SSC GD Constable (2022) Official Paper (Held On : 12 Jan 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

As '$' and '@' are the common face on both the dice, '∞' face is opposite to '↑'.

Hence, ‘↑’ is the correct answer$.

Six friends Amit, Bunty, Vaibhav, Harshit, Pulkit and Gagan are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre.

1. Bunty is the immediate neighbour of Harshit and Vaibhav.

   

2. Amit is the immediate neighbour of Pulkit and Vaibhav.

   

Gagan, the only person left will occupy the vacant position

   

Clearly, Pulkit is the immediate neighbour of Amit and Gagan.

Hence, 'Pulkit' is the correct answer.

Given equation: 24 - 8 + 12 ÷ 48 × 36 = 23

1. + and ÷

24 - 8 ÷ 12 + 48 × 36 = 23

⇒ 24 - 0.67 + 1728 = 23

⇒ 1752 - 0.67 = 23

⇒ 1751.34 ≠ 23

2. - and +

24 + 8 - 12 ÷ 48 × 36 = 23

⇒ 24 + 8 - 0.25 × 36 = 23

⇒ 24 + 8 - 9 = 23

⇒ 32 - 9 = 23

⇒ 23 = 23

3. × and ÷

24 - 8 + 12 × 48 ÷ 36 = 23

⇒ 24 - 8 + 12 × 1.34 = 23

⇒ 24 - 8 + 16.08 = 23

⇒ 40.08 - 8 = 23

⇒ 32.08 ≠ 23

4. - and ×

24 × 8 + 12 ÷ 48 - 36 = 23

⇒ 24 × 8 + 12 ÷ 48 - 36 = 23

⇒ 192 + 0.25 - 36 = 23

⇒ 192.25 - 36 = 23

⇒ -16.75 ≠ 23

Hence, ‘- and +’ is the correct answer.

The figure which should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued is:

How the elements are changing their position as we proceed in the series is shown below:

1) 

2) 

3) 

4) 

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'LQGHA' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:        

 

Conclusions:

I. Some flats are doors. → Follows (As, All doors are walls, All walls are rooms and All rooms are flats)

II. All walls are flats. → Follows (As, All walls are rooms and All rooms are flats)

Hence, 'Both conclusions I and II follow' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

(360, 65, 25) → (65 - 25) × 9 = 40 × 9 = 360

(216, 44, 20) → (44 - 20) × 9 = 24 × 9 = 216

Similarly,

(198, 35, 13) → (35 - 13) × 9 = 22 × 9 = 198

Hence, '(198, 35, 13)' is the correct answer.

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

• ‘live life happily’ is coded as '447'
• ‘everyone is here’ is coded as '824'
• ‘be grateful’ is coded as '28'.

In the code language, the words are coded based on the number of characters in each word.

Similarly,

‘count your blessings' → Count has 5 characters, your has 4 characters and blessings has 9 characters.

So, the code will be 549.

Hence, ‘549’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '84' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'YDN' is the correct answer.

Given equation: 25 + 200 ÷ 8 × 16 - 48 = 77

1. ÷ and ×

25 + 200 × 8 ÷ 16 - 48 = 77

⇒ 25 + 200 × 0.5 - 48 = 77

⇒ 25 + 100 - 48 = 77

⇒ 125 - 48 = 77

⇒ 77 = 77

2. ÷ and -

25 + 200 - 8 × 16 ÷ 48 = 77

⇒ 25 + 200 - 8 × 0.34 = 77

⇒ 25 + 200 - 2.67 = 77

⇒ 225 - 2.67 = 77

⇒ 222.34 ≠ 77

3. - and + 

25 - 200 ÷ 8 × 16 + 48 = 77

⇒ 25 - 25 × 16 + 48 = 77

⇒ 25 - 400 + 48 = 77

⇒ 73 - 400 = 77

⇒ -327 ≠ 77

4. × and -

25 + 200 ÷ 8 - 16 × 48 = 77

⇒ 25 + 25 - 16 × 48 = 77

⇒ 25 + 25 - 768 = 77

⇒ 50 - 768 = 77

⇒ -718 ≠ 77

Hence, '÷ and ×' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '1116' is the correct answer.

Logic: The second word is an instantiation of the first word.

Here, Colour : Red → Red is an instantiation of a colour.

Similarly,

Vehicle : ? → A truck is an instantiation of a vehicle.

Hence, the correct answer is "Truck".

F & G = H ^ J → F is daughter if G, G is sister of H, H is husband of J.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

1. H and F are siblings. → False (F is niece of H) 2. F is the daughter of J. → False (F is niece of J) 3. G is the mother of J. → False (G is sister-in-law of J) 4. J is the wife of G’s brother. → True

Hence, ‘J is the wife of G’s brother’ is the correct answer.

V, W, X, Y, Z, A, B and C were sitting around a square table facing the centre. Some of these were sitting at corners and some were sitting at exact centre of the sides.

1. Z, not at any corner, was the immediate neighbour of W and Y.

2. C was to the immediate right of W.

3. A was the immediate neighbour of X and C.

4. B was third to the left of Z.

Clearly, V the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

Clearly, V is sitting third to the right of A.

Hence, 'V' is the correct answer.

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'YJPECD' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'WX' is the correct answer.

The option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order they appear in an English dictionary is given below :

4 Picked

5 Pickle

2 Pile

1 Pillow

3 Pint

Hence, "Option 2: 4, 5, 2, 1, 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Durgesh Pathak.

Key Points

• Durgesh Pathak is an Indian politician and Member of Legislative Assembly in Delhi.
• He is a senior member of the Aam Aadmi Party and Political Affairs Committee and National Executive In-charge of the party.

​

Additional Information

• Sanjeev Jha is an Indian politician belonging to the Aam Aadmi Party.
• He is a member of the Delhi Legislative Assembly from Burari Constituency.
• Sanjeev is also the incharge of Chhattisgarh and Spokesperson of the Aam Aadmi Party.
• ​Manoj Kumar Tiwari (born 1 February 1971) is an Indian politician, singer and actor serving as a Member of Parliament from North East Delhi.
• Adarsh Shastri is an Indian politician represented Dwarka.
• He is former leader of Aam Aadmi Party and Now Leader Of Indian National Congress and a social entrepreneur involved in promotion of education and other social causes.

The correct answer is Part XIV.

Key Points

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) of India is mentioned in Part XIV of the Constitution of India.
• More specifically, it's in Chapter II of this part, titled "Services Under the Union and the States".
• The relevant articles for the powers, functions, and responsibilities of the UPSC are primarily Articles 315 to 323.
• Here's a brief outline:
• Article 315 speaks about the existence of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions.
• Article 316 covers the appointment and term of office of members.
• Article 317 provides conditions for removal of a member.
• Article 318 is about the power to make regulations about the commission's workings.
• Article 319 discusses restrictions on the employment of commission members after ceasing to hold office.
• Article 320 describes the functions of the Public Service Commissions.
• Article 321 authorizes extension of functions of Public Service Commissions.
• Article 322 relates to expenses of the Public Service Commissions.
• Article 323 speaks about the reports of Public Service Commissions.

Additional Information

• Part XVII of the Constitution of India is titled "Official Language".
• It contains Articles 343 to 351, which deal with the languages that should be used for the Union government, for the states, and for communication between the two.
• Part XV of the Constitution of India is titled "Elections".
• It contains Articles 324 to 329A, which deal with the provisions related to the election process in India.
• Part XVI of the Constitution of India is titled "Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes".
• It contains Articles 330 to 342, which address provisions related to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo-Indians.

The correct answer is Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan.

Key Points

• The Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan is the central government's contribution to further the promise held by the rich expanse of India's state universities.
• The country's future lies in empowering these campuses with all that it takes to enhance learning, better research and promote innovation.
• A centrally sponsored scheme, RUSA understands that sometimes the most important lessons of life are learnt outside the classroom.
• So whether it is upgrading libraries or computer laboratories, promoting autonomous colleges or clubbing them to consolidate their strength and forming cluster universities, this programme realizes that every institution holds the power to enrich lives through top-class education.

