General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

• Article 213 of the Indian Constitution grants the Governor of a state the authority to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.
• This legislative power is exercised only when the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist which require immediate action and the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses in bicameral states) is not in session.
• An ordinance issued under this article possesses the same legal force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature, but it is a temporary measure.
• Every ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature once it reassembles; it ceases to operate at the end of six weeks from the date of reassembly unless it is passed or withdrawn earlier.
• The Governor cannot issue an ordinance without Presidential instructions if a similar Bill would have required the President’s prior sanction or if the Governor would have reserved such a Bill for the President’s consideration.

 Additional Information

• Article 200:
• Defines the procedure for Assent to Bills passed by the state legislature.
• The Governor can grant assent, withhold assent, return the bill for reconsideration, or reserve it for the President’s consideration.
• Article 356:
• Commonly known as President’s Rule, it deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
• It allows the President to assume the functions of the State Government upon receiving a report from the Governor.
• Article 368:
• Outlines the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India.
• It specifies the procedures for amendment, including Special Majority and ratification by states for certain federal provisions.
• Article 123:
• Provides the President of India with the power to promulgate ordinances at the Union level when Parliament is not in session.

The correct answer is Dhol, Harmonium, and Manjira.

Key Points

• The Gaur dance is one of the most prominent folk dances of the Bison-Horn Maria tribes, who primarily reside in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.
• The dance is traditionally performed during festive occasions and as a tribute to the spirit of the hunt, specifically mimicking the majestic movements of the Indian Bison (Gaur).
• The Dhol (a large double-headed drum) is the central instrument used to provide a powerful rhythmic pulse that dictates the pace and energy of the dancers.
• The Manjira (small brass cymbals) provides a sharp, metallic rhythmic accompaniment that complements the deep beats of the drum.
• The Harmonium is frequently used in contemporary and staged folk performances to provide a melodic foundation for the traditional songs that accompany the Gaur dance.
• Male dancers typically wear a striking headdress made of bison horns, decorated with peacock feathers and cowrie shells, while women carry Tirududi (iron rattles) to add to the soundscape.

 Additional Information

• Sitar and Tabla:
• The Sitar is a plucked string instrument used in Hindustani classical music.
• The Tabla consists of a pair of hand drums and is the primary percussion in North Indian classical traditions.
• Mridangam:
• This is a primary percussion instrument of Carnatic music from South India, known for its distinct barrel shape and complex tonal variations.
• Shehnai:
• A double-reed oboe-like instrument associated with auspicious events and weddings, popularized globally by Ustad Bismillah Khan.
• Bastar Cultural Heritage:
• The Muria and Maria tribes possess a rich heritage of ethno-musicology, often using instruments crafted from local wood, bamboo, and animal hide.
• The Gaur dance is considered a symbol of tribal strength and communal harmony within the Gond cultural complex.

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

• The Natyasastra, an ancient Indian treatise on performing arts attributed to the sage Bharata Muni, provides the earliest systematic classification of musical instruments, categorizing them into four distinct groups.
• These four categories are collectively referred to as Atodya or Vadya, based on the physical characteristics of the instrument and the method of sound production.
• The first category is Tata Vadya, which refers to stringed instruments or chordophones, where sound is produced by the vibration of strings.
• The second category is Sushira Vadya, encompassing wind instruments or aerophones, where sound is generated by the passage of air through a hollow column.
• The third category is Avanaddha Vadya, denoting percussion instruments or membranophones, which consist of a hollow vessel covered with a stretched skin or membrane.
• The fourth category is Ghana Vadya, which includes solid instruments or idiophones made of metal or wood that produce sound by striking and do not require tuning.

 Additional Information

• Detailed Characteristics of the Four Categories:
• Tata Vadya: These instruments are played by plucking, bowing, or striking strings. Key examples mentioned in historical texts include the Veena, Ektara, and later developments like the Sitar and Sarod.
• Sushira Vadya: These are characterized by air pressure. The Venu (flute) and Shankha (conch) are classic examples. The pitch is controlled by opening or closing finger holes.
• Avanaddha Vadya: Primarily used for maintaining Tala (rhythm), these include the Mridangam, Tabla, Dholak, and Pakhawaj. They are essential for both Carnatic and Hindustani classical music.
• Ghana Vadya: These are non-membranous percussion instruments. Examples include Manjira (cymbals), Karthal, and Ghatam (clay pot). They are typically used to keep time during performances.
• The Natyasastra is believed to have been composed between 200 BCE and 200 CE and serves as the foundational text for Indian Classical Music, dance, and drama.

