General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• According to Article 158(3) of the Constitution of India, the Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances, and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
• Until the Parliament makes such a law, these emoluments are governed by the provisions specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.
• The Parliament enacted the Governors (Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges) Act, 1982, to regulate these financial aspects. In 2018, the salary of the Governor was significantly increased to 3.5 lakh rupees per month.
• The expenditure for the salary and allowances of the Governor is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, meaning it is not subject to the vote of the state legislative assembly.
• If the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable are allocated among the states in such proportion as the President may by order determine.

 Additional Information

• President:
• Under Article 155, the President appoints the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.
• The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President as per Article 156, but the President does not determine the salary.
• Finance Commission:
• This is a Constitutional Body constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution.
• Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and among the states themselves.
• Salary Immunity:
• The Constitution ensures that the emoluments and allowances of a Governor cannot be diminished during his or her term of office to maintain the independence of the post.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• The salary and allowances of the Vice President are determined by the Parliament of India by law.
• According to Article 97 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has the authority to fix the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), as well as the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The Vice President does not receive a salary specifically for the office of Vice President; instead, they receive remuneration in their capacity as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Salaries and Allowances of Officers of Parliament Act, 1953, is the legislation through which these financial provisions are regulated and updated periodically.
• The current salary of the Vice President was significantly revised in 2018, increasing from 1.25 lakh to 4 lakh per month, plus other allowances.

 Additional Information

• Article 63 of the Constitution states that there shall be a Vice President of India, who is the second-highest constitutional authority in the country.
• Article 64 specifies that the Vice President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
• Consolidated Fund of India:
• The salary and allowances of the Vice President (as Chairman of Rajya Sabha) are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.
• President of India:
• While the President is the Head of State, they do not decide the salary of the Vice President; the President's own salary (5 lakh per month) is also determined by Parliament.
• Election Commission:
• The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election of the Vice President under Article 66, but it has no role in administrative or financial decisions like salary fixation.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Yakshagana is a traditional folk theater form that originated in the Coastal Karnataka region and the Malenadu districts of India.
• The art form is a sophisticated blend of dance, music, improvised dialogue, costume, makeup, and stage techniques, dating back to at least the 11^th to 16^th century.
• A typical performance is led by the Bhagavatha, who acts as the singer, narrator, and director, controlling the pace of the play while playing the Tala (cymbals).
• The themes are primarily drawn from ancient Indian epics such as the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and the Bhagavata Purana, focusing on the triumph of good over evil.
• The performers, known as Mummela, wear elaborate headgear called Kirita, vibrant costumes, and heavy facial makeup to depict various supernatural, heroic, or demonic characters.
• The background musicians, or Himmela, use traditional percussion instruments like the Maddale (hand drum) and the Chande (loud drum used for war scenes).

 Additional Information

• Styles of Yakshagana:
• Badagutittu: Prevalent in the northern coastal areas like Uttara Kannada and Udupi, it is characterized by its emphasis on forceful dance and elaborate headgear.
• Tenkutittu: Popular in the southern regions like Dakshina Kannada and Kasaragod, this style features complex percussion patterns and more graceful movements.
• Other State Folk Traditions:
• Kerala: Known for Kathakali, a highly stylized classical dance-drama, and Theyyam, a ritualistic performance.
• Tamil Nadu: Famous for Therukoothu (street theater) and Karakattam, which are deeply rooted in village temple festivals.
• Andhra Pradesh: Home to Kuchipudi (classical dance) and Burra Katha, a narrative storytelling technique using a stringed instrument.

The correct answer is An applied force compels a change.

Key Points

• Newton's First Law of Motion, often referred to as the Law of Inertia, was first published by Sir Isaac Newton in his 1687 landmark work, Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica.
• The law states that an object will remain in its current state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is acted upon by an unbalanced external force. This implies that motion does not require a force to maintain it, but a change in motion does.
• Inertia is the fundamental property of matter that describes its tendency to resist any change in its state of motion. The amount of inertia an object possesses is directly proportional to its mass.
• From a mathematical perspective, if the net force (ΣF) acting on a body is zero, the velocity of the body remains constant, meaning its acceleration (a) is zero. An applied force is the necessary input to break this equilibrium.
• This law effectively defines force qualitatively as an agency that can change the state of rest or uniform motion of a body.