​

Additional Information

• The following are the primary components of RUSA that capture the key action and funding areas that must be pursued for the fulfilment of the targets:
• Up gradation of existing autonomous colleges to Universities
• Conversion of colleges to Cluster Universities
• Infrastructure grants to Universities
• New Model Colleges (General)
• Upgradation of existing degree colleges to model colleges
• New Colleges (Professional)
• Infrastructure grants to colleges
• Research, innovation and quality improvement
• Equity initiatives
• Faculty Recruitment Support
• Faculty improvements
• Vocationalisation of Higher Education
• Leadership Development of Educational Administrators
• Institutional restructuring & reforms
• Capacity building & preparation, data collection & planning

The correct answer is Sikkim. 

Key Points

• The famous Losoong festival is primarily celebrated in the state of Sikkim.
• It is a significant cultural event that marks the end of the harvest season and the beginning of a new agricultural year.
• During the festival, people engage in various traditional activities, including music, dance, archery, and religious ceremonies.

Additional Information

• Assam:
• Assam is a state located in northeastern India.
• Some of the major festivals celebrated in Assam include Bihu (a series of three harvest festivals), Durga Puja, and Rongali Bihu.
• Manipur:
• Manipur is another state located in northeastern India.
• Some of the major festivals celebrated in Manipur include Lai Haraoba (a festival honoring the deities of the Manipuri mythology), Yaoshang (a six-day Holi festival celebrated with traditional dances and sports), and Ningol Chakouba (a festival honoring the bond between brothers and sisters).
• Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan is a state in northern India, known for its vibrant culture and heritage.
• Rajasthan has its own unique festivals, including the famous Pushkar Camel Fair, Desert Festival, and Gangaur festival, which celebrate the region's traditions, folklore, and religious customs.

The correct answer is 47.

Key Points

• These are just a few examples of the 47 sports featured in the 2018 Asian Games.
• Each sport has its own set of rules and regulations, and athletes from various countries compete in these events to showcase their skills and compete for medals.
• The Asian Games are a prestigious multi-sport event that brings together athletes from across Asia to celebrate sportsmanship and competition.

​

Additional Information

• The Chinese city of Hangzhou hosted the 2022 Asian Games.
• India has hosted the Asian Games twice, that is in 1951 and in 1982.
• The first Asian Games were held from 4 March to 11 March 1951 in New Delhi.​

The correct answer is rich landowners.

Key Points

• During the Chola period, the titles of Muvendavelan and Araiyanar were associated with rich landowners or feudal lords.
• These titles were bestowed upon individuals who owned vast lands and held significant economic and social power during the Chola dynasty.

Additional Information

• The Chola dynasty was one of the longest-ruling and most influential dynasties in the history of South India.
• It emerged around the 9^th century CE and reached its peak during the period from the 10^th to the 13^th century CE.
• The Chola kingdom was primarily located in the region known as the Tamil Nadu in present-day South India.
• Their capital city was initially Uraiyur and later shifted to Thanjavur (also known as Tanjore).
• The kingdom was divided into administrative units called mandalams, which were further divided into smaller divisions known as valanadus.
• The Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, built by King Rajaraja Chola I, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a remarkable example of Chola architecture.
• The epic poem "Silappadikaram" and the literary work "Tirukkural" are among the notable contributions of this era.

The correct answer is Odissi. 

Key Points

• Odissi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India and originated in the state of Odisha.
• It is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, expressive gestures, and lyrical storytelling.
• Guru Pankaj Charan Das was a renowned Odissi dancer, choreographer, and teacher who played a significant role in the revival and popularization of Odissi during the 20^th century.

Additional Information

• Manipuri:
• Manipuri is one of the classical dance forms of India that originated in the northeastern state of Manipur.
• Manipuri dance often depicts mythological stories, devotional themes, and the cultural traditions of Manipur.
• It incorporates elements of music, rhythm, storytelling, and spirituality.
• Mohiniyattam:
• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Kerala, located in southwestern India.
• Mohiniyattam is often performed solo by female dancers and combines elements of dance, music, and mime. It depicts mythological stories, devotional themes, and the cultural heritage of Kerala.
• Kathak:
• Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in North India, particularly in the regions of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
• It is characterized by its rhythmic footwork, fast spins, intricate hand gestures, and storytelling through mime and expressions.
• Kathak dance has both Hindu and Islamic influences and often portrays mythological stories, historical events, and love tales.
• It also includes elements of improvisation and rhythmic patterns called tatkar.

The correct answer is Textile Industry.

Key Points

• The industry being spoken about here is the Indian Textile Industry.
• The Indian Textile Industry is often described as self-reliant and complete in the value chain.
• It encompasses the entire process from raw material production, such as cotton, silk, wool, and jute, to the manufacturing of various textile products, including yarn, fabrics, garments, and home textiles.
• India has a rich heritage in textiles, and the industry plays a crucial role in the country's economy, providing employment to millions of people and contributing significantly to exports and GDP.
• The Indian Textile Industry is known for its diverse range of textiles, traditional craftsmanship, and the ability to produce high-value added products.

​

Additional Information

• Small Scale Industries (SSI), also known as Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs), are businesses characterized by their small size, limited investment, and operational scale.
• The iron and steel industry is a significant sector in the manufacturing and infrastructure development of a country.
• Private sector industries refer to businesses that are owned, controlled, and operated by private individuals or private companies rather than by the government or public entities.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, the founder of the 'Khudai Khidmatgars,' was a prominent leader in the freedom struggle and advocated for non-violence, social justice, and independence.
• His movement played a crucial role in mobilizing people against British colonial rule and promoting peace and unity in the region.

Additional Information

• Syed Ahmad Khan:
• Syed Ahmad Khan was a prominent figure during the 19^th century in India.
• He was a philosopher, educator, and social reformer who advocated for modern education and social upliftment of the Muslim community.
• He founded the Aligarh Movement and played a key role in the establishment of the Aligarh Muslim University.
• Abul Kalam Azad:
• Abul Kalam Azad was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and a senior leader of the Indian National Congress during the independence movement.
• He was an advocate of Hindu-Muslim unity and played a significant role in shaping India's education system as the first Minister of Education in independent India.
• Mohammad Ali Jinnah:
• Mohammad Ali Jinnah was a lawyer, politician, and the founder of Pakistan.
• He played a significant role in the creation of Pakistan as a separate nation for Muslims in the Indian subcontinent.
• Jinnah was a leader of the All India Muslim League and served as Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death in 1948.

The correct answer is vertebrates.

Key Points

• Vertebrates:
• Vertebrates are a subphylum of chordates that possess a backbone or vertebral column.
• They are characterized by having a well-developed internal skeleton, including a skull that protects the brain, and a backbone made up of vertebrae.
• Vertebrates include fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.​

Additional Information

• Protochordates:
• Protochordates are a subphylum of chordates that includes organisms with simple body structures and characteristics similar to the ancestors of vertebrates.
• They are considered the closest relatives of vertebrates and include three major groups: tunicates, lancelets, and hagfish.
• Mollusca:
• Mollusca is a phylum of invertebrates that includes animals such as snails, clams, squids, and octopuses.
• Mollusks typically have a soft body, often protected by a hard shell, and are characterized by a muscular foot, a mantle that secretes the shell (if present), and a visceral mass.
• Arthropoda:
• Arthropoda is a phylum of invertebrates that includes insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other related organisms.
• Arthropods are characterized by having segmented bodies, jointed appendages, and an exoskeleton made of chitin.
• They are the most diverse group of animals on Earth.

The correct answer is Henry Walter.

Key Points

• The first complete census of an Indian city conducted in 1830 hasn't been definitively attributed to a particular individual or organization.
• A census is an official systematic survey of the population of a country.
• Census is a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, evaluating, publishing and disseminating statistical data regarding the population of a country.
• It covers demographic, social and economic data.

Additional Information 

• The first complete Census was taken in India in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo.
• Lord Mayo was the Viceroy of India from 1869 to 1872.
• A systematic and modern population census, in its present form was conducted non- synchronously between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country.
• This effort culminating in 1872 has been popularly labeled as the first population census of India.
• However, the first synchronous census in India was held in 1881.
• Since then, censuses have been undertaken uninterruptedly once in every ten years.

The correct answer is 1952.

