SSC GD Constable · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

6845 Total Questions320 Official PapersYears: 2019–2026Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 21–40 of 6845Page 2 of 100
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 21

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

The maximum number of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is restricted to:

  1. AOption (a)

    10% of Lok Sabha

  2. BOption (b)

    12% of Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    15% of Lok Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    20% of Lok Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

15% of Lok Sabha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 15% of Lok Sabha.

Key Points

  • The size of the Union Council of Ministers was formally limited by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Before this amendment, there was no specific numerical limit on the number of ministers, which often led to the formation of large cabinets for political convenience.
  • According to Article 75 (1A) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
  • This constitutional provision aims to ensure administrative efficiency, reduce the burden on the exchequer, and maintain the sanctity of the cabinet system by preventing jumbo ministries.
  • Based on the current strength of the Lok Sabha, which is 543 elected members, the maximum permissible number of ministers at the central level is 81.

 Additional Information

  • Provisions for State Governments:
  • Similar to the Union level, Article 164 (1A) restricts the size of the Council of Ministers in a State. The number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
  • For smaller states, the law provides a minimum threshold where the number of ministers shall not be less than 12.
  • Specific Exception for Delhi:
  • Under the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi follows a different rule. Article 239AA limits the number of ministers to 10% of the total membership of the Delhi Legislative Assembly, resulting in a maximum of 7 ministers.
  • Categorization of Ministers:
  • The Council of Ministers is a multi-tier body comprising Cabinet Ministers (who lead major ministries), Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. The 15% limit applies to the sum of all these categories.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 22

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which musical instrument typically accompanies the Tippani dance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhol and manjira (small cymbals)

  2. BOption (b)

    Tabla and harmonium

  3. COption (c)

    Flute and veena

  4. DOption (d)

    Sitar and sarangi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dhol and manjira (small cymbals)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dhol and manjira (small cymbals).

Key Points

  • The Tippani dance, also known as Matla Dance, is a traditional folk dance from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, specifically the coastal areas of Chorwad and Veraval.
  • It is primarily performed by the women of the Koli and Bhil communities, who historically used this rhythmic activity to reduce the monotony of manual labor.
  • The Dhol (a double-headed drum) and Manjira (small hand cymbals) are the vital musical instruments that provide the necessary rhythmic accompaniment for the performers to maintain a steady tempo.
  • The dance utilizes a unique prop called a Tippani, which is a long wooden stick (approximately 175 cm) with a square wooden or iron block called a Garbo attached at the end.
  • Dancers strike the Tippani poles against the floor in synchronization with the beats of the Dhol, creating a powerful percussive sound that mimics the process of leveling ground or beating limestone for construction.

 Additional Information

  • Detailed Aspects of the Dance:
  • Zanz: Large metallic cymbals are often used alongside the Manjira to add depth to the musical arrangement during high-energy segments.
  • Chaniya Choli: The performers wear vibrant, traditional Gujarati folk costumes, often featuring intricate mirror work and embroidery typical of the Saurashtra region.
  • Transition of Tempo: The performance usually begins with a slow beat and gradually accelerates into a fast-paced finale, showcasing the physical stamina of the dancers.
  • Other Folk Dances of Gujarat:
  • Garba: A globally recognized dance performed in a circle around a perforated clay lamp (Garba Deep), predominantly during the Navratri festival.
  • Bhavai: A traditional folk theater form where performers balance multiple brass pitchers on their heads while dancing.
  • Siddi Dhamal: A rhythmic dance performed by the Siddi community (of African descent) featuring the Dhamal drum and unique vocal patterns.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 23

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which Veda is primarily known for its musical content?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rigveda

  2. BOption (b)

    Samaveda

  3. COption (c)

    Yajurveda

  4. DOption (d)

    Atharvaveda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Samaveda

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Samaveda.

Key Points

  • The Samaveda is the second of the four Vedas and is known as the Veda of Melodies and Chants, serving as the foundational text for Indian Classical Music and dance.
  • It contains a total of 1,875 verses, the majority of which are taken from the Rigveda, specifically from the 8th and 9th Mandalas, and rearranged for musical performance.
  • The hymns of the Samaveda were traditionally chanted by the Udgatar priests during Soma sacrifices and other significant Vedic rituals.
  • This Veda introduced the concept of the seven musical notes (Saptaswara), which are Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni, forming the core of the Gandharva Veda (the science of music).
  • It is divided into two primary parts: the Archika (collection of hymns) and the Gana (songbooks that provide instructions on how the verses should be sung).

