General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Big Bang Theory.

Key Points

• Big Bang Theory is the most widely accepted explanation for the origin of the universe. It proposes that the universe began approximately 13.8 billion years ago from an extremely hot and dense singularity.
• The theory states that the universe expanded rapidly from this singularity, leading to the formation of matter, energy, space, and time.
• Edwin Hubble's observations in the 1920s provided the first evidence for the Big Bang Theory. He discovered that galaxies are moving away from each other, which implies the universe is expanding.
• The presence of the cosmic microwave background radiation (CMB), discovered in 1964 by Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson, supports the theory. This radiation is the remnant heat from the initial explosion.
• The theory also explains the abundance of light elements such as hydrogen and helium, which were formed during the first few minutes after the Big Bang.

Additional Information

• Plate Tectonics:
• Plate tectonics is a geological theory explaining the movement of Earth's lithospheric plates. It is unrelated to the origin of the universe.
• This theory helps explain phenomena such as earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the formation of mountains.
• It was developed in the 20^th century based on evidence from continental drift, seafloor spreading, and fossil records.
• Quantum Mechanics:
• Quantum mechanics is a branch of physics that deals with the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic levels.
• While it provides insights into the fundamental nature of matter and energy, it does not directly address the origin of the universe.
• String Theory:
• String theory is a theoretical framework in physics that attempts to unify all fundamental forces, including gravity, using one-dimensional strings.
• It is a potential candidate for explaining the universe's fundamental structure but remains speculative and does not directly explain the origin of the universe.
• Key Scientists and Discoveries:
• Georges Lemaître, a Belgian astronomer and physicist, first proposed the idea of a universe originating from a "primordial atom," now known as the Big Bang Theory.
• Edwin Hubble provided observational evidence of an expanding universe through the redshift of galaxies.
• Robert Wilson and Arno Penzias discovered the cosmic microwave background radiation, further validating the theory.

Important Points

• Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMB): The CMB is considered the "afterglow" of the Big Bang and provides strong evidence for the theory. It was discovered in 1964 and has been studied extensively using satellites such as COBE, WMAP, and Planck.
• Expanding Universe: Observations of galaxies moving away from each other indicate that the universe is expanding. This phenomenon is described by the Hubble Law, which states that the velocity of a galaxy is proportional to its distance from us.
• Light Element Formation: The Big Bang Theory predicts the abundance of light elements such as hydrogen (75%) and helium (25%), formed during the process known as Big Bang Nucleosynthesis.
• Future Research: Scientists continue to study the universe's origin using advanced telescopes like the James Webb Space Telescope and gravitational wave observatories.

The correct answer is A change in its state of motion.

Key Points

• Change in speed or direction of an object signifies a change in its motion. This is described as a change in the object's state of motion.
• The state of motion is defined as the object's current velocity, which includes both its speed and direction. Altering either speed or direction implies the object is accelerating.
• Newton's First Law of Motion (Law of Inertia) states that an object will continue in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. Hence, changes in speed or direction occur due to external forces.
• An example of a change in the state of motion can be observed when a car accelerates, decelerates, or takes a turn. These changes are due to applied forces such as the engine's power or friction from the road.
• Contrary to options like mass, shape, or temperature, the change in state of motion does not depend on these factors directly. Instead, it is tied to external forces acting on the object.

Additional Information

• Newton's Laws of Motion:
• First Law: An object remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.
• Second Law: Force equals mass times acceleration (F = ma), indicating that changes in motion are proportional to the applied force.
• Third Law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
• Acceleration:
• Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity of an object.
• If an object's speed or direction changes, it is said to be accelerating.
• For example, a car braking or turning exhibits acceleration even if its speed decreases.
• Force and Motion:
• Force is the interaction that causes an object to change its motion.
• Types of forces include gravitational, frictional, tension, and applied forces.
• Without an external force, an object maintains its current state of motion due to inertia.
• Velocity:
• Velocity is the speed of an object in a specific direction.
• Changes in velocity include alterations in speed, direction, or both.
• For example, a ball thrown upwards has velocity changes due to gravity.
• Examples in Everyday Life:
• A car stopping at a red light indicates a change in its state of motion due to the application of brakes.
• A cyclist turning a corner changes direction, resulting in a new state of motion.
• A rocket accelerating during launch demonstrates both an increase in speed and a change in direction.

Important Points

• Mass:
• Mass refers to the quantity of matter in an object and remains constant regardless of changes in motion.
• It is not affected by changes in speed or direction.
• Shape:
• Shape changes typically occur due to deformation or applied pressure, not due to changes in motion.
• For example, stretching a rubber band alters its shape but does not impact its motion directly.
• Temperature:
• Temperature changes occur due to energy transfer and do not directly influence an object's motion.
• For instance, heating water increases its temperature but does not change its physical motion unless external forces act.
• Examples of Motion:
• A satellite orbiting Earth changes its direction continuously due to gravitational forces, exemplifying changes in motion.
• A roller coaster moving along a curved track alters its direction and speed, indicating changes in motion.

The correct answer is QpiAI.

Key Points

• QpiAI is an Indian startup that has developed the country’s first full-stack 25-qubit quantum computer. This marks a significant milestone in India's technological advancements in quantum computing.
• Quantum computing is a revolutionary technology that utilizes quantum mechanics to perform computations exponentially faster than classical computers.
• QpiAI specializes in developing quantum technologies, including quantum algorithms, hardware, and software, providing a full-stack solution.
• The quantum computer developed by QpiAI has a 25-qubit architecture, making it capable of solving complex problems across various domains like cryptography, optimization, and machine learning.
• This development aligns with India's vision to foster innovation and contribute to global advancements in emerging technologies like quantum computing.