Key Points

• National Development Council was formed on 6 August 1952 in India.
• The Prime Minister of India used to be its ex-officio chairman.
• National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India presided over by the Prime Minister.
• National Development Council was set up on August 6, 1952, to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
• It is a pivotal organisation that is bound to play a vital role in the country’s development process.
• The National Development Council comprises the following members -
• Indian Prime Minister
• All the Union Cabinet Ministers
• Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes
• Representatives of the union territories and
• The members of the NITI Aayog (erstwhile planning commission).
• Objectives of the National Development Council
• To strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan.
• To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
• To ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
• In addition to this, NDC provides a platform for all the states to discuss their problems and issues related to development.
• Thus, it secures the cooperation of the states in the execution of developmental plans.
• Structure of Council-System:

The correct answer is Manjamma Jogati.

Key Points

• Manjamma Jogathi, is an Indian Kannada theatre actress, singer, and dancer of Jogathi Nritya, a folk dance form of North Karnataka.
• In 2019, she became the first transgender woman to be the president of Karnataka Janapada Academy, the state's top institution for folk arts.
• She was born on 20 May 1957.
• A folk dance is a dance that reflects the life of the people of a certain country or region.
• Not all ethnic dances are folk dances. For example, ritual dances or dances of ritual origin are not considered to be folk dances.

Additional Information

• The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day. This is one of the highest civilian honours of India.
• Padma Awards were started in the year 1954.
• The highest civilian award of India is Bharat Ratna which is awarded to a maximum of 3 awardees in a particular year.

The correct answer is Samant Goel.

Key Points

• Samant Kumar Goel is an Indian civil servant, intelligence officer, and member of the Indian Police Service (IPS) cadre.
• He is currently serving as the chief of the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW), India's foreign intelligence agency.
• He was appointed as chief on June 26, 2019, replacing Anil Dhasmana, and in June 2022, his tenure was extended until June 30, 2023.

Additional Information

• RAW (Research and Analysis wing) is India’s External Intelligence agency.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• RAW came into being on September 21^st, 1968, after the Sino-Indian war of 1962 and the India-Pakistan war of 1965, which exposed gaps in intelligence gathering undertaken by the Intelligence Bureau.
• RAW's first director was Rameshwar Nath Kao.
• The head of RAW is called the "Secretary" (research) in the cabinet secretariat.

The correct answer is Personal Disposable Income ≡ Personal Income – Personal tax payments - Non-tax payments.

Key Points Personal disposable income(DPI):

• It is the amount of money that an individual or household has to spend or save after income taxes have been deducted.
• It is also known as disposable income.
• At the macro level, disposable personal income is closely monitored as one of the key economic indicators used to gauge the overall state of the economy.
• Formula:
• Personal disposable income = personal income – personal tax payment – non-tax payment

Additional Information

• Significance:
• Disposable income is the portion of income available to an income earner after all income taxes are deducted.
• It is used by analysts to measure consumer spending, payment ability, probable future savings, and the overall health of a nation’s economy.
• Disposable income can be used to determine the financial reserves of households and the money available to be spent on goods and services.

The correct answer is O.

Key Points

• Atomic radius - 
• The shortest distance between the atom's nuclei and the outermost shell of the atom is called the 'Atomic Radius'.
• The exact value of the atomic radius of an atom cannot be known.
• Because the atom is not found in a free state nor can the exact position of the electron be known.​
• In general, the atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group.

Additional Information

 

• Please note that these atomic radii values are approximate and may vary depending on the source and method of measurement. They are expressed in picometers (pm), where 1 pm = 1 x 10^-12 meters.

The correct answer is 137^th Session held virtually.

Key Points

• Olympic Agenda 2020+5 is an extension and enhancement of the IOC's strategic roadmap, introduced by Thomas Bach, the IOC president.
• It builds on Olympic Agenda 2020's framework, adding 15 new recommendations, leading to a total of 40 key initiatives.
• The major areas it focuses on are:
• Preserving the uniqueness of the Olympic Games and their universal appeal.
• Creating more sustainable and economically feasible Olympic Games to minimize the financial burden.
• Upholding integrity in sports and protecting the rights of athletes.
• Using Sport as an Enabler for the UN's Sustainable Development Goals.
• Olympic Agenda 2020+5 was discussed in detail and unanimously approved at the 137^th IOC Session held in March 2021.

Additional Information

• International Olympic Committee:
• It was formed in June 1894.
• It was founded by Pierre de Coubertin and Demetrios Vikelas in 1894.
• It is Headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• It has currently 105 active members.
• Its current President is Thomas Bach from Germany.

The correct answer is Arabian Sea.

Key Points

• The Arabian Sea lies to the west of India.
• It is a region of the northern Indian Ocean.
• It is bounded by Pakistan and Iran, on the west by the Gulf of Aden, Guardafui Channel, and the Arabian Peninsula, on the southeast by the Laccadive Sea, on the southeast by Somali Sea, and on the east by India.​

Additional Information

• Bay of Bengal
• The Bay of Bengal is in the northeastern part of the Indian Ocean.
• The Bay of Bengal is bounded on the west and northwest by India, on the north by Bangladesh, and on the east by Myanmar and the Andaman and Nicobar islands of India.
• Indian Ocean
• The Indian Ocean is the youngest among the Pacific and the Atlantic oceans.
• Java Trench is a part of the Indian Ocean.
• It stretches between the southern tips of Africa and Australia.
• ​Pacific Ocean
• It is the largest and deepest ocean in the world.
• Most of the islands of this ocean are volcanic or of coral origin.
• Mariana Trench is the deepest trench of the world, lies in there.
• The depth of this trench is 11 km.
• It is bounded by some continents of Asia and Australia from the west and the Americas in the east.
• It starts from the Arctic ocean in the North to the Southern Ocean in the South.

The correct answer is develop agriculture.

Key Points

• First Five year Plan
• 1^st five-year plan was for the period of 1951 to 1956.
• The target Growth was 2.1 %  and the Actual Growth was 3.6 %.
• It was based on Harrod-Domar.
• The influx of refugees, severe food shortage & mounting inflation confronted the country at the onset of the first five-year plan.
• The primary aim of the 1^st five-year plan was to improve the living standards of the people of India.
• This could be done by making judicious use of India’s natural resources.
• The Plan focussed on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport.​

Additional Information

• Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961)
• The second five-year plan is based on the so-called Mahalanobis model.
• This was the USSR model Indianized by PC Mahalanobis, the founder of the Indian Statistical Institute and a close aide of Nehru.
• This model is known to have set the statistical foundations for state-directed investments and created the intellectual underpinnings of the license-raj through an elaborate input-output model.
• This Model suggested that there should be an emphasis on the heavy industries, which can lead the Indian Economy to a long-term higher growth path
• Started Industrial policy Resolution 1956.
• Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966)
• The Third 5 year Plan focused on agriculture & enhancement in the production of wheat, but the succinct Sino - Indian War in the year 1962 exposed flaws in the economy & shifted the spotlight towards the Defence industry.
• On May 31 & June 1, 1961, the National Development Council considered the Draft Report on the Third Plan and generally approved it.
• In the course of this period, India's economy must not only enlarge swiftly but must, in unison, become independent and self-generating.
• This long-standing approach is projected to offer a wide-ranging design of expansion for the country's natural resources, industrial advance, and agricultural changes in the social structure & an incorporated scheme of regional & national development.
• Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-1974)
• The fourth Five Year Plan was the first plan launched by the Indira Gandhi government amid the pressure of drought, devaluation, and inflationary recession.
• The country was fighting with population explosion, increased unemployment, poverty, and a shackling economy. In addition, the situation in East Pakistan (now independent Bangladesh) was becoming dire as the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 and Bangladesh Liberation War took place.
• Funds earmarked for industrial development had to be used for the war effort.
• The result was that this plan period was also no better than the third five-year plan.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• Article 14 to Article 18 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to equality to every citizen of India.
• This deals with the general principles of equality.
• Article 14 of the constitution states that:
• The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• This article constitutes of 2 parts, being:
• Equality before law and
• Equal protection of the laws
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination against citizens on such specific grounds as religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the state. The right is available to citizens only.
• Article 17 deals with the abolition of untouchability.
• Article 18 abolishes titles, other than a military or academic distinction.

Formula used:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time.

