General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 1970.

Key Points

• Operation Flood was launched in 1970 by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) of India.
• It is considered one of the largest initiatives aimed at increasing milk production and making India the largest producer of milk globally.
• The program was spearheaded by Dr. Verghese Kurien, known as the "Father of the White Revolution" in India.
• It involved the creation of a nationwide milk grid, which connected rural milk producers with urban markets to ensure a consistent supply of milk and dairy products.
• Operation Flood played a vital role in transforming India from a milk-deficient country to a self-sufficient and leading exporter of dairy products.

Additional Information

• Phases of Operation Flood:
• Phase I (1970–1980): Focused on developing milk production and creating milk sheds. It was funded by the World Bank and involved setting up milk collection centers.
• Phase II (1981–1985): Expanded the milk grid to cover a larger area and introduced modern dairy practices. It emphasized the establishment of dairy cooperatives.
• Phase III (1985–1996): Strengthened dairy infrastructure and increased milk production to meet growing demand.
• Key Objectives of Operation Flood:
• Increase milk production to meet domestic demand.
• Provide fair prices to milk producers, especially small-scale farmers.
• Ensure availability of milk and dairy products at affordable prices for consumers.
• Reduce reliance on imports and make India self-sufficient in dairy production.
• Impact of Operation Flood:
• India became the world's largest producer of milk by the 1990s.
• Significant improvement in rural incomes and livelihoods through dairy cooperatives.
• Enhanced nutritional standards in the country due to increased milk availability.
• Boosted the rural economy and empowered women involved in dairy farming.
• Role of NDDB:
• The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was established in 1965 to promote, plan, and organize dairy development programs.
• NDDB was instrumental in implementing Operation Flood and ensuring its success.
• The board provided technical expertise, funding, and guidance to dairy cooperatives across India.

Important Points

• Dr. Verghese Kurien:
• He was a visionary leader who revolutionized India's dairy industry.
• Known as the "Father of the White Revolution", he was awarded several honors, including the Padma Vibhushan and the World Food Prize.
• He was instrumental in setting up the Anand Milk Union Limited (AMUL), which became a symbol of India's dairy success.
• Milk Cooperatives:
• Operation Flood established thousands of milk cooperatives across India.
• These cooperatives provided a platform for small and marginal farmers to sell their milk collectively.
• They empowered farmers by eliminating middlemen and ensuring fair prices.
• Global Recognition:
• Operation Flood is considered one of the most successful development programs globally.
• It transformed India's dairy sector and provided a model for other developing nations.

The correct answer is Only the payment to factors of production.

Key Points

• Factor Cost refers to the total cost of production, which includes payments made to the factors of production such as land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship.
• It is calculated as the sum of all factor payments like wages, rent, interest, and profits, excluding any taxes or subsidies imposed by the government.
• Production taxes and product taxes are not included in the calculation of factor cost. Instead, they are included in market price calculations. Hence, options referring to taxes are incorrect.
• Factor cost is a measure of the cost incurred by producers in producing goods and services and does not consider tax-related influences, making it a more accurate measure of production cost.
• The correct answer is based on the distinction between factor cost and market price, where factor cost includes only the remuneration to production factors.

Additional Information

• Difference between Factor Cost and Market Price:
• Factor Cost: Includes only payments to factors of production (wages, rent, interest, and profit) and excludes taxes/subsidies.
• Market Price: The price at which goods are sold in the market, including taxes and subsidies.
• The relationship can be expressed as:

Market Price = Factor Cost + Product Taxes - Product Subsidies

• Types of Taxes:
• Production Taxes: Imposed on the production process (e.g., excise duty).
• Product Taxes: Levied on the sale of goods and services (e.g., GST, VAT).
• GDP at Factor Cost:
• It measures the value of goods and services produced within a country based on the cost of production (factor cost).
• It excludes the influence of taxes and subsidies, providing a clearer picture of production efficiency.
• Importance of Factor Cost in Economic Analysis:
• Used to evaluate production efficiency and resource utilization in an economy.
• Helps policymakers understand the true cost of production without distortions caused by taxes and subsidies.

