SSC GD Constable (2022) Official Paper (Held On : 11 Jan 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given equation: 48 % 12 % 5 % 5 % 4.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) ×, ÷, =, -

Given: 48 % 12 % 5 % 5 % 4

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 48 × 12 ÷ 5 = 5 - 4

⇒ 48 × 2.4 = 5 - 4

⇒ 115.2 = 5 - 4

⇒ 115.2 ≠ 1

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) ÷, ×, =, × 

Given: 48 ÷ 12 % 5 % 5 % 4

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 48 ÷ 12 × 5 = 5 × 4

⇒ 4 × 5 = 5 × 4

⇒ 20 = 20

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) ×, =, -, ÷ 

Given: 48 % 12 % 5 % 5 % 4

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 48 × 12 = 5 - 5 ÷ 4

⇒ 48 × 12 = 5 - 1.25

⇒ 576 = 5 - 1.25

⇒ 576 ≠ 3.75

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) ÷, ×, =, -

Given: 48 % 12 % 5 % 5 % 4

After replacing the * signs we get;

⇒ 48 ÷ 12 × 5 = 5 - 4

⇒ 4 × 5 = 5 - 4

⇒ 20 = 5 - 4

⇒ 20 ≠ 1

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place value is the code of that word.

Now,

• 'BRAVE' is coded as '48',

→ B(2) + R(18) + A(1) + V(22) + E(5) = 48.

• 'SPEAR' is coded as '59',

→ S(19) + P(16) + E(5) + A(1) + R(18) = 59.

Using the same logic for 'VICTOR':

→ V(22) + I(9) + C(3) + T(20) + O(15) + R(18) = 87.

So, 'VICTOR' will be coded as '87'.

Hence, the correct answer is "87".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 2nd number) × 11 = 3rd number.

Now,

For (11, 20, 341)

→ (11 + 20) × 11

→ 31 × 11 = 341.

For (25, 33, 638) 

→ (25 + 33) × 11

→ 58 × 11 = 638.

Similarly, for (12, 32, 484)

→ (12 + 32) × 11

→ 44 × 11 = 484.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'RKPN' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "RKPN".

Given Statements:

All notebooks are pink.

All pinks are shirts.

Some shirts are trousers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

I. All trousers are notebooks - False (No definite relation given between trousers and notebooks, so it can be possible only).

II. Some trousers are pink - False (No definite relation given between trousers and pink, so it can be possible only).

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: M * G @ K @ B % A * W

It means: M is the Son of G, G is the Daughter of K, K is the Daughter of B, B is the Wife of A, A is the Son of W.

Here, A is the 'Mother’s father' of G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place value × 2.

Now,

• 'TRAVEL' is coded as '156',

→ T(20) + R(18) + A(1) + V(22) + E(5) + L(12) = 78, and 78 × 2 = 156.

• 'PERSON' is coded as '174',

→ P(16) + E(5) + R(18) + S(19) + O(15) + N(14) = 87, and 87 × 2 = 174.

Using the same logic for 'ALMOND':

→ A(1) + L(12) + M(13) + O(15) + N(14) + D(4) = 59, and 59 × 2 = 118.

So, 'ALMOND' will be coded as '118'.

Hence, the correct answer is "118".

Given: Six candidates Anand, Balu, Charan, Dinesh, Emran and Farhad.

Dinesh is the immediate neighbour of Emran and Balu while  If 

1) Farhad is to the immediate right of Balu.

2) Dinesh is the immediate neighbour of Emran and Balu.

3) Charan is the immediate neighbour of Anand and Farhad.

So, 'Balu' sits to the immediate right of Dinesh.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Six friends (P, Q, R, S, T and U) are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) P sits second to the right of U.

2) S and R both are the immediate neighbours of P.

3) R sits third to the right of Q. 

And, T will sit on the remaining place.

 

So, 'S' sits between Q and P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The Symbols has shifted one place in next images and one new symbol added from the each next boxes.

So, the complete series will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Mistake Points A new symbol/letter is adding in both side of X alternatively, And according to the pattern, the new symbol/letter should be added before X as the given in option 2. So, Option 3 (=) eliminated here.

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

So, 'IQIF' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "IQIF".

The logic followed here is:

So, '66' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First Vowels are placed in order then Consonants is placed in Alphabetical order.

For, EXPLAIN : AEILNPX

For, MEDICAL : AEICDLM

 

Similarly, for PRIVACY :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct order of the words as they would appear in the English dictionary will be:

2. Brain
3. Bread
4. Break
5. Bridge
6. Broom

So, The correct order is '2, 1, 3, 5, 4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct mirror image is shown below:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given equation: 112 - 14 ÷ 40 + 8 × 12 = 64.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) + and ÷

Given: 112 - 14 ÷ 40 + 8 × 12 = 64

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 112 - 14 + 40 ÷ 8 × 12 = 64

⇒ 112 - 14 + 5 × 12 = 64

⇒ 112 - 14 + 60 = 64

⇒ 172 - 14 = 64

⇒ 158 ≠ 64

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) + and ×

Given: 112 - 14 ÷ 40 + 8 × 12 = 64

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 112 - 14 ÷ 40 × 8 + 12 = 64

⇒ 112 - 2.8 + 12 = 64

⇒ 124 - 2.8 = 64

⇒ 121.2 ≠ 64

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) ÷ and -

Given: 112 - 14 ÷ 40 + 8 × 12 = 64

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 112 ÷ 14 - 40 + 8 × 12 = 64 

⇒ 8 - 40 + 8 × 12 = 64 

⇒ 8 - 40 + 96 = 64 

⇒ 104 - 40 = 64

⇒ 64 = 64

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 4) - and +

Given: 112 - 14 ÷ 40 + 8 × 12 = 64

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 112 + 14 ÷ 40 - 8 × 12 = 64

⇒ 112 + 0.35 - 8 × 12 = 64

⇒ 112 + 0.35 - 96 = 64

⇒ 112.35 - 96 = 64

⇒ 16.35 ≠ 64

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For, DOWN: VKCL

For, ARMY: YHMA

Similarly, for HOME:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, '616' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• National Pension System: This is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme in India that is designed to enable subscribers to make optimal decisions about their future through systematic savings.
• It was introduced by the Indian government in 2004 for government employees and opened to all citizens in 2009.
• This system allows Indian citizens, including non-residents, between the ages of 18 and 65, to make contributions towards their retirement, with some tax benefits.
• It has two types of accounts: Tier I (non-withdrawable until retirement) and Tier II (voluntary savings account with flexibility to withdraw funds).

Additional Information

• At retirement, the subscriber must use at least 40% of the accumulated corpus to buy an annuity providing a monthly pension.
• The remaining funds can be withdrawn as a lump sum.
• If the total corpus is less than INR 2 lakhs at retirement, the subscriber can opt for a complete lump sum withdrawal.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points Folk dances are specific dances performed at a particular region and have survived from centuries giving us a glimpse of our past and the stories that showcase the dignity of a Particular religion or community.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• The option "4) Higher Education" is not an essential qualification for the candidature of the President of India.
• The President of India need not have a higher education degree.
• The Constitution of India does not list educational qualifications as a requirement.
• The essential qualifications, as per the Constitution of India, are:
• The candidate must be a citizen of India.
• They must be at least 35 years of age.
• They must be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.
• They must not hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.

