from noise; historical study begins with how humans transitioned from monotone vocalizations to the structured Sama Veda chants.
• Laya (Rhythm) represents the temporal aspect of music, derived from natural phenomena like the heartbeat or the seasons, which provided the first rhythmic frameworks for early humans.
• Understanding these three pillars (Sound, Tone, and Rhythm) is essential before analyzing the complex Raga-Tala systems found in texts like the Natya Shastra by Bharat Muni.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Related Concepts:
• Human Evolution and Technical Skills: While technical skills are necessary for instrument making, they are considered secondary developments that occurred after the realization of vocal tone and rhythm.
• Civilization and Language: Language is a medium of literal communication, whereas music is a universal language of sound that existed prior to the formalization of scripts and complex grammars.
• Instruments and Dance: In the classical definition of Sangeetam (Gitam Vadyam tatha Nrityam), Gitam (vocal/sound) is the primary element that directs the Vadyam (instruments) and Nrityam (dance).
• Historical Foundations:
• Shruti: The history of Indian music relies on the 22 Shrutis (microtones), which are the smallest audible frequencies perceived by the human ear.
• Vedic Music: The transition from Archik (one note) and Gathik (two notes) to Samik (three notes) represents the earliest tonal history of the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Becomes 36 times smaller.

Key Points

• Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation states that every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
• The fundamental formula for this force is F = G × (m₁ × m₂) / r², where F is the gravitational force, G is the universal gravitational constant, m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between them.
• The relationship between force and distance is defined by the Inverse Square Law, which implies that the force F is proportional to 1/r².
• When the distance between the two objects is increased to six times the original distance (new distance = 6r), the new force F′ is determined by squaring the factor of change in distance.
• By substituting the new distance into the formula: F′ ∝ 1 / (6r)², which simplifies to F′ ∝ 1 / 36r². This demonstrates that the gravitational force is reduced to 1/36 of its original value, effectively becoming 36 times smaller.

 Additional Information

• Universal Gravitational Constant (G):
• The value of G is constant throughout the universe and is approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N⋅m²/kg².
• Unlike acceleration due to gravity (g), which changes based on location (such as on different planets), G remains the same regardless of where the objects are located.
• Properties of Gravitational Force:
• It is the weakest of the four fundamental forces in nature but has an infinite range.
• It is a central force, meaning it acts along the line joining the centers of the two masses.
• It is always attractive in nature, never repulsive, unlike electromagnetic forces.

The correct answer is Memories of Midnight.

Key Points

• Memories of Midnight is the direct sequel to the global bestseller The Other Side of Midnight (1973), written by the celebrated American author Sidney Sheldon and published in 1990.
• The novel picks up the narrative threads from the first book, which concluded with a high-profile trial in Greece leading to the execution of Noelle Page and Larry Douglas for a crime they did not technically commit in the manner described.
• The sequel focuses on Catherine Alexander, Larry's wife, who was believed to be dead but survived, though suffering from profound amnesia. She becomes a central figure in the continuing power struggle involving the vengeful billionaire Constantin Demiris.
• Set against the backdrop of post-World War II Europe and the Greek islands, the story explores themes of manipulation, remorse, and divine retribution as Demiris attempts to eliminate the last witnesses of his past crimes.
• The book further develops the character of Constantin Demiris, establishing him as one of the most formidable antagonists in Sheldon's literary universe, driven by an insatiable need for total control.