Important Points

• Concept of National Income:
• National Income is often measured in terms of GDP, GNP, NDP, and NNP at factor cost or market prices.
• GDP at Factor Cost is a key metric for understanding an economy’s production capabilities.
• Factor Payments:
• These include wages for labor, rent for land, interest for capital, and profit for entrepreneurship.
• Such payments are the foundation of calculating factor cost.
• Exclusion of Taxes in Factor Cost:
• Taxes like GST and VAT are considered external influences and are not part of production costs at the factor level.
• Subsidies, which reduce the cost burden on producers, are also excluded from factor cost calculations.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Vessels are a key component of the xylem tissue in vascular plants. They are specialized cells responsible for transporting water and nutrients from the roots to other parts of the plant.
• Phloem tissue does not contain vessels; instead, it contains sieve tubes and companion cells, which are responsible for transporting food (mainly sugars) produced during photosynthesis.
• Xylem vessels are elongated tubular structures that form a continuous network, facilitating efficient water conduction. They are dead at maturity and lack cytoplasm, allowing unimpeded water flow.
• Vessels are unique to angiosperms, although some gymnosperms and pteridophytes have tracheids instead of vessels for water conduction.
• Hence, vessels are part of xylem tissue only. Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Xylem Tissue:
• It is a vascular tissue responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals in plants.
• Xylem consists of four types of cells: vessels, tracheids, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers.
• Vessels are more efficient in water conduction compared to tracheids due to their larger diameter and interconnected structure.
• Phloem Tissue:
• Phloem is a vascular tissue involved in the transport of organic nutrients, primarily sucrose, from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
• Its components include sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma, and phloem fibers.
• Unlike xylem, phloem cells are living, with sieve tube elements lacking a nucleus but relying on companion cells for their functions.
• Comparison between Xylem and Phloem:
• Direction of transport: Xylem transports water and minerals upward (roots to shoots), while phloem transports food in multiple directions.
• Cell types: Xylem contains vessels and tracheids (dead at maturity), whereas phloem contains sieve tubes and companion cells (living).
• Functional role: Xylem provides mechanical support to the plant, while phloem is involved in nutrient distribution.
• Vessels vs. Tracheids:
• Vessels are wide, cylindrical cells with open ends, forming continuous tubes, while tracheids are narrow, elongated cells with tapered ends.
• Vessels are more efficient in water conduction, whereas tracheids provide better mechanical support.
• Tracheids are found in both angiosperms and gymnosperms, but vessels are predominantly found in angiosperms.

Important Points

• Development of vessels: During their development, vessel elements lose their cytoplasm and organelles, becoming hollow and dead, which optimizes water transport.
• Structure of vessels: Vessel walls are thickened with lignin, a substance that provides structural support and prevents collapse under water pressure.
• Role in plant growth: Efficient water conduction by vessels is crucial for maintaining turgor pressure, which supports plant growth and stability.
• Study of vascular tissues: The study of xylem and phloem is a fundamental aspect of botany and contributes to understanding plant physiology and adaptations.

The correct answer is The tendril circles around the object and clings to it.

Key Points

• Tendrils are specialized plant structures that help plants climb and support themselves by attaching to nearby objects, such as a trellis or neighboring plants.
• When a tendril comes in contact with an object, cells on the side touching the object grow slower, while cells on the opposite side elongate faster. This uneven growth causes the tendril to curl around the object.
• This process is a type of growth movement in response to touch, known as thigmotropism. It enables plants to maximize sunlight exposure by climbing toward light sources.
• The coiling around the object strengthens the plant's anchorage and prevents the tendril from falling off, ensuring stability.
• Examples of plants with tendrils include pea plants (Pisum sativum), grapevines (Vitis vinifera), and cucumber plants (Cucumis sativus).

Additional Information

• Thigmotropism:
• It is a plant's directional growth response to touch or physical contact with a solid object.
• In tendrils, this response is facilitated by differential growth rates in cells on opposite sides of the tendril.
• Other examples of thigmotropism include the coiling of climbing plants such as ivy and the folding of leaves in Mimosa pudica when touched.
• Types of Tropisms:
• Phototropism: Growth movement in response to light (e.g., sunflower turning toward sunlight).
• Geotropism: Growth movement in response to gravity (e.g., roots growing downward).
• Hydrotropism: Growth movement in response to water (e.g., roots growing toward water sources).
• Thigmotropism: Growth in response to touch (e.g., tendrils coiling around objects).
• Functions of Tendrils:
• Provide structural support to weak-stemmed plants.
• Help plants climb and reach sunlight for photosynthesis.
• Reduce the risk of being overshadowed by competing vegetation.
• Examples of Tendril-Bearing Plants:
• Pea plant (Pisum sativum): Has leaf tendrils to support climbing.
• Grapevine (Vitis vinifera): Uses tendrils for attachment and climbing.
• Passionflower (Passiflora): Features tendrils for structural support.

Important Points

• Key Characteristics of Tendrils:
• Tendrils may originate from leaves, leaflets, or stems depending on the plant species.
• They are highly sensitive to touch, allowing them to detect and respond to nearby objects.
• Once coiled, tendrils develop lignin to strengthen their structure and hold the plant securely.
• Scientific Explanation:
• The coiling is driven by differential auxin distribution. Auxin, a plant hormone, accumulates on the side away from the contact point, promoting cell elongation and causing curvature.
• Other hormones like ethylene may also play a role in regulating thigmotropic responses.

The correct answer is Kadambari.