​

Additional Information

• The President of India, as the head of state, has been bestowed with several powers by the Constitution of India. These powers can be broadly classified into the following categories:
• Executive Powers: The President has the authority to appoint the Prime Minister of India, other ministers, the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Governors of states, the Attorney General, the Comptroller and Auditor General, the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission, and Ambassadors and High Commissioners to other countries, among others.
• Legislative Powers: The President summons and prorogues the two Houses of Parliament. They can dissolve the Lok Sabha and call for new elections.
• Financial Powers: The President causes the Annual Budget (the Union Budget) to be laid before the Parliament.
• Judicial Powers: The President has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense.
• Military Powers: The President is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
• Emergency Powers: The President has the power to declare three types of emergencies: national, state and financial. During the period of any emergency, the powers of the President are greatly extended.
• Diplomatic Powers: The President represents India in international forums and affairs and sends and receives diplomats.
• Veto Powers: The President has veto power over all bills passed by the Parliament, meaning they can withhold their assent, send the bill back for reconsideration, or decide to take no action on the bill.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for conducting the decennial Census.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Finance: This ministry is responsible for the fiscal policy of the government, including managing public finance, preparation of the annual budget, and taxation policies.
• It consists of five departments: Department of Economic Affairs, Department of Expenditure, Department of Revenue, Department of Investment and Public Asset Management, and Department of Financial Services.
• Ministry of Corporate Affairs: This ministry deals with the administration of laws related to corporate behavior in India, including the Companies Act, the Competition Act, and other related laws.
• It also supervises the functioning of professional bodies like Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI), and Institute of Cost Accountants of India (ICAI).
• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation: This ministry is charged with the coverage and quality aspects of statistics released in the country.
• The two wings of this ministry are the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
• The ministry is also tasked with the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Topsoil (A Horizon): This is the uppermost layer of soil, and it is the zone where most of the biological activity occurs.
• It is rich in organic matter and is composed of a mixture of mineral particles such as sand, silt, and clay, as well as organic matter, water, and air.
• The topsoil is crucial for plant growth, and it is where most nutrients and biological activity are found.
• It is typically darker than the layers below due to the organic matter content.

Additional Information

• Subsoil (B Horizon): This layer is found below the topsoil. It contains fewer organic materials than the topsoil, but it may accumulate minerals, like iron, aluminum, and clay, that are leached (washed out from upper layers) from the topsoil.
• This layer is often denser and more compact than the topsoil and can act as a storehouse for minerals and water.
• It's not as fertile as the topsoil and is usually lighter in color.
• Substratum or Weathered Parent Rock Material (C Horizon): This layer is below the subsoil and is characterized by less biological activity.
• It consists mainly of larger rock fragments along with some very weathered parent rock material.
• The weathering process, which breaks down rocks both physically and chemically, happens very slowly in this layer.
• This layer serves as a transition between the soil above and the unweathered bedrock beneath it.
• Unweathered Parent Bedrock (R Horizon): This is the bottom layer, also known as the bedrock or the unweathered rock.
• It lies beneath the soil, and it can be composed of a variety of rock types like igneous, metamorphic, or sedimentary rock.
• This bedrock over geological time, breaks down through weathering and forms the above layers of soil.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Two-day long annual Hemis festival dedicated to the Guru Padmasambhava began on 26 June 2015 in the largest monastery of Ladakh Hemis Gompa (monastery) of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Hemis festival is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Guru Padmasambhava.
• During this festive season, Lamas called 'chhams,' perform masked dances and sacred plays to the accompaniment of cymbals, drums, and longhorns.
• The festival takes an auspicious turn every 12 years in the Tibetan Year of the Monkey when the two-storey-high Thanka depicting Padmasambhava is displayed.

​

Additional Information

• One of the famous festivals celebrated in Puducherry (formerly known as Pondicherry) is the Puducherry International Yoga Festival.
• One of the famous festivals celebrated in Chandigarh is the Rose Festival.
• One of the famous festivals celebrated in Lakshadweep is the Eid-ul-Fitr. Eid-ul-Fitr, also known as "Festival of Breaking the Fast," is a significant religious festival celebrated by Muslims worldwide, marking the end of Ramadan, the holy month of fasting.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-1974) :
• The fourth Five Year Plan was the first plan launched by the Indira Gandhi government amid the pressure of drought, devaluation, and inflationary recession.
• The country was fighting with population explosion, increased unemployment, poverty, and a shackling economy. In addition, the situation in East Pakistan (now independent Bangladesh) was becoming dire as the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 and Bangladesh Liberation War took place.
• Funds earmarked for industrial development had to be used for the war effort.
• The result was that this plan period was also no better than the third five-year plan.

Additional Information

• Joseph Stalin was the first person to implement the five year plan in the soviet union, in the year 1928.
• India launched a series of five year plans after independence to build economy and attain development.
• The planned budget is spent on five year basis as per priorities fixed by the plan.
• The model of the Indian economy was premised on the concept of planning based on five year plans from 1951-2017.
• These plans were formulated, implemented and regulated by body known as Planning commission.
• The planning commission was replaced by think tank called NITI Aayog in 2015.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution refers to a period of significant agricultural transformation that took place in India in the mid-20th century.
• The introduction of high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice, along with the use of modern irrigation techniques and chemical fertilizers, played a crucial role in increasing agricultural productivity.
• The Green Revolution was primarily led by agricultural scientists and policymakers, with the support of the Indian government.
• One of the key figures associated with the Green Revolution in India is Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, an eminent agricultural scientist. His research and efforts in developing high-yielding crop varieties helped revolutionize Indian agriculture.
• The implementation of the Green Revolution resulted in significant increases in agricultural production, particularly in wheat and rice.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The Asian Games 2018 was a multi-sport continental competition that took place in Jakarta and Palembang.
• It took place from August 18 to September 2, 2018.
• The Indonesian metropolis of Jakarta and the provincial capital of South Sumatra, Palembang, jointly hosted the Summer Asian Games for the first time.
• For ten years running, China has led the medal count.
• Rikako Ikee, a Japanese swimmer, was named the most valuable player.

Additional Information

• In September and October 2002, Busan, South Korea hosted the 14th Asian Games.
• Japan held the third and twelfth Asian Games, respectively, in Tokyo in 1958 and Hiroshima in 1994.
• The country will host the tournament for the third time when the 20th Games take place in Aichi-Nagoya in 2026.
• The multisport Asian Games of 2022 were held in Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China.

Important Points

• The Asian Games 2022, due to be held in Hangzhou, China, have been postponed to 2023 due to rising COVID-19 cases in the country.
• The Asian Games 2022 were originally scheduled from September 10 to 25, 2022.
• The World University Games 2021, to be held from June 26 to July 27 in Chengdu, have also been pushed to 2023.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Aparna Satheesan is a Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dancer, choreographer and teacher.
• She is well known globally for her ability to use creativity in presenting innovative ideas through multiple classical dance forms of India.
• She was awarded the Abhinandan Saroja award for her contribution to classical dance in November 2021.
• The selection panel of judges included very famous dancers like Dr Swati Daithankar, Sri. Narendra Kumar, Smt. Sukanya Mahadevan and Smt. Aparna Ramesh.
• Aparna Satheesan win the Prestigious National Nritya Shiromani Award 2022 in Kuchipudi.

​

Additional Information

• Some famous classical dancers

The correct answer is 2kg in weight and 22cm in diameter.

Key Points

• The weight of discus for men is 2.00 kg.
• Discus throw comes under Track and Field Throwing Events.
• Athletes throw or discus throw is a metal disc weighing 2kg for men.
• It is 22cm in diameter for men, and 18cm for women.
• With reference to the 'Discus Throw' event, the weight of a metal disc for women is 1 kg.
• The discus must be thrown from a circle 2.5 metres in diameter and should fall within a 40° sector marked on the ground from the centre of the circle.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 111.