Additional Information

• Quantum Computing:
• Quantum computing leverages principles like superposition and entanglement to process information in ways that classical computers cannot.
• It is especially useful in fields requiring high computational power, such as drug discovery, cryptography, and financial modeling.
• QpiAI:
• Founded in India, QpiAI is a pioneering startup in the field of quantum computing and artificial intelligence.
• It focuses on developing scalable and efficient quantum computing solutions for industrial and scientific applications.
• Other Indian Quantum Initiatives:
• QNu Labs: Specializes in quantum cryptography and secure communication solutions.
• QuPrayog: Focuses on quantum research and educational initiatives.
• Applications of Quantum Computing:
• Optimization problems in logistics and supply chain management.
• Enhancing machine learning algorithms and artificial intelligence models.
• Solving complex cryptographic problems for secure communication.

Important Points

• Quantum Computing in India:
• The Indian government has launched initiatives such as the National Quantum Mission to boost quantum research and development.
• India aims to establish itself as a global leader in quantum technologies by investing in infrastructure, education, and research.
• Global Context:
• Countries like the USA, China, and Canada are also heavily investing in quantum computing technologies.
• Global corporations such as IBM, Google, and Microsoft are leading the development of quantum computing systems.

The correct answer is World Bank.

Key Points

• In the late 1980s, India faced a severe economic crisis, characterized by balance of payment issues, high fiscal deficits, and declining foreign exchange reserves.
• The Government of India approached the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as the World Bank, to seek assistance in stabilizing its economy and addressing structural inefficiencies.
• The World Bank is an international financial institution established in 1944 to provide financial and technical assistance to developing countries worldwide.
• The World Bank played a crucial role in designing and implementing structural reforms in India during this period, focusing on liberalization, privatization, and globalization policies.
• The assistance provided by the World Bank marked a shift in India's economic policy towards a more open and market-oriented economy.

Additional Information

• World Bank:
• Established in 1944, the World Bank is headquartered in Washington, D.C., USA.
• It comprises five institutions, including the IBRD and the International Development Association (IDA).
• The primary aim is to provide long-term loans and financial assistance to developing countries for developmental projects such as infrastructure, health, and education.
• India has been one of the largest borrowers from the World Bank, focusing on infrastructure, rural development, and poverty alleviation projects.
• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• Founded in 1966, the ADB is headquartered in Mandaluyong, Philippines.
• Its primary focus is on promoting social and economic development in the Asia-Pacific region.
• Unlike the World Bank, ADB has a regional focus and provides financial assistance primarily to countries in Asia.
• World Trade Bank:
• No such institution as "World Trade Bank" exists; the term might be mistakenly used to refer to the World Trade Organization (WTO).
• The WTO focuses on international trade rules and regulations, promoting free trade, and resolving trade disputes.
• Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB):
• Established in 2016, the AIIB is headquartered in Beijing, China.
• It focuses on financing infrastructure projects in Asia and beyond, such as transportation, energy, and urban development.
• India is one of the largest borrowers from the AIIB, with funds directed towards projects like metro development and renewable energy.

Important Points

• The World Bank differs from regional financial institutions like the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), as it operates globally and focuses on broader developmental goals.
• The economic reforms initiated in India during the late 1980s and early 1990s, under the guidance of the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF), are referred to as the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) reforms.
• The World Bank's involvement during this period played a pivotal role in reshaping India's economic trajectory and integrating it into the global economy.

The correct answer is Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited.

Key Points

• Navratna Status is granted to central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) that exhibit exceptional financial performance and operational autonomy under government guidelines.
• Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited (RCF) achieved Navratna status due to its remarkable contributions in the field of fertilizers and chemicals, ensuring food security for the nation.
• RCF is one of the leading producers of urea, complex fertilizers, and industrial chemicals, playing a pivotal role in agricultural and industrial development in India.
• The Navratna status provides RCF with enhanced autonomy in decision-making, allowing it to invest in projects and joint ventures without prior government approval.
• The enterprise operates under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers and has demonstrated consistent growth, profitability, and contributions to the Indian economy.

Additional Information

• Navratna CPSE Criteria:
• The status is awarded to CPSEs that score at least 60 out of 100 on various performance parameters such as net profit, net worth, and total manpower cost.
• These enterprises must have a Miniratna Category-I status and must be listed in the stock exchanges.
• The autonomy provided under Navratna status enables CPSEs to invest up to Rs. 1,000 crore in joint ventures or subsidiaries without government approval.
• Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited:
• Established in 1978, RCF is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• It operates two major manufacturing units: Thal and Trombay, producing fertilizers and industrial chemicals.
• RCF is involved in the production of eco-friendly fertilizers and promotes sustainable agriculture practices.
• Other Navratna CPSEs:
• Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL): A major steel producer in India, contributing to infrastructure development.
• Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC): Facilitates the financing and development of rural electrification projects.
• Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL): Engaged in refining and marketing petroleum products across India.

Important Points

• Eligibility for Navratna Status:
• CPSEs must consistently showcase strong financial performance over multiple years.
• They must adhere to strict government guidelines and maintain transparency in operations.

The correct answer is Guru Gobind Singh.

Key Points

• Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru, established the Khalsa on 13 April 1699, which coincides with the festival of Baisakhi.
• The Khalsa was created to instill a sense of unity, courage, and justice among Sikhs and to prepare them to defend their faith against oppression.
• The initiation ceremony, known as Amrit Sanchar, was conducted at Anandpur Sahib, where Guru Gobind Singh baptized the first five Sikhs, known as the Panj Pyare (Five Beloved Ones).
• The creation of the Khalsa marked a turning point in Sikh history, transforming Sikhs into a community of saint-soldiers committed to protecting the oppressed and upholding justice.
• The Khalsa was guided by strict principles, including the adoption of the Five Ks (Kesh, Kangha, Kara, Kirpan, and Kachera), which became the identity symbols of the Sikhs.

