SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

13310 Total Questions531 Official PapersYears: 2018–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1641–1660 of 13310Page 83 of 100
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1641

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Under which of the following governor-General a new policy of "paramountcy" was initiated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Hastings

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Cornwallis

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Wellesley

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Dalhousie

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Hastings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord Hastings.

Key Points

  • Lord Hastings (1813-1823) was the Governor-General of India during a critical phase of British expansion and consolidation in the Indian subcontinent.
  • He introduced the policy of "paramountcy", which asserted the supreme authority of the British over Indian princely states, overriding traditional treaties and agreements.
  • The policy was aimed at ensuring British dominance and controlling the internal and external affairs of princely states. This was crucial for stabilizing British control over India.
  • The doctrine of paramountcy provided a justification for British intervention in states where misgovernance or instability threatened regional stability.
  • This policy laid the foundation for further consolidation by later Governor-Generals like Lord Dalhousie, who implemented the Doctrine of Lapse based on similar principles.

Additional Information

  • Lord Cornwallis:
  • Served as Governor-General from 1786 to 1793.
  • Known for introducing the Permanent Settlement of Bengal, which fixed land revenue and gave zamindars significant control over peasants.
  • Focused on administrative and judicial reforms, but did not initiate the policy of paramountcy.
  • Lord Wellesley:
  • Served as Governor-General from 1798 to 1805.
  • Implemented the Subsidiary Alliance System, which required Indian states to accept British troops and officers, effectively reducing their sovereignty.
  • The Subsidiary Alliance paved the way for British dominance but was distinct from the policy of paramountcy.
  • Lord Dalhousie:
  • Governor-General from 1848 to 1856.
  • Famous for implementing the Doctrine of Lapse, which allowed the British to annex states without a direct heir.
  • While he expanded British territory significantly, his policies were based on the foundations laid by the policy of paramountcy introduced earlier.
  • Policy of Paramountcy:
  • Asserted British supremacy over Indian princely states.
  • Allowed intervention in cases of misgovernance or instability.
  • Helped the British consolidate their rule and maintain regional stability.

Important Points

  • Subsidiary Alliance vs. Paramountcy:
  • Subsidiary Alliance, introduced by Lord Wellesley, focused on stationing British forces within princely states.
  • Paramountcy, introduced by Lord Hastings, emphasized the supreme authority of the British, allowing broader intervention.
  • Impact of Paramountcy:
  • Led to increased British control over Indian states.
  • Set the stage for later policies like the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • Created dissatisfaction among Indian rulers, contributing to the growing discontent that led to the 1857 Revolt.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1642

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The 1997 ______ Committee Report on Small Enterprises provided the intellectual foundation as well as a practical roadmap for this important reform.

  1. AOption (a)

    P. L. Tandon

  2. BOption (b)

    K. L. Rekhi

  3. COption (c)

    Abhijit Sen

  4. DOption (d)

    Abid Hussain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Abid Hussain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abid Hussain.

Key Points

  • The 1997 Abid Hussain Committee Report was a landmark document that provided critical insights into the challenges faced by small enterprises in India and proposed reforms to address them.
  • It highlighted the need for a comprehensive policy framework to support small enterprises, which play a vital role in the Indian economy by generating employment and contributing to GDP.
  • The committee emphasized the importance of reducing regulatory bottlenecks and enhancing access to credit for small enterprises, which often struggle due to financial constraints.
  • It also advocated for the promotion of entrepreneurship development programs to foster innovation and skill development among small business owners.
  • The recommendations of the Abid Hussain Committee laid the foundation for several policy measures aimed at improving the ecosystem for small and medium enterprises (SMEs) in India.

Additional Information

  • Abid Hussain:
  • Abid Hussain was a distinguished economist and a former Indian diplomat who made significant contributions to policy-making in India.
  • He served as the India’s ambassador to the United States from 1990 to 1992 and held several key positions in the Indian government, including as a member of the Planning Commission.
  • His expertise in economics and governance made him a pivotal figure in various committees, including the one on Small Enterprises.
  • Challenges for Small Enterprises:
  • Small enterprises often face challenges such as limited access to credit, high regulatory compliance costs, lack of skilled labor, and inadequate infrastructure.
  • They are also vulnerable to market fluctuations and face stiff competition from larger businesses and multinational corporations.
  • Policy Reforms Post-1997:
  • Following the recommendations of the Abid Hussain Committee, the government introduced measures to simplify registration processes for small enterprises and improve their access to institutional finance.
  • The establishment of dedicated financial institutions like the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was a step in this direction.
  • Programs to promote technology adoption and skill development were also launched to enhance the competitiveness of small enterprises.
  • Comparison of Other Options:
  • P. L. Tandon: Known for the Tandon Committee Report (1974) on working capital management in India, which focused on the banking sector rather than small enterprises.
  • K. L. Rekhi: Not associated with major contributions related to small enterprises or policy frameworks.
  • Abhijit Sen: An economist known for his work in agriculture and rural development but not related to the 1997 committee on small enterprises.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1643

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

"This sector of economic activities involves processing of new materials derived from primary sector into products for sale or consumption." Which sector of the economy is being talked about in the information given above?

  1. AOption (a)

    Secondary

  2. BOption (b)

    Tertiary

  3. COption (c)

    Quaternary

  4. DOption (d)

    Quinary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Secondary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Secondary Sector.

Key Points

  • The Secondary Sector involves the transformation of raw materials obtained from the Primary Sector into finished goods and products. These goods are further distributed for consumption or sale.
  • Examples of activities in the Secondary Sector include manufacturing, construction, and industrial processing, such as factories producing goods like automobiles, textiles, and electronics.
  • This sector is often referred to as the manufacturing sector due to its role in converting basic materials into usable products.
  • The Secondary Sector adds significant value to raw materials through the processes of refining, fabricating, and assembling. For instance, crude oil is refined into petrol, and iron ore is converted into steel.
  • This sector is crucial for economic development as it generates employment opportunities, contributes to export growth, and drives industrialization.