 Additional Information

• Master of the Game (1982):
• This novel follows the Blackwell family over several generations, starting with Jamie McGregor and his diamond-mining ventures in South Africa.
• While it remains a standalone work by Sheldon, a sequel titled 'Sidney Sheldon's Mistress of the Game' was later penned by Tilly Bagshawe.
• Bloodline (1977):
• This thriller revolves around Elizabeth Roffe, who inherits a pharmaceutical empire and must identify which of her family members is trying to assassinate her.
• It was adapted into a major motion picture in 1979 starring Audrey Hepburn.
• Morning, Noon & Night (1995):
• The plot concerns the death of billionaire Harry Stanford and the ensuing legal and personal battles among his children over a massive inheritance.
• The novel showcases Sheldon's signature style of suspense and intricate plot twists involving the wealthy elite.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Malwa Plateau is a prominent physiographic division of India located in the west-central part of the country, primarily occupying the western region of Madhya Pradesh.
• Geologically, the plateau is of volcanic origin and forms a part of the Deccan Traps, which were created by fissure eruptions of basaltic lava during the Cretaceous period.
• The region is bounded by the Vindhya Range to the south and the Madhya Bharat Pathar and Bundelkhand to the north and northeast, serving as a transitional landform between the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the Deccan Plateau.
• The plateau is characterized by a rolling surface with an average elevation ranging between 500 to 600 meters above sea level, sloping generally towards the north and northeast.
• The drainage system of the plateau includes major rivers such as the Chambal, Kali Sindh, Shipra, Parbati, and Betwa, all of which eventually join the Yamuna or the Ganga.

 Additional Information

• Soil and Agriculture:
• The plateau is covered with fertile Black Soil (also known as Regur soil), which is highly moisture-retentive and rich in iron and magnesium.
• This soil type makes the region a hub for the production of Soybean, Wheat, Cotton, and Gram.
• Regional Extensions:
• Rajasthan: While primarily in Madhya Pradesh, the southeastern portion of Rajasthan, known as the Hadoti region (including Kota, Bundi, and Jhalawar), is a part of this plateau system.
• Gujarat and Maharashtra: These states share boundaries with the plateau region but do not house the primary expanse of the Malwa landform itself.
• Climate: The region experiences a tropical climate with moderate temperatures, largely influenced by its inland location and elevation.

The correct answer is Himalayan foothills.

Key Points

• The Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8 to 16 km in width, lying parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break-of-slope.
• It is the northernmost stretch of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, forming the transition zone where the Himalayan rivers descend from the mountains and deposit heavy materials.
• The region is characterized by the accumulation of pebbles, gravel, and rock debris, making the soil structure extremely porous.
• Due to this high porosity, smaller rivers and streams disappear underground in this zone, flowing beneath the surface of the pebble-studded bed.
• The Bhabar belt extends from the Indus river in the west to the Teesta river in the east, marking the edge of the extra-peninsular mountain system.

 Additional Information

• Terai Region:
• Located south of the Bhabar belt, where the underground streams re-emerge on the surface.
• It is a wet, swampy, and marshy zone characterized by thick forest cover and high biological diversity.
• Bhangar:
• It represents the older alluvium of the Northern Plains, situated above the flood level of the rivers.
• The soil in this region often contains calcareous deposits known as Kankar.
• Khadar:
• It consists of newer, younger alluvium deposits found in the lower floodplains.
• This soil is extremely fertile and is naturally replenished every year by river floods, making it ideal for intensive farming.
• Peninsular Plateau:
• This is the oldest landmass of India, composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks like granite and gneiss, distinct from the alluvial deposits of the Himalayan foothills.

The correct answer is Economist Intelligence Unit.

Key Points

• The Global Liveability Index is an annual report published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), which provides a comprehensive assessment of the living conditions in 173 global cities.
• The index measures the relative comfort for residents based on 30 qualitative and quantitative factors divided across five distinct categories.
• The evaluation framework includes Stability (25%), Healthcare (20%), Culture and Environment (25%), Education (10%), and Infrastructure (20%).
• Each city is assigned a rating between 1 and 100, where a score of 100 represents ideal living conditions and a score of 1 represents intolerable conditions.
• The report is widely used by multinational corporations to determine relocation packages and hardship allowances for expatriates moving to different urban centers.

 Additional Information

• Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU):
• Established in 1946, it is the research and analysis division of The Economist Group.
• In addition to liveability, it is well-known for producing the Democracy Index and various World Cost of Living reports.
• United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
• This agency is responsible for publishing the Human Development Index (HDI), which ranks countries based on health, education, and income levels.
• It focuses primarily on ending poverty, reducing inequalities, and building resilience to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• An international non-governmental organization based in Cologny, Switzerland, famous for its annual meeting in Davos.
• It publishes critical global assessments such as the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report, and Global Risks Report.
• World Bank:
• A global financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries.
• It regularly publishes the World Development Report and the Global Economic Prospects report.