Additional Information

• Guru Gobind Singh:
• Born on 22 December 1666, Guru Gobind Singh was the last of the ten Sikh Gurus.
• He was a spiritual leader, poet, philosopher, and warrior who dedicated his life to the principles of justice and equality.
• Guru Gobind Singh compiled the Dasam Granth and declared the Guru Granth Sahib as the eternal Guru of the Sikhs.
• The Panj Pyare:
• The Panj Pyare were the first five Sikhs initiated into the Khalsa. Their names were Bhai Daya Singh, Bhai Dharam Singh, Bhai Himmat Singh, Bhai Mohkam Singh, and Bhai Sahib Singh.
• They voluntarily offered their lives to Guru Gobind Singh during the Khalsa initiation ceremony, symbolizing courage and self-sacrifice.
• The Five Ks:
• The Five Ks are the five articles of faith that every baptized Sikh is required to wear:
• Kesh: Uncut hair, symbolizing spirituality and respect for God’s creation.
• Kangha: A wooden comb, representing cleanliness and order.
• Kara: A steel bracelet, signifying restraint and responsibility.
• Kirpan: A ceremonial sword, symbolizing the duty to protect the weak and uphold justice.
• Kachera: Cotton undergarments, representing self-discipline and modesty.
• Anandpur Sahib:
• Located in modern-day Punjab, Anandpur Sahib is one of the holiest places in Sikhism and the site where the Khalsa was established.
• It is also home to the Takht Sri Keshgarh Sahib, one of the five temporal seats of authority in Sikhism.
• Significance of the Khalsa:
• The Khalsa emphasizes qualities such as courage, discipline, equality, and selflessness.
• It played a crucial role in defending Sikhism and other oppressed communities during times of persecution.
• The Khalsa continues to represent the core values of Sikhism, uniting Sikhs worldwide under a shared identity.

Important Points

• Guru Nanak: The founder of Sikhism and the first Sikh Guru, he emphasized the oneness of God and equality of all beings.
• Guru Ram Das: The fourth Sikh Guru, credited with founding the city of Amritsar and establishing the spiritual and social institutions of Sikhism.
• Guru Tegh Bahadur: The ninth Sikh Guru, who sacrificed his life to protect religious freedom and the rights of the oppressed.
• Guru Gobind Singh: The initiator of the Khalsa, he contributed significantly to the spiritual, social, and military aspects of Sikhism, ensuring its survival against external threats.

The correct answer is "Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it!".

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader in India’s struggle for independence. He was one of the first leaders to advocate for complete independence from British rule.
• The slogan "Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it!" was given by Bal Gangadhar Tilak during the Indian freedom struggle. This slogan became a rallying cry for Indians fighting for independence.
• Tilak used this slogan to instill a sense of pride and urgency among Indians and encourage them to actively participate in the freedom movement.
• It was during the 1906 Congress session that Tilak popularized this slogan, emphasizing the need for Swaraj (self-rule) for India.
• Tilak's fiery speeches and writings, including his use of this slogan, played a pivotal role in mobilizing Indians against British colonialism.

Additional Information

• About Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Born on 23 July 1856 in Ratnagiri, Maharashtra, he was an Indian nationalist, teacher, and social reformer.
• He is often referred to as the "Father of Indian Unrest" due to his uncompromising stance against British rule.
• Tilak was one of the first leaders to articulate the demand for Swaraj, emphasizing that self-rule was essential for India’s progress.
• Other Contributions by Tilak:
• He was a founder of the Lal Bal Pal trio, along with Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal, which represented the extremist faction of the Indian National Congress.
• Tilak started two newspapers: "Kesari" (in Marathi) and "The Mahratta" (in English), which became important platforms for spreading nationalist ideas.
• He authored the book "Gita Rahasya", which analyzed the Bhagavad Gita and inspired Indians to take action for self-rule.
• Slogans by Other Leaders:
• "Satyamev Jayate": This phrase, meaning "Truth alone triumphs," is derived from the Mundaka Upanishad. It was adopted as India’s national motto after independence and is inscribed on the national emblem.
• "Jai Hind": Popularized by Subhas Chandra Bose, this slogan became a salutation and a symbol of national pride.
• "Give Me Blood, and I Shall Give You Freedom": This was a famous call to action by Subhas Chandra Bose to inspire Indians to join the Indian National Army (INA) in the fight against British rule.
• Legacy of the Slogan:
• "Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it!" continues to symbolize the fiery spirit of India’s freedom struggle.
• It reflects the passion and determination of Indian leaders and the masses in their fight for independence from British colonial rule.

The correct answer is President on Prime Minister’s advice.

Key Points

• Under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution of India, the President has the authority to dissolve the House of the People (Lok Sabha) before its term ends, but this action must be taken on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers play a crucial role in advising the President in this regard, as India follows a parliamentary system where the President acts on the advice of the government.
• The term of the House of the People is ordinarily five years, but it can be dissolved earlier if the government loses majority support or other political circumstances arise.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not have the power to dissolve the House. The Speaker primarily oversees the functioning of the House and ensures decorum during its proceedings.
• Similarly, the Chief Justice of India and the Election Commission do not have the constitutional authority to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

• Role of the President in India:
• The President of India is the head of state and holds the highest constitutional authority in the country.
• The President exercises powers based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, except in certain discretionary situations.
• The President’s powers include summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the Houses of Parliament as per the Constitution.
• Article 85 of the Constitution:
• Article 85(2)(b) specifically states that the President can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the completion of its five-year term, but only on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• This provision ensures that the President acts in accordance with the principles of a parliamentary democracy.
• Role of the Speaker:
• The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha and is responsible for maintaining order during debates and proceedings.
• The Speaker does not have the power to dissolve the House but plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of parliamentary sessions.
• Functions of the Election Commission:
• The Election Commission is a constitutional body responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India.
• Its duties include preparing electoral rolls, ensuring the conduct of elections, and declaring results, but it does not have the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha.
• Chief Justice of India:
• The Chief Justice of India is the head of the judiciary and presides over the Supreme Court of India.
• The Chief Justice has no authority over legislative matters such as dissolving the Lok Sabha.