Key Points

• As per World Steel Association data, India became the second-largest steel producer of crude steel after China in 2019, by replacing Japan.
• India’s crude steel production in 2019 was at 111.2 MT, an increase of 1.7 percent from 109.3 MT in 2018.
• China remains number one with 996.3 million tonnes in 2019.
• The United States and Russia rank fourth and fifth respectively.​

Additional Information

• India’s crude steel production in 2018 was reported at 109.3m tonnes, an increase of 7.7% from 2017. In 2019, this increased to 111.2m tonnes.
• The growth in the Indian steel sector has been driven by the easy availability of raw materials, labour as well as a steadily expanding construction market.
• India’s steel demand is expected to rise by 7.2% in 2019-20. The demand growth for steel is expected to remain unchanged at 7.2% in 2020-21.
• The Government has launched the Purvodaya program which aims accelerated the development of eastern India with an integrated steel hub.
• Here is the list of Top 5 Crude steel producers in the world in 2019:

The correct answer is Arsenic.

Key Points

• Arsenic (As):
• Arsenic is a chemical element with the symbol As and atomic number 33.
• Arsenic is a metalloid. It has various allotropes.
• The primary use of arsenic is in alloys of lead (for example, in car batteries and ammunition).
• Arsenic is a common n-type dopant in semiconductor electronic devices.
• It is also a component of the III-V compound semiconductor gallium arsenide.
• Arsenic and its compounds, especially trioxide, are used in the production of pesticides, treated wood products, herbicides, and insecticides.
• Arsenic contamination of groundwater is a problem that affects millions of people across the world.

Additional Information

• Barium
• Barium is a chemical element represented by the symbol Ba and atomic number 56 on the periodic table.
• It is a soft, silvery alkaline earth metal.
• Neon 
• Neon is a chemical element with the symbol Ne and atomic number 10.
• It's a noble gas that is colorless, odorless, and tasteless.
• Iodine
• Iodine is a chemical element with the symbol I and atomic number 53 on the periodic table. ​

The correct answer is Reserve bank of India.

Key Points

• According to Section 22 of the RBI Act, 1934 the Reserve Bank of India has sole right to issue currency or print currency in India.
• Section 25 of the RBI Act, 1934 provides that the design, form, and material of bank notes shall be such as may be approved by the Central Government after consideration of the recommendations made by the Central Board of RBI.
• Section 24 of the RBI Act 1934 states that the maximum denomination of notes printed in India is Rs.10000.
• Section 26 of the RBI Act 1934 states the legal tender character of Indian banknotes.

Additional Information

• RBI was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934.
• Current Governor of RBI is Shri Shaktikanta Das(25th).
• Sir Osborne Smith was the first governor of RBI and C.D. Deshmukh was the first Indian governor of RBI.
• It operates the currency and credit system of the country.
• It is called the Bankers Bank of India.
• It formulates, implements, and monitors monetary policy.

The correct answer is Suman Bery.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog’s Vice Chairman Rajiv Kumar has stepped down after being at the helm of the institution for nearly five years.
• Dr. Suman K Bery has been appointed new Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
• He will take charge as Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog from 1 May 2022.
• Suman K Bery had earlier served as Director-General of the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) in New Delhi.
• NCAER is one of the country’s leading independent non-profit policy research institutions.

Additional Information 

• NITI Aayog:
• On January 1, 2015, the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established as the successor to the planning commission.
• It was created by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
• NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• In a paradigmatic shift from the command and control approach of the past, NITI Aayog accommodates diverse points of view in a collaborative, rather than confrontationist, setting.

The correct answer is Pataliputra.

Key Points

• As the Mauryan empire was so large, different parts were ruled differently.
• The area around Pataliputra was under the direct control of the emperor.
• This meant that officials were appointed to collect taxes from farmers, herders, craftspersons and traders, who lived in villages and towns in the area.
• Many of these officials were given salaries.
• Messengers went to and fro and spies kept a watch on the officials.
• And of course, the emperor supervised them all, with the help of members of the royal family, and senior ministers.
• There were other areas or provinces. Each of these was ruled from a provincial capital such as Taxila or Ujjain. Although there was some amount of control from Pataliputra, and royal princes were often sent as governors, local customs and rules were probably followed. Besides, there were vast areas between these centres.
• Here the Mauryas tried to control roads and rivers, which were important for transport, and to collect whatever resources were available as tax and tribute.
• For example, the Arthashastra tells us that the north-west was important for blankets, and south India for its gold and precious stones. It is possible that these resources were collected as tribute.

Additional Information Maurya Empire-

• The Maurya Empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya. He reigned from 321-297 BCE.
• Bindusara was the second emperor of the Mauryan Empire.
• He was the son of Chandragupta Maurya. He reigned from 297-273 BCE
• Ashoka, the most famous ruler was the son of Bindusara. He succeeded his father, Bindusara.
• He reigned from 273-232 BCE.
• Brihadratha was the last ruler of the Maurya dynasty.
• He reigned from 187-180 BCE. He was killed by Pushyamitra Shunga who then established the Shunga dynasty.

The correct answer is March 1919.

Key Points

• The Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in March 1919.
• The Khilafat Movement, which began in 1919, brought the Muslims and the Hindus on a common platform against British rule, was the most important cause of the Non - Cooperation Movement.
• Aim: 
• ​The Khilafat movement was initiated under the leadership of the two Ali brothers namely Mohammed Ali and Shaukat Ali-Maulana Azad, Hakim Ajmal Khan, and Hasrat Mohani.
• The movement was started to support the Sultan of Turkey whom The Muslim population in India considered their religious head.
• Mahatma Gandhi saw the Khilafat agitation as "an opportunity not to unite Hindus and Muslims in a hundred-year's time."Also, the Muslim League gave full support to the National Congress and its political agitation.
• The leaders of this Khilafat movement accepted the non-cooperation movement of Gandhiji and led a joint protest against the British.
• The Khilafat Movement and the Congress Non-Cooperation Movement merged into one nationwide movement by the year-end of 1920.
• In 1921, the Khilafat Committee put a note to all the Muslims asking not to join the police and armed forces and not to pay taxes.
• Unfortunately, the whole movement was abruptly called off on February 12, 1922, at Gandhiji’s insistence, proceeding the news of the Chauri Chaura incident.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Red blood cells might appear round in some microscopic images, their actual shape is more complex.
• Red blood cells are bio-concave disks, which means they are disk-shaped but indented on both sides, almost like a donut without a hole.
• This shape increases the cell's surface area, allowing for more efficient gas exchange.
• Muscle cells - Spindle shape:
• Many types of muscle cells, specifically skeletal and smooth muscle cells, are elongated and often referred to as spindle-shaped.
• This shape aids in their function of contraction and movement.

Additional Information

• Blood cells are the cells that circulate in the blood and make up most of its solid component.
• They are produced in the bone marrow and have a variety of functions that are necessary for life.
• Blood cells can be grouped into three types:
• Red Blood Cells (RBCs) or Erythrocytes: These are the most common type of blood cell and the body's principal means of delivering oxygen to body tissues via the blood. RBCs contain hemoglobin, a protein that binds to oxygen.
• They have a unique biconcave disc shape that allows them to maneuver through the smallest blood vessels and increases their surface area to facilitate the diffusion of oxygen.
• White Blood Cells (WBCs) or Leukocytes: These cells are part of the immune system and help the body fight infections and other diseases.
• They are much fewer in number than red blood cells.
• There are several types of white blood cells, including neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils, each with its own function in the immune response.
• Platelets or Thrombocytes: These are small, colorless cell fragments in our blood that form clots and stop or prevent bleeding.
• Platelets are essential for coagulation, which is the process of blood clot formation to stop bleeding following a vascular injury.

The correct answer is To provide opportunities for education to one’s child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India:
• The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India was enacted in the year 1976.
• It is officially known as the Constitution Act, of 1976.
• It was enacted during the Emergency by the Indian National Congress Head Indira Gandhi.
• It is considered the most controversial Constitutional Amendment in Indian history.
• Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries, and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife.
• Provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service.
  

Shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed).

• It is often called a "mini-Constitution" or the "Constitution of Indira".