 Additional Information

• Balanced Forces:
• These occur when multiple forces acting on an object have a net sum of zero. While balanced forces can cause deformation (change in shape), they cannot change the object's velocity or direction.
• Friction:
• A contact force that opposes the relative motion or tendency of motion between two surfaces. While friction often slows objects down in real-world scenarios, the first law applies broadly to any external force, not just friction.
• Gravity:
• A non-contact force of attraction between two masses. In the context of Newtonian mechanics, gravity acts as an external force that can change an object's speed or path, such as in projectile motion or orbital mechanics.
• Frames of Reference:
• Newton's laws are strictly valid in inertial frames of reference, which are frames that are not accelerating or rotating relative to the 'fixed' stars.

The correct answer is Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra.

Key Points

• Ruskin Bond, a prolific Indian author of British descent, was honored with the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992 for his literary excellence in English.
• The award-winning work, 'Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra', is a poignant collection of semi-autobiographical short stories that vividly capture the author's deep connection with the Himalayan foothills and the town of Dehradun.
• The stories in this collection span several decades of Bond's life, reflecting themes of nature, nostalgia, and the simplicity of life in the Garhwal hills.
• The Sahitya Akademi recognized this work for its evocative prose and its ability to portray the Indian landscape and its people with immense sensitivity and clarity.

 Additional Information

• Other Notable Works by Ruskin Bond:
• The Blue Umbrella: Published in 1980, this is a beloved children's novel centered on a young girl named Binya. It was later adapted into a National Award-winning film.
• Angry River: This was Bond's first novel written specifically for children, published in 1972, featuring the character Sita and her struggle against a natural disaster.
• Delhi Is Not Far: A classic novel that explores the life and aspirations of people in a small town called Pipalnagar, highlighting their desire to move to the capital city.
• The Room on the Roof: His debut novel, written at the age of 17, which won the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize in 1957.
• Major Honors:
• Beyond the Sahitya Akademi Award, Ruskin Bond was conferred with the Padma Shri in 1999 and the Padma Bhushan in 2014 for his monumental contributions to children's literature and Indian writing in English.

The correct answer is East to West.

Key Points

• The Narmada River is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India, traversing a distance of approximately 1,312 km.
• It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of about 1,057 meters.
• The river flows through a Rift Valley created by down-faulting, situated between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south.
• Its drainage basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh, eventually emptying into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.
• Unlike most major peninsular rivers that flow towards the east and form deltas, the Narmada flows East to West and forms a broad estuary.

 Additional Information

• Geographical and Cultural Significance:
• It is often referred to as the Lifeline of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat due to its huge contribution to the state economies through irrigation and power.
• The Sardar Sarovar Dam, one of the largest water resources projects in India, is built across this river in Gujarat.
• The river creates the famous Dhuandhar Falls (Marble Rocks) near Jabalpur, where the water plunges over steep rocks.
• Major tributaries of the Narmada include the Hiran, Orsang, Barna, and Kolar on the right bank, and the Sher, Shakkar, Dudhi, and Tawa on the left bank.
• The Tapi River (Tapti) is the other major river in India that flows in the same East to West direction within a rift valley.

The correct answer is Northern Plains.

Key Points

• The Northern Plains of India are formed by the alluvial deposits brought down by three major river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra, along with their numerous tributaries.
• This physiographic division is characterized by the presence of Alluvial Soil, which is considered the most fertile soil type in India due to its rich content of potash, phosphoric acid, and lime.
• The plains were formed over millions of years as alluvium was deposited in a vast foredeep basin located at the foothills of the Himalayas, creating a level land surface ideal for intensive agriculture.
• With a total area of approximately 7 lakh square kilometers, this region is one of the world's most agriculturally productive areas, supporting a high population density due to favorable climate and perennial water supply.
• The soil is consistently renewed by annual river floods, particularly in the Khadar regions, ensuring sustained fertility for crops like rice, wheat, sugarcane, and jute.