Important Points

• Historical Instances:
• The Lok Sabha has been dissolved prematurely several times in Indian history, such as in 1979, 1991, and 1998, due to political instability and loss of majority by the ruling government.
• In each case, the President acted on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• Five-Year Term:
• The normal term of the Lok Sabha is five years as provided under Article 83(2) of the Constitution.
• This term can be extended during a national emergency as per Article 352, but it must be dissolved within six months after the emergency ends.

The correct answer is Jute.

Key Points

• Dryland farming refers to agricultural practices in regions with limited rainfall, typically less than 500 mm annually. Crops cultivated under dryland farming are drought-resistant and require minimal water.
• Jute is not associated with dryland farming because it requires a humid climate with high rainfall (typically above 1500 mm annually) for proper growth. It thrives in regions with adequate water supply and is primarily grown in areas like West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam.
• Guar, also known as cluster bean, is a drought-resistant crop widely grown in arid and semi-arid regions, making it suitable for dryland farming.
• Bajra (pearl millet) is a staple dryland crop grown in regions with low rainfall. It is heat- and drought-tolerant, making it ideal for dryland farming.
• Ragi (finger millet) is another dryland crop known for its resilience to drought and ability to grow in poor soils with minimal water requirements.

Additional Information

• Jute:
• Climate: Jute requires a warm and humid climate with temperatures between 24°C to 37°C and annual rainfall of 1500-2500 mm.
• Uses: Jute is primarily used for making ropes, mats, sacks, and other eco-friendly products.
• Major growing regions: It is cultivated mostly in eastern India, including states like West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, and Assam.
• Harvesting: Jute is harvested during the rainy season, and its cultivation is dependent on adequate water availability.
• Dryland Farming:
• Definition: Dryland farming refers to agricultural practices in areas with low rainfall and no irrigation facilities. It relies on moisture conservation techniques.
• Crops: Common crops include millet (bajra), sorghum, ragi, pulses, and oilseeds such as mustard and groundnut.
• Regions: Dryland farming is prevalent in arid and semi-arid regions such as Rajasthan, Gujarat, Karnataka, and parts of Maharashtra.
• Techniques: Farmers adopt techniques such as contour plowing, mulching, and planting drought-resistant crop varieties to conserve soil moisture.
• Guar:
• Scientific name: Cyamopsis tetragonoloba.
• Uses: Guar is used in food industries as a thickener and stabilizer. Its gum is also used in oil and gas extraction.
• Location: Guar is widely grown in Rajasthan and Haryana due to its drought resistance.
• Bajra:
• Scientific name: Pennisetum glaucum.
• Uses: Bajra is rich in nutrients and is used in making various traditional foods such as rotis.
• Location: It is commonly cultivated in dry regions like Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
• Ragi:
• Scientific name: Eleusine coracana.
• Uses: Ragi is a highly nutritious cereal crop used for making porridge, bread, and malt.
• Location: It thrives in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh, particularly in dry areas.

Important Points

• Dryland farming in India:
• It accounts for nearly 40% of the total cultivated area in India.
• Dryland areas contribute significantly to the production of millets, pulses, and oilseeds.
• Regions such as Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and parts of Gujarat are prominent for dryland agriculture.
• Challenges in dryland farming:
• Water scarcity: Lack of irrigation facilities makes crop cultivation challenging.
• Low yields: Dryland crops often have lower yields compared to irrigated crops.
• Soil erosion: Wind and water erosion can degrade soil quality in dry regions.
• Government initiatives:
• National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA): Aimed at promoting sustainable farming practices in dryland areas.
• Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY): Focuses on water conservation and efficient irrigation to support dryland farming.

The correct answer is To change in the ownership of landholdings.

Key Points

• The main purpose of land reforms in India post-independence was to bring about equitable ownership of land by redistributing land from large landholders to landless farmers and tenants.
• Land reforms aimed at addressing the issue of concentration of land in the hands of a few wealthy individuals, thereby reducing inequality and ensuring social justice.
• These reforms included measures like abolition of zamindari system, tenancy reforms, and ceilings on landholdings to prevent excessive accumulation of land by individuals.
• The focus was on empowering small and marginal farmers and ensuring their access to agricultural land to improve their socio-economic conditions.

Additional Information

• Abolition of Zamindari System:
• This was one of the earliest measures taken post-independence to eliminate the intermediary system of zamindars who collected revenue on behalf of the British.
• The Zamindari Abolition Act was implemented in various states to transfer ownership rights to the tillers of the land.
• It marked a significant step towards reducing feudal practices and empowering cultivators.
• Tenancy Reforms:
• Tenancy reforms aimed at securing the rights of tenants by providing protection against arbitrary eviction and granting ownership rights in some cases.
• Measures like fixation of fair rent and prohibition of subletting were introduced to safeguard tenant farmers.
• In states like West Bengal and Kerala, tenancy reforms significantly improved the socio-economic status of tenant farmers.
• Ceilings on Landholdings:
• Land ceiling laws were enacted to limit the maximum land an individual or family could own, and surplus land was redistributed among landless individuals.
• The surplus land was allocated to marginalized groups, including Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• This policy aimed at reducing inequality and ensuring equitable distribution of resources.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• Land reforms were introduced as a part of India's social and economic policies post-independence to address the issues of rural poverty and inequality.
• The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) emphasized land reforms as a key strategy for rural development.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was introduced to safeguard land reform laws from judicial review.
• Articles like Article 39(b) and (c) of the Directive Principles of State Policy underline the importance of equitable distribution of resources.

The correct answer is 2008-09.