Key Points

• Kadambari is a renowned Sanskrit prose romance written by Banabhatta, a celebrated writer in the court of King Harsha.
• Banabhatta was an eminent 7^th-century Sanskrit scholar and poet during the reign of Harsha (606–647 CE), a ruler of the Vardhana dynasty.
• The Kadambari is considered one of the most significant works of prose in classical Sanskrit literature. It is appreciated for its intricate storyline, rich vocabulary, and poetic descriptions.
• The narrative revolves around themes of love, reincarnation, and destiny, intricately weaving multiple subplots and characters into the main story.
• The novel was incomplete at the time of Banabhatta's death and was later completed by his son, Bhushanabhatta.

Additional Information

• Dhatupatha:
• The Dhatupatha is a compilation of verb roots in Sanskrit and is attributed to Panini, the ancient Indian grammarian who wrote the foundational text on Sanskrit grammar, the Ashtadhyayi.
• It is not related to Banabhatta but is an essential text for studying Sanskrit grammar and linguistics.
• Ritusamhara:
• The Ritusamhara is a Sanskrit poem attributed to Kalidasa, one of the greatest poets and dramatists in classical Sanskrit literature.
• It vividly describes the six Indian seasons (spring, summer, monsoon, autumn, early winter, and winter) with poetic beauty and imagery.
• Raghuvamsha:
• Raghuvamsha is another masterpiece by Kalidasa. It is an epic poem that narrates the lineage of the Raghu dynasty, which includes the legendary king Rama.
• It is an outstanding example of Sanskrit kavya (poetry) and is highly esteemed for its literary and historical significance.
• Kadambari:
• Kadambari is often regarded as one of the first novels in world literature. Its influence is seen in later Sanskrit and regional Indian literature.
• The work is noted for its elaborate descriptions, ornate language, and philosophical undertones, highlighting the cultural and intellectual milieu of ancient India.

Important Points

• Banabhatta’s Contributions:
• Besides Kadambari, Banabhatta also wrote the Harshacharita, a biography of King Harsha, which is considered the first historical prose in Sanskrit literature.
• His works are celebrated for their eloquent prose, rich imagination, and detailed portrayal of Indian society during the 7^th century.
• Influence of Kadambari:
• The narrative style and storytelling techniques of Kadambari influenced many later works of fiction in India and beyond.
• It remains a classic text that is studied and admired for its literary and cultural significance.

The correct answer is Genghis Khan.

Key Points

• The Mughals were descendants of Genghis Khan through their maternal lineage. Genghis Khan, the founder of the Mongol Empire, is regarded as one of the most powerful rulers in history.
• The Mughal dynasty's founder, Babur, traced his lineage from Genghis Khan through his mother, Qutlugh Nigar Khanum, who was a descendant of the Mongol ruler.
• Although the Mughals were descended from Genghis Khan, they distanced themselves from this ancestry because Genghis Khan was associated with the devastation of Islamic lands.
• On their paternal side, the Mughals were descendants of Timur, a Turco-Mongol conqueror who established the Timurid dynasty. Thus, the Mughals combined both Mongol and Timurid heritage.
• The Mughal emperors often emphasized their Timurid lineage over their Mongol heritage to gain greater legitimacy among their predominantly Muslim subjects in India.

Additional Information

• Genghis Khan:
• Genghis Khan (1162–1227) was the founder of the Mongol Empire, which became the largest contiguous empire in history.
• He united the Mongol tribes and initiated a series of military campaigns that led to the conquest of vast territories across Asia and Europe.
• His empire stretched from the Pacific Ocean in the east to Eastern Europe in the west, including parts of China, Central Asia, and the Middle East.
• Though known for his military conquests, Genghis Khan also promoted trade, cultural exchange, and administrative reforms within his empire.
• The Mughal Dynasty:
• The Mughal dynasty was established in India in 1526 by Babur, who defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat.
• The Mughals ruled India for over three centuries, leaving a profound impact on Indian culture, architecture, and governance.
• They were known for their contributions to art and architecture, including the construction of the Taj Mahal, the Red Fort, and Fatehpur Sikri.
• The Mughal Empire reached its zenith during the reign of Akbar, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb, but declined in the 18^th century.
• Timur:
• Timur (1336–1405), also known as Tamerlane, was a Turco-Mongol conqueror and the founder of the Timurid Empire in Central Asia.
• He claimed descent from Genghis Khan on his maternal side and sought to revive the Mongol Empire's legacy.
• Timur's military campaigns extended across Persia, India, Russia, and the Middle East, making him one of history's most formidable conquerors.
• He is also remembered for his patronage of arts and architecture, which influenced the Mughal style in India.
• Other Options:
• Muhammad bin Qasim: An Arab general who led the Islamic conquest of Sindh in 712 CE, but he had no direct connection to the Mughal lineage.
• Sabuktigin: The founder of the Ghaznavid dynasty in the 10^th century, but he was not related to the Mughals.