 Additional Information

• Coastal Plains:
• Divided into the Western Coastal Plains and the Eastern Coastal Plains.
• While the deltas of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri are very fertile, the overall extent is much smaller than the Northern Plains.
• Peninsular Plateau:
• The oldest landmass of India, primarily composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• Contains the Deccan Trap region, famous for Black Soil (Regur), which is excellent for cotton cultivation but lacks the widespread versatility of alluvium.
• Himalayan Mountains:
• Feature Mountain Soils or Forest Soils which vary significantly with altitude.
• In high-altitude snow-bound areas, these soils are often acidic with low humus content and are generally immature and skeletal.

The correct answer is James Chadwick.

Key Points

• In 1932, the British physicist James Chadwick discovered the neutron, a subatomic particle that carries no electrical charge and has a mass slightly greater than that of a proton.
• Chadwick conducted an experiment where he bombarded beryllium with alpha particles emitted from a polonium source. This interaction produced a highly penetrating radiation that was not deflected by electric or magnetic fields.
• He concluded that this radiation consisted of neutral particles, which he termed neutrons. This discovery solved the mystery of why the atomic mass of most elements was higher than the combined mass of their protons and electrons.
• The identification of the neutron was a pivotal moment in nuclear physics, providing the necessary tool for the fission of uranium-235 and leading directly to the development of the atomic bomb.
• For his significant contribution to science, James Chadwick was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935.

 Additional Information

• Ernest Rutherford:
• He is widely known as the Father of Nuclear Physics and discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911 through the famous Gold Foil Experiment.
• In 1917, he performed the first artificial transmutation of an element and is credited with the discovery of the proton.
• Niels Bohr:
• In 1913, he proposed the Bohr Model of the atom, which integrated quantum theory to describe how electrons revolve in stable, circular orbits around the nucleus.
• He explained that electrons can only occupy specific quantized energy levels.
• Wolfgang Pauli:
• He was an Austrian theoretical physicist known for formulating the Pauli Exclusion Principle in 1925.
• The principle states that no two electrons (or other fermions) in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.

The correct answer is Cost, time, and procedures to obtain electricity.

Key Points

• The Getting Electricity indicator is a crucial component of the Ease of Doing Business (EODB) Index, formerly published annually by the World Bank Group.
• It measures the efficiency of the public utility in providing a permanent electricity connection to a newly constructed standardized warehouse.
• The Procedures metric tracks every interaction between the business owner and external agencies, such as the utility company, government departments, or electrical inspectorates.
• The Time metric records the number of calendar days required to complete each procedure, from the initial application to the actual flow of electricity.
• The Cost metric includes all fees associated with the connection, including security deposits and costs for external works, expressed as a percentage of the economy’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
• Since 2015, the indicator also incorporates the Reliability of Supply and Transparency of Tariffs Index, which evaluates the frequency and duration of power outages (using SAIDI and SAIFI indices).

 Additional Information

• Ease of Doing Business Index:
• Launched in 2003, it ranked 190 economies based on regulatory environments.
• Other key indicators included Starting a Business, Registering Property, and Resolving Insolvency.
• The report was officially discontinued in September 2021 following internal audits regarding data integrity.
• It has been replaced by a new flagship framework called Business Ready (B-READY), which focuses on the private sector development and the overall investment climate.
• Technical Specifications:
• The Getting Electricity data is based on a specific case study: a warehouse with a subscribed capacity of 140 kVA located in the largest business city of the country.
• The connection is assumed to be low-voltage, three-phase, and overhead or underground depending on the local norm.

The correct answer is Aditya-L1.