Key Points

• Child Budgeting was first adopted by the Government of India in 2008. It marked a significant step toward prioritizing the welfare and development of children in national policies and budgets.
• The concept of child budgeting focuses on identifying and analyzing allocations and expenditures in various sectors that directly or indirectly benefit children.
• September 1, 2008, is a landmark date when the Indian government first officially implemented this framework for budgetary analysis related to children.
• This initiative aimed to improve the status of children in areas such as health, education, nutrition, and protection by ensuring adequate resources and monitoring their utilization.
• It was part of broader efforts to meet India's commitments to international conventions like the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) and achieve better outcomes for child development.

Additional Information

• What is Child Budgeting?
• Child Budgeting is the process of tracking and analyzing public spending that benefits children directly or indirectly.
• This includes expenditures in areas like education, healthcare, nutrition, and protection.
• It ensures that adequate financial resources are allocated to meet the needs of children, particularly in disadvantaged communities.
• Significance of Child Budgeting:
• It enables policymakers to assess how effectively budgets are addressing the needs of children.
• Child Budgeting aligns with India's commitment to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly SDG 4 (Quality Education) and SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being).
• It helps in bridging gaps in resource allocation for marginalized groups, ensuring equitable development.
• Context of the UNCRC:
• The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC), ratified by India in 1992, emphasizes the importance of allocating public resources for child welfare.
• Child Budgeting is a practical step toward fulfilling India's international obligations under the UNCRC.
• Other Key Initiatives for Children in India:
• Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS): Launched in 1975, this program provides nutrition, education, and healthcare to children under six years of age.
• Mid-Day Meal Scheme: This initiative aims to improve the nutritional status of school-going children by providing free meals in government and aided schools.
• National Policy for Children: Adopted in 1974 and revised in 2013, it provides a comprehensive framework for the rights and development of children.

Important Points

• Why 2008 was chosen:
• The year 2008 saw increased global focus on the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), which included child welfare as a key component.
• The Indian government recognized the importance of dedicated budgeting to ensure sustainable child development and improve social indicators.

The correct answer is Revenue deficit.

Key Points

• Revenue deficit includes transactions that affect the current income and expenditure of the government. It shows the shortfall in revenue receipts compared to revenue expenditure during a fiscal year.
• Revenue deficit is calculated as: Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts. It highlights the inability of the government to meet its regular operational expenses from its revenue.
• Revenue deficit indicates that the government is unable to cover its day-to-day expenses like salaries, subsidies, and interest payments from its income sources such as tax and non-tax revenues.
• This deficit is significant as it reflects the government's reliance on borrowings to finance its routine expenditures, which is not sustainable in the long term.
• In contrast to other deficits such as fiscal or trade deficits, revenue deficit focuses exclusively on the revenue aspect of government finances, excluding capital expenditures.

Additional Information

• Primary Deficit:
• It is calculated as: Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments.
• Primary deficit shows how much of the government's borrowings are going towards meeting the current year's expenses, excluding interest payments on previous borrowings.
• It reflects the government's capacity to manage its finances excluding the burden of past debt.
• Fiscal Deficit:
• It is the difference between the total expenditure and total revenue (excluding borrowings) of the government.
• Fiscal deficit reflects the total borrowing requirement of the government to bridge the shortfall in its finances.
• It includes both revenue and capital expenditures, unlike revenue deficit which only considers current income and expenditure.
• Trade Deficit:
• A trade deficit occurs when a country's imports exceed its exports during a specific time period.
• It is calculated as: Value of Imports - Value of Exports.
• Trade deficit is not related to government finances but rather to the external trade position of a country.
• Importance of Revenue Deficit:
• High revenue deficit indicates fiscal stress as it implies that the government is borrowing not for asset creation but for meeting its operational expenses.
• Sustained revenue deficits can lead to a rising debt burden and reduced fiscal flexibility.
• Reducing revenue deficit is crucial for achieving fiscal sustainability and maintaining economic stability.

Important Points

• Indian Context:
• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 aims to reduce revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in India.
• As per the Union Budget 2023-24, India has been focusing on reducing its revenue deficit through better tax collection mechanisms and rationalized subsidies.
• The government has also emphasized capital expenditure over revenue expenditure to promote long-term economic growth.
• Global Examples:
• Many developed economies, like the USA and Japan, often run high fiscal and revenue deficits due to large-scale welfare programs and defense spending.
• In contrast, countries like Germany maintain low revenue deficits due to disciplined fiscal policies and robust economic management.

The correct answer is By fine hair in the nostrils..

Key Points

• Fine hair in the nostrils acts as the first line of defense in filtering out dust, dirt, and other particulate matter when air enters the respiratory system. These hairs trap larger particles, ensuring cleaner air reaches the respiratory tract.
• The nostrils and nasal cavity are lined with mucus membranes that produce mucus. This mucus works alongside the nasal hairs to trap smaller particles like pollen, bacteria, and pollutants.
• The nasal passages have a moist environment that helps in humidifying the air, which is essential for optimal functioning of the lungs and prevents dryness in the respiratory tract.
• Air filtration in the nostrils is the first step in the respiratory process, protecting deeper parts of the system such as the throat, trachea, and lungs.
• This mechanism ensures that the air entering the body is conditioned to be cleaner and more suitable for the intricate gas exchange process in the lungs.

Additional Information

• Tonsils:
• Tonsils are lymphatic tissues located at the back of the throat and do not play a role in air filtration. They are involved in immune response and help protect against infections by trapping bacteria and viruses.
• While they contribute to overall immunity, their primary function is not related to air filtration, making this option incorrect.
• Rings of cartilage:
• These rings are found in the trachea (windpipe) and provide structural support to keep the airway open for air passage.
• They do not perform filtration but ensure that air can flow freely to the lungs without obstruction. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Lungs:
• Lungs are the primary organs for gas exchange and oxygenation of the blood, but they are not involved in filtration of air.
• Air reaching the lungs has already undergone filtration in the upper respiratory tract (nostrils and nasal passages). This makes this option incorrect.
• Respiratory System Overview:
• The respiratory system is composed of the nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs.