The correct answer is A concave and a convex lens.

Key Points

• A bifocal lens is an optical lens that contains two distinct zones with different optical powers to correct vision at two different distances, typically used by individuals suffering from presbyopia.
• The upper portion of a standard bifocal lens is designed for distance vision and consists of a concave lens (diverging lens), which helps in correcting myopia (nearsightedness).
• The lower portion of the lens is designed for near vision tasks, such as reading, and consists of a convex lens (converging lens), which aids in correcting presbyopia or hypermetropia.
• The combination allows the wearer to see distant objects clearly through the top half and perform close-up work by looking through the bottom segment, which provides the necessary magnification.
• This dual-lens system works because the human eye naturally looks straight ahead for distant objects and tilts downward for reading or close-range activities.

 Additional Information

• Presbyopia:
• A natural, age-related condition where the crystalline lens of the eye becomes less flexible and the ciliary muscles weaken.
• This loss of elasticity prevents the eye from focusing light directly on the retina from nearby objects, causing them to appear blurry.
• Lens Types and Functions:
• Concave Lenses: Thinner at the center than at the edges; they diverge light rays and are used to shift the focal point further back onto the retina in myopic eyes.
• Convex Lenses: Thicker at the center; they converge light rays and are used to bring the focal point forward onto the retina in hypermetropic or presbyopic eyes.
• Cylindrical Lenses: These are specifically used to correct astigmatism, where the cornea or lens has an irregular curvature, causing distorted vision.
• Historical Background:
• The invention of the bifocal lens is widely attributed to Benjamin Franklin in 1784, who grew tired of switching between two different pairs of spectacles for distance and reading.

The correct answer is Rupa Bajwa.

Key Points

• The Sari Shop is the debut novel of Indian author Rupa Bajwa, first published in 2004.
• The story is set in the city of Amritsar, Punjab, and centers on the life of Ramchand, a shop assistant working at a high-end clothing store called Seva Ram and Sons.
• The narrative masterfully explores the social hierarchy and class divide in modern India by contrasting the mundane, restricted life of the shop assistants with the opulent lifestyles of their wealthy clientele.
• The novel received critical acclaim for its poignant portrayal of urban poverty, aspiration, and the harsh realities faced by the working class in provincial India.
• For this work, Rupa Bajwa was awarded the Commonwealth Writers Prize for Best First Book (Eurasia) in 2005.

 Additional Information

• Rupa Bajwa:
• She is an Amritsar-based novelist who achieved international fame with her first book.
• In 2006, she was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award in English for The Sari Shop.
• R.K. Narayan:
• One of the most famous early Indian novelists in English, best known for creating the fictional town of Malgudi and writing The Guide and Swami and Friends.
• Shashi Tharoor:
• A prominent Indian politician and author of several acclaimed works including The Great Indian Novel, An Era of Darkness, and Show Business.
• Anjali Banerjee:
• An Indian-American author known for novels such as Maya Running, Haunting Jasmine, and Seaglass Summer.

The correct answer is Air quality may cause health effects for sensitive groups.

Key Points

• The Air Quality Index (AQI) is a standardized system used to report daily air quality and communicate the associated health risks to the public.
• In the Moderate category, which typically corresponds to an index range of 101 to 200 on the National Air Quality Index (NAQI) scale in India, air quality is considered acceptable for the general population.
• However, for individuals belonging to sensitive groups—such as children, the elderly, and those with pre-existing respiratory diseases like asthma or cardiovascular conditions—this level of pollution can trigger breathing discomfort.
• The Moderate level indicates that while the air is not yet hazardous to all, there is a sufficient concentration of pollutants like PM2.5 or Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) to affect vulnerable biological systems.
• The primary health implication in this category is the aggravation of symptoms in patients with lung and heart ailments, requiring them to limit heavy outdoor exertion.