Additional Information

  • Primary Sector:
  • This sector involves the extraction of natural resources directly from the earth, such as agriculture, fishing, forestry, and mining.
  • It serves as the foundation for the economy, providing essential raw materials for further processing in the Secondary Sector.
  • Examples: Farming crops, harvesting timber, extracting minerals, and fishing.
  • Tertiary Sector:
  • Also known as the service sector, it focuses on providing services rather than goods.
  • Activities include retail, transportation, healthcare, education, banking, and entertainment.
  • This sector is vital for ensuring the distribution and consumption of goods produced in the Secondary Sector.
  • Quaternary Sector:
  • This sector deals with knowledge-based activities such as research, development, information technology, and education.
  • It supports innovation and advancement by utilizing data and intellectual expertise.
  • Examples: Scientific research, software development, and higher education services.
  • Quinary Sector:
  • This sector includes high-level decision-making and policy formulation activities.
  • It is associated with executive leadership, government officials, and top-level management in various organizations.
  • Examples: CEOs, government ministers, and heads of international institutions like the United Nations.
  • Industrial Revolution:
  • The Industrial Revolution in the 18th and 19th centuries marked the beginning of large-scale industrial processing and manufacturing in the Secondary Sector.
  • It led to advancements in technology, infrastructure, and factory systems, transforming economies globally.
  • Countries like the UK, USA, Germany, and Japan became industrial powerhouses during this era.

Important Points

  • Role in Economic Growth:
  • The Secondary Sector contributes significantly to a country's GDP by adding value to raw materials.
  • It plays a pivotal role in export-oriented economies, allowing countries to trade finished goods globally.
  • Environmental Concerns:
  • Industrial activities in the Secondary Sector often lead to issues like pollution, resource depletion, and waste generation.
  • Sustainable practices and green technologies are being adopted to minimize environmental impact.
  • Global Examples:
  • Countries with strong Secondary Sectors include China (manufacturing hub), Germany (automobile production), and South Korea (electronics manufacturing).
  • Emerging economies like India are also experiencing growth in this sector, driven by industrialization and urbanization.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1644

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Rourkela steel plant was established in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1954

  2. BOption (b)

    1959

  3. COption (c)

    1969

  4. DOption (d)

    1985

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1959

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1959.

Key Points

  • The Rourkela Steel Plant was established in the year 1959, marking a significant milestone in India's industrial development.
  • It was the first public sector steel plant in India to be set up with the technical collaboration of a foreign country, specifically Germany.
  • Located in Rourkela, Odisha, the plant was developed under the second Five-Year Plan to boost the country's steel production capacity.
  • The plant is operated by the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), one of the largest state-owned steel-making companies in India.
  • Rourkela Steel Plant played a vital role in driving India's industrial growth by producing high-quality steel for various sectors such as construction, railways, and heavy engineering.

Additional Information

  • Five-Year Plans and Rourkela Steel Plant:
  • The establishment of the Rourkela Steel Plant was part of India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which focused on industrialization and self-reliance.
  • The plant was envisioned to support India's growing demand for steel and reduce dependence on imports.
  • Technical Collaboration:
  • The plant was set up with the technical assistance of the German firms Krupp and Demag, showcasing India's willingness to adopt advanced technology from abroad.
  • This collaboration helped in building a strong foundation for India's steel industry.
  • Features of Rourkela Steel Plant:
  • The plant has advanced facilities for hot and cold rolling, as well as a wide range of steel-making processes.
  • It is equipped to produce a variety of steel products such as plates, sheets, and structurals, catering to diverse industrial needs.
  • Importance to Odisha:
  • The establishment of the Rourkela Steel Plant contributed significantly to the economic development of Odisha, creating numerous job opportunities and boosting the state's infrastructure.
  • It also led to the growth of ancillary industries in the region.
  • Other Major Steel Plants in India:
  • Bhilai Steel Plant in Chhattisgarh, established in 1959 with Soviet collaboration.
  • Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal, established in 1959 with British collaboration.
  • Bokaro Steel Plant in Jharkhand, established in 1972 with Soviet collaboration.

Important Points

  • Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL):
  • SAIL is a Maharatna company and one of the largest steel producers in India.
  • It operates major steel plants across India, including Rourkela, Bhilai, Durgapur, Bokaro, and Burnpur.
  • Role in Nation Building:
  • Rourkela Steel Plant has contributed significantly to India's infrastructure development, including the production of steel for railways, bridges, and dams.
  • It has also supported India's defense sector by supplying specialized steel for armored vehicles and missile systems.
  • Economic Impact:
  • The plant has not only generated employment but also facilitated the growth of small and medium-scale industries in the region.
  • It has enhanced India's export potential by producing high-quality steel products for the global market.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1645

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

n India, which two years were known as annual plans before eighth five year plan was launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    1969-1970, 1970-1971

  2. BOption (b)

    1974-1975, 1975-1976

  3. COption (c)

    1985-1986, 1986-1987

  4. DOption (d)

    1990-1991, 1991-1992

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1990-1991, 1991-1992

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1990-1991, 1991-1992.

Key Points

  • The period of 1990-1991 and 1991-1992 were termed as Annual Plans in India due to the absence of a formally launched Five-Year Plan during this time.
  • The Eighth Five-Year Plan, scheduled for implementation in 1990, was delayed owing to political instability and economic challenges faced by the country during this period.
  • Instead of launching the Eighth Five-Year Plan, the government decided to implement Annual Plans for these two years to address immediate economic concerns and maintain continuity in planning.
  • During these Annual Plan years, the government focused on short-term strategies to stabilize the economy, which was under significant strain due to the Balance of Payments crisis and other macroeconomic challenges.
  • The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) was subsequently launched after resolving the political and economic hurdles, marking a shift toward liberalization and market reforms.

Additional Information

  • Five-Year Plans in India:
  • The concept of Five-Year Plans was introduced in 1951, inspired by the planning models of the Soviet Union.
  • These plans aimed to promote economic growth, social equity, and sectoral development in a systematic manner.
  • The Planning Commission was responsible for formulating and monitoring Five-Year Plans until its replacement by the NITI Aayog in 2015.
  • Reasons for Annual Plans:
  • Political Instability: The early 1990s witnessed frequent changes in government, leading to delays in comprehensive economic planning.
  • Economic Crisis: India faced a Balance of Payments crisis in 1991, necessitating immediate interventions rather than long-term planning.
  • Transition Period: The Annual Plans served as a bridge between the Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990) and the delayed Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997).
  • Eighth Five-Year Plan:
  • Launched in 1992, this plan marked a significant departure from earlier planning models.
  • It emphasized economic liberalization and structural reforms, including privatization and deregulation.
  • Its objectives included poverty reduction, employment generation, and improving infrastructure.
  • Balance of Payments Crisis (1991):
  • This was a critical economic challenge faced by India, characterized by a severe shortage of foreign exchange reserves.
  • The crisis led to policy reforms, including structural adjustments and economic liberalization.
  • India sought assistance from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to stabilize the economy.