Each part has a specific function.

• The nasal cavity, with its hair and mucus, plays the most significant role in initial air filtration.

Important Points

• Nasal Hair:
• Found at the entrance of the nostrils, these hairs are short and coarse, designed to trap larger pollutants and particulate matter.
• They act as the body's natural filtration system, reducing exposure to harmful airborne particles.
• Mucus:
• Produced by the mucus membranes, mucus acts as a sticky trap for smaller particles like bacteria, pollen, and viruses.
• It also keeps the nasal passages moist, preventing dryness and irritation.
• Cilia:
• Microscopic hair-like structures in the respiratory tract move mucus and trapped particles toward the throat, where they can be swallowed or expelled.
• Cilia work in coordination with nasal hair and mucus to ensure thorough filtration of air.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Statement I: The translocation in phloem is achieved by utilizing energy.
• The process of translocation in the phloem involves the movement of food, primarily in the form of sucrose, from source tissues (like leaves) to sink tissues (like roots, fruits, and seeds).
• This process is energy-dependent and occurs with the help of active transport.
• Energy from ATP is used to load sucrose into the phloem sieve tubes at the source, creating a high concentration of solutes.
• This, in turn, causes water to flow into the sieve tubes by osmosis, generating a pressure gradient that drives the flow of sap. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: Materials are transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP.
• The process of loading materials, particularly sucrose, into the phloem tissue occurs through active transport.
• Specialized companion cells in the phloem use ATP to actively transport sucrose into the sieve tube elements against the concentration gradient.
• This ensures that the phloem sap contains a high concentration of sucrose, facilitating its movement to other parts of the plant. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• As both statements I and II are correct, the correct option is Both I and II.

Additional Information

• Phloem Structure:
• Phloem is a vascular tissue in plants responsible for the transport of organic nutrients, particularly sucrose, from the source (leaves) to sink (roots, fruits, and other storage organs).
• It consists of four main components: sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma.
• The sieve tube elements are the main conducting cells, while the companion cells assist in the loading and unloading of materials.
• Phloem Transport Process:
• The movement of solutes in the phloem is called translocation.
• It follows the pressure-flow hypothesis, which states that osmotic pressure generated by solute loading and unloading drives the flow of the phloem sap.
• Water enters the sieve tubes at the source due to the high osmotic pressure created by the presence of sugars, generating turgor pressure that pushes the sap towards the sink tissues.
• Energy Dependency:
• Unlike xylem transport, which is passive and relies on transpiration pull, phloem transport is an active process that requires energy in the form of ATP.
• Active transport is crucial for loading sugars into the sieve tubes at the source and unloading them at the sink.
• Key Functions of Phloem:
• Phloem primarily transports organic nutrients like sucrose, amino acids, and hormones.
• It plays a vital role in plant growth and development by distributing the products of photosynthesis to various parts of the plant.
• Phloem also facilitates communication within the plant by transporting signaling molecules.

Important Points

• Difference Between Xylem and Phloem:
• Xylem: Transports water and minerals from roots to aerial parts of the plant. It operates via passive transport and does not require energy.
• Phloem: Transports organic nutrients like sucrose from source to sink. It requires energy in the form of ATP for active transport.
• Pressure-Flow Hypothesis:
• This widely accepted model explains the movement of substances in the phloem.
• It involves the creation of a pressure gradient between the source (high pressure) and the sink (low pressure).
• The pressure gradient drives the flow of sap, ensuring efficient distribution of nutrients.
• Significance of Phloem Transport:
• Ensures the proper distribution of nutrients required for growth, development, and storage.
• Plays a crucial role in plant repair and defense by supplying energy-rich compounds to damaged or infected areas.
• Facilitates the hormonal signaling necessary for coordinating various physiological processes.

The correct answer is non-possession of things more than one’s requirement.

Key Points

• Aparigraha is one of the core ethical principles in Jainism. It refers to the practice of non-attachment or non-possession of materialistic things beyond what is necessary for an individual’s needs.
• This vow focuses on the idea of living a life of minimalism and refraining from accumulating excessive wealth or possessions, which can lead to greed and attachment.
• The concept of Aparigraha teaches that material possessions are temporary and can distract individuals from achieving spiritual growth and liberation (Moksha).
• It encourages individuals to cultivate a mindset of contentment and to avoid desires that lead to attachment and suffering.
• This principle is not limited to material possessions but also extends to non-material attachments, such as relationships, emotions, and power.

Additional Information

• Other Ethical Principles in Jainism:
• Ahimsa: Non-violence is the most important principle in Jainism. It promotes avoiding harm to any living being in thought, word, or action.
• Satya: This refers to truthfulness or speaking the truth. A Jain must ensure that their speech does not cause harm to others.
• Asteya: Non-stealing is another essential vow. Jains must not take anything that does not belong to them or is not willingly given by its owner.
• Brahmacharya: It promotes celibacy or chastity, urging control over desires and passions.
• Purpose of Aparigraha:
• It helps individuals to focus on spiritual liberation (Moksha) by detaching from worldly possessions and desires.
• Promotes equality by discouraging the accumulation of wealth and resources, ensuring a fair distribution of resources.
• Encourages sustainable living by minimizing consumption and reducing the exploitation of natural resources.
• Application in Daily Life:
• Practicing Aparigraha can involve living a simple lifestyle, free from greed and unnecessary possessions.
• It teaches individuals to value spiritual growth and inner peace over materialistic pursuits.
• Modern practitioners of Jainism often adopt practices such as recycling, reusing, and avoiding waste to align with this principle.
• Relevant Teachings:
• The teachings of Lord Mahavira, the 24^th Tirthankara of Jainism, emphasize Aparigraha as a vital step toward achieving liberation from the cycle of birth and death.
• Jain monks and nuns take this vow to the extreme by renouncing all material possessions and adopting a life of complete detachment.