 Additional Information

• The AQI structure is divided into six distinct categories, each defined by a specific color code and health advisory:
• Good (0–50): Minimal impact; the air quality is considered excellent and poses little to no health risk.
• Satisfactory (51–100): May cause minor breathing discomfort to sensitive people.
• Poor (201–300): Likely to cause breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure.
• Very Poor (301–400): May lead to respiratory illness on prolonged exposure and has a more pronounced effect on people with lung and heart diseases.
• Severe (401–500): Air quality is hazardous; it affects healthy people and seriously impacts those with existing diseases, even with light physical activity.
• The calculation of AQI in India considers eight major pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb (Lead).

The correct answer is 24 hr.

Key Points

• A geostationary satellite is a satellite that circles the Earth in an orbit such that it remains exactly above a fixed point on the equator at all times.
• For a satellite to appear stationary relative to the Earth, its angular velocity must be equal to the Earth's rotation angular velocity around its own axis.
• The orbital period of a geostationary satellite is precisely one sidereal day, which is approximately 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds. In the context of most general physics problems and competitive exams, this is rounded to 24 hr.
• At an orbital radius of approximately 42,200 km (which corresponds to an altitude of about 35,786 km above the Earth's surface), the centripetal force required for the circular motion is perfectly balanced by the Earth's gravitational pull.
• Since the satellite moves from west to east (prograde motion) with the same period as the Earth, its relative velocity with respect to any fixed observer on the ground is zero.

 Additional Information

• Kepler's Third Law:
• The law states that the square of the orbital period (T) is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (r) of its orbit, expressed as T² ∝ r³.
• For the Earth, when r is roughly 42,200 km, T calculates to approximately 86,164 seconds.
• Orbital Velocity:
• A satellite in this orbit travels at a constant orbital speed of approximately 3.07 km/s to maintain its position.
• Historical Context:
• This specific orbital belt is often called the Clarke Belt, named after the scientist and writer Arthur C. Clarke, who first proposed the use of geostationary orbits for worldwide telecommunications relays.
• Common Uses:
• Geostationary satellites are primary tools for weather forecasting, satellite television (DTH), and radio broadcasting because they provide continuous coverage of a specific geographic area.

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

• The 132^nd edition of the Durand Cup, which is the oldest football tournament in Asia, was hosted across three cities in 2023: Kolkata, Guwahati, and Kokrajhar.
• The grand final of the Durand Cup 2023 was held at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan, popularly known as the Salt Lake Stadium, in Kolkata on September 3, 2023.
• The final match was a high-profile Kolkata Derby contested between Mohun Bagan Super Giant and East Bengal FC.
• Mohun Bagan Super Giant clinched the title by defeating East Bengal FC with a score of 1-0, thanks to a decisive goal by Dimitri Petratos.
• With this victory, Mohun Bagan Super Giant became the most successful team in the history of the tournament, securing their 17^th Durand Cup title.

 Additional Information

• History and Significance of Durand Cup:
• The tournament was first held in 1888 at Shimla and was founded by Sir Mortimer Durand, the then Foreign Secretary of British India.
• It is currently the third oldest football competition in the world, trailing only the FA Cup and the Scottish Cup.
• The competition is unique as it is organized by the Durand Football Tournament Society (DFTS) in collaboration with the Indian Armed Forces.
• 2023 Tournament Highlights:
• A total of 24 teams participated in the 2023 edition, including teams from the Indian Super League (ISL), I-League, and the Indian Armed Forces.
• The Golden Ball (Best Player) of the 2023 edition was awarded to Nandhakumar Sekar of East Bengal FC.
• The Golden Boot (Top Scorer) was won by David Lalhlansanga of Mohammedan SC, while the Golden Glove (Best Goalkeeper) went to Vishal Kaith of Mohun Bagan Super Giant.

The correct answer is Urban service sector expanded rapidly while agriculture stagnated.