The correct answer is 1932.

Key Points

• World Archery was originally established as the Fédération Internationale de Tir à l'Arc (FITA) on September 4, 1931, in Lwow, Poland (now Lviv, Ukraine).
• The federation was founded by seven nations: France, Czechoslovakia, Italy, Hungary, Poland, Sweden, and the United States of America.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) officially recognized FITA as the international governing body for archery in 1932, granting it authority over the sport's regulations and its role within the Olympic Movement.
• The primary objective of the federation at its inception was to create standardized international rules and competition formats to facilitate the return of archery to the Olympic Games program.
• Upon its recognition, FITA became responsible for the technical management of the sport, including the organization of the World Archery Championships, the first of which was held in 1931 with 21 competitors.

 Additional Information

• Olympic Reinstatement (1972):
• While the governing body was recognized in 1932, archery did not return to the Olympic program until the Munich 1972 Games.
• Before this 52-year hiatus, archery had been featured in the 1900, 1904, 1908, and 1920 Olympics.
• Organization Evolution:
• The federation is headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland, the same city as the IOC headquarters.
• In 2011, the organization officially rebranded from FITA to World Archery during its 49^th Congress in Turin, Italy.
• Today, it oversees more than 160 member associations and manages major events such as the Archery World Cup and the World Archery Para Championships.

The correct answer is NISAR.

Key Points

• NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, which is a joint Earth-observing mission between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The mission utilizes Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) technology, which works by transmitting microwave signals and measuring the reflection. Since microwaves can penetrate atmospheric moisture, the satellite can monitor Earth's surface through clouds, fog, and smoke.
• As an active sensor system, SAR provides its own source of illumination, allowing the satellite to capture high-resolution imagery during both day and night, independent of solar light.
• It is the first satellite mission to employ dual frequencies, specifically the L-band (provided by NASA) and the S-band (provided by ISRO), to observe subtle changes in Earth's surface.
• The primary scientific objective is to track crustal deformation, ice-sheet collapses, and changes in terrestrial biomass, mapping the entire globe once every 12 days.

 Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-3
• This was India's third lunar exploration mission designed to demonstrate a soft landing on the lunar south pole.
• It successfully deployed the Vikram lander and Pragyan rover to conduct chemical analysis of the lunar surface.
• XPoSat
• The X-ray Polarimeter Satellite is India's first dedicated mission to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays.
• It targets high-energy celestial entities such as black holes, neutron stars, and pulsar wind nebulae using its payloads, POLIX and XSPECT.
• EOS-09
• This is part of ISRO's Earth Observation Satellite series intended for applications like agriculture, forestry, and disaster management support.
• While these satellites provide critical data, NISAR is the specific collaborative radar-focused mission described in the scenario.

The correct answer is GSLV MK III.

Key Points

• The GSLV Mk III (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III) is the most powerful and heaviest launch vehicle designed and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It earned the nickname 'Fat Boy' due to its massive lift-off weight of approximately 640 tonnes and its distinctively bulky appearance, primarily caused by the two large S200 solid strap-on boosters.
• The rocket is a three-stage vehicle comprising two solid propellant boosters, a core liquid propellant stage (L110), and a powerful cryogenic upper stage (C25) featuring the indigenous CE-20 engine.
• It is engineered to carry 4-tonne class satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) and roughly 10 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• This launch vehicle was instrumental in India's major space milestones, including the Chandrayaan-2 mission in 2019 and the successful Chandrayaan-3 lunar landing mission in 2023.
• ISRO has recently rebranded the GSLV Mk III as LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark III) to signify its versatility in reaching various orbits beyond just the geosynchronous orbit.

 Additional Information

• PSLV:
• Known as the 'Workhorse of ISRO', the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle is a highly reliable, medium-lift four-stage rocket.
• It is primarily used to deliver satellites into Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits and was used for the Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter) and Chandrayaan-1 missions.
• ASLV:
• The Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle was a five-stage solid fuel rocket developed to increase payload capacity to 150 kg for LEO.
• It served as a crucial technology demonstrator during the late 1980s and early 1990s before the advent of PSLV.
• SSLV:
• The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (mistyped as SSLP in options) is designed for on-demand launches of small satellites weighing up to 500 kg.
• It aims to provide low-cost access to space with a quick turnaround time of only 72 hours for integration.