 Additional Information

  • Rigveda:
  • It is the oldest of the four Vedas, consisting of 1,028 hymns (Suktas) organized into 10 Mandalas.
  • It focuses on prayers to nature deities such as Indra (God of Thunder), Agni (God of Fire), and Varuna (God of Water).
  • Yajurveda:
  • Known as the Veda of Rituals, it contains prose mantras and instructions for performing Yajnas (sacrificial ceremonies).
  • It is categorized into two versions: the Shukla Yajurveda (White/Pure) and the Krishna Yajurveda (Black/Dark).
  • Atharvaveda:
  • This Veda deals with magical spells, charms, and incantations meant to ward off evil and cure diseases.
  • It is a crucial source for ancient Indian medicine (Ayurveda) and describes the socio-cultural life of the later Vedic period.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 24

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Why does the moon exert less gravitational force than Earth?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is smaller in size

  2. BOption (b)

    It has less mass

  3. COption (c)

    It rotates faster

  4. DOption (d)

    It is farther from the Sun

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It has less mass

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It has less mass.

Key Points

  • According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, the force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • The mass of the Moon is approximately 7.347 × 1022 kg, which is roughly 1.2% (or about 1/81) of Earth's mass (5.972 × 1024 kg). Because gravity is a property of matter, the less matter (mass) an object has, the weaker its gravitational pull.
  • The surface gravity of a celestial body is calculated using the formula \( g = \frac{G \times M}{R^2} \). Although the Moon's radius (R) is smaller than Earth's, the significantly smaller mass (M) results in a lower value for g.
  • The Moon's gravitational force is only about 1/6th (approximately 1.62 m/s2) of the gravitational force found on Earth (9.8 m/s2). This means an object on the Moon weighs six times less than it does on Earth, even though its mass remains constant.

 Additional Information

  • Factors Influencing Gravity
  • Mass: This is the primary determinant of gravitational strength. Greater mass creates a deeper "well" in spacetime, exerting more force on surrounding objects.
  • Distance/Radius: Gravity weakens as the distance from the center of mass increases. While the Moon is smaller in size, its low mass outweighs the effect of having a smaller radius.
  • Rotation Speed: The rotational velocity of a planet or moon creates centrifugal force, which slightly counteracts gravity at the equator, but it does not change the actual gravitational force generated by mass.
  • Sun's Influence: The distance from the Sun affects the orbital path of the Earth-Moon system but does not dictate the local gravity experienced on the surface of the Moon itself.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 25

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Who is the author of The Palace of Illusions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

  2. BOption (b)

    Sudha Murthy

  3. COption (c)

    Devdutt Pattanaik

  4. DOption (d)

    Kavita Kane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni.

Key Points

  • Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni is a renowned Indian-American author, poet, and the Betty and Gene McDavid Professor of Creative Writing at the University of Houston.
  • The Palace of Illusions, published in 2008, is her award-winning novel that provides a first-person retelling of the Mahabharata from the perspective of Draupadi (Panchaali).
  • The novel is significant for its feminist interpretation of the patriarchal epic, exploring Draupadi's childhood, her marriage to the five Pandavas, her complicated relationship with Karna, and her spiritual bond with Krishna.
  • Through this work, the author reimagines the Kurukshetra War and the events leading up to it, focusing on the internal emotional world and agency of the female protagonist.
  • Apart from this book, she is well-known for The Mistress of Spices, Before We Visit the Goddess, and The Forest of Enchantments (a retelling of the Ramayana from Sita's perspective).