Key Points

• Aditya-L1 is India's premier space-based observatory dedicated to studying the Sun, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on September 2, 2023.
• The mission is positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrangian Point 1 (L1), which is situated approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth, providing an unobstructed view of the Sun.
• The Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) is one of the seven primary payloads on board, designed to capture high-resolution images of the solar photosphere and chromosphere in the near-ultraviolet (200-400 nm) wavelength range.
• In early 2025, ISRO transitioned SUIT into its regular science operations phase, releasing the first comprehensive sets of science data to the global research community for analyzing solar irradiance and space weather.
• The SUIT instrument is critical for understanding the coupling and dynamics of the solar atmosphere and measuring the total solar irradiance variations that impact Earth's climate.

 Additional Information

• Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT):
• Developed by the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune, in collaboration with various ISRO centers.
• It helps in monitoring solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) that can disrupt satellite communications and power grids on Earth.
• XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite):
• Launched in January 2024, it is India's first dedicated mission to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays from sources like black holes and neutron stars.
• AstroSat:
• India's first multi-wavelength space observatory, launched in 2015, capable of simultaneous observations in Optical, UV, and X-ray bands.
• Chandrayaan-3:
• A highly successful lunar mission that achieved a historic soft landing near the Lunar South Pole on August 23, 2023, making India the fourth nation to land on the Moon.

The correct answer is 1965.

Key Points

• The Judo Federation of India (JFI) was formally established in 1965 to unify various regional groups and standardize the practice of Judo across the nation.
• Upon its formation in 1965, the federation immediately sought and obtained official affiliation with the International Judo Federation (IJF), the global authority for the sport.
• The JFI is also affiliated with the Judo Union of Asia (JUA) and is recognized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• The first National Judo Championship under the aegis of the JFI was organized in 1966 at Hyderabad, marking the beginning of organized competitive Judo in India.
• Key pioneers like Sheri N.D. Dewan, who served as the first General Secretary, played a crucial role in the institutionalization of the federation.

 Additional Information

• Evolution and Significant Milestones:
• Historical Background: While the federation was formed in 1965, Judo was introduced to India much earlier; Rabindranath Tagore invited a Japanese instructor to Shantiniketan in 1905, and the Kodokan Judo Academy was later established in Mumbai (then Bombay) in 1929.
• 1986 Seoul Asian Games: This year was a turning point for Indian Judo as the sport was included for the first time in the Asian Games, and Indian judokas secured four bronze medals, boosting the federation's prominence.
• Core Functions: The JFI is responsible for conducting technical seminars, grading examinations for Dan (Black Belt) rankings, and selecting the national team for international events like the Commonwealth Games and the Olympic Games.
• Administrative Hub: The federation operates with its headquarters currently based in New Delhi, managing state associations across India to promote the sport at the grassroots level.

The correct answer is Its orbiter continues to send data.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-2 was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on July 22, 2019, from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre using the GSLV MK-III M1 launch vehicle.
• The mission was designed as a composite module consisting of a lunar Orbiter, the Vikram Lander, and the Pragyan Rover to explore the uncharted Lunar South Pole.
• While the Vikram lander suffered a hard landing on September 7, 2019, due to a technical anomaly in the final braking phase, the Orbiter was successfully placed in a polar orbit around the Moon.
• The Orbiter carries eight sophisticated scientific instruments and has enough fuel to remain operational for approximately seven years, significantly exceeding its initial one-year mission life.
• It continues to transmit high-resolution imagery and data regarding the lunar topography, mineralogy, and the distribution of water ice. Hence, the statement regarding the orbiter's continuous data transmission is correct.

 Additional Information

• Orbiter Payloads:
• The Orbiter High-Resolution Camera (OHRC) provides the sharpest images ever from a lunar mission, with a resolution of 0.3 meters.
• The CLASS (Chandrayaan-2 Large Area Soft X-ray Spectrometer) maps the abundance of major rock-forming elements like Magnesium, Aluminum, and Silicon.
• Successor Mission:
• The infrastructure and communication relay of the Chandrayaan-2 Orbiter played a pivotal role in the success of Chandrayaan-3, which achieved a historic soft landing in August 2023.
• Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM):
• Known as Mangalyaan, it was launched in November 2013, making India the first nation to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt.
• Gaganyaan Mission:
• This represents India's first manned space mission, intended to carry Indian astronauts (Gaganauts) into a Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

The correct answer is M. Visvesvaraya.