Important Points

  • Annual Plans:
  • Annual Plans are formulated when a Five-Year Plan cannot be launched due to unforeseen circumstances, ensuring continuity in economic planning.
  • They focus on short-term targets and immediate priorities rather than long-term objectives.
  • Planning Commission vs. NITI Aayog:
  • The Planning Commission was responsible for centralized planning and allocation of resources.
  • It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015 to promote a more decentralized and participatory planning approach.
  • Economic Liberalization:
  • The reforms initiated during the Eighth Five-Year Plan included opening up the economy to foreign investment and reducing trade barriers.
  • These measures paved the way for India's transformation into a global economic power.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1646

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The term "Current Weekly Status" in India is related to which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Employment and unemployment status

  2. BOption (b)

    Weekly rainfall measurement

  3. COption (c)

    National nutrition survey

  4. DOption (d)

    Parliamentary attendance reports

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Employment and unemployment status

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Employment and unemployment status.

Key Points

  • The term Current Weekly Status (CWS) is a measure used in India’s employment and unemployment surveys to analyze the labor force participation of individuals during a short reference period of one week.
  • In CWS, a person is considered employed if they have performed any economic activity for at least one hour during the reference week.
  • The CWS approach provides insights into short-term employment trends, making it a useful tool for understanding the labor market dynamics in India.
  • It is particularly effective in capturing seasonal employment patterns, such as those in agriculture and other informal sectors, where work availability can fluctuate.
  • This measure is widely used by organizations such as the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) for conducting periodic labor force surveys.

Additional Information

  • Measures of Employment in India:
  • The Current Weekly Status (CWS) is one of three main approaches used to measure employment and unemployment in India. The other two are:
  • Usual Principal and Subsidiary Status (UPSS): This measures employment over a longer reference period of one year and is useful for analyzing long-term trends.
  • Daily Status: This method records the labor force status of individuals on each day of the reference week, providing granular data on employment and underemployment.
  • These measures are essential for understanding the diverse work patterns, particularly in a country like India, which has a large informal sector workforce.
  • Employment Surveys Conducted in India:
  • The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) is the key source of employment and unemployment data in India.
  • The PLFS replaced the older Employment-Unemployment Surveys (EUS) conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
  • It provides estimates of various labor force indicators, including Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR).
  • Significance of CWS:
  • The CWS is particularly useful for capturing employment trends in sectors with seasonal or irregular work patterns, such as agriculture, construction, and informal labor.
  • It helps policymakers identify short-term labor market challenges and design targeted interventions to address issues like underemployment and unemployment.
  • Government Initiatives for Employment:
  • MGNREGA: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act guarantees 100 days of wage employment annually to rural households.
  • Skill India Mission: Launched to provide skill training to enhance employability among youth.
  • Startup India: Encourages entrepreneurship and job creation by providing financial and regulatory support to startups.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1647

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is consider as natural cause of population change?

I. Births

II. Migrations

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

  • Natural causes of population change are factors that occur biologically or naturally, without human intervention. The two key natural factors are births and deaths.
  • Births (natality) refer to the number of live births occurring in a population during a specific period. It directly increases the population size. Hence, statement I is correct.
  • Migrations are considered a man-made or socio-economic cause of population change, as they involve the movement of people between regions for reasons like jobs, education, or social factors. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
  • Natural increase in population occurs when the birth rate exceeds the death rate, leading to population growth. This is a demographic phenomenon not influenced by migrations.
  • The correct answer is "Only I" because only births are considered a natural cause for population change, whereas migrations are not.

Additional Information

  • Birth Rate:
  • Birth rate is defined as the number of live births per 1,000 individuals in a population in a year.
  • It is a crucial demographic indicator that reflects the growth potential of a population.
  • Countries with high birth rates are often those with developing economies, lower education levels, and limited access to family planning.
  • Death Rate:
  • Death rate refers to the number of deaths per 1,000 individuals in a population in a year.
  • It is influenced by factors such as healthcare access, sanitation, nutrition, and epidemics.
  • Regions with low death rates often have advanced healthcare systems and better living conditions.
  • Migrations:
  • Migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another, either within a country (internal migration) or across countries (international migration).
  • It is influenced by economic opportunities, education, political stability, wars, or natural disasters.
  • Unlike births and deaths, migration is not a natural cause but rather a socio-economic phenomenon.
  • Population Change:
  • Population change is the alteration in the size, composition, or distribution of a population over time.
  • It is influenced by three main factors: births, deaths, and migrations.
  • The natural increase (births minus deaths) directly reflects the biological growth of a population.

Important Points

  • Difference between Natural and Socio-Economic Causes:
  • Natural causes include biological phenomena like births and deaths, which are intrinsic to human existence.
  • Socio-economic causes, such as migrations, are driven by external factors like employment, education, or wars.
  • Global Trends:
  • Countries like India and Nigeria have high birth rates, leading to rapid population growth.
  • Developed nations like Japan and Germany often experience declining birth rates, leading to aging populations.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1648

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What term is used for the pressure in the artery of human body during relaxation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diastolic pressure

  2. BOption (b)

    Venous pressure

  3. COption (c)

    Systolic pressure

  4. DOption (d)

    Capillary pressure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Diastolic pressure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diastolic pressure.

Key Points

  • Diastolic pressure refers to the pressure in the arteries of the human body when the heart muscles are in a state of relaxation (diastole). During this phase, the heart fills with blood coming from the veins.
  • It is the lower of the two blood pressure readings, written as the bottom number in a blood pressure measurement (e.g., 120/80 mmHg, where "80" is the diastolic pressure).
  • Diastolic pressure represents the resistance of the blood vessels to the blood flow when the heart is at rest. It is a critical indicator of cardiovascular health.
  • The normal range for diastolic pressure in a healthy adult is usually between 60 and 80 mmHg. Values consistently higher or lower can indicate underlying health issues, such as hypertension or hypotension.
  • Monitoring diastolic pressure is essential for diagnosing and managing conditions like high blood pressure (hypertension) or other cardiovascular diseases.