 Additional Information

  • Sudha Murthy:
  • An Indian educator, author, and philanthropist who serves as the chairperson of the Infosys Foundation.
  • Her popular literary works include Wise and Otherwise, Dollar Bahu, and The Serpent's Revenge.
  • Devdutt Pattanaik:
  • A prominent Indian mythologist and illustrator known for his books on Hindu mythology and their application in modern management.
  • His notable works include Jaya: An Illustrated Retelling of the Mahabharata, Sita, and Mithya.
  • Kavita Kane:
  • A leading author in the genre of mythological fiction in India, famous for giving voice to overlooked female characters from epics.
  • Her bibliography includes Karna's Wife: The Outcast's Queen, Sita's Sister, and Lanka's Princess.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 26

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which of the following is an example of the Generosity factor in the Happiness Index?

  1. AOption (a)

    National tax rates

  2. BOption (b)

    Foreign aid

  3. COption (c)

    Government subsidies

  4. DOption (d)

    Willingness to donate to charity or help others

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Willingness to donate to charity or help others

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Willingness to donate to charity or help others.

Key Points

  • The World Happiness Index is an annual publication of the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), which ranks countries based on subjective well-being.
  • Generosity is identified as one of the six fundamental variables used to explain geographic variations in happiness, representing the altruistic nature of a population.
  • This factor is specifically quantified by the national average of responses to the Gallup World Poll question: 'Have you donated money to a charity in the past month?'
  • The indicator serves as a proxy for social capital and community trust, measuring how much individuals value the welfare of others within their society.
  • Unlike economic metrics that track wealth accumulation, the generosity variable captures pro-social behavior, which is a critical driver of human connection and emotional satisfaction.

 Additional Information

  • Core Indicators of the Happiness Index:
  • GDP per Capita: A measure of a country's economic output per person, adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
  • Social Support: Calculated by the presence of a support network or someone to rely on during difficult times.
  • Healthy Life Expectancy: Based on World Health Organization (WHO) data regarding physical health and survival rates.
  • Freedom to Make Life Choices: Evaluates the perceived sense of autonomy in personal and professional decisions.
  • Perceptions of Corruption: Assesses the level of trust in government institutions and business environments.
  • Distinction from Other Options:
  • National Tax Rates: These represent mandatory government revenue collection rather than voluntary acts of charity.
  • Foreign Aid: This refers to inter-governmental transfers of resources and does not reflect individual citizen generosity.
  • Government Subsidies: These are fiscal interventions to support industries or low-income groups, distinct from the private donations measured by the index.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 27

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Earth's magnetic field protects us from charged solar particles. What happens when Earth's magnetic field weakens temporarily?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increased auroras and radiation risk

  2. BOption (b)

    Complete loss of atmosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Increase in gravity

  4. DOption (d)

    No effect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Increased auroras and radiation risk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Increased auroras and radiation risk.

Key Points

  • The Magnetosphere acts as Earths primary protective shield, generated by the geodynamo effect within the liquid outer core, which deflects the solar wind and galactic cosmic radiation away from the planet.
  • During periods of temporary weakening, such as geomagnetic excursions or the early stages of a polar reversal, the magnetic field intensity can drop by up to 90%, significantly reducing its shielding capacity.
  • A weakened field allows high-energy charged particles from the Sun to penetrate deeper into the ionosphere and thermosphere, leading to the appearance of auroras (Northern and Southern Lights) at much lower latitudes than usual.
  • Increased solar particle flux elevates the radiation risk for high-altitude aviation, space missions, and can induce geomagnetic currents that threaten electrical power grids and global navigation satellite systems (GNSS).

 Additional Information

  • Geomagnetic Reversals:
  • These are long-term events where the magnetic North and South poles swap positions; the last major reversal was the Brunhes-Matuyama reversal roughly 780,000 years ago.
  • Scientific data from the Laschamp event (approx. 41,000 years ago) suggests that even brief weakenings can impact ozone layer stability due to increased nitric oxide production.
  • South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA):
  • A current region where Earths magnetic field is significantly weaker than the global average, exposing satellites to higher levels of ionizing radiation and potential hardware malfunctions.
  • Atmospheric vs. Gravitational Stability:
  • A complete loss of atmosphere requires sustained stripping by solar wind over millions of years (similar to Mars), not a temporary magnetic dip.
  • Gravity is a function of Earths mass and universal gravitational constant, making it entirely independent of electromagnetism.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 28

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Kidambi Srikanth became the first Indian male shuttler to reach the finals of the World Championships in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    2017

  2. BOption (b)

    2018

  3. COption (c)

    2021

  4. DOption (d)

    2022

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2021

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2021.