Important Points

• Mughal Lineage: The Mughals emphasized their Timurid ancestry to gain legitimacy among their Muslim subjects, as Timur was a celebrated Islamic ruler.
• Mongol Legacy: Despite their Mongol lineage through Genghis Khan, the Mughals avoided highlighting this aspect due to the destruction associated with the Mongol invasions of Islamic lands.
• Impact on India: The Mughals' unique blend of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian cultures created a rich cultural legacy that continues to influence Indian society today.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Virashaiva movement, also known as the Lingayat movement, originated in the state of Karnataka during the mid-twelfth century.
• This movement was spearheaded by Basavanna, a philosopher, poet, and statesman, who served as the Prime Minister of the Kalachuri Kingdom.
• The movement emphasized monotheism and rejected the caste system, idol worship, and ritualistic practices, advocating for social equality and spiritual devotion to Lord Shiva.
• Virashaivism or Lingayatism gained significant traction among the common people, especially the lower castes, due to its focus on egalitarian principles.
• The followers of this movement, called Lingayats, carry a small Shiva Linga encased in a pendant, symbolizing their devotion to Lord Shiva.

Additional Information

• Basavanna and His Teachings:
• Basavanna was the founder of the Virashaiva movement. He is celebrated for his Vachanas (verses), which propagate a direct connection with God without the need for intermediaries like priests.
• He advocated for the formation of a society based on equality, rejecting the rigid caste-based hierarchy.
• Basavanna’s teachings laid the foundation for social reform in medieval India.
• Philosophy of Virashaivism:
• Virashaivism is monotheistic, focusing on the worship of Lord Shiva.
• It emphasizes simple living, ethical conduct, and devotion over ritualistic practices.
• The movement rejects the authority of the Vedas, caste discrimination, and idol worship.
• Spread of the Movement:
• Initially concentrated in Karnataka, the movement later spread to other parts of South India, including Maharashtra and Telangana.
• The Lingayat community became a significant socio-political force in southern India.
• Legacy of the Virashaiva Movement:
• The movement has had a lasting influence on the socio-religious structure of Karnataka and neighboring regions.
• Modern-day Lingayats continue to be a major community in Karnataka, influencing its culture, politics, and economy.

Important Points

• Other Movements of the Period:
• The Bhakti Movement, which flourished during the same time, shared similarities with the Virashaiva movement, such as its rejection of caste and ritualism.
• Other prominent leaders of the Bhakti Movement included Ramananda, Kabir, and Mirabai, though their philosophies varied from that of the Lingayats.
• Modern Recognition:
• In recent years, there has been a movement to recognize the Lingayats as a separate religion, distinct from mainstream Hinduism.
• The Karnataka government, in 2018, recommended the Lingayat community be granted minority religion status.

The correct answer is To safeguard public property.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976. These duties are meant to promote a sense of responsibility and discipline among citizens.
• The duty “To safeguard public property” is explicitly mentioned under the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution. It emphasizes citizens' role in protecting and conserving public infrastructure and national assets.
• The Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Soviet Constitution and aim to inculcate civic and moral values in Indian citizens.
• Examples of safeguarding public property include protecting historical monuments, public transportation, government buildings, and preventing vandalism or misuse.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are non-enforceable by law but are crucial for the nation's collective welfare and ethical governance.

Additional Information

• Article 51A and Fundamental Duties:
• Article 51A lists 11 Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens. These were introduced through the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
• Some of the Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, protecting the environment, and safeguarding public property.
• The 86^th Amendment Act, 2002 added the duty for parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to children aged 6-14 years.
• Historical Context:
• The idea of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the USSR (Soviet Union) and other socialist countries.
• They were introduced during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to counteract the growing indiscipline and foster a sense of responsibility among citizens.
• Legal Framework:
• Though Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, laws can be enacted to enforce them indirectly. For instance, laws against vandalism protect public property.
• Some Fundamental Duties have been linked to legal provisions such as the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, which aligns with the duty to protect the natural environment.
• Comparison with Fundamental Rights:
• While Fundamental Rights grant privileges and freedoms to citizens, Fundamental Duties emphasize moral obligations.
• Rights and Duties are interconnected, as enjoying rights comes with the responsibility to perform duties for the welfare of society.