Additional Information

• There are three ways in which the Constitution can be amended:-
• Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament
• Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament
• Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures.
• Amendment by a simple majority-
• Admission or establishment of new states, Formation of new states, Rules of procedure in Parliament, Salaries and Allowances, etc are covered under this.
• Amendment by the special majority-
• The special majority- a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
• The provisions which can be amended by this way include (i) Fundamental Rights; (ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and (iii) All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.
• Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures-
• Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by this.
• For instance, the election of the president, distribution of legislative powers between union and states, any of the lists in the seventh schedule, etc.

The correct answer is Rama Subramaniam Gandhi.

Key Points

• His appointment was recommended by the Board of Directors of Yes Bank, and his term is set for a period of three years starting from September 20, 2022​.
• R. Gandhi, born in 1956, started his career at the RBI in 1980 and held various positions over the years.
• He has extensive experience in financial sector policy, regulation, payment systems, FinTech, and currency management​3​.
• He was the Deputy Governor of RBI from 2014 to 2017, where he managed portfolios including banking, non-banking and cooperative banking regulation, risk management, and currency management among others.
• He was also one of the initial members of the Monetary Policy Committee​3​​2​.

Additional Information

• Yes Bank Limited is an Indian private sector bank headquartered in Mumbai, India.
• It was founded by Rana Kapoor and Ashok Kapur in 2004.

Shortcut Trick

Saving per toy = 10% of ₹50 = ₹5

Total savings made by Ankita = ₹450

Number of toys = Total savings ÷ Saving per toy

Number of toys = 450 ÷ 5 = 90

∴ The correct answer is 90 toys.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original Price of each toy = ₹50

Discount rate = 10%

Total savings = ₹450

Formula Used:

Saving per item = Original Price × (Discount % ÷ 100)

Total items = Total savings ÷ Saving per item

Calculations:

⇒ Saving on 1 toy = 50 × (10 ÷ 100)

⇒ Saving on 1 toy = 50 × 0.1 = ₹5

⇒ Let the number of toys be 'n'.

⇒ Total savings = n × Saving on 1 toy

⇒ 450 = n × 5

⇒ n = 450 ÷ 5

⇒ n = 90

∴ The correct answer is 90 toys.

Additional Information

Discount and Marked Price

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (or Original Price). Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the Effective Discount = [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂ ÷ 100)]%.

Profit/Loss Percentage

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100. It represents the gain over the initial investment.

Given:

The jogger covers one-third of the distance covered by the cyclist in double

of the time taken by the cyclist.

Concept:

The speed is the ratio of distance to time.

Solution:

The ratio of the jogger's speed to the cyclist's speed = (1/3)/2 = 1/6.

Hence, the ratio of the speed of the jogger to that of the cyclist is 1: 6

Given:

The cost price of the item is Rs.950.

The selling price of the item is Rs.1,150.

Concept:

The percentage profit is calculated by the formula:

((Selling price - Cost price)/Cost price) × 100%.

Solution:

⇒ The percentage profit = ((1,150 - 950)/950) × 100% = 21%.

Therefore, her percentage profit is 21%

Given:

The shopkeeper offers a discount of 7.5% on the marked price and a cashback of ₹10 per item.

The shopkeeper earns ₹5 per item.

The marked price of each item is ₹x.

Concept:

The cost price of each item is equal to the marked price minus the discount and cashback plus the profit.

Solution:

⇒ The cost price = x × (1 - 0.075) - 10 - 5 = 0.925x - 15.

Hence, the cost price of each item is 0.925x - 15 

Given:

Discount = 7.5% on the marked price (x)

Cashback = Rs. 10

Profit = Rs. 5

Concept used:

Net selling price = Marked price - Discount - Cashback

Calculation:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked price - Discount - Cashback

⇒ SP = x - 0.075x - Rs10

⇒ SP = 0.925x - Rs10

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price - Profit

⇒ CP = SP - Rs 5

⇒ CP = 0.925x - Rs10 - Rs 5

⇒ CP = 0.925x - Rs 15

∴ The cost price of each item is (0.925x - Rs15).

Shortcut Trick

Let the original sum be 100 units.

After 15% deduction: 100 − 15 = 85 units.

After 25% deduction from remainder: 85 − (25% of 85) = 85 − 21.25 = 63.75 units.

Given: 63.75 units = ₹4,335

⇒ 1 unit = 4335 ÷ 63.75 = 68

⇒ 100 units = 68 × 100 = ₹6,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,800.

Alternate Method

Given:

First deduction = 15% | Second deduction = 25% | Remaining Amount = ₹4,335

Formula Used:

Remaining Amount = Original Sum × (1 − r₁/100) × (1 − r₂/100)

Calculations:

Let the original sum be x.

⇒ x × (1 − 15/100) × (1 − 25/100) = 4335

⇒ x × (85/100) × (75/100) = 4335

⇒ x × (17/20) × (3/4) = 4335

⇒ x × (51/80) = 4335

⇒ x = (4335 × 80) ÷ 51

⇒ x = 85 × 80

⇒ x = 6800

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,800.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is changed by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is [a + b + (a × b)/100]%.

Deduction vs Discount

Successive deductions of 15% and 25% are equivalent to a single deduction of [15 + 25 − (15 × 25)/100] = 36.25%.

Base Value Rule

Always ensure the second percentage is calculated on the remainder (new base) rather than the original sum unless specified otherwise.

Given:

The expenditure of a man is 70% of his income.

His income will successively increase by 20% and 50%.

His new savings become 2.5 times of the previous savings.

Concept:

For the new expenditure to increase, the ratio of the new expenditure to the old must be greater than 1.

Solution:

We know that savings = income - expenditure.

⇒ The initial income = 100 (assume), initial expenditure = 70, initial savings = 30.

⇒ After successive increments, new income = 100 × 1.2 × 1.5 = 180.

⇒ New savings = 2.5 × initial savings = 2.5 × 30 = 75.

⇒ Therefore, new expenditure = new income - new savings = 180 - 75 = 105.

⇒ The new expenditure is 105 - 70 = 35 more than the previous expenditure.

⇒ This represents an increase of (35/70) × 100 = 50%.

Therefore, the new expenditure is 50% more than the previous expenditure

Shortcut Trick

A completes 80% work in 20 days → 100% work in 25 days.

A + B complete remaining 20% work in 3 days → 100% work in 15 days.

Total Work = LCM(25, 15) = 75 units.

Efficiency: A = 3 units/day, A + B = 5 units/day ∴ B = 5 − 3 = 2 units/day.

Time for B = 75 ÷ 2 = 37 1/2 days.

∴ The correct answer is 37 1/2 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

A completes 80% (4/5) of the work in 20 days.

Remaining work = 100% − 80% = 20% (1/5).

A + B complete this 20% work in 3 days.

Formula Used:

Total Days = (Days × 100) ÷ Percentage of work done

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Total Days

Calculations:

⇒ Total days taken by A to complete work = (20 × 100) ÷ 80 = 25 days.

⇒ Total days taken by A + B to complete work = (3 × 100) ÷ 20 = 15 days.

⇒ Efficiency of B alone = Efficiency of (A + B) − Efficiency of A

⇒ Efficiency of B = 5 − 3 = 2

⇒ Time taken by B alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B

⇒ Time = 75 ÷ 2 = 37.5 days

∴ The correct answer is 37 1/2 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Work is directly proportional to efficiency and time. If work is constant, time is inversely proportional to efficiency (T₁/T₂ = E₂/E₁).

Combined Work Formula

If person X takes x days and person Y takes y days, the time taken together is T = (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days.

Percentage Work to Full Work

To find the time for 100% work when p% is done in d days, use: Total Time = (d ÷ p) × 100.

Given:

A cuboidal room of length 10 m, breadth 6 m, and height 8 m.