Key Points

  • Kidambi Srikanth scripted history at the 2021 BWF World Championships held in Huelva, Spain, by becoming the first Indian male shuttler to reach the tournament final in the men's singles category.
  • In a historic all-Indian semi-final, Srikanth defeated Lakshya Sen with a score of 17−21, 21−14, 21−17 to guarantee himself a place in the gold medal match.
  • He ultimately clinched the Silver Medal after losing the final to Singapore's Loh Kean Yew (15−21, 20−22), marking the best-ever finish by an Indian male at the World Championships.
  • Prior to this achievement, Indian male shuttlers had only managed to reach the semi-finals, securing bronze medals in 1983 and 2019.

 Additional Information

  • Historical Context of Indian Badminton:
  • Prakash Padukone was the first Indian to win a medal at the World Championships, securing a Bronze in 1983 in Copenhagen.
  • B. Sai Praneeth ended a 36-year medal drought for Indian men's singles by winning Bronze in the 2019 World Championships.
  • Kidambi Srikanth's Career Milestones:
  • He achieved the World Number 1 ranking in the BWF rankings in April 2018.
  • In 2017, he became the first Indian and only the fourth player in the world to win four Super Series titles in a single calendar year (Indonesia, Australia, Denmark, and France).
  • He was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2015 and the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2018.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 29

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Before 1991, which policy limited private sector participation in certain industries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Industrial Licensing Policy

  2. BOption (b)

    Agricultural Subsidy Policy

  3. COption (c)

    Foreign Trade Policy

  4. DOption (d)

    Public Distribution System

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Industrial Licensing Policy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Industrial Licensing Policy.

Key Points

  • The Industrial Licensing Policy was a central feature of India's economic framework established under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, creating a system often referred to as the License Raj.
  • Under this policy, private entrepreneurs were legally required to obtain a government license to start a new industrial undertaking, expand existing production capacity, or diversify into new product lines.
  • The primary objective of this restrictive policy was to ensure that Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) dominated the commanding heights of the economy, effectively barring or limiting private participation in strategic sectors like heavy machinery and telecommunications.
  • It served as a tool for the state to manage scarce resources, prevent the concentration of economic wealth, and promote regional development by incentivizing industries in backward areas.
  • The New Economic Policy of 1991 dismantled this regime by abolishing licensing for the majority of industries, marking a shift toward Liberalization and increased private sector involvement.

 Additional Information

  • Foreign Trade Policy:
  • Before 1991, India followed an Inward-Oriented strategy characterized by Import Substitution and high import tariffs.
  • It aimed to protect domestic Infant Industries from international competition through strict quantitative restrictions and quotas.
  • Agricultural Subsidy Policy:
  • This involves government financial aid provided to farmers for inputs such as fertilizers, electricity, and irrigation to ensure food security.
  • It focuses on maintaining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) rather than regulating industrial entry.
  • Public Distribution System (PDS):
  • A food security system established by the Government of India to distribute essential commodities like wheat, rice, and kerosene to the poor at subsidized rates.
  • It is managed jointly by the Central Government and State Governments through a network of Fair Price Shops.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 30

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which commodity was first shipped by India to Afghanistan through Chabahar Port in 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rice

  2. BOption (b)

    Wheat

  3. COption (c)

    Oil

  4. DOption (d)

    Machinery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wheat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key Points

  • In October 2017, India successfully shipped its first consignment of Wheat to Afghanistan via the Chabahar Port in Iran.
  • The shipment was officially flagged off from the Kandla Port (now known as Deendayal Port) in Gujarat by the then External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj.
  • The consignment consisted of approximately 1.1 million tonnes of wheat, provided as grant assistance to the people of Afghanistan by the Government of India.
  • This logistical milestone demonstrated the operational viability of the Chabahar route, which allows India to bypass Pakistan to reach landlocked Afghanistan.
  • The cargo arrived at the Shahid Beheshti terminal in Chabahar and was then transported by trucks to Afghanistan through the Zaranj-Delaram highway.