Solution:

Total distance = (90 km/h × 10/60 h) + (60 km/h × 25/60 h) + (15 km/h × 4/60 h)

⇒ 15 km + 25 km + 1 km = 41 km

Total time = 10/60 h + 25/60 h + 4/60 h

⇒ 39/60 h = 13/20 h

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

⇒ 41 km / (13/20 h) = 41 km × (20/13) h = 820/13 km/h = $63{1 \over13}$km/h

Therefore, the average speed of the train is approximately $63{1 \over13}$km/h.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of volumes is equal to the number of identical spheres formed ⇒ V_large ÷ V_small = 125.

Ratio of radii (R : r) = (125)^1/3 : (1)^1/3 = 5 : 1.

Given Diameter = 15 cm ⇒ Radius (R) = 7.5 cm.

Radius of small sphere (r) = 7.5 ÷ 5 = 1.5 cm.

Surface Area of small sphere = 4 × π × r² = 4 × π × (1.5)² = 9π cm².

∴ The correct answer is 9 π cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of large sphere = 15 cm

Number of identical small spheres (n) = 125

Formula Used:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

Surface Area of Sphere = 4 × π × r²

Calculations:

⇒ Radius of large sphere (R) = 15 ÷ 2 = 7.5 cm

⇒ Volume of large sphere = 125 × Volume of one small sphere

⇒ (4/3) × π × R³ = 125 × (4/3) × π × r³

⇒ R³ = 125 × r³

⇒ (7.5)³ = (5 × r)³

⇒ 5 × r = 7.5

⇒ r = 7.5 ÷ 5 = 1.5 cm

⇒ Surface Area of small sphere = 4 × π × (1.5)²

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × π × 2.25

⇒ Surface Area = 9π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 9 π cm².

Additional Information

Volume and Surface Area of Sphere

For a sphere of radius r, the Volume V = (4/3)πr³ and the Total Surface Area S = 4πr².

Recasting Objects

When one solid is melted and recast into 'n' identical smaller solids, the total volume remains constant: V_large = n × V_small.

Scaling of Dimensions

If the volume is reduced by a factor of n, the linear dimensions (radius, height) are reduced by n^1/3 and the area is reduced by n^2/3.

Hemisphere properties

For a hemisphere, the Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πr² and the Total Surface Area (TSA) = 3πr².

Shortcut Trick

Write Articles and Price side-by-side, then cross-multiply to find equivalent ratios:

CP ratio → Price (Buy) × Articles (Sell) = 10 × 10 = 100

SP ratio → Price (Sell) × Articles (Buy) = 15 × 15 = 225

Profit = 225 − 100 = 125

Profit % = (125 ÷ 100) × 100% = 125%

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost price of 15 articles = ₹10

Selling price of 10 articles = ₹15

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100%

Calculations:

⇒ Let's equate the number of articles to simplify the calculation.

⇒ The LCM of 15 and 10 is 30.

⇒ CP of 30 articles = (10 ÷ 15) × 30 = ₹20

⇒ SP of 30 articles = (15 ÷ 10) × 30 = ₹45

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 45 − 20 = ₹25

⇒ Profit % = (25 ÷ 20) × 100%

⇒ Profit % = 1.25 × 100% = 125%

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). Selling Price = MP − Discount.

Successive Discount

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the effective discount is given by (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Dishonest Dealer Concept

If a trader claims to sell goods at CP but uses false weights, Profit % = [(True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight] × 100%.

Given:

Time taken by Sohan and Rohan together = 18 days,

Time taken by Sohan alone = 27 days

Concept used:

The concept of work done and time taken to complete a task.

The relationship between work, time, and rate of work.

Solution:

Work done by Sohan and Rohan together

⇒ 1/18 (as they can complete the work in 18 days)

Work done by Sohan alone = 1/27 (as he can complete the work in 27 days)

Work done by Rohan alone = Work done by Sohan and Rohan together - Work done by Sohan alone

⇒ 1/18 - 1/27 = 3/54 - 2/54 = 1/54

Time taken by Rohan alone to complete the work = 1/ (1/54) = 54 days

Therefore, Rohan alone takes 54 days to complete the same work.

Given Data:

A : B = 5 : 8

B : C = 4 : 7

Concept:

We use the property of ratios that allows us to combine two ratios to form a new ratio.

Solution:

⇒ A : B : C = 5 : 8 : (8 × 7 ÷ 4)

⇒ A : B : C = 5 : 8 : 14

Hence, the ratio A : B : C is 5 : 8 : 14.

Given:

Prime numbers 3, 5, 7, 11

Concept used:

Average is calculated by summing up the given numbers and dividing by the count of numbers.

Solution:

Sum of the four prime numbers = 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 = 26

Average = Sum of numbers / Number of numbers

⇒ 26 / 4 = 6.5

Therefore, the average of the first four prime numbers that are odd is 6.5.

Mistake Points1 can only be divided by one number, 1 itself, so with this definition 1 is not a prime number.

Concept:

Solution:

⇒ 197 - [$1 \over9$ {42 + (56 - 8 +9)} + 108]

⇒ 197 - [1 ÷ 9 × 99 + 108]

⇒ 197 - [11 + 108]

⇒ 197 - 119

⇒ 78

Therefore, the value of the expression is 78.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(8, 4, 16) = 16 units.

Efficiency: A = 2, B = 4, C = 1.

Work done in 2 days (cycle): Day 1 (A alone) = 2 units, Day 2 (A+B+C) = 7 units ⇒ Total 9 units in 2 days.

Remaining work = 16 − 9 = 7 units. Day 3 (A alone) completes 2 units. Remaining = 5 units.

Time for Day 4 (A+B+C) = 5/7 days. Total time = 3 + 5/7 = 26/7 days.

∴ The correct answer is 26/7 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 8 days

Time taken by B = 4 days

Time taken by C = 16 days

Concept Used:

Total work is the LCM of the days taken by each person.

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days

Calculations:

⇒ Work done by A on 1^st day = 2 units

⇒ Work done by A, B, and C together on 2^nd day = 2 + 4 + 1 = 7 units

⇒ Total work done in 1 cycle of 2 days = 2 + 7 = 9 units

⇒ Remaining work after 2 days = 16 − 9 = 7 units

⇒ Work done by A on the 3^rd day = 2 units

⇒ Remaining work after 3 days = 7 − 2 = 5 units

⇒ On the 4^th day, A, B, and C work together. Time taken to do 5 units = 5 ÷ 7 days

⇒ Total time taken = 3 days + 5/7 days = (21 + 5)/7 = 26/7 days

∴ The correct answer is 26/7 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work Concept

When individuals work on alternate days or in a specific cyclic pattern, calculate the total work done in one complete cycle (e.g., 2 or 3 days). Multiply the cycle to get as close to the total work as possible without exceeding it, then calculate the remaining work day by day.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in proportion to the total work done by each individual. If workers work together for the exact same duration, their wages are directly proportional to their individual efficiencies.

Pipes and Cisterns

Works exactly like Time & Work problems, but an outlet pipe or a leak is considered to do negative work, which is subtracted from the total filling efficiency to find the net work rate.

Concept used:

Divisibility rule of 16:

A number is divisible by 16 if it's divisible by both 2 and 8.

Concept Used:

Divisibility Rule of 2:

If a number is even or a number whose last digit is an even number

i.e. 2,4,6,8 including 0, is always completely divisible by 2.

Divisibility by 8 rule,

If the last three numbers are zero or divisible by 8,

the whole number is divisible by 8.

Calculation:

A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is even (0, 2, 4, 6, or 8),

and by 8 if the number formed by the last three digits of the given number is divisible by 8.

16826: last digit is 6 (even) divisible by 2;

⇒ last three digits form 826 ⇒ not divisible by 8.

17776: last digit is 6 (even) divisible by 2;

⇒ last three digits form 776 ⇒ divisible by 8.

5168: last digit is 8 (even) divisible by 2;

⇒ last three digits form 168 ⇒ divisible by 8.

18016: last digit is 6 (even) divisible by 2;

⇒ last three digits form 016 ⇒ divisible by 8.

Therefore, the number 16826 is NOT divisible by 16.