Key Points

• Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya was a distinguished civil engineer and the 19^th Diwan of Mysore, serving from 1912 to 1918.
• He is celebrated as the Father of Indian Planning because he was the first to propose a structured economic plan for the nation to combat poverty and underdevelopment.
• In 1934, he authored the landmark book 'Planned Economy for India', which presented a ten-year blueprint for economic development and industrialization.
• Visvesvaraya famously coined the slogan 'Industrialize or Perish', emphasizing that India's survival depended on transitioning from a purely agrarian society to an industrialized economy.
• His contributions to infrastructure, including the Krishna Raja Sagara dam, and his vision for technical education laid the foundation for modern Indian engineering.

 Additional Information

• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Known as the Grand Old Man of India, he was a key figure in the Indian National Congress.
• He authored 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' and formulated the Drain of Wealth theory.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• The first Prime Minister of India and the first Chairman of the Planning Commission established in 1950.
• He was the architect of the Mixed Economy model and advocated for state-led Socialist planning.
• P.C. Mahalanobis:
• Regarded as the Father of Indian Statistics and founder of the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI).
• He designed the Mahalanobis Model, which served as the cornerstone for the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), focusing on heavy industries.

The correct answer is 1951.

Key Points

• The industrial licensing system in India was formally established through the enactment of the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA) in 1951, which came into force in May 1952.
• The primary objective of this act was to provide the Central Government with the necessary powers to regulate and develop industries in accordance with national priorities and the objectives set out in the Five-Year Plans.
• Under the 1951 Act, a license was mandatory for establishing any new industrial undertaking, manufacturing a New Article in an existing plant, or carrying out a substantial expansion of production capacity.
• The system was designed to prevent the Concentration of Economic Power, protect the interests of Small-Scale Industries (SSI), and ensure Balanced Regional Development by incentivizing industries in backward areas.
• This regulatory framework formed the core of the License Permit Raj, which allowed the state to control the allocation of capital and resources to ensure they served the Socialistic Pattern of Society.

 Additional Information

• Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1948:
• This was the first official policy statement after independence, which introduced the concept of a Mixed Economy where both the public and private sectors co-existed.
• It reserved certain sectors like Arms and Ammunition, Atomic Energy, and Railway Transport exclusively for the state.
• Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956:
• Often termed the Economic Constitution of India, it expanded the public sector's scope and classified industries into three schedules: Schedule A (State monopoly), Schedule B (State-led), and Schedule C (Private sector).
• It emphasized the development of Heavy and Machine-building Industries as part of the Mahalanobis Model of growth.
• New Industrial Policy (NIP) 1991:
• Marked by the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) reforms, this policy abolished industrial licensing for almost all industries.
• Currently, compulsory licensing is limited to only five sectors, including Defense Equipment, Industrial Explosives, and Hazardous Chemicals, primarily for security and safety reasons.

The correct answer is INDIA-AI Mission.

Key Points

• The IndiaAI Mission is a comprehensive national-level initiative designed to establish a robust Artificial Intelligence ecosystem in India by fostering innovation and ensuring technological sovereignty.
• A primary objective of the mission is the creation of a massive AI Computing Infrastructure, which involves the deployment of over 10,000 Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) through public-private partnerships to support startups and researchers.
• The mission establishes the IndiaAI Datasets Platform, which acts as a central repository for high-quality, non-personal datasets to help Indian developers train advanced AI models.
• It focuses on indigenous development through the IndiaAI Innovation Centre, which is tasked with building Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and foundational models specifically tailored to Indian languages and sectors like agriculture and healthcare.
• The framework aims to democratize AI benefits by supporting Deep-Tech startups and integrating AI education into the national curriculum to bridge the digital talent gap.