 Additional Information

  • Chabahar Port:
  • Located in the Sistan-Baluchestan province on Iran’s southern coast, it is the country's only oceanic port.
  • It is strategically positioned on the Gulf of Oman, providing access to the Indian Ocean.
  • Development is managed by India Ports Global Limited (IPGL), specifically focusing on the Shahid Beheshti terminal.
  • Trilateral Transit Agreement:
  • Signed in May 2016 between India, Iran, and Afghanistan during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Tehran.
  • It established a Transport and Transit Corridor to facilitate trade between the three nations and Central Asian republics.
  • Significance:
  • The port is a key component of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
  • It provides a reliable alternative to the Karachi Port, significantly reducing transit time and logistics costs for Central Asian trade.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 31

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which hormone is primarily responsible for changes in males during puberty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oestrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Thyroxin

  3. COption (c)

    Testosterone

  4. DOption (d)

    Adrenaline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Testosterone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Testosterone.

Key Points

  • Testosterone is the primary androgen (male sex hormone) secreted by the Leydig cells located in the interstitial spaces of the testes.
  • During puberty, the hypothalamus releases Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to secrete Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).
  • LH specifically triggers the production of testosterone, which is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males.
  • Key physical changes include the growth of facial, axillary, and pubic hair, as well as the broadening of shoulders and increased muscle mass.
  • It promotes the enlargement of the larynx (voice box), resulting in a significantly deeper voice.
  • Testosterone is vital for the maturation of male reproductive organs, including the scrotum, testes, and penis, and is essential for spermatogenesis (sperm production).

 Additional Information

  • Oestrogen:
  • Produced primarily by the ovaries in females.
  • Responsible for female secondary sexual characteristics like breast development and hip widening.
  • Plays a critical role in regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining the uterine lining.
  • Thyroxin:
  • Secreted by the thyroid gland located in the neck region.
  • Contains iodine and is responsible for regulating the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) and the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
  • Adrenaline:
  • Secreted by the adrenal medulla of the adrenal glands.
  • Known as the emergency hormone or fight-or-flight hormone, it increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels during stress.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 32

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which parliamentarian was recently nominated to the Rajya Sabha for their contributions to history and scholarship?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ujjwal Nikam

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. Meenakshi Jain

  3. COption (c)

    Harikrishnan

  4. DOption (d)

    C. Sadanandan Master

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dr. Meenakshi Jain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dr. Meenakshi Jain.

Key Points

  • Dr. Meenakshi Jain is an eminent Indian historian, political scientist, and scholar who has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha for her stellar contributions to history and scholarship.
  • She is highly regarded for her extensive research and seminal books on ancient and medieval Indian history, particularly focusing on cultural, religious, and social developments.
  • In recognition of her outstanding contributions to literature and education, she was conferred with the prestigious Padma Shri award, India's fourth-highest civilian honor, in the year 2020.
  • The nomination of such distinguished citizens is made by the President of India to bring specialized knowledge and elite scholarly perspectives to the legislative debates of the Upper House.

 Additional Information

  • Nomination to Rajya Sabha:
  • Under Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the President has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
  • These nominated members are selected from individuals possessing special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.
  • Other Options:
  • Ujjwal Nikam: A highly prominent Indian public prosecutor who has represented the state in landmark criminal and terrorism cases, including the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks.
  • C. Sadanandan Master: A well-known social activist and political figure from Kerala, recognized for his long-standing involvement in public affairs.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 33

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) was set up to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Promote agriculture.

  2. BOption (b)

    Monitor industry.

  3. COption (c)

    Boost exports.

  4. DOption (d)

    Collect statistical data on socio-economic conditions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Collect statistical data on socio-economic conditions.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Collect statistical data on socio-economic conditions.

Key Points

  • The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) was established in 1950 by the Government of India to conduct large-scale, nationwide sample surveys to assist in socio-economic planning.
  • Its core function involves gathering comprehensive statistical data on diverse parameters such as household consumer expenditure, employment and unemployment patterns, housing conditions, and literacy levels.
  • The data generated by the NSSO serves as a vital input for the Ministry of Finance and the NITI Aayog for formulating effective public policies and poverty alleviation strategies.
  • It operates through four specialized divisions: the Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD), Field Operations Division (FOD), Data Processing Division (DPD), and Survey Coordination Division (SCD).
  • While it handles data related to various sectors, its foundational purpose is the systematic collection of socio-economic indicators across rural and urban India. Hence, the statement regarding the collection of statistical data on socio-economic conditions is correct.