Shortcut Trick

Valid votes percentage = 100% − 18% = 82%

Other candidate's share of valid votes = 100% − 48% = 52%

Required valid votes = Total votes × 82% × 52%

⇒ 17500 × (82 ÷ 100) × (52 ÷ 100)

⇒ 175 × 82 × 0.52 = 7462

∴ The correct answer is 7462.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of votes = 17500

Invalid votes = 18%

One candidate's share of valid votes = 48%

Total = 17500

Invalid (18%)

Valid (82%) = 14350

Cand 1 (48%)

Other (52%) = 7462

Calculations:

⇒ Valid votes = 100% − 18% = 82% of total votes

⇒ Total valid votes = (82 ÷ 100) × 17500 = 14350

⇒ Share of the other candidate = 100% − 48% = 52% of valid votes

⇒ Votes of the other candidate = (52 ÷ 100) × 14350

⇒ Votes = 52 × 143.5 = 7462

∴ The correct answer is 7462.

Additional Information

Base of Percentage in Elections

It is crucial to correctly identify whether a candidate's share is given as a percentage of "Total Votes" or "Valid Votes". In this question, it is explicitly calculated on the valid votes.

Successive Fractions Method

Election problems can often be solved in a single equation using successive multiplication: Required Value = Total Votes × Valid Fraction × Candidate's Fraction.

Winning Margin

If the question asked for the majority by which the winning candidate won, it would simply be calculated as the difference between their respective shares: (52% − 48%) = 4% of the valid votes.

Given:

Loan: Rs. 1,50,000

Rate: 10% per annum

Period: 2 years

Formula used:

The formula for calculating equal installments with compound interest,

A = P × [r(1 + r)ⁿ] / [(1 + r)ⁿ - 1], 

Calculation:

A = 1,50,000 × [0.10(1 + 0.10)²] / [(1 + 0.10)² - 1]

⇒ A = 1,50,000 × [0.10(1.21)] / [1.21 - 1]

⇒ A = 1,50,000 × 0.121 / 0.21

⇒ A = Rs. 86,428.57

Therefore, the value of the equal yearly installment is Rs. 86,428.57.

Given:

Gain of 12% after a discount of 20%.

Formula Used:

Profit percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) x 100

Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount

Calculation:

Assume the Marked Price (MP) to be 100 units.

After a discount of 20%, Selling Price (SP1) is 80 units (100 - 20).

Profit of 12%,

⇒ Cost Price (CP) is SP1 / (1 + Profit%)

⇒ 80 / 1.12 = 71.43 units approximately.

Selling at the marked price, the new Selling Price (SP2) is 100 units.

Profit = SP2 - CP

⇒ 100 - 71.43 = 28.57 units.

Profit% = (Profit / CP) x 100

⇒ (28.57 / 71.43) x 100 = 40% approximately.

Therefore, the profit percentage when sold at marked price with no discount is 40%.

Shortcut Trick

Let the equal sides be 2 units each, then the third side = 1.5 × 2 = 3 units.

Ratio of sides = 2 : 2 : 3 → Sum of ratio parts = 7 units.

Given Perimeter = 14 units ⇒ 7 units = 14 ⇒ 1 unit = 2 units.

Actual sides = 4, 4, and 6 units.

Semi-perimeter (s) = 7, Area = √(7 × 3 × 3 × 1) = 3√7 square units.

∴ The correct answer is 3√7 square units.

Alternate Method

Given:

Two equal sides of the isosceles triangle are let as 'a'.

Third side 'b' = 1.5 × a.

Perimeter = 14 units.

Formula Used:

Perimeter = Sum of all sides.

Area = √(s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)), where s is the semi-perimeter.

Calculations:

⇒ a + a + 1.5a = 14

⇒ 3.5a = 14

⇒ a = 14 ÷ 3.5 = 4 units

⇒ Equal sides = 4 units, Third side = 1.5 × 4 = 6 units

⇒ Semi-perimeter (s) = Perimeter ÷ 2 = 14 ÷ 2 = 7 units

⇒ Area = √(7 × (7 − 4) × (7 − 4) × (7 − 6))

⇒ Area = √(7 × 3 × 3 × 1)

⇒ Area = √63 = 3√7 square units

∴ The correct answer is 3√7 square units.

Additional Information

Isosceles Triangle Properties

An isosceles triangle has at least two equal sides and two equal base angles opposite to those sides.

Heron's Formula

Used to find the area of a triangle when all three sides are known: Area = √(s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)), where s = (a+b+c)/2.

Triangle Inequality Theorem

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be strictly greater than the length of the third side (4+4 > 6).

Given:

80% of voters voted.

B got 50% less votes than A.

B got 10% more votes than C.

The difference in votes between B and C is 10000.

Calculation:

Let V = Total number of registered voters.

Let a, b, and c = votes for A, B, and C respectively.

⇒ 0.8V = a + b + c (1)

⇒ b = 0.5a (2)

⇒ b = 1.1c (3)

⇒ b - c = 10000 (4)

Using equations (3) and (4):

⇒ 0.1c = 10000

⇒ c = 100000

Using equations (2) and (3):

⇒ 0.5a = 1.1c

⇒ a = 2.2 × 100000 = 220000

From equation (2):

⇒ b = 0.5 × 220000 = 110000

Now, substitute values of a, b, and c into equation (1):

⇒ 0.8V = 220000 + 110000 + 100000

⇒ V = 430000 ÷ 0.8 = 537500

Therefore, the total number of registered voters is 537500.

Given:

Difference between the selling prices = Rs. 60,

one item sold at a profit of 10% and the other at a loss of 5%.

Concept used:

The concept of cost price, selling price, and profit/loss percentage.

The difference in selling prices is used to determine the cost price.

Solution:

Let the cost price of each item be x.

Selling price of the first item = x + 10% of x = x + 0.1x = 1.1x

Selling price of the second item = x - 5% of x = x - 0.05x = 0.95x

Given that the difference in selling prices is Rs. 60:

⇒ 1.1x - 0.95x = 60

⇒ 0.15x = 60

⇒ x = 60 / 0.15

⇒ x = 400

Sum of the cost price of the two items = x + x = 400 + 400 = Rs. 800

Therefore, the sum of the cost price of the two items is Rs. 800.

Given:

L₁ = 550 m, S₁ = 68 km/h

L₂ = 650 m, S₂ = 40 km/h

Calculation:

⇒ S₁' = 68 × (1000/3600) = 18.89 m/s

⇒ S₂' = 40 × (1000/3600) = 11.11 m/s

Calculate the relative speed (S) and total distance (D):

⇒ S = S₁' + S₂' = 18.89 m/s + 11.11 m/s = 30 m/s

⇒ D = L₁ + L₂ = 550 m + 650 m = 1200 m

Calculate the time (T) using T = D/S:

⇒ T = D / S = 1200 m / 30 m/s = 40 seconds

Hence, the trains will cross each other in 40 seconds

Shortcut Trick

Stoppage time per hour = [(Speed without stoppages − Speed with stoppages) ÷ Speed without stoppages] × 60 minutes

Stoppage time = [(75 − 65) ÷ 75] × 60

Stoppage time = (10 ÷ 75) × 60

Stoppage time = (2 ÷ 15) × 60 = 2 × 4 = 8 min

∴ The correct answer is 8 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average speed without stoppages = 75 km/h

Average speed with stoppages = 65 km/h

Calculations:

⇒ In 1 hour, the train covers 65 km when it stops, but it could have covered 75 km if it did not stop.

⇒ Distance reduction due to stoppages = 75 − 65 = 10 km

⇒ Time required to cover this 10 km distance at the original speed (75 km/h) is the stoppage time.

⇒ Stoppage time (in hours) = Distance ÷ Speed = 10 ÷ 75 hours

⇒ Stoppage time (in minutes) = (10 ÷ 75) × 60

⇒ Stoppage time = (2 ÷ 15) × 60

⇒ Stoppage time = 2 × 4 = 8 min

∴ The correct answer is 8 min.

Additional Information

Average Speed

Average speed is defined as the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time.

Speed-Time Relationship

For a constant distance, speed is inversely proportional to time. If speed decreases by a certain ratio, time increases by the inverse of that ratio.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert time from hours to minutes, multiply by 60.

Given:

Numbers are 7, 9, 11, and 15.

After subtracting a common number, the resulting numbers are in proportion.

Concept Used:

If a/b = c/d, then a, b, c, and d are said to be in proportion.

For the given problem,

this becomes (7 - x) / (9 - x) = (11 - x) / (15 - x).