Key Points

• The 1991 Economic Reforms, characterized by Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG), shifted the Indian economy toward a market-oriented system. While these reforms significantly boosted the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate, the benefits were not distributed equitably across all sectors.
• A primary indicator of growth with inequality is the sectoral imbalance where the Service Sector (including IT, telecommunications, and finance) witnessed exponential growth, often exceeding 8−10% annually, primarily benefiting urban centers and skilled professionals.
• In stark contrast, the Agricultural Sector, which supports nearly half of India's population, experienced stagnation or low growth rates (often below 3%). This was due to a decline in public investment, withdrawal of subsidies, and increased exposure to volatile global market prices.
• The concentration of wealth in the Tertiary Sector led to a widening rural-urban divide. Urban areas saw a rise in high-income jobs and modern infrastructure, while rural areas faced distress migration and stagnant real wages, illustrating the phenomenon of dualism in the post-reform era.
• This trend is often described as jobless growth because the fast-growing service sectors are capital-intensive or skill-intensive, failing to absorb the massive surplus labor moving away from the struggling agricultural base.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Inequality Metrics:
• Gini Coefficient: A statistical measure of distributional inequality; in India, this coefficient rose post-1991, indicating that income gains were concentrated among the top deciles of the population.
• Informalization of Labor: Contrary to the hope that reforms would shrink the informal sector, a large portion of new employment in the industrial sector became informal or contractual, lacking social security benefits.
• Regional Disparity: The reforms favored states with better existing infrastructure and coastal access, leading to a growth gap between advanced states (like Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu) and lagging states (like Bihar and Uttar Pradesh).
• Structural Transformation: Unlike the traditional economic model where labor moves from agriculture to manufacturing and then to services, India skipped the manufacturing-led growth phase, moving directly to a service-led economy, which exacerbated income disparity.

The correct answer is Strait of Hormuz.

Key Points

• Chabahar Port is located in the Sistan-Baluchestan province on the southeastern coast of Iran, along the Gulf of Oman.
• The port's strategic location allows maritime trade to bypass the Strait of Hormuz, which is a narrow and often congested waterway that serves as the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean.
• By operating outside the Strait of Hormuz, Chabahar reduces the dependency of international shipping on this sensitive chokepoint, through which approximately one-fifth of the world's total oil consumption passes daily.
• It serves as a critical transit hub for India to access Afghanistan and Central Asian landlocked republics, effectively bypassing the land routes through Pakistan.
• The port is a key component of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), aimed at reducing freight costs and transit time between India, Iran, and Russia.

 Additional Information

• Strait of Malacca
• Located between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
• It is the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.
• Strait of Gibraltar
• A narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
• It separates the continents of Europe (Spain) and Africa (Morocco).
• Bab el-Mandeb Strait
• Located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa.
• It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea.
• Chabahar Port Development
• The port consists of two separate terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
• India's involvement is primarily focused on the development of the Shahid Beheshti terminal through India Ports Global Limited (IPGL).

The correct answer is 22.

Key Points

• Chromosomes are organized thread-like structures found within the nucleus of cells, containing the genetic blueprint of an organism in the form of DNA.
• In humans, each somatic cell (body cell) typically contains a total of 46 chromosomes, which are arranged into 23 pairs.
• These 23 pairs are categorized into two types: autosomes and allosomes (sex chromosomes).
• Autosomes are the chromosomes that determine somatic traits and characteristics other than biological sex; they are numbered 1 through 22 based on their physical size and gene density.
• There are exactly 22 pairs of autosomes in humans, which are identical in both males and females in terms of their morphology and the genes they carry.
• The 23^rd pair is the sex chromosome pair, consisting of either XX (in females) or XY (in males), bringing the total number of pairs to 23.

 Additional Information

• Sex Determination:
• While the 22 autosome pairs are homologous, the 23^rd pair (allosomes) differs. The Y chromosome is significantly smaller than the X chromosome and contains the SRY gene, which is essential for male sex development.
• Ploidy Levels:
• Human somatic cells are diploid (2n), meaning they contain 46 chromosomes. However, gametes (sperm and egg cells) are haploid (n), containing only 23 single chromosomes (22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome).
• Karyotyping:
• A karyotype is a laboratory technique used to visualize the complete set of an individuals chromosomes. It is used to identify chromosomal disorders such as Down Syndrome, which involves an extra copy of an autosome (specifically Trisomy 21).
• Genetic Composition:
• The human genome comprises approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes distributed across the 22 autosome pairs and the sex chromosomes. Chromosome 1 is the largest autosome, containing nearly 3,000 genes.