Important Points

• Fundamental Duties in Detail:
• There are a total of 11 Fundamental Duties, which include respecting national symbols, promoting harmony, and protecting the environment.
• The duty to safeguard public property ensures the integrity and functionality of assets vital to public welfare.
• Examples of Safeguarding Public Property:
• Participating in campaigns against vandalism.
• Ensuring responsible use of public transport and facilities.
• Encouraging awareness about the importance of conserving national heritage sites.
• Significance of Fundamental Duties:
• They act as a moral compass for citizens, promoting national unity and responsibility.
• They complement Fundamental Rights by instilling a sense of accountability towards the nation.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.
• Statement I: The Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court (Article 37). This means that no individual can approach the judiciary to enforce these principles, as they are not justiciable. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Statement II: The Constitution explicitly states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws (Article 37). The DPSPs act as guidelines for the state to promote social and economic welfare. Hence, this statement is also correct.
• The DPSPs aim to establish a welfare state by addressing areas such as economic justice, social equality, health, education, and more.
• Although non-justiciable, these principles hold significant moral and political importance and have influenced the formulation of laws in India.

Additional Information

• Categories of DPSPs:
• Socialist Principles: Aim at providing socio-economic justice (e.g., Article 39 - equal pay for equal work).
• Gandhian Principles: Reflect Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals (e.g., Article 48 - organization of agriculture and animal husbandry).
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles: Ensure individual rights and international peace (e.g., Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code).
• Purpose: The DPSPs were borrowed from the Irish Constitution and aim to guide the state in establishing a just society.
• Important Examples:
• Article 39A: Provides for free legal aid to ensure justice for all.
• Article 41: Right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.
• Article 47: Duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living.
• Impact: Several laws have been enacted to fulfill DPSPs, such as the Right to Education Act (2009) and National Food Security Act (2013).

Important Points

• Difference Between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs:
• Fundamental Rights: Justiciable and enforceable by courts (e.g., Right to Equality).
• DPSPs: Non-justiciable but act as guiding principles for the state.
• Landmark Cases:
• Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973): Established the principle of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs.
• Minerva Mills Case (1980): Declared that the implementation of DPSPs should not override Fundamental Rights.
• Significance: DPSPs provide a framework for achieving socio-economic democracy and act as a measure for evaluating government performance.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is a regional intergovernmental organization founded on 8^th December 1985, in Dhaka, Bangladesh. Its primary aim is to promote economic and regional integration in South Asia.
• The member countries of SAARC include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Pakistan and Nepal are both members of SAARC as of 31^st July 2025. Hence, both statements are correct.
• Pakistan has been a founding member of SAARC since its establishment in 1985. It actively participates in SAARC initiatives despite occasional tensions with other member countries, particularly India.
• Nepal also holds a significant position in SAARC as the headquarters of SAARC is located in Kathmandu, Nepal. Nepal has actively contributed to SAARC’s objectives and hosted summits, including the 18^th SAARC Summit in 2014.
• SAARC focuses on areas such as economic cooperation, agriculture, rural development, education, health, and technology. All member countries work collaboratively toward regional integration.

Additional Information

• SAARC Objectives:
• To promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and improve their quality of life.
• To accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region.
• To strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia.
• To contribute to mutual trust, understanding, and appreciation of one another's problems.
• SAARC Summits:
• The summits are held biennially, and the member countries take turns hosting them.
• The last SAARC summit (20^th) was scheduled in Pakistan but postponed due to political tensions among member countries.
• Major achievements of SAARC include agreements on trade, environment, energy, and combating terrorism.
• SAARC Headquarters:
• The SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu, Nepal, and coordinates the activities of the association.
• It was established on 16^th January 1987, and the Secretary-General is appointed from member countries for a three-year term.
• Challenges faced by SAARC:
• Political tensions between member countries, especially India and Pakistan, have hindered regional cooperation.
• Unequal economic development among members creates disparities in contribution and benefits.
• Limited financial resources and inadequate enforcement mechanisms restrict the implementation of agreements.
• Significance of Nepal and Pakistan in SAARC:
• Nepal: As the host of the SAARC Secretariat, Nepal plays a pivotal role in facilitating discussions and implementing initiatives.
• Pakistan: As one of the founding members, Pakistan contributes to regional stability and economic cooperation, despite political disagreements.

Important Points

• SAARC Regional Centers:
• SAARC has established regional centers to promote specific areas of cooperation, such as the SAARC Agriculture Centre (Bangladesh) and SAARC Cultural Centre (Sri Lanka).
• These centers focus on research, policy development, and capacity-building in their respective domains.
• SAFTA:
• The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement was signed in 2004 to promote trade and economic cooperation among member countries.
• SAFTA aims to reduce tariffs and eliminate trade barriers within the region.
• SAARC Development Fund (SDF):
• Established in 2005, SDF provides funding for development projects in areas like health, education, and energy.
• The fund is headquartered in Thimphu, Bhutan.

The correct answer is Karnam Malleswari.