The correct answer is Lt. Cmdr Yashasvi Solanki.

Key Points

• Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki achieved a historic milestone in May 2024 by being appointed as the first woman Navy officer to serve as an Aide-de-Camp (ADC) to the President of India.
• She was appointed to the personal staff of President Droupadi Murmu, who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, marking the first time female officers have held this prestigious position at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• Alongside her, Major Greeshma from the Indian Army was also appointed as an ADC, representing a major shift towards gender inclusivity within the highest levels of military protocol.
• The duties of an ADC involve managing the President's official ceremonies, coordinating protocol during state visits, and providing administrative support to the head of state.
• This appointment signifies the Indian Navy's commitment to the Nari Shakti initiative, encouraging women to take on operational and high-profile administrative roles.

 Additional Information

• Aide-de-Camp (ADC) Role:
• In India, the President is typically assisted by five ADCs: three from the Army, one from the Navy, and one from the Air Force.
• The position is highly selective, requiring an exemplary service record, professional competence, and strict adherence to military discipline and etiquette.
• Other Notable Firsts for Women:
• Squadron Leader Manisha Padhi: She became India's first woman Aide-de-Camp to a Governor (Governor of Mizoram) in December 2023.
• Lieutenant Commander Prerna Deosthale: She made history as the first woman officer to command an Indian Navy warship, specifically INS Trinkat.
• Captain Shiva Chouhan: She was the first woman officer to be operationally deployed at Siachen, the world's highest battlefield, in early 2023.

The correct answer is 1977 Industrial Policy.

Key Points

• The 1977 Industrial Policy was announced by the Janata Party Government, marking a significant departure from the previous emphasis on heavy industries towards employment-oriented growth.
• It gave a major thrust to the small-scale sector, cottage industries, and village industries to promote decentralized industrialization and rural development.
• The policy introduced the concept of the Tiny Sector, targeting units with low investment in machinery and equipment to support the smallest entrepreneurs.
• A crucial institutional mechanism introduced was the District Industries Centers (DICs), designed to provide all integrated services and support to small-scale industries at the district level under a single roof.
• The number of items reserved exclusively for the small-scale sector was drastically increased from 180 to 807 items to protect them from competition with large-scale units.

 Additional Information

• 1948 Industrial Policy:
• This was the first industrial policy of independent India, which established the framework for a Mixed Economy.
• It classified industries into four categories: Strategic, Key, Important, and Other industries.
• 1956 Industrial Policy:
• Known as the Economic Constitution of India, it was based on the Mahalanobis Model of development.
• It prioritized the Public Sector and the development of heavy and basic industries.
• 1980 Industrial Policy:
• This policy aimed to promote the concept of Economic Federation and focused on industrial licensing liberalization.
• It sought to increase productivity and correct the distortions introduced by previous policy regimes while re-emphasizing the 1956 resolution.

The correct answer is Digboi.

Key Points

• The first oil refinery in India was established at Digboi, located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, and was commissioned on December 11, 1901.
• It was set up by the Assam Oil Company Limited following the discovery of crude oil in the region in 1889, marking the beginning of the organized petroleum industry in India.
• Digboi is famously known as the Oil City of Assam and holds the distinction of being the oldest operating oil refinery in Asia and one of the oldest in the world.
• The refinery was established to process crude oil sourced from the Digboi oil field, which was the first commercially productive oil field in the Indian subcontinent.
• Today, the refinery is a unit of the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), specifically under its Assam Oil Division, and continues to produce a wide range of petroleum products.

 Additional Information

• Haldia
• Located in West Bengal, this refinery was commissioned in 1975.
• It plays a vital role in supplying petroleum products to the Eastern and North-Eastern parts of India.
• Koyali
• Commonly known as the Gujarat Refinery, it is situated near Vadodara and was established in 1965.
• It was built with technical assistance from the Soviet Union and is currently one of the largest refineries operated by IOCL.
• Barauni
• Situated in the Begusarai district of Bihar, it was commissioned in 1964.
• This refinery was also developed in collaboration with the USSR and Romania to process crude oil from the Naharkatiya and Moran oil fields in Assam.