 Additional Information

  • National Statistical Office (NSO):
  • In May 2019, the Government merged the NSSO with the Central Statistics Office (CSO) to form a unified body known as the National Statistical Office (NSO).
  • The NSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), ensuring better coordination in the national statistical system.
  • Annual Survey of Industries (ASI):
  • The organization conducts the Annual Survey of Industries, which is the principal source of industrial statistics in India, providing data on capital investment and labor productivity.
  • Agricultural Surveys:
  • Through the Improvement of Crop Statistics (ICS) scheme, the organization monitors the quality of agricultural data collected by state agencies, although its primary mandate is not the direct promotion of agriculture.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 34

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which of the following states does not share a boundary with Bangladesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Tripura

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Odisha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • The international border between India and Bangladesh is approximately 4,096.7 km long, making it the longest land boundary India shares with any of its neighbors.
  • The Indian states that share a land border with Bangladesh include West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • Assam shares a boundary with Bangladesh in two separate sectors, namely the Cachar district and the Dhubri district. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Odisha is situated on the East Coast of India along the Bay of Bengal. It shares its land borders with West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh, but it does not have a boundary with Bangladesh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Tripura is unique as it is bordered by Bangladesh on three sides (North, South, and West), sharing an 856 km long border. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • West Bengal shares the most extensive boundary with Bangladesh, measuring roughly 2,217 km, which accounts for more than half of the total border length. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • Border Demarcation:
  • The boundary was established following the Radcliffe Line, which was drawn during the Partition of India in 1947 to divide Bengal into West Bengal (India) and East Bengal (then Pakistan, now Bangladesh).
  • State-wise Border Lengths:
  • West Bengal: 2,217 km.
  • Tripura: 856 km.
  • Meghalaya: 443 km.
  • Mizoram: 318 km.
  • Assam: 262 km.
  • Geographical Significance:
  • The Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) was ratified by the 100th Constitutional Amendment Act of India in 2015 to exchange enclaves and simplify the complex border between the two nations.
  • Odisha is located significantly south of the international border line, separated from Bangladesh by the entire width of West Bengal.
SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 35

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which of the following is a major challenge of Indian agriculture today?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sparse rural population density limiting farm labor

  2. BOption (b)

    Rising levels of agricultural mechanization

  3. COption (c)

    Progressive fragmentation and declining size of operational holdings

  4. DOption (d)

    Shrinking domestic demand for staple food grains

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Progressive fragmentation and declining size of operational holdings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Progressive fragmentation and declining size of operational holdings.

Key Points

  • A major structural challenge in Indian agriculture is the progressive fragmentation of land, which is primarily caused by the laws of inheritance and the sub-division of ancestral property among multiple heirs over generations.
  • According to the 10th Agriculture Census (2015-16), small and marginal holdings (less than 2 hectares) account for approximately 86.21% of the total number of operational holdings in India.
  • The average size of operational holdings has seen a steady decline from 2.28 hectares in 1970-71 to just 1.08 hectares in 2015-16, making farming economically unviable for many households.
  • Fragmentation hinders the adoption of modern agricultural technology and mechanization, as using heavy machinery like tractors or harvesters is not cost-effective on tiny, scattered plots.
  • Small farm sizes restrict the farmer's ability to create efficient irrigation systems, achieve economies of scale, and access formal institutional credit, as small land parcels are often not viewed as sufficient collateral by banks.
  • This phenomenon leads to low agricultural productivity, higher input costs, and a lack of market surplus, keeping a large section of the farming community in a cycle of debt and poverty.