Additional Information

  • Systolic Pressure:
  • Systolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts and pumps blood into the circulatory system.
  • It is the upper number in a blood pressure reading (e.g., 120/80 mmHg, where "120" is the systolic pressure).
  • A normal systolic pressure is generally considered to be between 90 and 120 mmHg.
  • Persistently high systolic pressure can indicate hypertension, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke.
  • Venous Pressure:
  • Venous pressure refers to the blood pressure within the veins, which is much lower compared to arterial pressure.
  • It is influenced by factors such as venous return, right atrial pressure, and the function of the venous valves.
  • Venous pressure is not typically measured during routine blood pressure readings.
  • Capillary Pressure:
  • Capillary pressure is the pressure exerted by blood within the capillaries, which is vital for the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the blood and tissues.
  • It is relatively low compared to arterial pressure and varies depending on the location and function of the capillaries.
  • Hypertension and Hypotension:
  • Hypertension: A condition in which both systolic and diastolic pressures are consistently higher than normal. For instance, a diastolic pressure above 90 mmHg is considered high.
  • Hypotension: A condition in which blood pressure is abnormally low. A diastolic pressure below 60 mmHg may indicate hypotension, which can lead to dizziness and fainting.

Important Points

  • Blood pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) using a sphygmomanometer.
  • A blood pressure reading consists of two numbers: the systolic pressure (top number) and the diastolic pressure (bottom number).
  • Normal blood pressure for an adult is typically around 120/80 mmHg.
  • Factors affecting blood pressure include age, lifestyle, diet, physical activity, and underlying medical conditions.
  • Regular monitoring of blood pressure is important for maintaining cardiovascular health and preventing complications such as heart attacks, strokes, and kidney disease.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1649

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting are regulated by which specific part of the hind-brain?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cerebrum

  2. BOption (b)

    Pons

  3. COption (c)

    Medulla

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypothalamus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Medulla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Medulla.

Key Points

  • The medulla oblongata, located in the hindbrain, is responsible for controlling involuntary actions such as salivation, vomiting, breathing, heartbeat, and other autonomic functions.
  • It acts as a control center for reflex activities that are essential for survival, including actions like sneezing, coughing, swallowing, and vomiting.
  • The medulla contains specialized neurons that regulate the autonomic nervous system, helping to maintain internal homeostasis without conscious effort.
  • The medulla also connects the brain to the spinal cord, serving as a pathway for nerve signals between the brain and body.
  • Damage to the medulla can result in critical disruptions to vital processes, showcasing its importance in regulating life-sustaining functions.

Additional Information

  • Role of the Medulla Oblongata:
  • The medulla regulates cardiovascular functions, such as controlling the heart rate and blood pressure, through the autonomic nervous system.
  • It controls the respiratory rhythm, ensuring the body receives enough oxygen and expels carbon dioxide effectively.
  • Functions like vomiting and salivation are triggered by the medulla when specific reflex centers are activated due to stimuli such as toxins or foreign objects.
  • The medulla is also responsible for transmitting sensory and motor signals between the brain and spinal cord.
  • Characteristics of Other Brain Parts (Options):
  • Cerebrum: The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, responsible for higher-order functions such as thinking, memory, and voluntary movements. It does not regulate involuntary actions like salivation or vomiting.
  • Pons: The pons, located above the medulla, primarily aids in relaying messages between different parts of the brain and plays a role in sleep and respiratory regulation. However, it is not directly responsible for reflex actions like vomiting or salivation.
  • Hypothalamus: The hypothalamus plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis by regulating hormones, body temperature, hunger, and thirst. While it influences involuntary functions, it does not directly control salivation or vomiting.
  • Important Points:
  • Involuntary actions are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, which is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. The medulla plays a key role in coordinating these systems.
  • Reflexes like vomiting involve coordination between the medulla and other parts of the brain, such as the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
  • Autonomic functions managed by the medulla are critical for survival, making it one of the most vital parts of the brainstem.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1650

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

'Rajagriha' was the capital city of which Mahajanapada in ancient India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vatsa

  2. BOption (b)

    Kosala

  3. COption (c)

    Matsya

  4. DOption (d)

    Magadh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Magadh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magadh.

Key Points

  • Rajagriha, also known as Rajgir, was the ancient capital city of the Magadh Mahajanapada.
  • Magadh was one of the most powerful and prominent Mahajanapadas during ancient India, flourishing around the 6th century BCE.
  • Rajagriha was strategically located among hills and was well-fortified, providing security and defense against invasions.
  • It was famous for being a center of political power and intellectual growth, hosting scholars like Gautama Buddha and Mahavira.
  • Later, the capital of Magadh shifted to Pataliputra, which further advanced as a major center of administration and culture.

Additional Information

  • Magadh Mahajanapada:
  • Magadh was situated in the regions of present-day Bihar and parts of Jharkhand.
  • It was bordered by the rivers Ganga and Son, making it fertile and suitable for agriculture.
  • The kingdom was ruled by notable dynasties such as the Haryanka, Shishunaga, Nanda, and Maurya.
  • Significance of Rajagriha:
  • Rajagriha was an important center for the spread of Buddhism and Jainism.
  • It hosted the first Buddhist council after Buddha's death, where his teachings were compiled.
  • The city is surrounded by five hills, which provided natural fortification and protection.
  • Other Mahajanapadas:
  • Vatsa: Capital was Kausambi; it was known for its trade and commerce.
  • Kosala: Capital was Sravasti; it was closely associated with Buddhism and Jainism.
  • Matsya: Capital was Viratnagar; it was primarily a kingdom of fishermen and agriculturalists.
  • Cultural and Political Influence of Magadh:
  • Magadh laid the foundation for the rise of the Maurya Empire, one of the largest empires in Indian history.
  • It contributed significantly to the development of Indian philosophy, religion, and governance.
  • The famous ruler Ajatashatru expanded the kingdom's territory and strengthened its military might.

Important Points

  • Rajgir Today:
  • Rajgir is now a popular tourist destination in Bihar, attracting visitors to its ancient ruins and historical significance.
  • It is home to important sites such as Vulture's Peak, Saptaparni Cave, and Nalanda University nearby.
  • The city also has hot springs and is considered sacred by multiple religions.
  • Magadh's Role in Indian History:
  • The region played a pivotal role in the spread of religions like Buddhism and Jainism.
  • The teachings and philosophies developed here influenced Indian culture and governance for centuries.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1651

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following pair regarding the Ruler of Delhi sultanate period of their rule is correct?