The correct answer is High inflation.

Key Points

• Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total value of all goods and services produced within a country at current market prices, meaning it accounts for both changes in production volume and changes in prices.
• Real GDP measures the economic output adjusted for price changes (inflation or deflation) by using constant prices from a designated base year, providing a clearer picture of actual production growth.
• The divergence between these two metrics is captured by the GDP Deflator, a price index calculated as \( (\text{Nominal GDP} / \text{Real GDP}) \times 100 \), which serves as a broad measure of inflation.
• When Nominal GDP rises faster than Real GDP, the growth in the nominal figure is not solely due to increased output but is heavily influenced by a significant rise in the general price level.
• This scenario directly indicates High inflation, as the cost of goods and services is increasing rapidly, causing the nominal value of the economy to swell even if the physical quantity of goods produced remains relatively stable or grows slowly.

 Additional Information

• Inflation and Deflation:
• Deflation: Characterized by a general decline in prices; in this case, Real GDP growth would typically exceed Nominal GDP growth.
• Falling Inflation: Often called disinflation, this refers to a reduction in the rate at which prices increase, rather than a total decline in price levels.
• Economic Growth Metrics:
• Zero Growth: A state where the Real GDP remains constant over time, indicating no improvement in the country's productive capacity or standard of living.
• Purchasing Power: During periods of high inflation, the purchasing power of the domestic currency declines, requiring more money to buy the same amount of goods as in the previous year.

The correct answer is Persistent trade deficit due to imports.

Key Points

• India's Balance of Trade (BoT) is primarily characterized by a structural and persistent trade deficit, which occurs when the total monetary value of merchandise imports consistently exceeds the value of merchandise exports.
• The single largest contributor to this gap is Petroleum, Oil, and Lubricants (POL); India relies on imports for approximately 85% of its domestic crude oil demand, making the trade balance highly sensitive to global oil price fluctuations.
• Non-oil imports also play a major role, specifically Gold and Electronic Goods, where high domestic demand for investment assets and consumer technology leads to a significant outflow of foreign exchange.
• While India maintains a significant trade surplus in services (driven by IT and consultancy), it is often insufficient to fully offset the massive merchandise trade deficit, leading to a negative impact on the overall Current Account Balance.

 Additional Information

• Service Sector Surplus:
• This refers to the positive balance in Invisibles, where India is a global leader in exporting software services and BPM (Business Process Management).
• While a strength, this surplus is typically not large enough to bridge the visible trade gap created by essential raw material imports.
• Trading Partner Dynamics:
• India has diversified its trade significantly across regions like the UAE, USA, and European Union, reducing overdependence on any single nation.
• However, a massive bilateral trade deficit persists with China, primarily due to the heavy import of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) and industrial machinery.
• High Tariff Structure:
• Tariffs are custom duties used as a policy tool to promote the Make in India initiative and protect MSMEs from foreign dumping.
• While high tariffs can be a trade barrier, they are a regulatory feature rather than the core structural drawback of the Trade Balance itself.

The correct answer is PM-DAKSH Scheme.

Key Points

• The PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 2020-21.
• The government has approved the implementation of this social development scheme for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 with a total financial outlay of Rs. 450.25 Crores.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to enhance the competency levels of the target groups to make them employable for both self-employment and wage-employment.
• The target beneficiaries include Scheduled Castes (SCs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs) with annual income below Rs. 3 Lakh, Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-notified Tribes (DNTs), and Safai Karamcharis.
• Training programs offered under the scheme include Up-skilling/Reskilling, Short-term Training, Entrepreneurship Development Programs, and Long-term Training.

 Additional Information

• SMILE Scheme:
• Stands for Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise.
• It has been allocated an outlay of Rs. 365 Crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• The scheme focuses on the comprehensive rehabilitation of transgender persons and persons engaged in the act of begging.
• NAMASTE Scheme:
• Stands for National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem.
• This initiative aims to ensure zero fatalities in sanitation work in India and provide sustainable livelihoods for sanitation workers.
• Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan:
• Launched on August 15, 2020, this campaign aims to address the issue of drug abuse.
• It focuses on community mobilization and awareness generation in vulnerable districts across the country.