Calculation:

⇒ (7 - x) / (9 - x) = (11 - x) / (15 - x)

⇒ (7 - x) × (15 - x) = (9 - x) × (11 - x)

⇒ 105 - 7x - 15x + x² = 99 - 9x - 11x + x²

⇒ -22x + 105 = -20x + 99

⇒ -22x + 20x = 99 - 105

⇒ -2x = -6

⇒  x = 3

Therefore, the number that is subtracted from each of the given numbers to make the resulting numbers in proportion is 3.

Given: 

Principal amount (P): Rs. 8,000

Compound interest rate (r): 10% per annum

Compounding frequency: half-yearly

Time (t): 18 months or 1.5 years

Formula used:

The formula for compound interest when compounded half-yearly is:

A = P × (1 + r/(2 × 100))²ⁿ,

where A is the total amount after n years,

P is the principal amount,

r is the annual interest rate,

and n is the number of years.

Calculation:

Using the formula, 

A = P × (1 + r/(2 × 100))2n,

⇒ A = 8000 (1 + 10/(2 × 100))^2(1.5)

⇒ A = 8000(1 + 1/20)³

⇒ A = 8000 × 21/20 × 21/20 × 21/20

⇒ A = 9261

∴ The amount she will receive after 18 months is 9261.

Given:

X offers two successive discounts of 12% and 8%,

Y offers a flat discount of 20%

Concept used:

The concept of discounts and calculating the overall discount percentage.

The difference between the discount percentages is found.

Solution:

Let the original price of the item be Rs. 100.

Discount given by X = 12% of 100 + 8% of (100 - 12% of 100)

Discount given by X = 12 + 8 × (100 - 12) / 100

⇒  12 + 8 × 88/100 = 12 + 7.04 = 19.04

Discount given by Y = 20% of 100 = 20

Difference between the overall discounts = Discount given by X - Discount given by Y = 19.04 - 20 = -0.96

Therefore, the difference between the overall discounts given by X and Y is 0.96

The correct answer is 'Option 3.'

Key Points

• The phrase 'managed of escaping' in the original sentence is incorrect.
• The correct usage is 'managed to escape from'.
• The reason for this is that the verb 'managed' commonly follows the pattern: managed to + verb. This indicates successful or surviving action despite difficulty.
• Moreover, 'escape from' is a common collocation which indicates getting free or getting away from a place or situation.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'How she managed to escape from the situation was inexplicable.'

Additional Information 

• Option 1 ('managed to escape of') and option 2 ('managed to escape on') are grammatically incorrect as the prepositions 'of' and 'on' do not collocate with the verb 'escape'.
• Option 4 ('managing of escape') is both grammatically incorrect and awkward.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• The term "wild goose chase" is an idiom in English that means to engage in a fruitless or pointless pursuit.(बेतुकी खोज)
• This idiomatic expression has its roots in a type of horse race that used to be popular in the 16^th century, called a "wild goose chase", in which the lead rider pursues a zigzag course similar to the flight of geese, with the other riders trying to follow in exactly the same path.
• For example:  "Searching for a needle in a haystack is like a wild goose chase".
• Likewise, "to do something pointless", which is the first option, also indicates carrying out an activity or endeavour that has no purpose or potential for success.(बेमानी करना)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'To do something pointless'.

Additional Information

• Option 2: "To hunt wild animals" ("जंगली जानवरों का शिकार करना") is incorrect, as it denotes an activity that, while potentially difficult, is not necessarily pointless.
• Option 3: "Going on a world tour" ( "दुनिया भर की सैर करना") is also not appropriate. A world tour can have a lot of purposes like exploration, relaxation etc., and hence is not pointless as the idiom "wild goose chase".
• Option 4: "Competing fiercely" ( "प्रतिस्पर्धा करना") is usually done with a specific goal in mind, such as winning a prize or gaining recognition, again it does not align with the meaning of "wild goose chase"

The correct answer is 'Option 1.' i.e. 'Rays'.

Key Points

• The term following 'the sun' in the sentence is expected to be a noun and related to the sun and the context of the sentence.
• The most suitable word to fill in the blank is 'rays'. So, the completed sentence reads: "As he opened the window, the sun rays directly fell on his face."
• This sentence now indicates that the beams or shafts of sunlight (rays) coming from the sun directly fell on his face.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: *'*As he opened the window the sun rays directly fell on his face.'

Additional Information

• Option 2 ('raze') means completely destroy a building, town, or other site, which does not fit the context.
• Option 3 ('race'), is an action verb that indicates speed and acceleration, but it does not make sense when related to the sun in this context.
• Option 4 ('raise') means to lift up or elevate something, but it isn’t suitable in this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Fortunate'.

Key Points

• 'Auspicious' is a word in English that means conducive to success; favorable.
• It is often used when referring to something that is believed to portend well for the future and is associated with good luck or favorable conditions. (मंगलकारी)
• For example:- an auspicious day would be a particularly good day for starting a new job or for getting married, based on astrological or other beliefs.
• The word 'Fortunate' can be used as a synonym for 'auspicious'.
• 'Fortunate' indicates being favored by or producing good luck.(भाग्यशाली)
• For example: "He was fortunate to escape the accident unharmed".

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Fortunate'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Antique' ("प्राचीन") is not related to the concept of 'auspicious'. It refers to something old and of value because of its historical or artistic importance.
• Option 3: 'Illogical' ("तर्कहीन") is also not correct. It signifies something that doesn't make sense or is not reasoned well, and does not align with the meaning of 'auspicious'.
• Option 4: 'Despairing' ("निराश") signifies a feeling of complete loss of hope. This is a decidedly negative term and is not a synonym of 'auspicious'.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Spend a lot of money'.

 Key Points

• In this context, "push the boat out" is an idiom which means to spend a lot of money to celebrate or to treat someone.(खुशियां मनाने में ढेर सारे पैसे खर्च करना)
• For example: "They really pushed the boat out for their son's wedding, hiring the fanciest venue and the best catering."
• On the other hand, "spend a lot of money" (Option 1) also indicates using a significant amount of money for making a purchase or expenditure. (बहुत पैसे खर्च करना)
• For example: "She decided to spend a lot of money on her first luxury car."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Spend a lot of money'.

 Additional Information

• Option 2: "spend less money" ("कम पैसे खर्च करना") is incorrect as it contradicts the meaning of the idiom "push the boat out".
• Option 3: "avoid risk" ("जोखिम से बचना") is also not accurate because the idiom entails indulgence rather than avoidance of risk.
• Option 4: "take it easy" ("शांत हो जाना") is incorrect as it infers relaxation or a laid-back attitude, rather than an extravagant spending indicated by "push the boat out".

The correct answer is 'Option 3.' i.e. 'Watching'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill the blank is 'watching'. So, the completed sentence reads: "They enjoyed watching the sun rise from the hills."
• The verb 'enjoyed' is often followed by a gerund (-ing form of a verb used as a noun).
• Watching is the process of looking at something for a period. Here, 'watching the sun rise' refers to the observers appreciating the natural event.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: *'*They enjoyed watching the sun rising from the hills.'

Additional Information

• Options 1 ('in seeing') and 2 ('to visualise') are not typically used after 'enjoyed', which is why they are incorrect.
• Option 4 ('blinking at') makes the sentence awkward and is not the appropriate phrase to use in this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Counsel'.

Key Points

• 'Admonition' is a word in English that signifies a gentle or friendly reproof, or an expression of warning or disapproval.(सलाह)
• For example: A teacher's note to a student to limit excessive talking in class would be considered an 'admonition'.
• The word 'Counsel' (which is Option 4) can be used as a synonym for 'admonition'.
• 'Counsel' involves offering advice or guidance, usually as a solution or course of action. (परामर्श)
• For example: "The doctor's counsel helped him understand the necessity of a balanced diet for maintaining good health".

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Counsel'.

Additional Information

• Option 1**: 'Insult'** ("अपमान") denotes disrespectful or scornfully abusive remarks or actions. This is not a synonym of 'admonition'.
• Option 2: 'Prayer' ("प्रार्थना") signifies a solemn request or thanksgiving to God or an object of worship. It differs from the meaning of 'admonition' and hence, is incorrect.
• Option 3: 'Council' ("परिषद") is a group of people who meet regularly to make decisions or give advice on a particular subject, typically one that they know a lot about or have a personal interest in. It's not a synonym for 'admonition'.

The correct answer is 'Option 3.'