 Additional Information

• Financial Allocation and Governance:
• The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, approved a total financial outlay of ₹10,372.92 crore for this mission.
• The mission is implemented by the 'IndiaAI' Independent Business Division (IBD) under the Digital India Corporation (DIC) within the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
• Key Pillars:
• IndiaAI FutureSkills: This component focuses on creating AI-ready vocational courses and establishing Data and AI Labs in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
• Safe & Trusted AI: This pillar ensures the development of ethical AI frameworks, focusing on bias mitigation and establishing guardrails for responsible deployment.
• IndiaAI Startup Financing: Provides streamlined access to capital for early-stage deep-tech AI firms to accelerate commercialization.

The correct answer is Reduce fiscal deficit.

Key Points

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in August 2003 with the primary goal of institutionalizing fiscal discipline in the Indian economy.
• The act aims to reduce the government's fiscal deficit and eliminate the revenue deficit to ensure long-term macroeconomic stability and inter-generational equity in fiscal management.
• It provides a legal framework that requires the Central Government to limit its fiscal deficit to a sustainable percentage of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), originally targeting a reduction to 3% by March 2009.
• Under this act, the government is mandated to lay three significant documents before the Parliament along with the annual budget: the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and the Macroeconomic Framework Statement.
• By restricting government borrowing, the act prevents the crowding out of private investment and helps control inflationary pressures within the economy.

 Additional Information

• Evolution and Reviews:
• The N.K. Singh Committee was constituted in 2016 to review the FRBM Act; it recommended a Debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for States) as a target for 2023.
• The act contains an Escape Clause, which allows the government to deviate from the deficit targets during national security concerns, war, natural calamities, or a collapse of agriculture.
• Distinction from other functions:
• Control money supply: This is a function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) through its Monetary Policy tools like the Repo Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
• Manage exports: Export management is handled via the Foreign Trade Policy formulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
• Promote cooperative banking: This is governed by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and falls under the supervisory jurisdiction of the RBI and NABARD.

The correct answer is Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS).

Key Points

• The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was introduced in the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-20 to promote the export of notified goods produced in India.
• The scheme specifically includes Special Economic Zones (SEZs) units, making them eligible for financial rewards to offset infrastructural inefficiencies and associated costs involved in exporting.
• Incentives under MEIS are provided in the form of Duty Credit Scrips, which are calculated as a percentage (usually 2% to 7%) of the realized Free on Board (FOB) value of exports in free foreign exchange.
• The scheme consolidated five earlier incentive programs, such as the Focus Product Scheme (FPS) and Market Linked Focus Product Scheme (MLFPS), into a single unified framework to simplify the process for exporters.
• By providing these incentives, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry aimed to enhance the global competitiveness of Indian manufactured goods and increase India’s share in world trade.

 Additional Information

• Duty Credit Scrips:
• These are freely transferable instruments that can be used to pay Basic Customs Duty on the import of inputs, capital goods, or other notified items.
• If an exporter cannot use the scrips for their own imports, they can be sold in the secondary market at a premium.
• Special Economic Zones (SEZs):
• Governed by the SEZ Act, 2005, these zones are treated as foreign territories for trade operations and duties, offering tax holidays and simplified procedures.
• Units in SEZs enjoy 100% Income Tax exemption on export income for the first 5 years under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act.
• Transition to RoDTEP:
• To align with World Trade Organization (WTO) requirements regarding export subsidies, the MEIS was replaced by the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme effective from January 1, 2021.

The correct answer is 15%.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-25 (presented in July 2024) provides a comprehensive analysis of the General Government expenditure, which includes the combined spending of the Central Government and State Governments.
• According to the survey data, the total expenditure on Social Services has grown at a Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 15% during the period from FY 2021 to FY 2025 (Budget Estimates).
• Social services expenditure primarily consists of three major heads: Education, Health, and Other Social Sectors (which covers housing, water supply, and sanitation).
• In absolute terms, the spending on social services increased significantly from ₹12.8 lakh crore in FY 2019 to approximately ₹21.3 lakh crore in FY 2023 (Revised Estimates), maintaining a robust trajectory through the FY 2025 budget.
• The share of Social Services expenditure as a percentage of the total Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has remained stable at around 6.7% to 7.8% over this period, highlighting the government’s commitment to social welfare.