The correct answer is Malabar.

Key Points

• The kingdom of Mysore rose to prominence in South India under the leadership of powerful rulers such as Haidar Ali (reigned 1761–1782) and his son Tipu Sultan (reigned 1782–1799).
• Mysore strategically controlled the highly profitable trade along the Malabar coast, a region famous for its production of premium spices.
• The English East India Company was a major buyer of pepper and cardamom from this region, which formed a significant part of their commercial revenue.
• In 1785, Tipu Sultan restricted the trade by stopping the export of sandalwood, pepper, and cardamom through the ports of his kingdom.
• He also prohibited local merchants from trading with the British, seeking to establish direct state control over the economy and modernizing his military with the help of the French.
• This economic defiance, coupled with Mysore’s military strength, posed a major threat to British political and commercial interests in India, leading to the Anglo-Mysore Wars.

 Additional Information

• Malabar Coast:
• Stretches along the southwestern coast of the Indian peninsula, primarily in the state of Kerala.
• It is historically renowned as the Spice Coast and was the landing site for Vasco da Gama in 1498.
• Coromandel Coast:
• Refers to the southeastern coastal region of India between the Kaveri delta and the Krishna River.
• Major colonial trade centers like Madras (British) and Pondicherry (French) were located here.
• Hooghly:
• A significant river port in Bengal; the first English factory was established here in 1651 on the banks of the River Hooghly.
• Bombay:
• Located on the Konkan Coast, it was handed over to the British by the Portuguese as dowry in 1661 and became their primary naval and commercial base in Western India.

The correct answer is Rangoon.

Key Points

• Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last ruler of the Mughal Dynasty, was proclaimed the symbolic leader of the Revolt of 1857 by the rebel Indian sepoys.
• After British forces successfully recaptured Delhi in September 1857, the emperor was apprehended by Major William Hodson at Humayun’s Tomb.
• Following his capture, he was tried at the Red Fort for his involvement in the uprising and was subsequently convicted of treason and conspiracy against the British Crown.
• In 1858, the British authorities exiled him to Rangoon (modern-day Yangon) in Burma (now Myanmar), effectively terminating the Mughal Empire.
• He remained in confinement in Rangoon until his death on November 7, 1862, at the age of 87, and was buried there.

 Additional Information

• Andaman Islands:
• These islands became infamous for the Cellular Jail (Kala Pani), where the British exiled many political prisoners, including V.D. Savarkar, but it was not used for the last Mughal Emperor.
• Dhaka:
• A prominent city in the Bengal Presidency, Dhaka was an important administrative and manufacturing center but did not serve as a place of exile for Bahadur Shah Zafar.
• Shanghai:
• A major port in China, Shanghai was a site of British commercial interest following the Opium Wars, but it had no historical involvement in the detention of leaders from the 1857 revolt.
• Poetic Legacy:
• An accomplished Urdu poet, Zafar composed many verses expressing his grief and longing for his homeland during his years of exile in Burma.

The correct answer is 1996.

Key Points

• Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as the 10^th Prime Minister of India and assumed the office for the first time in 1996.
• Following the 11^th General Elections held in May 1996, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) emerged as the single largest party in the Lok Sabha with 161 seats.
• President Shankar Dayal Sharma invited Vajpayee to form the government, and he was sworn in on May 16, 1996.
• His first tenure is historically significant for being one of the shortest in Indian history, lasting only 13 days.
• Vajpayee resigned on June 1, 1996, after failing to secure support from other regional parties to prove a majority before a vote of confidence could take place.

 Additional Information

• Subsequent Tenures:
• He served a second term from 1998 to 1999 (13 months) and a third full term from 1999 to 2004.
• He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to complete a full five-year term in office.
• Major Achievements:
• He oversaw the Pokhran-II nuclear tests in May 1998, establishing India as a nuclear-armed state.
• He launched the Golden Quadrilateral project to connect major Indian metros via high-speed highways.
• He led the country during the Kargil War of 1999 against Pakistan.
• Honors and Legacy:
• He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 2015.
• His birth anniversary, December 25, is celebrated across India as Good Governance Day.