Concept:

The maximum length of a rod that can be kept in a cuboidal room is equal to

the room's diagonal, which can be calculated using the 3D Pythagorean

theorem.

Solution:

The diagonal (d) = √(length² + breadth² + height²)

⇒ √(10² + 6² + 8²) = √(100 + 36 + 64) = √200 = 10√2 m.

Therefore, the maximum length of the rod that can be kept in the room

is 10√2 m.

Given:

The ratio of cheese to sauce for a single pizza is 1 cup to 1/2 cup.

Rama used 15 cups of sauce.

Concept:

The amount of cheese used is calculated based on the given ratio and the amount of sauce used.

Solution:

The number of cups of cheese = Ratio of cheese to sauce × Number of

cups of sauce = 2 × 15 = 30 cups.

Therefore, Rama used 30 cups of cheese for the pizzas.

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = 20 + 10 = 30 miles

Total Time = 2.5 h + 1.25 h = 3.75 h

Average Speed = 30 ÷ 3.75 = 8 mph

∴ The correct answer is 8 mph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance 1 = 20 miles | Time 1 = 2 h 30 min

Distance 2 = 10 miles | Time 2 = 1 h 15 min

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 20 + 10 = 30 miles

⇒ Time 1 = 2 + (30 ÷ 60) = 2.5 hours

⇒ Time 2 = 1 + (15 ÷ 60) = 1.25 hours

⇒ Total Time = 2.5 + 1.25 = 3.75 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 30 ÷ 3.75

⇒ Average Speed = 3000 ÷ 375 = 8 mph

∴ The correct answer is 8 mph.

Additional Information

General Average Speed Formula

Average speed is always calculated as the ratio of Total Distance covered to the Total Time taken: V_avg = (D₁ + D₂ + ... + D_n) ÷ (T₁ + T₂ + ... + T_n).

Harmonic Mean for Equal Distances

If a person covers two equal distances at speeds x and y, then the Average Speed = (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Time Conversion

To convert minutes into hours, divide the value by 60. Example: 15 min = 15/60 = 0.25 h.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency of Sakshi + Komal = 1/10 per day

Work completed in 3 days = 3 × (1/10) = 3/10

Remaining work = 1 − 3/10 = 7/10

Time taken by Komal for remaining work = (7/10) ÷ (1/22) = (7/10) × 22 = 77/5 days

Total time = 3 + 77/5 = 92/5 days

∴ The correct answer is 92/5 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Sakshi and Komal (S+K) = 10 days

Time taken by Komal (K) alone = 22 days

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total work (LCM of 10 and 22) = 110 units

⇒ Combined efficiency of Sakshi and Komal = 11 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Komal = 5 units/day

⇒ Work done by both in 3 days = 11 × 3 = 33 units

⇒ Remaining work = 110 − 33 = 77 units

⇒ Time taken by Komal alone to finish remaining work = 77 ÷ 5 = 77/5 days

⇒ Total days = Initial days + Additional days = 3 + 77/5

⇒ Total days = (15 + 77) / 5 = 92/5 days

∴ The correct answer is 92/5 days.

Additional Information

Total Work Concept

Total work is always assumed to be the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the number of days taken by individuals to simplify efficiency calculations.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the work done by each person, which is the product of their efficiency and the time they worked.

Pipes and Cisterns

This concept is identical to Time and Work, where an inlet pipe has positive efficiency and an outlet pipe (leak) has negative efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

Rate per half-year = 10% ÷ 2 = 5%.

1st deposit (Jan) earns interest for 2 cycles ⇒ Effective rate = 5 + 5 + (5×5)/100 = 10.25%.

2nd deposit (Jul) earns interest for 1 cycle ⇒ Effective rate = 5%.

Total Interest = (10.25% of 3200) + (5% of 3200) = 15.25% of 3200.

⇒ Total Interest = 15.25 × 32 = 488

∴ The correct answer is Rs.488.

Alternate Method

Given:

Two deposits of Rs.3200 each, made on 1st Jan and 1st Jul.

Rate of interest (R) = 10% p.a. compounded half-yearly.

Formula Used:

A = P × (1 + r/100)ⁿ

CI = A − P

1st Jan 1st Jul 31st Dec

+Rs.3200

+Rs.3200

1st Half-Year (5%)

2nd Half-Year (5%)

Calculations:

⇒ Rate per half-year (r) = 10% ÷ 2 = 5%

⇒ For 1st deposit (Jan 1 to Dec 31): Time = 1 year ⇒ n = 2 half-years

⇒ Amount (A₁) = 3200 × (1 + 5/100)² = 3200 × 1.05 × 1.05 = Rs.3528

⇒ Interest (I₁) = 3528 − 3200 = Rs.328

⇒ For 2nd deposit (Jul 1 to Dec 31): Time = 6 months ⇒ n = 1 half-year

⇒ Amount (A₂) = 3200 × (1 + 5/100)¹ = 3200 × 1.05 = Rs.3360

⇒ Interest (I₂) = 3360 − 3200 = Rs.160

⇒ Total Interest = I₁ + I₂ = 328 + 160 = 488

∴ The correct answer is Rs.488.

Additional Information

Half-Yearly Compounding

When interest is compounded half-yearly, the annual rate is halved (R ÷ 2) and the number of time periods is doubled (2n). The general compound amount formula becomes: A = P × (1 + R/200)²ⁿ.

Effective Interest Rate

For two consecutive compounding periods at a rate of r% per period, the effective combined rate over both periods is calculated using the successive percentage change formula: r + r + (r×r)/100 %.

CI vs SI Difference

The exact difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 identical compounding periods at rate r% per period is given by the formula: D = P × (r/100)².

Calculation:

⇒ $16\times9\div4\ of\ 2\over 3\times(9-6)-2\times3\div4\ of\ {1\over2}$

⇒ $16\times9\div4\times\ 2\over 3\times(9-6)-2\times3\div4\times\ {1\over2}$

⇒ $16\times9\div8\over 3\times3-2\times3\div2$

⇒ $16\times9\times{1\over8}\over 3\times3-2\times3\times{1\over2}$

⇒ $2\times9\over9-3$

⇒ $18\over6$

⇒ 3

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5000.

Rate of interest (r) = 4% per annum.

Time (t) = 1 year.

Concept:

The difference between compound interest compounded yearly and half-yearly can be calculated using the respective compound interest formulas.

Solution:

CI compounded yearly = P(1 + r/100)^t - P

⇒ 5000(1 + 4/100) - 5000 = ₹200.

For half-yearly compounding, r = r/2 = 4/2 = 2%, and t = 2t = 2.

CI compounded half-yearly = P(1 + r/200)^(2t) - P

⇒ 5000(1 + 2/200)² - 5000 = ₹202.00.

Difference = CI(compounded half-yearly) - CI(compounded yearly) 

⇒ ₹202.00 - ₹200 = ₹2.00.

Therefore, the difference between the compound interests is ₹2.00

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Geeta : Radha : Savitha = (7 × 7) : (15 × 7) : (15 × 16) = 49 : 105 : 240

Given Geeta's share = 49 units = ₹980 → 1 unit = ₹20

Savitha's money = 240 units × ₹20 = ₹4,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,800.

Alternate Method

Given:

→ Ratio of Geeta (G) and Radha (R) = 7 : 15

→ Ratio of Radha (R) and Savitha (S) = 7 : 16

→ Geeta's money = ₹980

Formula Used:

→ To combine ratios a : b and b : c, find the common value for 'b' by calculating the LCM.