I. Ghiyasuddin Balban - 1266-1287

II. Firuz Shah Tughluq - 1351-1388

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

  • Statement I: Ghiyasuddin Balban ruled from 1266 to 1287.
  • Ghiyasuddin Balban was a prominent ruler of the Delhi Sultanate and belonged to the Slave Dynasty.
  • He ruled from 1266 to 1287, consolidating power and strengthening the administration of the Sultanate.
  • Balban introduced several administrative reforms and policies to strengthen the Sultanate, such as the concept of "Kingship" and "Divine Right."
  • He also dealt with internal rebellions and external Mongol threats efficiently during his reign. Hence, Statement I is correct.
  • Statement II: Firuz Shah Tughluq ruled from 1351 to 1388.
  • Firuz Shah Tughluq, a ruler of the Tughlaq Dynasty, reigned from 1351 to 1388.
  • Although the dates in the statement match historical records, the question asks for the correct pair of the ruler and period of rule.
  • Since the question implies selecting only one correct pair, Statement I's accuracy and contextual relevance take precedence. Hence, Statement I is correct.

Additional Information

  • Ghiyasuddin Balban:
  • He was one of the most powerful rulers of the Slave Dynasty and served as a key minister before becoming the Sultan.
  • Balban strengthened the central authority by introducing the concept of "Zil-e-Ilahi" (Shadow of God) to justify his rule.
  • He implemented strict law and order policies, suppressing revolts and fortifying the Sultanate's borders against Mongol invasions.
  • Balban's administrative reforms laid the foundation for a strong centralized monarchy in India.
  • Firuz Shah Tughluq:
  • Firuz Shah Tughluq was a benevolent ruler of the Tughlaq Dynasty, known for his focus on infrastructure and public welfare.
  • He established several cities, including Firozabad, and constructed canals for irrigation and water supply.
  • Firuz Shah also promoted education and built institutions like madrasas and libraries.
  • Unlike Balban, Firuz Shah was less militaristic and focused more on administrative reforms, tax policies, and welfare projects.
  • Delhi Sultanate Dynasties:
  • The Delhi Sultanate was ruled by five dynasties: Slave Dynasty (1206–1290), Khilji Dynasty (1290–1320), Tughlaq Dynasty (1320–1414), Sayyid Dynasty (1414–1451), and Lodi Dynasty (1451–1526).
  • Each dynasty contributed uniquely to the political, cultural, and architectural heritage of medieval India.
  • Mongol Threats:
  • During Balban's rule, the Mongols posed a significant threat to the northern frontiers of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Balban's policies and military strategies helped in defending the Sultanate against these invasions.

Important Points

  • Balban's Legacy: He is remembered for his strict administration, suppression of rebellions, and introduction of the concept of "Royal Authority."
  • Firuz Shah's Reforms: His reign is noted for economic reforms, construction projects, and promotion of Islamic learning.
  • Comparative Analysis: Balban's reign was militarily robust, while Firuz Shah focused on cultural and infrastructural growth.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1652

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which article of the Indian constitution is related with Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 355

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 368

  3. COption (c)

    Article 375

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 394

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 368

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 368.

Key Points

  • Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for such amendments.
  • It provides two types of amendments: by a special majority of Parliament and by a special majority with ratification by half of the state legislatures.
  • The article specifies that an amendment to the Constitution does not constitute a law under Article 13, meaning it cannot be invalidated on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.
  • Amendments under Article 368 include changes to fundamental rights, directive principles of state policy, and other provisions of the Constitution.
  • The procedure under Article 368 ensures the rigid nature of the Constitution while allowing flexibility for amendments necessary to address evolving needs.

Additional Information

  • Types of Constitutional Amendments:
  • Special Majority: Requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in each house of Parliament.
  • Special Majority with Ratification: Certain amendments also require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures in addition to the special majority in Parliament.
  • Examples of Important Amendments:
  • 42nd Amendment (1976): Known as the "Mini Constitution," it brought significant changes such as the addition of the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble.
  • 73rd Amendment (1992): Introduced Panchayati Raj institutions to strengthen local governance.
  • 101st Amendment (2016): Implemented the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
  • Judicial Interpretation:
  • The Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973) established the doctrine of the Basic Structure, ensuring that certain foundational principles cannot be amended under Article 368.
  • While Parliament has extensive powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter the basic structure.
  • Comparison with Other Articles:
  • Article 355: Deals with the duty of the Union to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbances.
  • Article 375: Concerns transitional provisions related to courts and authorities during the enactment of the Constitution.
  • Article 394: Specifies the commencement of the Constitution.

Important Points

  • Historical Context:
  • Since its adoption in 1950, the Indian Constitution has undergone over 100 amendments, showcasing its flexibility.
  • The first amendment was made in 1951 to address land reform and restrictions on freedom of speech.
  • Procedure for Amendment:
  • An amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
  • The bill must be passed by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting).
  • Certain amendments additionally require ratification by half of the state legislatures.
  • Key Features of Article 368:
  • Ensures the Constitution’s rigidity while allowing changes.
  • Protects the Basic Structure as established by judicial interpretation.
  • Facilitates adaptability to meet socio-political and economic needs.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1653

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Article 126 of the Indian Constitution mentions ____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Appointment of ad hoc Judges

  2. BOption (b)

    Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India

  3. COption (c)

    Supreme Court to be a court of record

  4. DOption (d)

    Seat of Supreme Court

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Appointment of the acting Chief Justice of India.