Key Points

• Karnam Malleswari is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal. She achieved this historic feat during the 2000 Sydney Olympics.
• She won the bronze medal in the sport of weightlifting, competing in the 69 kg category.
• Her achievement marked a significant milestone for Indian sports, especially for women athletes, and inspired many young women to pursue sports in India.
• Born on 1 June 1975 in Andhra Pradesh, Karnam Malleswari started her weightlifting career at a young age and trained rigorously to reach the international level.
• She has also been honored with prestigious awards like the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 1995 and the Padma Shri in 1999 for her contributions to Indian sports.

Additional Information

• Mary Kom:
• Mary Kom is a renowned Indian boxer who has won multiple world championships and an Olympic bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics.
• She is a six-time world champion and widely regarded as one of the greatest boxers in the world.
• She belongs to Manipur and has been a strong advocate for women’s participation in sports.
• Saina Nehwal:
• Saina Nehwal is an Indian badminton player who won a bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics.
• She was the first Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal.
• Born in Haryana, she has won multiple international titles and inspired the growth of badminton in India.
• P.V. Sindhu:
• P.V. Sindhu is an Indian badminton player who won a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• She is one of the most successful Indian athletes in badminton and has won several world championships.
• Sindhu hails from Andhra Pradesh and is a role model for aspiring athletes in India.
• Significance of Olympic Achievements:
• The achievements of athletes like Karnam Malleswari, Mary Kom, Saina Nehwal, and P.V. Sindhu have played a crucial role in encouraging young Indian women to participate in sports.
• These milestones have also highlighted the need for better infrastructure and support for women in sports in India.
• The success of these athletes has brought international recognition to Indian sports.

Important Points

• Historical Context: Karnam Malleswari’s bronze medal in the 2000 Sydney Olympics was a turning point for Indian sports, as it was the first Olympic medal won by an Indian woman.
• Recognition and Awards: Her achievements earned her prestigious awards like the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna and Padma Shri, recognizing her contribution to Indian sports.
• Inspiration: Karnam Malleswari’s success inspired a generation of Indian women athletes and increased awareness about women’s sports in India.
• Legacy: Her achievement remains a landmark event in the history of Indian sports, emphasizing the potential of Indian women in the global sports arena.

The correct answer is Guyana.

Key Points

• In July 2025, the South American nation Guyana conferred its highest civilian honor, "Officer of the Order of the Star", to Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• This prestigious award was bestowed in recognition of PM Modi’s contributions towards fostering stronger diplomatic relations between India and Guyana.
• Guyana acknowledged the efforts of India under PM Modi's leadership in areas such as education, healthcare, renewable energy, and infrastructural development, which significantly benefited Guyana.
• The "Order of the Star" is Guyana's highest civilian award and symbolizes the nation's appreciation of global leaders who have positively impacted Guyana's development and international standing.
• PM Modi's leadership in promoting South-South cooperation and addressing global challenges also played a key role in earning this honor.

Additional Information

• Guyana:
• Guyana is located in South America and is bordered by Venezuela, Brazil, and Suriname.
• It is a former British colony and gained independence in 1966. It is a member of the Commonwealth.
• The capital of Guyana is Georgetown, and the nation is known for its multicultural heritage and diverse population, including Indo-Guyanese.
• Guyana is rich in natural resources, particularly oil, gold, and bauxite, which contribute significantly to its economy.
• The country has strong historical ties with India, especially due to the presence of a large Indian diaspora.
• International Recognition of PM Narendra Modi:
• PM Modi has received several international awards, including the United Nations Champions of the Earth Award (2018) and the Legion of Merit from the USA.
• He has been recognized globally for his leadership in promoting renewable energy, sustainable development, and international cooperation.
• PM Modi’s initiatives, such as the International Solar Alliance, have been lauded for addressing climate change and fostering global partnerships.
• His efforts in strengthening India’s bilateral relations with countries across continents have earned him various honors.
• South-South Cooperation:
• South-South cooperation refers to the exchange of resources, knowledge, and technology between developing nations in the Global South.
• India has played a significant role in promoting South-South cooperation, especially with nations in Africa, the Caribbean, and South America.
• India’s initiatives in areas like capacity building, education, and technology sharing have strengthened ties with partner countries.
• Guyana has been a key beneficiary of India’s support in sectors such as healthcare, energy, and education.
• Important Awards Conferred to Global Leaders:
• Countries often confer civilian honors to international leaders to recognize their contributions to diplomacy and global development.
• Such awards serve as a symbol of appreciation for fostering bilateral or multilateral partnerships.
• Examples include the Order of Zayed awarded by the UAE and the King Abdulaziz Sash awarded by Saudi Arabia.
• PM Modi’s receipt of the "Officer of the Order of the Star" highlights India’s growing global influence under his leadership.

The correct answer is Anusuiya Uikey.