The correct answer is All of these.

Key Points

• The financial sector reforms post-1991, based on the Narasimham Committee recommendations, allowed the entry of private sector banks to foster competition and improve efficiency in the banking system, leading to the birth of institutions like HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Strengthening capital markets was achieved by granting statutory powers to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1992, which helped regulate the stock exchanges, protect investors, and promote a transparent trading environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The deregulation of interest rates was a major reform where the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed commercial banks to determine their own lending and deposit rates based on market forces, shifting away from a centrally controlled administered interest rate regime. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• These reforms collectively aimed at liberalization, privatization, and globalization of the Indian economy to integrate it with the global financial system. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Narasimham Committee (1991):
• Recommended the reduction of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to increase the availability of funds for the private sector.
• Introduced Prudential Norms and Asset Classification to ensure banks maintain a healthy balance sheet and Capital Adequacy Ratio.
• Market Infrastructure:
• The establishment of the National Stock Exchange (NSE) in 1992 introduced screen-based trading, replacing the traditional floor-based system.
• Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) were permitted to invest in Indian debt and equity markets starting in 1992-93.

The correct answer is Sudarshan Pattnaik.

Key Points

• Sudarshan Pattnaik, the world-renowned Indian sand artist hailing from Puri, Odisha, was honored with the prestigious Fred Darrington Award for Excellence in Art and Culture.
• The honor was bestowed upon him at the 21^st International Sand Sculpting Festival held at Revere Beach in Boston, USA, highlighting his global influence in the realm of sculpture.
• The Fred Darrington Award is named after the pioneer of sand sculpting at Revere Beach, who is credited with initiating the craft in the late 19^th century; it recognizes artists who demonstrate exceptional skill and creative mastery.
• Pattnaik is celebrated for his unique 3D sand art style and his commitment to using the medium for social activism, covering themes such as World Peace, Global Warming, and Environmental Protection.
• With over 27 international awards to his credit, Pattnaik has represented India in more than 65 international championships across countries like Italy, Russia, and Japan.

 Additional Information

• Sudarshan Pattnaik’s Career Highlights:
• He was awarded the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, in 2014 for his unparalleled contributions to the field of arts.
• He achieved a Guinness World Record in 2017 for building the world’s tallest sandcastle, which stood at a height of 14.84 meters (approximately 48 feet).
• Pattnaik established the Sudarshan Sand Art Institute in Puri to provide formal training to aspiring sand artists, fostering the next generation of sculptors.
• Revere Beach International Sand Sculpting Festival:
• Established as a major event in Massachusetts, it is considered one of the largest and most competitive sand art festivals in the Western Hemisphere.
• The festival attracts approximately 1 million visitors annually and features master sculptors from around the globe competing for top honors.

The correct answer is Godavari.

Key Points

• The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system in India, often referred to as the Dakshina Ganga (Ganges of the South) due to its extensive length and the vast area it covers.
• It originates from the Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra, situated in the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1,067 meters.
• The river flows for a total length of approximately 1,465 kilometers, traversing through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• Its drainage basin is the second largest in India after the Ganga, covering about 3,12,812 square kilometers, which is nearly 9.5 percent of the total geographical area of the country.
• The river is also known as Vridha Ganga (Old Ganga) because of its ancient geological origin and its religious significance in Hinduism.

 Additional Information

• Krishna
• The Krishna River is the second-largest eastward-flowing peninsular river, originating near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
• Its major tributaries include the Tungabhadra, Koyna, Ghataprabha, Musl, and Bhima.
• Cauvery
• Originating from the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats in Karnataka, it is often called the Dakshin Bharat ki Ganga.
• It is a perennial river due to receiving rainfall from both the Southwest and Northeast monsoons.
• Narmada
• The Narmada is a major west-flowing river that originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows through a rift valley formed by faulting between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad.