 Additional Information

• Health Sector Focus:
• The Health expenditure share within the social services segment saw a notable rise, driven by post-pandemic infrastructure strengthening and the expansion of the Ayushman Bharat scheme.
• Education Sector Trends:
• Investment in Education remains the largest component of social sector spending, with a renewed focus on the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and digital learning initiatives.
• Budgetary Priorities:
• The 15% growth reflects the transition from crisis-response spending in FY 2021 to long-term Social Infrastructure development, ensuring that the benefits of economic growth reach the vulnerable sections of society.

The correct answer is Tantia Tope.

Key Points

• Rani Lakshmi Bai, the legendary queen of the princely state of Jhansi, was a central figure in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, resisting British annexation under the Doctrine of Lapse.
• When the British forces, commanded by Sir Hugh Rose, besieged the Jhansi Fort in March 1858, the Rani led a fierce defense of her territory.
• Tantia Tope, a highly skilled general and close associate of Nana Saheb, marched with an army of approximately 20,000 men to assist the Rani and relieve the siege at Jhansi.
• Despite the defeat at the Battle of Betwa, Tantia Tope and Rani Lakshmi Bai successfully coordinated their escape and retreated toward Kalpi.
• The two leaders, along with Rao Sahib, executed a daring plan to capture the Gwalior Fort from the Scindia rulers, who remained loyal to the British, making it a major stronghold for the rebel forces.
• The partnership between Rani Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope represented one of the most significant military alliances during the First War of Independence.

 Additional Information

• Tantia Tope:
• His original name was Ramachandra Panduranga and he was born in Yeola, Maharashtra.
• He was known for his expertise in guerrilla warfare and continued the struggle against the British in the jungles of Central India until his capture and execution in April 1859.
• Begum Hazrat Mahal:
• She was the wife of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah and took charge of the rebellion in Lucknow (Awadh).
• She declared her son, Birjis Qadr, as the Wali of Awadh and organized resistance against Sir Henry Lawrence.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar:
• The last Mughal Emperor of India, he was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan by the sepoys in Delhi during the 1857 Revolt.
• He was later tried for treason and exiled to Rangoon, Burma, by the British.
• Rani Avantibai Lodhi:
• The queen of Ramgarh (Mandla district), she raised an army of 4,000 to fight the British and is remembered for her sacrifice in the Central Provinces.

The correct answer is Indian National Army (INA).

Key Points

• The Indian National Army (INA), also known as the Azad Hind Fauj, was an armed force formed by Indian nationalists in 1942 in Southeast Asia during World War II.
• While the army was initially conceived by Captain Mohan Singh with the assistance of the Japanese, it was later reorganized and revitalized under the leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose after his arrival in Singapore in July 1943.
• The primary objective of the INA was to liberate India from British colonial rule through an armed struggle, operating in conjunction with the Japanese Imperial Army during the Burma Campaign.
• Subhas Chandra Bose assumed the role of Supreme Commander of the army and established the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) in October 1943.
• Under Netaji's leadership, the INA consisted of various regiments named after prominent leaders like Gandhi, Nehru, and Azad, symbolizing a united front for National Independence.

 Additional Information

• Structure and Special Units:
• The INA was unique for its time as it featured a dedicated all-female combat unit known as the Rani of Jhansi Regiment, commanded by Captain Lakshmi Sahgal.
• The force was largely composed of Indian Prisoners of War (POWs) who had been captured by the Japanese after the fall of Singapore in 1942.
• Famous Slogans and Legacy:
• Subhas Chandra Bose motivated his troops with the powerful slogan Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom.
• The Red Fort Trials of 1945, where INA officers were prosecuted by the British, triggered massive public demonstrations and significantly weakened the British Raj's control over the Indian military.