 Additional Information

  • Analysis of incorrect options and related concepts:
  • Rural Population Density: India does not face a sparse rural population; rather, it deals with excessive population pressure on land, resulting in disguised unemployment where more labor is engaged than necessary.
  • Agricultural Mechanization: While mechanization is increasing, it is considered a developmental objective to improve efficiency; the challenge lies in its uneven adoption across small landholdings.
  • Domestic Demand: With a population of over 1.4 billion, the domestic demand for staple food grains like rice and wheat is growing, supported by schemes like the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
  • To counter land fragmentation, the government promotes Land Consolidation (Chakbandi) and the formation of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) to help small farmers aggregate their resources and improve their bargaining power in the market.
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Question 36

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which Indian port was designated as the site of the country's first Export Processing Zone (EPZ)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    Kandla

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Cochin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kandla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kandla.

Key Points

  • The Kandla Export Processing Zone (KASEZ) was established in 1965, making it the first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) in India and also the first of its kind in Asia.
  • It is located at Gandhidham in the Kutch district of Gujarat, strategically positioned near the Kandla Port, which is now officially known as the Deendayal Port.
  • The primary motive behind establishing the Kandla EPZ was to overcome the geographical handicaps of the region, boost foreign exchange earnings, and provide a stimulus to export-oriented industrialization.
  • In April 2000, following the introduction of the new Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Policy, the Kandla EPZ was converted into a Special Economic Zone to offer more flexibility and incentives to exporters.

 Additional Information

  • Santacruz Electronics Export Processing Zone (SEEPZ):
  • Located in Mumbai, it was established in 1973 primarily for the export of electronic goods and later expanded to include gems and jewelry.
  • Cochin Export Processing Zone (CEPZ):
  • Set up in 1983 in Kerala, it was one of the early zones intended to promote multi-product exports from the southern coastal region.
  • Surat:
  • While Surat is a major hub for diamond cutting, polishing, and textiles, and hosts a significant SEZ, it was not the site of India's first EPZ.
  • Evolution of Export Policy:
  • The EPZ model was a precursor to the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, which aimed to make India a global manufacturing hub by providing tax holidays and single-window clearances.
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Question 37

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Who is known as the father of Ayurveda?

  1. AOption (a)

    Charaka

  2. BOption (b)

    Vasudeva

  3. COption (c)

    Sushruta

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagarjuna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Charaka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Charaka.

Key Points

  • Charaka is widely recognized as the Father of Ayurveda, an ancient system of medicine and lifestyle that originated in India.
  • He served as a principal contributor to the Charaka Samhita, which is one of the most foundational and oldest surviving Sanskrit texts on traditional Indian medicine.
  • Living around the 1st Century AD, he was a physician in the court of the Kushana King Kanishka.
  • His work heavily emphasizes the Tridosha theory, which balances three bodily humors: Vata (wind), Pitta (bile), and Kapha (phlegm), to maintain optimal health.
  • The Charaka Samhita contains exhaustive details on anatomy, physiology, etiology, and the treatment of various diseases using natural herbs and minerals.

 Additional Information

  • Sushruta:
  • Known as the Father of Surgery and the Father of Plastic Surgery for his pioneering work in surgical techniques.
  • He authored the Sushruta Samhita, which describes complex procedures such as rhinoplasty (nose reconstruction) and cataract surgery.
  • Nagarjuna:
  • Renowned as an ancient Indian chemist and alchemist, often referred to as the Father of Indian Chemistry.
  • His major work, Rasaratnakara, explores the transformation of base metals and the medicinal use of mercury and other minerals.
  • Ayurveda Foundations:
  • The term Ayurveda translates to the Science of Life, derived from the Sanskrit words Ayur (life) and Veda (knowledge or science).
  • It focuses on a holistic approach, integrating the body, mind, and spirit through diet, yoga, and herbal remedies.
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Question 38

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Who succeeded Bimbisara after allegedly killing or forcing him to commit suicide?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ashoka

  2. BOption (b)

    Bindusara

  3. COption (c)

    Ajatashatru

  4. DOption (d)

    Chandragupta Maurya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ajatashatru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ajatashatru.

Key Points

  • Ajatashatru was the son of Bimbisara and the second most powerful ruler of the Haryanka Dynasty, which governed the kingdom of Magadha in ancient India.
  • Historical records from Buddhist and Jain traditions suggest that Ajatashatru was impatient to inherit the throne and, influenced by Devadatta, imprisoned his father around 492 BCE.
  • While the Buddhist text Mahavamsa claims that Bimbisara died due to starvation and torture in prison, Jain sources suggest he may have committed suicide to avoid further humiliation.
  • His reign (c. 492 to 460 BCE) was marked by aggressive expansionism where he defeated the Vrijji confederacy and the kingdom of Koshala, securing hegemony over North India.
  • Ajatashatru is also famously known for patronizing the First Buddhist Council held at Sattapanni Cave in Rajgriha shortly after the death of Gautama Buddha.