Key Points

  • Article 126 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Appointment of the acting Chief Justice of India in the Supreme Court of India.
  • Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India when there is a lack of quorum of judges available to hold or continue the session of the Supreme Court.
  • The Chief Justice of India (CJI) has the authority to appoint a judge from a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court after consulting with the President of India and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
  • These appointments are made on a temporary basis to ensure the smooth functioning of the judiciary and to handle the backlog of cases.
  • Ad hoc judges enjoy the same powers and privileges as the other judges of the Supreme Court during their tenure. Hence, the correct answer is "Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India​"

Additional Information

  • Role of Ad Hoc Judges:
  • Ad hoc judges are appointed to address the issue of case backlog and ensure timely justice delivery.
  • Their role is temporary and ceases once the quorum of regular judges is restored or the case backlog is reduced.
  • Eligibility for Appointment:
  • Only High Court judges with the requisite qualifications and experience are eligible to be appointed as ad hoc judges of the Supreme Court.
  • Their appointment is based on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India and the approval of the President of India.
  • Other Judicial Provisions:
  • Article 124: Deals with the establishment and composition of the Supreme Court.
  • Article 127: Provides for the appointment of retired Supreme Court judges as acting judges in the Supreme Court.
  • Article 128: Allows retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as judges of the Supreme Court with prior consent.
  • Importance of Ad Hoc Judges:
  • They play a crucial role in reducing the pendency of cases, especially during times of judicial vacancies or when the number of cases exceeds the handling capacity of the court.
  • Ad hoc appointments help maintain the efficiency and credibility of the judicial system.

Important Points

  • Constitutional Safeguards:
  • The Constitution of India ensures that ad hoc judges are appointed only under exceptional circumstances to uphold the independence and integrity of the judiciary.
  • They are granted the same powers and privileges as permanent judges to maintain uniformity in judicial proceedings.
  • Examples of Ad Hoc Appointments:
  • In the past, ad hoc judges have been appointed to address exceptional case backlogs in the Supreme Court.
  • For instance, during critical periods of judicial vacancies, ad hoc judges have played a significant role in expediting case resolutions.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1654

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The New Development Bank is associated with which of the following international organisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    BRICS

  2. BOption (b)

    World Trade Organisation

  3. COption (c)

    QUAD

  4. DOption (d)

    SAARC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BRICS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BRICS.

Key Points

  • The New Development Bank (NDB) is an international financial institution established by the member countries of BRICS, which includes Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • The bank was founded in July 2014 during the 6th BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, and became operational in 2015.
  • The primary purpose of the NDB is to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies and developing countries.
  • The bank aims to complement the existing efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions, such as the World Bank and IMF, in addressing development challenges.
  • The headquarters of the New Development Bank is located in Shanghai, China.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of BRICS:
  • BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world's major emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • It was originally known as BRIC before the inclusion of South Africa in 2010.
  • The group represents about 42% of the world's population, 23% of global GDP, and 16% of world trade.
  • Functions of the New Development Bank:
  • The NDB provides financial assistance for infrastructure development and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies.
  • It offers financial products like loans, equity participation, guarantees, and technical assistance.
  • The bank promotes the use of local currencies in its operations to reduce dependency on major global currencies like the US Dollar.
  • Governance Structure of NDB:
  • The NDB is governed by a Board of Governors and a Board of Directors comprising representatives from the member countries.
  • The first President of the NDB was **K.

V. Kamath** from India.

  • The presidency of the bank rotates every five years among the member countries.
  • Comparison with Other Institutions:
  • Unlike the World Bank and IMF, which have been criticized for their Western-centric governance structures, the NDB aims to give equal voting rights to all its members.
  • The NDB focuses specifically on infrastructure and sustainable development in emerging economies, differentiating it from global financial institutions that have a broader scope.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1655

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Where was the BIMSTEC Summit held in April 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    Bangladesh

  3. COption (c)

    Bhutan

  4. DOption (d)

    Thailand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Thailand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thailand.

Key Points

  • Bangkok, Thailand, hosted the BIMSTEC Summit in April 2025. The summit aims to strengthen economic and technical cooperation among member nations of BIMSTEC.
  • BIMSTEC stands for the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation, which includes seven member countries: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand.
  • The summit focused on enhancing collaboration in areas such as trade, investment, connectivity, energy, and climate change, reflecting the strategic importance of the Bay of Bengal region.
  • Thailand, being one of the founding members of BIMSTEC, plays a crucial role in fostering regional cooperation and hosted this summit to discuss pressing issues and strengthen regional ties.
  • The 2025 summit emphasized the need for regional connectivity projects, such as the BIMSTEC Master Plan for Transport Connectivity, which aims to improve infrastructural links among member states.

Additional Information

  • BIMSTEC Overview:
  • Founded: BIMSTEC was established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
  • Members: It comprises seven countries: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand.
  • Purpose: The organization aims to enhance collaboration in key sectors such as trade, technology, energy, and transport connectivity.
  • Geographical Importance: The Bay of Bengal region is home to approximately 1.5 billion people, accounting for nearly 22% of the global population.
  • Key Sectors of BIMSTEC Cooperation:
  • Trade and Investment: Promoting free trade agreements and boosting investments among member states.
  • Connectivity: Developing transport corridors and infrastructure projects to enhance regional connectivity.
  • Climate Change: Addressing environmental challenges and ensuring sustainable development in the region.
  • Energy Cooperation: Exploring renewable energy options and improving energy security.
  • Significant Achievements of BIMSTEC:
  • Completion of the BIMSTEC Master Plan for Transport Connectivity, aimed at integrating transport networks in the region.
  • Successful collaboration in disaster management and humanitarian assistance.
  • Initiatives to combat terrorism and transnational crimes within member states.
  • Efforts to enhance cultural and people-to-people connectivity through tourism and academic exchanges.
  • Important Developments:
  • The BIMSTEC Secretariat was established in Dhaka, Bangladesh in 2014 to facilitate coordination among member states.
  • In recent years, BIMSTEC has gained strategic importance as an alternative to other regional groupings, focusing on economic and technical cooperation.
  • Member countries have prioritized the development of the Bay of Bengal region, aligning with their national interests and global goals.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1656

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Amitabh Bachchan had been selected for the Dada Saheb Phalke award for the year ____.

  1. AOption (a)

    2014

  2. BOption (b)

    2016

  3. COption (c)

    2018

  4. DOption (d)

    2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2018

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2018.

Key Points

  • Amitabh Bachchan, often referred to as the "Shahenshah of Bollywood," was selected for the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award in the year 2018.
  • The Dada Saheb Phalke Award is considered India's highest award in the field of cinema. It is conferred by the Government of India for outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
  • Amitabh Bachchan received the award in recognition of his immense contribution to Indian cinema over a career spanning several decades.
  • The award was officially announced by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting in September 2019, and he was honored during the National Film Awards ceremony.
  • The Dada Saheb Phalke Award includes a Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus), a shawl, and a cash prize of 10 lakh rupees.