Calculations:

⇒ G : R = 7 : 15 and R : S = 7 : 16

⇒ Multiplying the first ratio by 7 and the second by 15 to equate Radha's value:

⇒ G : R = (7 × 7) : (15 × 7) = 49 : 105

⇒ R : S = (7 × 15) : (16 × 15) = 105 : 240

⇒ Combined Ratio G : R : S = 49 : 105 : 240

⇒ Given 49 units = ₹980

⇒ 1 unit = 980 ÷ 49 = ₹20

⇒ Savitha's share = 240 units × 20 = ₹4,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,800.

Additional Information

Compound Ratio

For two ratios a : b and c : d, the compound ratio is calculated as (a × c) : (b × d).

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(a × b).

Duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a² : b², which represents the squared values of the original terms.

Given:

The fast local train takes 30 minutes less than the slow local train for a

journey of 60 km.

The speed of the slow local train is 20 km/h less than the speed of the fast

local train.

Concept:

Speed = Distance /Time

Solution:

Let the speed of the slow train be x km/h.

Then, the speed of the fast train is (x + 20) km/h.

Time taken by the slow train = Distance/Speed = 60/x hours.

Time taken by the fast train = Distance/Speed = 60/(x + 20) hours.

According to the problem, 60/x - 60/(x + 20) = 30/60 (as the time is in

minutes, convert it to hours).

Solving the above equation, we get x = 40 km/h.

Therefore, the speed of the slow local train is 40 km/h.

Shortcut Trick

The distance between two places when total travel time is known can be calculated directly:

Distance (D) = (S₁ × S₂ × Total Time) ÷ (S₁ + S₂)

Substituting the values: D = (180 × 240 × 6) ÷ (180 + 240)

D = (43200 × 6) ÷ 420 ⇒ D = 259200 ÷ 420 ⇒ D = 4320 ÷ 7

D ≈ 617.14 km

∴ The correct answer is 617.14 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Forward Speed (S₁) = 180 km/h

Return Speed (S₂) = 240 km/h

Total Time (T) = 6 hours

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Total Time = Time_forward + Time_return

Calculations:

Let the one-way distance be 'D' km.

⇒ D ÷ 180 + D ÷ 240 = 6

⇒ (4D + 3D) ÷ 720 = 6 (Taking LCM of 180 and 240 which is 720)

⇒ 7D ÷ 720 = 6

⇒ 7D = 6 × 720

⇒ 7D = 4320

⇒ D = 4320 ÷ 7

⇒ D = 617.1428...

∴ The correct answer is 617.14 km.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Entire Journey

When equal distances are covered at different speeds S₁ and S₂, Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Speed and Time Relationship

For a constant distance, speed is inversely proportional to time: S₁ ÷ S₂ = T₂ ÷ T₁.

Distance in Difference of Time

If the difference between two times is ΔT, then Distance = (S₁ × S₂ × ΔT) ÷ |S₁ − S₂|.

Given:

The length, breadth, and height of a cuboid are 24 cm, 18 cm, and 12 cm

respectively.

The length of a side of the cube is 6 cm.

Concept:

The number of cubes formed when a cuboid is melted can be calculated by

dividing the volume of the cuboid by the volume of a cube.

Solution:

Volume of the cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

⇒ 24 cm × 18 cm × 12cm = 5184 cm³.

Volume of a single cube = (6 cm)³ = 216 cm³.

Number of cubes formed = Volume of the cuboid / Volume of a single cube

⇒ 5184 cm³ / 216 cm³ = 24 cubes.

Therefore, the number of cubes formed is 24.

Given:

The numbers 73, 115, and 185 are divided by a number to leave the same

remainder.

Concept:

To find the greater possible number that divides all three given numbers

leaving the same remainder, we need to find their greatest common divisor

(GCD).

Solution:

GCD of (115 - 73) and (185 - 73) = GCD of 42 and 112 = 14.

GCD of 14 and (185 - 115) = GCD of 14 and 70 = 14.

Therefore, the greater possible number that divides all three given

numbers leaving the same remainder is 14

Given:

Shopkeeper using a faulty weight while professes to sell the article at cost

price and gains a profit of 25%.

Calculation:

Let x be the weight the shopkeeper uses.

The shopkeeper gains 25% profit, so 1.25x = 1000

⇒ x = 800

Therefore, the faulty weight he uses for 1000g is 800g.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• The sentence given "We were holding the things with a strong rope." is in the past continuous tense.
• The equivalent future tense form of this sentence would involve using "will be" as the auxiliary verb.
• Hence, "We will be holding the things with a strong rope" (Option 1) is the right choice here.

Therefore, the correct answer is:- 'We will be holding the things with a strong rope'.

Additional Information

• Option 2 uses the present perfect continuous tense and thus doesn't fit as the future tense form.
• Option 3 is grammatically incorrect.
• Option 4 uses the present continuous tense, not the future tense required.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Bat'.

Key Points

• A blank in the sentence is for an animal, and the other for an equipment related to cricket.
• A 'bat' is a nocturnal animal, and it's also the term for the equipment used in cricket.
• Therefore, 'bat' (Option 4) correctly fills both the blanks.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'A bat is a nocturnal animal and a bat is needed for the game of cricket.'

Additional Information

• 'Ball' (Option 1) and 'bale' (Option 2) can be used in the context of cricket but neither are nocturnal animals.
• 'Goal' (Option 3) is related to other sports like football, not cricket and neither is it a nocturnal animal.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Blue'.

Key Points

• The blank in the sentence requires an adjective which refers to a feeling of sadness or depression.
• 'Blue' (Option 2) fits this context correctly, as it's an idiom that means feeling sad or depressed (उदास या निराश).
• So, the filled sentence would be: "Her face was blue after seeing the house in such condition."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Blue'.

Additional Information

• 'Bedew' (Option 1) is a verb which means to wet with or as with dew ('ओस से गीला करना'), which doesn't make sense in this context.
• 'Brew' (Option 3) can refer to making a hot drink like tea or coffee ('भूनना' or 'पकाना'), or to a plan forming (योजना बना'), but neither fit well here.
• 'Blew' (Option 4) is the past tense of the verb 'blow' (फूंकना'), and isn't coherent in this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Had barely made it'.

Key Points 

• The provided sentence has a tense inconsistency, using "has" (present perfect) with "when" (used with past simple) in "She has barely made it to the airport, when she heard the news of her dad’s accident."
• The correct auxiliary verb to use would be 'had', making the sentence "She had barely made it to the airport, when she heard the news of her dad’s accident." (Option 2).

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Had barely made it'.

Additional Information

• 'Have barely made it' (Option 1) is in present perfect, not past perfect and is therefore incorrect.
• 'Is barely making it' (Option 4) changes the sentence to present continuous, which is also incorrect.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'fair; fare'.

Key Points

• The first blank requires a noun used to describe an event or gathering, and the second blank needs a term for a type of charge or cost.
• 'Fair' is a term used to describe a gathering or event, often for entertainment or trading purposes (मेला), which suits the first blank.
• 'Fare' refers to the money paid for a journey on public transport (किराया), fitting the second blank.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'I want to see the Dussehra fair in Delhi, what is the second-class railway fare from Agra to Delhi. '

Additional Information

• 'Fare; fair' (Option 2) swaps the words, making the sentence grammatically incorrect and contextually incoherent.
• 'Fair; fair' (Option 3) and 'fare; fare' (Option 4) both use the same word for two different contexts, which is incorrect.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• "Flash in the pan" is an idiom that refers to something that shows great promise at the beginning but ultimately fails to meet expectations.
• Option 2, "Something that looks promising in the beginning but fails to deliver anything in the end", accurately represents this idiom

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 2.'

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Dependency'.

Key Points

• "Autonomy" refers to the right or condition of self-government, independence or freedom (स्वशासन, स्वतंत्रता या आजादी की स्थिति या अधिकार).
• "Dependency" (Option 3) signifies reliance on someone or something for support or help, which serves as an appropriate antonym (किसी के उपर निर्भरता या सहारा).