 Additional Information

  • Bimbisara:
  • He was the founder of the Haryanka Dynasty and was known as Seniya for having the first permanent standing army.
  • He established the capital at Rajgriha and strengthened Magadha through matrimonial alliances with powerful neighboring states.
  • Maurya Dynasty Figures:
  • Chandragupta Maurya: The founder of the Maurya Empire (c. 322 BCE) who overthrew the Nanda Dynasty with the help of Chanakya.
  • Bindusara: The son of Chandragupta Maurya and the second Mauryan emperor, known by the title Amitraghata or slayer of enemies.
  • Ashoka: The son of Bindusara, he is celebrated for spreading Buddhism across Asia following the Kalinga War in 261 BCE.
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Question 39

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

In which of the following years Aurangzeb died?

  1. AOption (a)

    1707

  2. BOption (b)

    1717

  3. COption (c)

    1747

  4. DOption (d)

    1757

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1707

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1707.

Key Points

  • Aurangzeb, the sixth Mughal Emperor, died on 3 March 1707 at the age of 88.
  • He passed away in Ahmednagar, Maharashtra, during a long military campaign in the Deccan region.
  • His reign lasted for nearly 49 years, beginning in 1658 after he emerged victorious in the war of succession against his brothers.
  • The death of Aurangzeb is historically regarded as the end of the era of the Great Mughals, as the empire began to decline rapidly under his successors.
  • He was buried in a modest, open-air tomb in Khuldabad, near Aurangabad, in accordance with his own simple and religious wishes.

 Additional Information

  • Regnal Titles and Persona:
  • Aurangzeb adopted the title Alamgir, which translates to Conqueror of the World.
  • He was often called Zinda Pir (the Living Saint) because of his austere lifestyle and strict adherence to Islamic law.
  • Territorial Expansion:
  • Under his rule, the Mughal Empire reached its maximum geographical extent, stretching across almost the entire Indian subcontinent.
  • He successfully annexed the Deccan Sultanates of Bijapur (1686) and Golconda (1687).
  • Policies and Succession:
  • He is known for re-imposing the Jizya tax on non-Muslim subjects in 1679, a move that sparked significant resistance.
  • Following his death in 1707, his sons engaged in a bloody war of succession, resulting in Bahadur Shah I ascending the throne.
  • The rise of the Maratha Empire, the Sikhs, and the Jats during and after his reign significantly challenged Mughal hegemony.
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Question 40

SSC GD Constable 2026• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

As of July 2025, there are how many States in India who have made provision for 50% reservation for women in the Panchayati Raj Institutions?

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21.

Key Points

  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, established a mandatory one-third (33.3%) reservation for women in all tiers of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) across India.
  • While the federal law sets a minimum threshold, several states have exercised their legislative powers to increase this reservation to 50% to promote gender equality and grassroots empowerment.
  • Bihar was the first state in the country to implement 50% reservation for women in local bodies in 2006.
  • As of July 2025, the number of states that have made this 50% provision has reached 21. These states include Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal.
  • The implementation of this quota ensures that women hold at least half of the seats and chairperson positions in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, and Zila Parishads.

 Additional Information

  • Constitutional Mandate:
  • Article 243D of the Indian Constitution provides the legal basis for the reservation of seats and offices for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women.
  • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj monitors the implementation and encourages states to enhance female representation beyond the constitutional minimum.
  • Governance Structure:
  • The Panchayati Raj system is a three-tier structure comprising the village, intermediate, and district levels, aimed at decentralized governance.
  • Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Local Government is a State Subject (Entry 5, List II), giving individual states the authority to amend their respective Panchayati Raj Acts.
  • Impact:
  • High reservation quotas have led to the emergence of over 1.4 million elected women representatives in India, significantly improving the delivery of public services like water, sanitation, and education.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC GD Constable?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.