Important Points

• Fasting until death (Sallekhana) is a voluntary religious practice in Jainism but is unrelated to Aparigraha. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Refraining from theft (Asteya) is another ethical principle in Jainism but is distinct from Aparigraha. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Speaking only the truth (Satya) is a vow of truthfulness in Jainism but does not align with the concept of non-possession. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Non-possession of things more than one’s requirement is the correct interpretation of Aparigraha. Hence, this statement is correct.

The correct answer is **C.

V. Raman**.

Key Points

• National Science Day is celebrated on February 28 every year in India to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Sir **C.

V. Raman** on this day in 1928.

• Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930 for his groundbreaking work on the scattering of light, which came to be known as the Raman Effect.
• The Raman Effect is a phenomenon in which light changes its wavelength when it passes through a transparent medium, leading to the discovery of molecular energy levels.
• The celebration of National Science Day is aimed at spreading awareness about the importance of science, technology, and innovation in daily life and encouraging the younger generation to pursue scientific careers.
• Every year, National Science Day is celebrated with a specific theme. For example, in 2023, the theme was "Global Science for Global Wellbeing."

Additional Information

• **C.

V. Raman:**

• Born on November 7, 1888, in Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu, India.
• He completed his education at Presidency College, Madras, and was a brilliant student in physics.
• In 1928, he discovered the Raman Effect, which became a cornerstone of modern physics and spectroscopy.
• He was the first Indian to win a Nobel Prize in Physics, establishing India's global reputation in scientific research.
• He was also awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honor, in 1954.
• Raman Effect:
• The Raman Effect explains the scattering of light when it traverses a material medium and undergoes a change in energy and wavelength.
• This discovery opened up new avenues for studying molecular structures and has applications in fields such as chemistry, material science, and biology.
• The Raman Spectroscopy technique is widely used in various industries, including pharmaceuticals and environmental science.
• Other Notable Scientists Mentioned in the Options:
• Homi J. Bhabha: Known as the Father of India’s Nuclear Program; he was instrumental in establishing the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
• Vikram Sarabhai: Known as the Father of the Indian Space Program; he played a pivotal role in establishing ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation).
• A. P. J. Abdul Kalam: Known as the Missile Man of India for his work on ballistic missile technology; he also served as the 11^th President of India.

Important Points

• National Science Day:
• Started in 1986 upon the recommendation of the National Council for Science and Technology Communication (NCSTC).
• It is an occasion to honor the contributions of Indian scientists and promote the importance of scientific research.
• Applications of Raman Effect:
• Used in chemical analysis to determine the composition of substances.
• Applied in forensic science for crime scene investigations.
• Widely utilized in astronomy to study the composition of distant celestial bodies.

The correct answer is Yashasvi Solanki.

Key Points

• Yashasvi Solanki has become the first woman Aide-de-Camp (ADC) to the President of India in June 2025.
• An Aide-de-Camp (ADC) is a personal assistant or aide to a senior military officer or head of state and serves as a prestigious designation.
• Her appointment marks a significant milestone in the Indian Armed Forces, as it demonstrates the growing representation of women in leadership and high-ranking positions.
• As an ADC to the President, her responsibilities include assisting the President in official ceremonies, functions, and day-to-day activities, along with liaising with military and civilian agencies.
• Her achievement is a testament to the Indian Armed Forces' evolving inclusivity and commitment to recognizing talent irrespective of gender.

Additional Information

• Aide-de-Camp (ADC) Role:
• An ADC is a military officer who acts as a confidential assistant to a senior officer or dignitary, such as the President of India.
• They are generally selected from the Indian Armed Forces, including the Army, Navy, and Air Force, based on their exemplary service record and leadership skills.
• ADCs play a pivotal role in coordinating schedules, organizing events, and maintaining decorum during official functions.
• Women in Armed Forces:
• The appointment of women in higher and distinguished roles highlights gender inclusivity in the Indian Armed Forces.
• In recent years, several steps have been taken to empower women in the military, such as offering permanent commissions and leadership roles.
• Notable achievements include women being inducted as fighter pilots, commanding units, and now serving as ADCs to the President.
• President's Secretariat:
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, and the ADC serves as a direct link between the President and the military.
• The ADC accompanies the President during official engagements, both within India and abroad.
• Other Options in the Question:
• Neena Gupta: Known as a celebrated actress in Indian cinema, she is not associated with the military or the ADC role.
• Aliawati Longkumer: While a notable name, there is no record of her serving as an ADC to the President.
• Anuradha Thakur: A senior bureaucrat, but not linked to the military or ADC appointments.

Important Points

• Significance of ADC Appointment:
• The ADC role is a recognition of excellence and discipline in the armed forces.
• This position is highly prestigious and allows the officer to act as a direct representative of the President in military matters.
• Milestones in Women Empowerment:
• The appointment of women in roles such as ADC reflects the government's efforts towards inclusivity and gender equality.
• It also inspires future generations of women to pursue challenging and prestigious careers in the military.

The correct answer is Mentoring Young Authors.

Key Points

• PM-YUVA 3.0, which stands for Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors, was launched in March 2025 to promote and mentor budding Indian authors and writers.
• The scheme focuses on creating a platform for young authors (below 30 years of age) to express their ideas, thoughts, and creativity in various genres such as literature, culture, and history.
• Under this initiative, a nationwide contest is conducted to identify promising authors, and a select number of winners are provided with mentorship, training, and an opportunity to publish their work.
• The goal of PM-YUVA is to nurture literary talent, promote Indian literature, and encourage young voices to contribute to the cultural and intellectual heritage of the nation.
• The scheme is implemented by the National Book Trust (NBT), under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

Additional Information

• Eligibility:
• Indian citizens aged below 30 years are eligible to participate in this scheme.
• The scheme primarily targets first-time authors who have the potential to contribute to national and global literature.
• Mentorship Program:
• The selected young authors are provided with a structured training program by mentors appointed by the National Book Trust.
• The training includes workshops, mentoring sessions, and guidance on how to develop a manuscript into a publishable book.
• Publishing Opportunities:
• The manuscripts developed under the mentorship program are published by the National Book Trust or other partnering organizations.
• The authors also get an opportunity to showcase their work at international literary platforms such as book fairs and cultural events.
• Objectives of PM-YUVA:
• Promote Indian literature on a global scale.
• Encourage young voices to explore and preserve India’s cultural and historical heritage.
• Create a platform for storytelling that resonates with India’s diverse traditions and values.