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Dependency'.

Additional Information

• "Temperance" (Option 1), meaning moderation in action, thought, or feeling, does not function as an antonym for "Autonomy" (क्रिया, विचार या भावना में संयम).
• "Partiality" (Option 2), meaning an unfair favoritism or bias, does not correlate with the concept of autonomy (अनुपक्षपात).
• "Righteousness" (Option 4), signifying the quality of being morally right or justifiable, isn't an opposing concept to autonomy (धर्मनिष्ठता).

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• The sentence "Your health could suffer if you spend more time with the automobiles." uses a phrase in a context where a substitute would be more appropriate.
• The phrase "in front of electronic devices" (Option 1) makes the sentence read, "Your health could suffer if you spend more time in front of electronic devices" which implies the negative impact of prolonged screen time, a commonplace idea.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'In front of electronic devices'.

Additional Information

• 'In backlog of machines' (Option 2) and 'besides the machines' (Option 3) are grammatically incorrect and contextually unclear.
• 'After the digital devices' (Option 4) doesn't convey the intended sentiment of excessive usage causing health issues.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Dense'.

Key Points

• "Compact" is a word which means closely and neatly packed together; small and convenient (संक्षिप्त या संगठित)
• "Dense" (Option 1) meaning closely compacted in substance or packed, serves as the best synonym for "compact" (सघन)

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Dense'.

Additional Information

• "Expand" (Option 2) meaning to become or make larger or more extensive (विस्तार) is not a suitable synonym for "Compact"
• "Whole" (Option 3) meaning all of; entire (संपूर्ण) is not a suitable synonym for "Compact"
• "Holistic" (Option 4) meaning dealing with or treating the whole of something or someone and not just a part (समग्र) is not a suitable synonym for "Compact"

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• "Go the extra mile" is an idiom that means to make more effort than is expected of you (सामान्य से अधिक प्रयास करना)
• "Do much more than required" (Option 1) accurately represents the meaning of this idiom (अनिवार्यतः अधिक करना)

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Do much more than required'.

Additional Information

• "Spend more money than required" (Option 2), "Walk more than required" (Option 3), and "Talk more than required" (Option 4) do not adequately capture the meaning of the idiom "Go the extra mile".

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• The sentence "Prince Charles became a youngest heir to the throne at the age of seven" uses indefinite articles ("a") inappropriately with superlative adjective ("youngest").
• The correct sentence should use the definite article 'the'.
• Thus, Option 3 "the youngest heir to the throne" is the correct substitution.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Prince Charles became the youngest heir to the throne at the age of seven.'

Additional Information

• 'The youngest heir to an throne' (Option 1) incorrectly uses 'an' before 'throne'. Considering 'throne' doesn't start with a vowel, the correct article is 'the', not 'an'.
• 'A youngest heir to a throne' (Option 4) uses the same faulty grammar as the original sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e**. 'Tasty'.**

 Key Points

• "Insipid" refers to something lacking flavor, tasteless, or uninteresting (स्वादहीन या नीरस).
• "Tasty" (Option 3) signifies something that has a good flavor or taste, serving as an appropriate antonym (स्वादिष्ट).

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Tasty'.

Additional Information

• "Explicit" (Option 1) refers to something clearly stated or shown (स्पष्ट), not a suitable antonym for "Insipid".
• "Opaque" (Option 2) represents something not transparent (अपारदर्शी), not an antonym of "Insipid".
• "Immense" (Option 4) refers to extremely large or great (अत्यधिक), which is unrelated to the concept of "Insipid".

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Phinomenon'.

Key Points

• Among the given words, 'Phinomenon' is spelled incorrectly.
• The correct spelling is 'Phenomenon' (घटना).

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 4.'

Additional Information

• 'Slaughter' (नरसंहार),
• 'Dampness' (नमी)
• 'Anthropology' (मानवशास्त्र) are all correctly spelled.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Flowers'.

Key Points

• In the sentence provided, the word 'flovers' is spelled incorrectly.
• The correctly spelled word is 'flowers' ( फूल).

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Flowers'.

Additional Information

• The words 'pesticides' (कीटनाशक), 'bloom' (खिलना), and 'refused' (मना करना) are all correctly spelled in the given sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Gracious'.

Key Points

• 'Benevolent', in the context of the sentence, means well-meaning and kind (परोपकारी या दयाशील).
• 'Gracious', meaning courteous, kind, and pleasant (Option 2), serves as a suitable synonym (कृपाशील या सौम्य).

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Gracious'.

Additional Information

• 'Foolish' (Option 1), meaning lack of sense or judgement (मूर्खतापूर्ण), is not a suitable synonym for 'benevolent'.
• 'Insane' (Option 3), meaning in a state of mind which prevents normal perception, behaviour, or social interaction (पागल), does not fit as a synonym for 'benevolent'.
• 'Charming' (Option 4), meaning pleasant or attractive (मनोहारी), while positive, isn't the best fit as a synonym for 'benevolent'.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Facing'.

Key Points

• The blank needs a verb that properly connects "people today" to "the most common health conditions." This verb should convey the idea that people are confronting or dealing with these health conditions.
• 'Facing' (Option 3), which means dealing with something that is going to happen, is most suitable for the context.
• Therefore, when one says "people today are facing health conditions such as heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer," it implies that people are dealing with these health conditions in their current situation.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The most common health conditions facing people today include heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer. When people are experiencing these conditions, they (2) ______ the illness side of the spectrum. Lifestyle factors that put you at risk for developing these conditions include smoking, alcohol substance use disorder, lack of exercise, sleep (3) ______, and a diet rich in processed foods, sugar, saturated fat, and artificial flavours. An (4) ______ weight is another factor that can put one at risk for these conditions, especially carrying extra weight (5) ______ your midsection.'

Additional Information

• 'Looking' (Option 1) could mean people are physically seeking these conditions, which doesn't make sense in this context.
• 'Towards' (Option 2) implies a direction or orientation, which isn't suitable in this context.
• 'Against' (Option 4) would suggest opposition or resistance, which doesn't fit grammatically or logically in the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Fall into'.

Key Points

• The blank requires a verb phrase that conveys the idea that people with these health conditions are classified or categorized on the illness side of the spectrum.
• 'Fall into' (Option 4), which means to be included in a particular group or category, fits this context best.
• Therefore, when one says "people experiencing these conditions fall into the illness side of the spectrum," it implies that these people are categorized under the illness side due to their health conditions.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The most common health conditions facing people today include heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer. When people are experiencing these conditions, they fall into the illness side of the spectrum. Lifestyle factors that put you at risk for developing these conditions include smoking, alcohol substance use disorder, lack of exercise, sleep (3) ______, and a diet rich in processed foods, sugar, saturated fat, and artificial flavours. An (4) ______ weight is another factor that can put one at risk for these conditions, especially carrying extra weight (5) ______ your midsection.'

Additional Information

• 'Count to' (Option 1) suggests tallying or adding up to a certain total, not categorizing or classifying, making it unsuitable here.
• **'Dive in' (**Option 2) conveys the idea of physically or metaphorically jumping into something, which doesn't fit coherently in this context.
• 'Pass off' (Option 3) means to present something in a particular way, especially when it's not truly that way, which doesn't work in this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Deprivation'.

Key Points

• The term 'deprivation' in the context of 'sleep deprivation' refers to not getting enough sleep or experiencing a lack of sleep.
• It fits correctly in the context of the passage which discusses common health conditions and their risk factors.
• The context of 'sleep deprivation' correctly aligns with the other lifestyle factors mentioned in the passage - all are potential health risk factors.
• Sleep deprivation as a term is widely used in medical and health-science fields to describe a condition of insufficient sleep which can independently contribute to health problems, such as heart disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, etc.
• The usage of 'deprivation' here assists in maintaining a consistent tone, which is health-oriented, as all the other factors mentioned in the blank spaces insightfully describe potential health risks or problems.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The most common health conditions facing people today include heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer. When people are experiencing these conditions, they fall into the illness side of the spectrum. Lifestyle factors that put you at risk for developing these conditions include smoking, alcohol substance use disorder, lack of exercise, sleep deprivation, and a diet rich in processed foods, sugar, saturated fat, and artificial flavours. An (4) ______ weight is another factor that can put one at risk for these conditions, especially carrying extra weight (5) ______ your midsection.'