Key Points

• Anusuiya Uikey was appointed as the Governor of Odisha in December 2024.
• She has previously served as the Governor of Chhattisgarh, a position she held from July 2019 to December 2024.
• The appointment of a Governor is done by the President of India under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
• The role of the Governor is largely ceremonial, but they act as a link between the State Government and the Union Government.
• Anusuiya Uikey is a senior political leader and has been associated with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Her experience in governance makes her a notable choice for this position.

Additional Information

• Governor's Appointment Process:
• The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India, as per Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor serves at the pleasure of the President, as mentioned in Article 156. There is no fixed term, but typically, it is for 5 years.
• The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers of the state headed by the Chief Minister.
• Responsibilities of the Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and exercises powers as per the Constitution of India.
• They have legislative powers, including the ability to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
• They also have the power to give assent to bills, withhold assent, or reserve the bill for the President's consideration.
• The Governor oversees the implementation of central schemes in the state and ensures they align with national objectives.
• Notable Facts about Anusuiya Uikey:
• She is a prominent leader from Madhya Pradesh and has been a member of the Rajya Sabha.
• Her tenure as Governor of Chhattisgarh was marked by efforts to strengthen tribal welfare programs and administrative efficiency.
• Governors in India:
• The office of the Governor is modeled on the British system of constitutional monarchy, where the monarch is the ceremonial head.
• India has 28 states and 8 Union Territories, each of which has a Governor or Lieutenant Governor/Administrator.
• The Governor acts as an intermediary between the State Government and the Central Government.

Important Points

• Article 153: States that there shall be a Governor for each state in India. One person can be appointed as the Governor for two or more states.
• Article 154: Specifies that the executive power of the state is vested in the Governor and exercised by them either directly or through subordinate officers.
• Article 163: The Governor is aided and advised by the Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, except in situations where the Governor is required to act in their discretionary powers.
• Examples of Governor's Discretionary Powers:
• Appointment of the Chief Minister when no political party has a clear majority.
• Sending a report to the President for imposing President’s Rule under Article 356.
• Reserving certain bills for the President’s consideration.

The correct answer is April.

Key Points

• The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 was passed by the Parliament of India in April 2025, with the Rajya Sabha giving its approval during this month.
• The bill aims to amend the existing Waqf Act, 1995, which governs the management and administration of Waqf properties in India.
• The approval from both houses of Parliament signifies the bill's importance in addressing issues related to the proper utilization and governance of Waqf properties.
• The amendment seeks to bring in transparency, accountability, and better administration of Waqf properties, which are often large and diverse in India.
• This legislation is part of the government's ongoing efforts to streamline the functioning of boards that manage religious and charitable properties for the welfare of the community.

Additional Information

• Waqf:
• The term Waqf refers to a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property by a Muslim for religious, charitable, or pious purposes, recognized under Islamic law.
• Waqf properties are managed by State Waqf Boards, which are statutory bodies established under the Waqf Act, 1995.
• These properties are often used for purposes such as mosques, schools, hospitals, and other community welfare activities.
• Waqf Act, 1995:
• The Waqf Act, 1995 was enacted to provide a legal framework for the management and governance of Waqf properties in India.
• It established the Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards for the efficient administration of Waqf properties.
• The act also includes provisions for the registration of Waqf properties and their protection from encroachments.
• Importance of the Amendment:
• The amendment aims to address issues such as mismanagement, encroachments, and underutilization of Waqf properties.
• By strengthening the legal framework, the amendment seeks to ensure the proper utilization of these properties for the benefit of the community.
• It also emphasizes transparency and accountability in the functioning of Waqf Boards.
• Legislative Process in India:
• A bill in India becomes a law after it is approved by both houses of Parliament—the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha—and receives the President's assent.
• In this case, the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, was approved by the Rajya Sabha in April 2025, following its passage in the Lok Sabha.

Important Points

• Role of Waqf Boards:
• State Waqf Boards are responsible for the maintenance, preservation, and development of Waqf properties.
• They ensure that the revenues generated from Waqf properties are used for the welfare of the community in accordance with the donor's intent.
• Recent Developments:
• The government has undertaken various initiatives to digitize Waqf records and protect Waqf properties from encroachments.
• Efforts are also being made to increase awareness about the rights and responsibilities of Waqf Boards.

The correct answer is Rural Prosperity and Resilience.