Key Points

• Ahmedabad, located in Gujarat on the banks of the Sabarmati River, is historically renowned as the Manchester of India due to its massive cotton textile industry.
• The city earned this moniker because its textile development mirrored that of Manchester in England, which was the global center of the cotton industry during the Industrial Revolution.
• The first cotton textile mill in Ahmedabad was established in 1861 by Shri Ranchhodlal Chhotalal, marking the beginning of an industrial era for the city.
• The growth of the industry was supported by the proximity of cotton-growing regions in Gujarat and Maharashtra, ensuring a steady supply of raw materials.
• The humid climate of the region is naturally suited for spinning and weaving, as it prevents the cotton thread from breaking easily during processing.
• Strategic location with access to Kandla Port and a well-developed railway network facilitated the export of finished goods and the import of machinery.

 Additional Information

• Mumbai-Pune Region:
• Mumbai was traditionally known as the Cottonopolis of India because the first successful mechanized textile mill was established here in 1854 by Cowasji Nanabhoy Davar.
• Kanpur:
• Located in Uttar Pradesh, Kanpur is often referred to as the Manchester of North India due to its significant concentration of textile and leather industries.
• Coimbatore:
• Situated in Tamil Nadu, this city is called the Manchester of South India because it houses over 1,000 textile mills and contributes significantly to India's cotton exports.
• Textile Industry Significance:
• It is the second-largest employment generator in India after agriculture and accounts for a substantial portion of the country's Industrial Production and GDP.

The correct answer is Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS).

Key Points

• The Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) to facilitate technology upgradation by providing upfront capital subsidies.
• The scheme aims at helping MSMEs modernize their production techniques and equipment to improve product quality and reduce production costs.
• Under this scheme, a 15 percent capital subsidy is provided to eligible MSMEs on institutional finance (bank loans) availed by them for the induction of well-established and improved technology.
• The maximum limit of the loan eligible for subsidy under the current guidelines is Rs. 1 crore, meaning the maximum subsidy amount an enterprise can receive is capped at Rs. 15 lakh.
• Implementation is carried out through Nodal Agencies such as the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), NABARD, and designated public sector banks.
• It covers a wide range of industries including food processing, textiles, leather, pharmaceuticals, and electronic equipment.

 Additional Information

• Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP):
• A credit-linked subsidy program aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through the establishment of micro-enterprises.
• It is implemented by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) at the national level.
• Make in India Scheme:
• Launched in September 2014, this initiative focuses on transforming India into a global manufacturing hub by encouraging domestic and foreign investment.
• It targets 25 key sectors including automobiles, chemicals, and IT.
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
• A flagship initiative by NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.
• It manages programs like Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) and Atal Incubation Centres (AICs).

The correct answer is Prakrit.

Key Points

• Prakrit was the primary language adopted by Jainism for its sacred scriptures and teachings to ensure accessibility to the common people of ancient India.
• Lord Mahavira, the 24^th Tirthankara, predominantly used Ardhamagadhi, a specific dialect of Prakrit, for his sermons to break the monopoly of Sanskrit, which was then considered the language of the elite.
• The Jain Agamas, which constitute the canonical literature of the Svetambara sect, were originally composed and preserved in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit.
• Various other forms of Prakrit, such as Sauraseni and Maharashtri, were also used by Jain monks to write philosophical treatises and epic poetry, significantly contributing to the Middle Indo-Aryan linguistic tradition.
• The choice of Prakrit allowed Jainism to spread rapidly among traders, farmers, and the general populace, as it was the vernacular language of the time.

 Additional Information

• Urdu:
• It is a Central Indo-Aryan language that developed much later, around the 12^th century CE, during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• It evolved as a synthesis of Persian, Arabic, and local Khari Boli, primarily in Northern India.
• Telugu:
• A classical Dravidian language spoken mainly in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• While Jainism had a historical presence in South India, Telugu was a regional language and not the primary language of the original Jain canons.
• Bengali:
• An Indo-Aryan language that evolved from Magadhi Prakrit and Apabhramsa around the 10^th-12^th century CE.
• It is native to the Bengal region and was not used as a sacred language during the formative years of ancient Jainism.

The correct answer is Pandya kings.