Additional Information

• Option 1 'Desire' : 'Desire' means having a strong feeling of wanting to have something or wishing for something to happen. It does not fit the context of the sentence because it doesn't express a lack of something, which is needed here.
• Option 2 'Impoverishment': Impoverishment generally refers to the state of being extremely poor. It doesn't align with the health context in which the blank is situated.
• Option 4 'Poverty': Poverty, while a significant factor in overall health and well-being, is used to discuss financial or social status, not health issues directly, making it unfit in the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Unhealthy'.

Key Points

• The phrase where the word is being inserted in this context indicates a condition related to body weight. Here "unhealthy" is the most suitable option, as it is commonly used to describe a weight that is considered risky to one's health.
• The term 'unhealthy weight' effectively communicates that the weight associated is detrimental to individual health, increasing the risk of the mentioned diseases such as heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer.
• When talking about weight in a medical or health context, 'unhealthy' is frequently used to describe a weight that could potentially lead to or exacerbate health issues. It fits well with the surrounding context in the passage.
• 'Unhealthy' is a broad term that encompasses both underweight and overweight conditions, which are both associated with health risks. This makes it the most precise fit for the blank in the passage.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The most common health conditions facing people today include heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer. When people are experiencing these conditions, they fall into the illness side of the spectrum. Lifestyle factors that put you at risk for developing these conditions include smoking, alcohol substance use disorder, lack of exercise, sleep deprivation, and a diet rich in processed foods, sugar, saturated fat, and artificial flavours. An unhealthy weight is another factor that can put one at risk for these conditions, especially carrying extra weight (5) ______ your midsection.'

Additional Information

• Option 1 'Empirical' refers to information gained by experience, observation, or experiment, not related to the health state of weight. Thus, it doesn't fit the given context.
• Option 2 'Unhygienic' describes something that is not clean or sanitary. While unhygienic conditions can lead to health issues, the term isn't specifically associated with weight status.
• Option 3 'Contaminated' generally means impure or harmful due to the presence of extraneous substances. This term doesn't fit in context with the bodyweight concept.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Around'.

Key Points

• The term 'around' is commonly used to refer to the location of something, especially when talking about areas of the body. In this case, it is fitting to use 'around' to refer to the location of the extra weight on the body.
• 'Around' is a preposition often used to highlight a specific area, here, the 'midsection'. Hence, 'around your midsection' gives a better understanding of the distribution of the 'extra weight'.
• Using 'around' makes the context accurate since it illustrates the accumulation of excess body fat in the abdominal region, which could increase chances of developing health issues.
• The context implies a physical location—that is, around what part of the body is the weight carried. Out of the other options available, 'around' is the only one that implies a physical location.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The most common health conditions facing people today include heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and cancer. When people are experiencing these conditions, they fall into the illness side of the spectrum. Lifestyle factors that put you at risk for developing these conditions include smoking, alcohol substance use disorder, lack of exercise, sleep deprivation, and a diet rich in processed foods, sugar, saturated fat, and artificial flavours. An unhealthy weight is another factor that can put one at risk for these conditions, especially carrying extra weight around your midsection.'

Additional Information

• Option 1 'Concerning': This is generally used to indicate that something relates to or involves a particular person or thing. It doesn't imply location, thus not suitable for this context.
• Option 3 'Directing': This refers to the action of guiding or managing, or pointing something in a particular direction. It does not imply a physical location on the body, and thus isn't suitable for this context.
• Option 4 'Against': This generally signifies opposition or resistance, or in a direction contrary to another object’s movement. It's not usually used to indicate a location on the body.

उपरोक्त अशुद्ध वाक्य-खंड का शुद्ध रूप "गीतों की कड़ियाँ" होगा। 

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्‍य- गीतों की लड़ियाँ।
• इस वाक्‍य में लड़‍ियॉं शब्‍द का प्रयोग करना उचित नहीं होगा, क्‍योंक‍ि गीतों की कड़‍ियॉं होती है।
• शुद्ध वाक्‍य- गीतों की कड़ियाँ।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Additional Information

• वाक्य रचना में संज्ञा,सर्वनाम,विशेषण,क्रिया,अव्यय, वर्तनी से सम्बंधित या अन्य प्रकार की अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं जिनसे सम्बंधित विभिन्न प्रश्न परीक्षाओं में पूछे जाते हैं।

जैसे -

संज्ञा संबंधित वाक्य शुद्धि

• अशुद्ध - मैं रविवार के दिन तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।
• शुद्ध - मैं रविवार को तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।

लिंग संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध - सविता ने जोर से हँस दिया।
• शुद्ध - सविता जोर से हँस दी।

वचन संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध -मेरे आँसू से रूमाल भींग गया।
• शुद्ध - मेरे आँसुओं से रूमाल भींग गया।

कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध - सब से नमस्ते।
• शुद्ध - सब को नमस्ते।

"रजनीचर का स्वभाव दुष्टतापूर्ण होता है।" इस वाक्‍य में असुर के सही पर्यायवाची का प्रयोग हुआ है। 

Key Points 

• वाक्‍य- रजनीचर का स्वभाव दुष्टतापूर्ण होता है।
• इस वाक्‍य में असुर के पर्यायवाची शब्‍द रजनीचर का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• असुर के पर्यायवाची- दनुज, दैत्य, दानव, राक्षस, तमीचर, निशाचर, शम्बर, रजनीचर, पिशाच आद‍ि।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Additional Information 

'जिसकी सीमा न हो' "असीम" कहलाता है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points 

• असीम- जिसकी सीमा न हो।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

Important Points 

अभंग 'अग्नि' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• अभंग शब्‍द के पर्यायवाची-  अखंड़, अटूट, पूर्णा आद‍ि।
• पावक, अनल और हुताशन अग्नि के पर्यायवाची शब्‍द हैं।
• अग्नि के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची- आग, ज्वाला, दहन, धनंजय, वैश्वानर, रोहिताश्व, वायुसखा, विभावसु, हुताशन, धूमकेतु आद‍ि।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्‍य महत्‍वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची- 

उपर्युक्त द‍िए गए वाक्‍य में "बीमारि" शब्‍द की वर्तनी अशुद्ध है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• वाक्‍य- देशों मे यह बीमारि कोरोना के कारण फैली थी।
• इस वाक्‍य में बीमार‍ि शब्‍द की वर्तनी संबंधी अशुध्‍द‍ि है।
• शुद्ध वाक्‍य- देशों मे यह बीमारी कोरोना के कारण फैली थी।
• बीमार‍ि शब्‍द की शुद्ध वर्तनी बीमारी है।

Additional Information

वाक्‍य में रेखांकित शब्‍द पक्ष का सही व‍िलोम शब्‍द "व‍िपक्ष" है। 

Key Points

• वाक्‍य- उसके पक्ष में अनेक लोग हैं।
• इस वाक्‍य में रेखांक‍ित शब्‍द पक्ष का उच‍ित व‍िलोम व‍िपक्ष है।
• व‍िलोम शब्‍द युक्‍त वाक्‍य- उसके व‍िपक्ष  में अनेक लोग हैं।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

'मुट्ठी गरम करना' मुहावरे का सही अर्थ "घूस देना" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प अंसगत हैं। 

Key Points

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प-