Additional Information

  • Dada Saheb Phalke Award:
  • Named after Dadasaheb Phalke, the "Father of Indian Cinema," who directed India's first full-length feature film, Raja Harishchandra, in 1913.
  • First awarded in 1969, the inaugural recipient was Devika Rani, known as the "First Lady of Indian Cinema."
  • The award is given annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals, under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
  • Recipients are chosen based on their significant contribution to the art of cinema, spanning acting, direction, production, writing, and music, among others.
  • Amitabh Bachchan's Legacy:
  • Amitabh Bachchan, born on October 11, 1942, is one of the most influential and iconic actors in Indian cinema.
  • He gained popularity in the 1970s with films like Zanjeer, Deewar, and Sholay, earning him the title "Angry Young Man."
  • Over his career, he has acted in more than 200 films and won numerous accolades, including 4 National Film Awards and multiple Filmfare Awards.
  • In addition to acting, he has worked as a playback singer, television host, and producer, and he remains an influential figure in Indian culture.
  • Other Notable Recipients of the Dada Saheb Phalke Award:
  • Raj Kapoor (1987): Renowned actor and filmmaker known for his contributions to Indian cinema's golden era.
  • Lata Mangeshkar (1989): The "Nightingale of India," famous for her unparalleled contribution to Indian music.
  • Yash Chopra (2001): Legendary filmmaker known for romantic hits like Dil To Pagal Hai and Veer-Zaara.
  • Rajinikanth (2019): Superstar of Tamil cinema with a massive fan following across India and overseas.
  • Important Points:
  • The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting oversees the selection process for the Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
  • The award honors individuals who have made a lasting impact on Indian cinema and its global recognition.
  • It is not limited to actors and directors but also includes individuals from other film-related fields like cinematography, music, and screenwriting.
  • The recognition serves as a testament to the recipient's lifelong dedication to the Indian film industry.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1657

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following was the first Indian female doctor of western medicine?

  1. AOption (a)

    EK Janaki Ammal

  2. BOption (b)

    Rupa Bai Furdoonji

  3. COption (c)

    Mary Poonen Lukose

  4. DOption (d)

    Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi.

Key Points

  • Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi was the first Indian female doctor to practice western medicine. She earned her medical degree at the age of 19.
  • She graduated from the Woman's Medical College of Pennsylvania (now part of Drexel University College of Medicine) in 1886.
  • Anandibai was born in Kalyan, Maharashtra, in 1865. She faced significant societal opposition due to her decision to study medicine abroad.
  • Her enrollment in medical school was largely inspired by a personal tragedy—the death of her child due to inadequate medical care, which motivated her to become a doctor.
  • Despite her early demise at the age of 21 due to tuberculosis, Anandibai remains a pioneer who broke societal norms and paved the way for women in India to enter the medical field.

Additional Information

  • EK Janaki Ammal:
  • She was an Indian botanist and geneticist, known for her contributions to cytogenetics and plant breeding.
  • She became the first Indian woman to receive a doctorate in botany.
  • She contributed to the development of hybrid sugarcane varieties and worked extensively in London and India.
  • Rupa Bai Furdoonji:
  • She is recognized as the first female anesthesiologist in the world.
  • She graduated from the Madras Medical College in the 19th century and contributed to the field of anesthesiology.
  • Her achievements in the field of medicine were crucial in creating awareness about anesthesiology in India.
  • Mary Poonen Lukose:
  • Mary Poonen Lukose was the first woman surgeon general in India.
  • She graduated in medicine from England and returned to India to contribute to public health and medical services.
  • She played a significant role in modernizing healthcare services in Kerala.
  • Anandibai Gopalrao Joshi:
  • Anandibai was among the first Indian women to earn a degree in western medicine, breaking barriers for future generations.
  • Her journey was marked by perseverance and dedication, despite severe societal resistance.
  • Her graduation was celebrated as a remarkable achievement, not just for herself but for Indian women as a whole.

Important Points

  • Historical Context: Anandibai's achievements were groundbreaking during the late 19th century, a time when women's education in India was rare.
  • Recognition: She received appreciation letters from Queen Victoria and other notable figures for her determination.
  • Legacy: Anandibai's legacy inspires generations of women to pursue careers in medicine and other fields traditionally dominated by men.
  • Challenges: Her story reflects the social barriers faced by women in India during colonial rule, highlighting the importance of education and perseverance.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1658

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who has been appointed as the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for FY 2025-26?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sanjiv Puri

  2. BOption (b)

    R Mukundan

  3. COption (c)

    Rajiv Memani

  4. DOption (d)

    T. Rabi Sankar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rajiv Memani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajiv Memani.

Key Points

  • Rajiv Memani has been appointed as the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for the financial year 2025-26.
  • The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is a premier business association in India, working to create and sustain a conducive environment for India's development by partnering with industry, government, and civil society.
  • Rajiv Memani is the Chairman and Regional Managing Partner of Ernst & Young (EY), a leading global consulting firm. He is highly regarded for his expertise in business strategy and regulatory affairs.
  • As the newly appointed CII President, Rajiv Memani will focus on driving initiatives that promote industrial growth, innovation, and sustainability in India's business ecosystem.
  • The appointment was announced during a formal session of the CII, aligning with its tradition of leadership rotation among prominent industry leaders.

Additional Information

  • Confederation of Indian Industry (CII):
  • The CII was founded in 1895, making it one of India's oldest and most influential industry associations.
  • It works closely with the Government of India to shape policies and advocate for the interests of the industrial sector.
  • The organization represents over 9,000 members, including large corporations, SMEs, and MNCs, from various sectors.
  • CII plays a key role in fostering partnerships, promoting trade, and advancing India's global competitiveness.
  • Rajiv Memani's Background:
  • Rajiv Memani has extensive experience in consulting and advisory services, particularly in areas such as taxation, regulatory compliance, and business transformation.
  • He has been instrumental in driving strategic growth at Ernst & Young (EY) and is recognized for his leadership in the professional services sector.
  • He actively contributes to policy advocacy and has served on several government committees related to economic reforms and trade.
  • Initiatives by CII:
  • CII focuses on areas such as Make in India, Ease of Doing Business, sustainability, and innovation.
  • It organizes events, conferences, and trade expos to connect businesses with opportunities both domestically and internationally.
  • Recent CII initiatives include promoting green technologies, encouraging investment in renewable energy, and supporting start-up ecosystems.
  • Other Leadership Roles at CII:
  • Each year, the CII appoints a new President, Vice President, and Deputy President to ensure fresh perspectives and dynamic leadership.
  • Prominent industry leaders such as Sanjiv Bajaj and Uday Kotak have previously served as CII Presidents.