Key Points

• The most suitable words to fill the blanks are 'buy' and 'by'. So, the completed sentence reads: "I will buy a new purse from the shop on the by-pass road."
• 'Buy' is a verb that means to get something by paying money for it.
• 'By' in 'by-pass road' is an adjective that describes the type of road, one that is intended to avoid a built up area.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'I will buy a new purse from the shop on the bypass road.'

Additional Information

• The other options represent improper use of homophones. 'Bye' generally refers to a short form of goodbye, while 'by' can be a preposition, an adverb or an adjective depending on the context. 'Buy' refers to the act of purchasing something.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Understate'.

Key Points

• The word 'exaggerated' refers to the action of making something seem larger, more important, better, or worse than it really is. (अतिशयोक्ति)
• For example: "She tended to exaggerate the difficulties of her job to gain sympathy from others."
• The word 'understate' (which is Option 4) is an antonym for 'exaggerated'.
• It means to describe or represent something as being smaller or less important or serious than it is in reality. (कम कहना)
• For example: "The company understated the negative impacts on environment to avoid regulatory problems."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Understate'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Ignore' ( "नजरअंदाज करना") is incorrect, as ignoring does not present an opposing action to exaggeration.
• Option 2: 'Condemn' (दोषी ठहराना) refers to express complete disapproval of, and it doesn't fit in the opposite sense of 'exaggerate'.
• Option 3: 'Underwrite' ("बीमा करना") suggests accepting financial risk, particularly in insurance, and is not an antonym of 'exaggerate'.

The correct answer is 'Option 2.'

Key Points

• The segment 'what make him' contains the error.
• It should correctly be 'what made him' or 'what makes him' depending on the context (past or present).
• The verbs 'make' or 'makes' always have 's' when used in third person singular present tense, and 'made' is the past tense of 'make'.
• Here, it is either the past or the present tense that is required to make the sentence grammatically correct, not the base form 'make'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Option 2.'

Additional Information

• The other segments do not contain any errors when read on their own or in the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Amplify'.

Key Points

• 'Curtail' is a verb in English signifying to reduce in extent or quantity; to impose a restriction on.
• It calls for making something less by cutting it short or by restricting it. (कम करना)
• For example: a company may need to curtail spending in response to a financial crisis.
• The word 'Amplify' can be used as an antonym for 'curtail'.
• 'Amplify' means to increase the volume, extent, or size of something.(बढ़ाना)
• For example: "The charity event helped to amplify attention towards the ongoing humanitarian crisis."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Amplify'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Seize' ("ज़ब्त करना") implies to take hold of something suddenly or forcibly. It does not provide a contrast to the term 'curtail'.
• Option 3: 'Restrict' ("प्रतिबंध करना") actually holds a similar meaning to 'curtail', not an opposite one. Hence, it's incorrect.
• Option 4: 'Deviate' ("भटकना") denotes diverging from an established course or usual behavior. It doesn't act as an antonym to 'curtail'.

The correct answer is 'Option 3.' i.e. 'Is imported'.

Key Points

• The phrase 'are exchanged' is incorrect in this context. Transporation fuel is not typically 'exchanged' but rather 'imported', 'produced', 'used', etc.
• So, the correct option is 'is imported'. 80% of India's transportation fuel is imported.
• 'Fuel' is usually treated as a singular noun which is why 'is' and not 'are' has been used with 'imported'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Over 80% of India's transportation fuel is imported.'

Additional Information

• Option 1 ('is endangered') and Option 2 ('are vanished') are incorrect. 'Endangered' typically refers to a species at risk of extinction and 'vanished' refers to something that has disappeared completely.
• Option 4 ('have vanished') is grammatically incorrect and does not cohere with the overall meaning of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word in question is 'catalogue', which is a list or record of items.(सूची)
• **For example: "**She browsed through the furniture catalogue before deciding what to buy."

Therefore, the sentence "I saw the catalogue of D Décor in Capital Mall yesterday." is spelled correctly.

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'cattalogue', Option 3: 'catologue' and Option 4: 'catalogoue', all these spelling variations are incorrect and don't match the correct spelling 'catalogue'.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Approximate'.

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word in question is 'Approximate', which refers to something that is close to the accurate figure, fact, or value in question. (लगभग)
• For example: "The approximate time of arrival is 8 pm".

Therefore, 'Option 1' is the correct answer, as it delivers the correct spelling 'Approximate' for the misspelt word 'aproximate' in the sentence.

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'Aproxemate', Option 3: 'Apprroximate' and Option 4: 'Appraximate', all these variations are incorrectly spelled and do not match the correct spelling 'Approximate'.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Introverted'.

Key Points

• 'Outgoing' is an adjective that describes a person as sociable and responsive to others. In Hindi, 'outgoing' translates to "मिलनसार" or "बहादुर".
• For example: an outgoing person is often the life of a party as they can easily socialize with everyone.
• 'Introverted' is an antonym for 'outgoing'.
• Introverted individuals are typically more reserved and less prone to socializing, and more focused on internal thoughts and feelings.(अंतर्मुखी)
• For example: "Despite being in a large group, he remained introverted and mostly kept to himself."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Introverted'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Extravagant' ("अतिप्रचुर") suggests someone who spends a lot more than necessary, or something that is excessive or elaborate; it doesn’t oppose the term 'outgoing'.
• Option 2: 'Eccentric' ("सनकी") implies unconventional and slightly strange behavior. This does not necessarily mean the person isn't outgoing.
• Option 4: 'Rational' ("तर्कसंगत") indicates being based on clear thought or reason, and it doesn't directly contrast the term 'outgoing'.

The correct answer is 'Option 3: than.'

Key Points

• The correct usage in this context is 'no more than twenty-one'.
• This phrase indicates that Miss Caroline's age does not exceed twenty-one, which is why 'than' is the appropriate word to use.
• The word 'than' acts here as a conjunction used in expressions involving comparisons.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Miss Caroline was no more than twenty-one. She had bright auburn hair, pink (2) ________, and wore crimson finger-nail polish. She also (3) ________ high-heeled pumps and a red-and-white (4) ________ dress. She looked and smelled (5) ________ a peppermint drop.'

Additional Information

• Option 1 ('then') is often used to represent a point in time or the next step in a process, and does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 2 ('but') is used to introduce something contrasting with what has already been mentioned and doesn't make sense in this context.
• Option 4 ('the') is an article and cannot be used for comparisons, and hence, does not fit in the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 3: cheeks.'

Key Points

• The context of the sentence suggests that the blank should be filled with a body part that can be described as 'pink', which is generally associated with health and vitality.
• 'Cheeks' is the most fitting choice because it is common to describe cheeks as having a pink color when referring to someone's appearance.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: ''Miss Caroline was no more than twenty-one. She had bright auburn hair, pink cheeks, and wore crimson finger-nail polish. She also (3) ________ high-heeled pumps and a red-and-white (4) ________ dress. She looked and smelled (5) ________ a peppermint drop.'

Additional Information

• Although options like 'ears' (Option 1), 'eyes' (Option 2), and 'eyebrow' (Option 4) are all body features, they are not typically described as 'pink,' making them less appropriate choices for this sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 1: wore.'

Key Points

• Noticing the context, the blank should be filled with a verb that indicates the past action of adorning oneself with certain articles of clothing or accessories.
• 'Wore' is the most fitting choice in this context because it is the past tense of 'wear', indicating that Miss Caroline had put on or was dressed in high-heeled pumps.

Therefore, the correct sentence is:  ''Miss Caroline was no more than twenty-one. She had bright auburn hair, pink cheeks, and wore crimson finger-nail polish. She also wore high-heeled pumps and a red-and-white (4) ________ dress. She looked and smelled (5) ________ a peppermint drop.''

Additional Information

• 'Worn' (Option 2) is the past participle form of 'wear', generally used in perfect tenses or as an adjective but does not correctly constitute verb tense required in this context.
• 'Wearing' (Option 3) is the present participle of 'wear', typically used in present continuous tenses or as an adjective, and hence does not match the past narrative form here.
• 'Put' (Option 4) while can be used to describe the action of dressing (as in 'put on'), it does not fit grammatically into the sentence as provided.

The correct answer is 'Option 1: striped.'

Key Points

• The path of the sentence implies that the blank should be filled with a word that describes the appearance or style of the dress.
• 'Striped' is the most fitting choice as it specifies a design of parallel lines contrasting in color (i.e., red and white lines), a common description for clothing.