Key Points

• The term Sangam refers to an academy or assembly of Tamil poets and scholars that flourished under the royal patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai.
• According to Tamil legends, there were three Sangams (assemblies) held in Ancient South India, spanning thousands of years, collectively referred to as Muchchangam.
• The First Sangam (Mudal Sangam) is believed to have been held at Thenmadurai (Old Madurai). It was reportedly attended by gods and legendary sages like Agastya; however, no literary works from this period are available today.
• The Second Sangam (Idai Sangam) was held at Kapatapuram. The only surviving literary work from this assembly is the Tolkappiyam, which is a comprehensive treatise on Tamil grammar and poetics.
• The Third Sangam (Kadai Sangam) was situated at the modern city of Madurai. Most of the surviving Sangam literature, including the Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) and the Pattupattu (Ten Idylls), belongs to this period.

 Additional Information

• Sangam Dynasties:
• While the Pandya kings were the specific patrons of the Sangams, the literature produced describes the Muventar (Three Crowned Kings): the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas.
• Major Literary Works:
• Tolkappiyam: Authored by Tolkappiyar, it is the oldest extant Tamil work, providing insights into the social and linguistic structure of the Sangam Age.
• Pathinenkilkanakku: A collection of eighteen lower ethical works, including the famous Tirukkural by Thiruvalluvar, which focuses on ethics and philosophy.
• Social Structure: The Sangam society was classified based on five ecological zones or Thinai, namely Kurinji (hilly), Mullai (pastoral), Marutham (agricultural), Neithal (coastal), and Palai (desert).

The correct answer is Poona.

Key Points

• The administrative and political capital of the Maratha Empire shifted from Satara to Poona (now Pune) during the 18^th century under the rule of the Peshwas, who were the hereditary Prime Ministers.
• While the Chhatrapati (the monarch) continued to reside in Satara, the Peshwas became the functional heads of the state, making Poona the de facto seat of power.
• Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath was the first to establish significant influence in the region, but it was Peshwa Baji Rao I who officially shifted the base and commissioned the construction of the Shaniwar Wada in 1732.
• The Shaniwar Wada served as the primary residence and the central secretariat for the Maratha Confederacy, symbolizing the height of Peshwa authority over the Indian subcontinent.
• Under Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao (Nanasaheb), the city underwent massive urban expansion, becoming a major cultural, banking, and military hub for the Marathas.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Locations in Maratha History:
• Mumbai: During the 18^th century, it was a British Presidency and a crucial maritime trade post, eventually becoming the site from where the British launched campaigns against the Marathas.
• Nagpur: This city was the capital of the Bhonsle clan, one of the five major houses of the Maratha Confederacy, governing the eastern territories.
• Aurangabad: Originally named Khadki, it was a major stronghold for the Mughal Empire and later the Nizams of Hyderabad, serving as a frequent site of conflict during Maratha expansion.
• Satara: It remained the formal capital where the descendants of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj held court, though their political power diminished as the Peshwas consolidated control.
• The downfall of Poona as the capital occurred in 1818 following the Third Anglo-Maratha War, after which the Peshwa title was abolished and the region was annexed into the Bombay Presidency.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra Plains, primarily located in Assam, represent a significant physiographic division characterized by a level topography and rich alluvial deposits. While the surrounding northeastern hills are sparsely populated, the valley floor supports high population densities due to intensive rice cultivation and tea plantations. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Ganga Plains constitute the largest part of the Great Northern Plains of India, stretching across states like Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. This region is one of the most densely populated tracts in the world because of its extremely fertile soil, perennial water supply from the Ganga river system, and favorable climate for year-round agriculture. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Factors Influencing High Population Density:
• Topography: The flat terrain of these plains facilitates the construction of massive transportation networks (roads and railways) and the establishment of large industrial hubs.
• Agriculture: The deposition of Khadar (new alluvium) and Bhangar (old alluvium) makes these plains the granary of India, supporting high food security for a large population.
• Water Availability: The presence of Himalayan rivers ensures a constant supply of water for irrigation, domestic use, and industrial processes.
• Urbanization: Historical centers and modern megacities like Kolkata, Patna, and Kanpur are situated in these plains, acting as magnets for migration.
• Demographic Contrast: In contrast to these plains, the Himalayan mountains and the Thar Desert exhibit low population density due to rugged terrain, extreme climatic conditions, and limited arable land.