Important Points

• PM-YUVA 1.0 and 2.0:
• The earlier versions of the PM-YUVA scheme were also aimed at mentoring young authors. However, the third iteration, PM-YUVA 3.0, is more expansive in its scope and reach.
• The scheme aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes the need to nurture creative and critical thinking.
• Relevance to Indian Literature:
• India has a rich literary heritage, and initiatives like PM-YUVA aim to sustain and promote this legacy among the youth.
• Such programs encourage the documentation of local cultures, histories, and languages to prevent their erosion.

The correct answer is Ministry of Education.

Key Points

• The One Nation, One Subscription (ONOS) scheme was introduced by the Ministry of Education on 1 January 2025.
• The initiative aims to provide universal access to academic resources such as journals, research papers, and e-books for students, researchers, and institutions across India.
• This scheme is expected to reduce the financial burden on educational institutions by centralizing the procurement of educational and research resources.
• It is designed to strengthen the research ecosystem in India, enabling both public and private institutions to access resources at a significantly lower cost.
• The initiative aligns with the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes equitable and inclusive access to education.

Additional Information

• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• The NEP 2020 is a comprehensive framework aimed at transforming the Indian education system by 2030.
• It focuses on universal access, equity, and quality improvement in education.
• The policy emphasizes the importance of digital learning platforms to ensure that knowledge is accessible to all.
• Digital Library Initiative:
• The ONOS scheme is a step towards the creation of a National Digital Library that will house resources from Indian and global publishers.
• It will cater to various fields, including science, technology, arts, and humanities.
• Cost Efficiency:
• Centralized subscription plans will significantly reduce the cost of accessing research materials for educational institutions.
• It will also eliminate the need for individual institutions to negotiate with publishers, ensuring uniform access across the country.
• Implementation Agency:
• The scheme will be implemented by the Ministry of Education, with support from government bodies such as the University Grants Commission (UGC) and National Digital Library of India (NDLI).
• Global Context:
• Similar initiatives, like the European Union’s Open Access 2020, aim to make research publications freely available to the public.
• The ONOS scheme will enable India to align with global standards in open access and academic inclusivity.

Important Points

• Ministry of Education: The Ministry plays a key role in formulating policies and implementing schemes to improve India’s educational framework.
• The ONOS scheme is specifically targeted at addressing the digital divide in education by ensuring equitable access to academic resources.
• The scheme will also facilitate collaborative research and innovation by providing a common platform for researchers across the country.

The correct answer is 36.3%.

Key Points

• As per the State of the Judiciary Report 2023, women constitute 36.3% of the working strength of the district judiciary in India.
• The report highlights the gender disparity in the judiciary, emphasizing that although women are increasingly represented, the overall ratio still remains skewed.
• District judiciary plays a pivotal role in the justice delivery system as it deals with a majority of the cases in India, making gender representation crucial for equitable justice.
• This data reflects progress in gender inclusion but also indicates the need for policies promoting higher representation of women in the judiciary.
• The percentage of women in the district judiciary is higher compared to the representation of women in the higher judiciary, including High Courts and the Supreme Court.

Additional Information

• State of the Judiciary Report:
• The State of the Judiciary Report is an annual publication that provides insights into the functioning, efficiency, and representation within the judiciary system in India.
• It evaluates various aspects such as gender disparity, case pendency, infrastructure challenges, and judicial reforms.
• The report aims to promote transparency and accountability in the judicial system.
• Representation of Women in Judiciary:
• Despite the increase in women representation, the overall percentage of female judges in India remains low, especially in higher judiciary institutions.
• Efforts are being made to increase gender diversity through initiatives like reservation for women in judicial services exams.
• The judiciary has witnessed landmark appointments, such as Justice Indira Banerjee in the Supreme Court, reflecting gradual progress.
• Challenges Faced by Women in Judiciary:
• Women often face challenges such as societal prejudice, lack of mentorship, and work-life balance issues.
• Infrastructure in courts often lacks gender-friendly facilities, which can discourage women from pursuing a career in law.
• There is a need for policy reforms to encourage and support women in judicial roles.
• Judicial Reforms in India:
• Judicial reforms aim to improve efficiency, accessibility, and inclusivity within the Indian judicial system.
• Key reforms include digitization of court records, fast-track courts for specific cases, and promotion of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms.
• Efforts are also being made to address gender disparity through awareness programs and policy interventions.

Important Points

• District Judiciary:
• District judiciary forms the backbone of the Indian judicial system and deals with a majority of the cases across the country.
• It includes civil courts, criminal courts, and family courts, among others, at the district level.
• Judicial officers at the district level are recruited through state judiciary exams conducted by respective High Courts.
• Gender Representation in Higher Judiciary:
• Women representation in the Supreme Court and High Courts is significantly lower compared to district courts.
• The appointment of female judges has been a topic of discussion, with calls for more equitable representation.
• In 2021, three women judges were appointed to the Supreme Court, marking a progressive step in gender representation.
• Initiatives to Promote Women in Judiciary:
• Several state governments have introduced gender-based reservations for women in judicial services exams.
• Training programs and workshops are being organized to encourage women to pursue careers in law and judiciary.
• Awareness campaigns aim to change societal perceptions regarding women in leadership roles within the judiciary.