Therefore, the correct sentence is :  ''Miss Caroline was no more than twenty-one. She had bright auburn hair, pink cheeks, and wore crimson finger-nail polish. She also wore high-heeled pumps and a red-and-white striped dress. She looked and smelled (5) ________ a peppermint drop.''

Additional Information

• 'Stripped' (Option 2) refers to being devoid or lacking something, which does not make sense in this context of describing a dress.
• 'Stepped' (Option 3) denotes the action of moving by lifting and setting down each foot in turn, and does not suitably describe a dress.
• 'Stapled' (Option 4) means secured with a metal staple, which is usually not used to describe the style or design of a dress.

The correct answer is 'Option 3: like.'

Key Points

• The context of the sentence suggests that the blank should be filled with a word that introduces a comparison or a similarity.
• 'Like' is the most fitting choice in this context because it is used to draw comparisons or demonstrate similarities.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: ''Miss Caroline was no more than twenty-one. She had bright auburn hair, pink cheeks, and wore crimson finger-nail polish. She also wore high-heeled pumps and a red-and-white striped dress. She looked and smelled like a peppermint drop.''

Additional Information

• 'Liked' (Option 1) is the past tense of 'like', indicating enjoyment or approval, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• 'As' (Option 2) can be used for comparisons, but usually when followed by a clause. Without an accompanying verb, 'as' does not fit the context here.
• 'As if' (Option 4) is used to describe something appearing in a particular way, but it is typically followed by a clause. Without a verb following it, 'as if' is not appropriate here.

जिसे बुलाया न गया हो "अनाहूत" कहलाता है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• अनाहूत- जिसे बुलाया न गया हो।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

Important Points 

Additional Information

''शर्माजी बुलाए हैं।'' यह वाक्‍य अशुद्ध है। 

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्‍य- शर्माजी बुलाए हैं। इस वाक्‍य में शब्‍द चयन संबंधी त्रुट‍ि है।
• शुद्ध वाक्‍य- शर्माजी ने बुलाया है।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍पों में द‍िए गए सभी वाक्‍य शुद्ध हैं।

Important Points 

• वाक्य रचना में संज्ञा,सर्वनाम,विशेषण,क्रिया,अव्यय, वर्तनी से सम्बंधित या अन्य प्रकार की अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं जिनसे सम्बंधित विभिन्न प्रश्न परीक्षाओं में पूछे जाते हैं।

जैसे -

संज्ञा संबंधित वाक्य शुद्धि

• अशुद्ध - मैं रविवार के दिन तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।
• शुद्ध - मैं रविवार को तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।

लिंग संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध - सविता ने जोर से हँस दिया।
• शुद्ध - सविता जोर से हँस दी।

वचन संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध -मेरे आँसू से रूमाल भींग गया।
• शुद्ध - मेरे आँसुओं से रूमाल भींग गया।

कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध - सब से नमस्ते।
• शुद्ध - सब को नमस्ते।

'मुख्य' पत्र का अर्थ नहीं है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• मुख्य का अर्थ- प्रधान, प्रमुख, विशेष, उत्तम, श्रेष्ठ, आवश्यक, महत्त्वपूर्ण आद‍ि।
• पत्ता, चिट्ठी, पत्रिका आद‍ि सभी शब्‍दों का प्रयोग पत्र के ल‍िए क‍िया जाता है।

Additional Information कुछ अन्‍य अनेकार्थी शब्‍द- 

• अदृष्ट – जो देखा न जाए, भाग्य, गुप्त, रहस्य।
• अक्षर – अविनाशी, वर्ण, ईश्वर, आत्मा, आकाश, धर्म, तप।
• अब्धि – सागर, समुद्र।
• अंतर – हृदय, भेद, फर्क, व्यवधान, अवधि, अवसर।
• अमर – ईश्वर, देवता, शाश्वत, आकाश और धरती के मध्य में।
• अधर – होंठ, नीचे, पराजित।

वर्तनी की दृष्टि से दिए गए वाक्य में "अक्छर नहीं पढ़ा था।" अशुद्ध भाग है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• वाक्‍य- जब तक परीक्षा का दिन नहीं आया था तब तक उसने एक अक्छर नहीं पढ़ा था।
• इस वाक्‍य के भाग अक्‍छर नहीं पढ़ा था। भाग में अक्‍छर शब्‍द की वर्तनी अशुद्ध है।
• अक्‍छर अशुद्ध वर्तनी है, सही वर्तनी अच्‍छर है।
• सही वाक्‍य-   जब तक परीक्षा का दिन नहीं आया था तब तक उसने एक अच्छर नहीं पढ़ा था।​

Additional Information

• वाक्य रचना में संज्ञा,सर्वनाम,विशेषण,क्रिया,अव्यय, वर्तनी से सम्बंधित या अन्य प्रकार की अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं जिनसे सम्बंधित विभिन्न प्रश्न परीक्षाओं में पूछे जाते हैं।

जैसे -

संज्ञा संबंधित वाक्य शुद्धि

• अशुद्ध - मैं रविवार के दिन तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।
• शुद्ध - मैं रविवार को तुम्हारे घर आऊँगा।

लिंग संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध - सविता ने जोर से हँस दिया।
• शुद्ध - सविता जोर से हँस दी।

वचन संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध -मेरे आँसू से रूमाल भींग गया।
• शुद्ध - मेरे आँसुओं से रूमाल भींग गया।

कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

• अशुद्ध - सब से नमस्ते।
• शुद्ध - सब को नमस्ते।

''अंक'' अनेकार्थी शब्द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• अंक के अनेकार्थी शब्‍द- गोद, चिह्न, संख्या आद‍ि।
• दोस्‍त, परिवार और कबूतर अनेकार्थी शब्द नहीं है।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

Additional Informationकुछ अन्‍य अनेकार्थी शब्‍द- 

• अदृष्ट – जो देखा न जाए, भाग्य, गुप्त, रहस्य।
• अक्षर – अविनाशी, वर्ण, ईश्वर, आत्मा, आकाश, धर्म, तप।
• अब्धि – सागर, समुद्र।
• अंतर – हृदय, भेद, फर्क, व्यवधान, अवधि, अवसर।
• अमर – ईश्वर, देवता, शाश्वत, आकाश और धरती के मध्य में।
• अधर – होंठ, नीचे, पराजित।

उपरोक्त वाक्य का शुद्ध रूप "इतना आलस्य ठीक नहीं है।" अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्‍य- 'इतना आलस्यता ठीक नहीं है।'
• इस वाक्‍य में आलस्‍य शब्‍द की वर्तनी संबंधी त्रु‍ट‍ि है।
• शुद्ध वाक्‍य- इतना आलस्य ठीक नहीं है।

Important Points

Additional Information वाक्‍य में अशुद्धियाँ- ​

• वाक्‍य सम्‍प्रेषण की सबसे महत्‍वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई है अत: वाक्‍यगत अशुद्धियों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना वाक्‍य को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
• वाक्‍य में पदक्रम, पुनरावृत्ति, वर्तनी, शब्‍द-अर्थ, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया, विशेषण, क्रिया-विशेषण आदि अशुद्धियॉं हो सकती हैं। ​

र‍िक्‍त स्‍थान की पूर्ति के ल‍िए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्‍त शब्‍द "व्याकुल" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points 

• 'निर्धन बालिका भूख से व्याकुल थी।’
• अत: वाक्‍य में व्याकुल शब्‍द का प्रयोग करना उच‍ित है।
• व्याकुल का अर्थ- बेचैन
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। ​

Additional Information 

• देश में बढ़ता भ्रष्‍टाचार घोर चिन्‍ता का विषय है।
• हमने दर्शक दीर्घा में बैठकर संसद की कार्यवाही देखी।
• ईश्‍वर तुम्‍हारा कल्‍याण करें।

''सुमन के अनुसार शत्रुता अच्छी नहीं है।'' वाक्य संज्ञा के प्रयोग की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है।

Key Points

• 'सुमन के अनुसार शत्रुता अच्छी नहीं है।'
• यह वाक्‍य संज्ञा की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है।
• इस वाक्‍य भाववाचक संज्ञा शब्‍द शत्रुता का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

Additional Information

संज्ञा के पॉंच भेद होते हैं-