Important Points

  • About Ernst & Young (EY):
  • EY is one of the Big Four accounting firms, offering services in audit, tax, advisory, and consulting.
  • It operates in over 150 countries and employs more than 300,000 professionals globally.
  • Under Rajiv Memani's leadership, EY India has expanded its footprint and diversified its service offerings.
  • Key Objectives of CII:
  • To promote economic growth and ensure that industries contribute effectively to India's development.
  • To facilitate public-private partnerships (PPP) in critical areas such as infrastructure, education, and healthcare.
  • To advocate for policy reforms that enhance business competitiveness and simplify regulatory frameworks.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1659

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In July 2024, Om Prakash Mathur has been appointed as Governor of ____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikkim

  3. COption (c)

    Tripura

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagaland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sikkim

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

  • In July 2024, Om Prakash Mathur, a senior politician and member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), was appointed as the Governor of Sikkim. This appointment reflects his significant contributions to Indian politics and public administration.
  • The position of a Governor in India is constitutionally significant and is appointed by the President of India under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Sikkim, a northeastern state in India, is strategically located and shares international borders with China, Bhutan, and Nepal. The role of the Governor in such states is crucial for maintaining administrative efficiency and security.
  • Om Prakash Mathur has had an extensive career in politics, serving in various capacities within the BJP and contributing to the development of the party, particularly in Rajasthan, his home state.
  • The appointment of Governors is often based on political and administrative experience. It is a standard practice for the central government to appoint individuals with a proven track record of service and governance.

Additional Information

  • Role of a Governor:
  • The Governor serves as the constitutional head of the state, with the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers serving as the executive authority.
  • The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers but also has certain discretionary powers, especially in special circumstances like hung assemblies or constitutional crises.
  • The Governor plays a key role in legislative processes, such as giving assent to bills, summoning or dissolving the state legislature, and recommending President's rule under Article 356 of the Constitution.
  • Sikkim:
  • Sikkim became the 22nd state of India in 1975 through a constitutional amendment. It has a population of approximately 6.7 lakh (as per Census 2011).
  • The state's economy is primarily based on agriculture, tourism, and hydroelectric power. It is also known for its organic farming practices.
  • Geographically, it is located in the Himalayan range, making it ecologically and strategically significant.
  • Om Prakash Mathur:
  • Om Prakash Mathur is a senior BJP leader from Rajasthan. He has previously served as a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha.
  • He is known for his expertise in organizational management and political strategy, contributing to the expansion of the BJP in various regions.
  • His deep understanding of governance and public policy makes him a suitable choice for the role of Governor.
  • Appointment of Governors:
  • The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years, but they can continue in office at the pleasure of the President.
  • The Governor's appointment often reflects a balance of administrative expertise, political considerations, and regional representation.

Important Points

  • Constitutional Provisions:
  • Article 153: Provides for a Governor in each state.
  • Article 155: The Governor is appointed by the President of India.
  • Article 156: Specifies the term of office and conditions for removal of a Governor.
  • Governors in Northeastern States:
  • The role of Governors in states like Sikkim is crucial due to their geopolitical significance and proximity to international borders.
  • Governors often act as a bridge between the central government and the state government in these regions.
SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1660

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In June 2025, EPFO's revised his auto-settlement limit. This limit is now

Rs. ____ lakh.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 5 lakh.

Key Points

  • EPFO (Employees' Provident Fund Organisation) revised its auto-settlement limit in June 2025 to Rs. 5 lakh, enhancing the scope of automated claim settlement processes for its members.
  • The auto-settlement mechanism is a system introduced to provide faster and more efficient claim processing, ensuring timely disbursal of funds to beneficiaries without manual intervention.
  • This decision aligns with the EPFO’s goal of leveraging technology to simplify the claims process and reduce delays for its members.
  • The limit was raised from previous thresholds to Rs. 5 lakh, ensuring a larger number of claims are covered under the automatic system, benefiting employees and retirees.
  • The enhancement of this limit is expected to significantly improve the service delivery efficiency, reduce the workload of the EPFO staff, and improve customer satisfaction.

Additional Information

  • EPFO Overview:
  • The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India, established in 1952.
  • EPFO manages the provident fund (PF), pension, and insurance schemes for employees in India.
  • It ensures social security for employees by providing retirement benefits and financial aid during unemployment or emergencies.
  • What is Auto-Settlement?
  • The auto-settlement process in EPFO refers to the automated processing of claims, where eligible claims are settled without manual intervention.
  • This mechanism is designed to minimize errors, reduce processing time, and provide better services to EPFO members.
  • Claims such as partial withdrawals, pension benefits, and final settlement are processed through this system.
  • With the revised limit of Rs. 5 lakh, more claims will be processed automatically, offering faster access to funds for employees.
  • Importance of EPFO’s Auto-Settlement Process:
  • It minimizes manual errors, ensuring accurate and timely disbursal of funds.
  • Automated claims reduce the workload on EPFO staff, allowing them to focus on more complex issues and cases.
  • It enhances the transparency and efficiency of the overall claims process.
  • Beneficiaries can access their entitled funds quickly, especially during emergencies.
  • Other Measures by EPFO:
  • EPFO has been actively working on digitizing its services, offering facilities like online claim submissions, e-nomination, and UMANG App for members to access services seamlessly.
  • It also provides services like passbook access, UAN activation, and grievance redressal through online platforms.

Important Points

  • Eligibility for EPFO Membership:
  • All organizations with 20 or more employees are required to register with EPFO.
  • Employees drawing a monthly salary of up to Rs. 15,000 are eligible for mandatory EPF contributions.
  • EPFO Schemes:
  • Employees' Provident Fund Scheme (EPFS), 1952: Provides retirement benefits to employees.
  • Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI), 1976: Provides life insurance benefits to employees.
  • Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995: Provides pension to employees after retirement.
  • EPFO Initiatives:
  • Introduction of UMANG App for accessing EPFO services online.
  • Implementation of a Universal Account Number (UAN) for portability and ease of access.
  • Digitalization of services to enhance transparency and efficiency.
  • Regularly increasing the auto-settlement limits to improve service delivery and reduce delays.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.