Key Points

• In the budget for the Financial Year 2025-26, the Government of India has announced the launch of a comprehensive multi-sectoral program named Rural Prosperity and Resilience.
• The primary aim of this program is to address under-employment in the agriculture sector through a combination of skilling, technology adoption, investment, and boosting the rural economy.
• This initiative focuses on integrating multiple sectors such as agriculture, rural entrepreneurship, and allied industries to create a sustainable rural ecosystem.
• The program emphasizes empowering rural youth with new skills and promoting innovations in agricultural practices to enhance productivity and resilience.
• The scheme also seeks to strengthen infrastructure and support systems in rural areas to foster economic growth and reduce migration to urban centers.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Rural Prosperity and Resilience Program:
• The program integrates technology-driven agricultural practices such as precision farming, digital tools, and AI-based solutions.
• It includes provisions to promote rural entrepreneurship by providing financial support to startups and enterprises focused on rural development.
• Efforts are made to diversify income sources for farmers by promoting allied sectors like animal husbandry, fisheries, and agro-processing industries.
• The scheme also strengthens the delivery of skill development programs to enable rural youth to participate in the growing demands of industrial and service sectors.
• Existing Challenges in Rural India:
• Rural areas face issues of low agricultural productivity, limited access to technology, and inadequate infrastructure.
• There is a lack of skill-based employment opportunities, resulting in under-employment or migration to cities.
• Poor access to credit facilities and market linkages hinders rural economic growth.
• Other Government Initiatives Supporting Rural Development:
• Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY): Aims to enhance irrigation facilities and water use efficiency in agriculture.
• Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana: Focuses on alleviating rural poverty by promoting self-employment and providing skill training.
• MGNREGA: Provides guaranteed rural employment of 100 days to improve livelihood security.
• Global Perspective:
• Many countries, including China and Brazil, have implemented rural development programs that integrate modern technology and promote sustainable farming practices.
• For example, China has leveraged e-commerce platforms to connect rural farmers with urban markets, improving incomes and reducing poverty.

Important Points

• Why Focus on Rural Prosperity?
• Approximately 65-70% of India’s population resides in rural areas, making rural development essential for overall economic growth.
• Agriculture, which employs more than 50% of the workforce, is the backbone of rural livelihoods.
• Empowering rural areas reduces the urban-rural income gap, leading to balanced economic development.
• Related Facts:
• The Agriculture Census 2021 revealed that the average landholding size in India is shrinking, which necessitates innovative approaches to improve productivity.
• India aims to double farmers’ income by 2025 through targeted interventions in agriculture and allied sectors.
• World Bank Report: Investments in rural infrastructure and technology yield high returns and significantly reduce poverty.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 has been released by the NITI Aayog, which is India’s premier policy think tank.
• The Fiscal Health Index is designed to assess the fiscal performance and health of Indian states, enabling better financial planning and governance.
• The index considers key fiscal parameters such as revenue generation, expenditure management, debt sustainability, and fiscal deficit reduction.
• This initiative aims to promote transparency and accountability in state finances and encourage states to adopt fiscally responsible practices.
• The NITI Aayog works in collaboration with state governments, leveraging this index to provide tailored fiscal recommendations and support.

Additional Information

• About NITI Aayog:
• Full Form: National Institution for Transforming India.
• It was established in 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• It acts as a policy think tank for the Indian government, focusing on fostering cooperative federalism.
• The organization provides strategic and technical advice to the Central and State governments.
• Purpose of Fiscal Health Index:
• To identify fiscal challenges faced by states and promote financial discipline.
• To highlight the revenue and expenditure patterns of states for better fiscal management.
• To encourage states to implement reforms that ensure long-term fiscal sustainability.
• Other Key Reports by NITI Aayog:
• SDG India Index: Tracks progress on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the national and sub-national levels.
• Health Index: Measures the health outcomes and systems performance of Indian states and union territories.
• Export Preparedness Index: Evaluates the export readiness and performance of Indian states.
• Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act:
• Enacted in 2003, this act aims to ensure fiscal discipline by reducing fiscal deficits and managing public debt.
• The FRBM Act sets targets for the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio and public debt-to-GDP ratio.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog’s Role in Fiscal Policy:
• NITI Aayog plays a vital role in providing state-specific fiscal recommendations to improve financial stability.
• Its initiatives help promote data-driven decision-making and ensure resource optimization in states.
• State Fiscal Reforms:
• Several Indian states have implemented fiscal reforms, such as e-governance systems, GST compliance, and debt management frameworks, to improve fiscal health.
• States like Maharashtra and Gujarat have been recognized for innovative fiscal management practices.

The correct answer is Services Sports Control Board.

Key Points

• The Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy is awarded annually for excellence in sports, particularly in events organized at the national level in India.
• Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) has a strong history of dominance in various sporting events, including athletics, boxing, shooting, and wrestling, owing to the disciplined training programs and resources provided to its athletes.
• The SSCB consistently wins this prestigious trophy because of its robust infrastructure and support system for nurturing sports talent among members of the armed forces.
• In the 2025 edition of the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy, the SSCB emerged victorious, maintaining its legacy of excellence in sports performance.
• The trophy is named after Raja Bhalindra Singh, a prominent sports administrator and a key figure in promoting sports in India during the early decades of independence.
• SSCB's success is attributed to its collaboration with national sports federations, dedicated coaches, and disciplined training regimens.

Additional Information

• Services Sports Control Board (SSCB):
• The SSCB operates under the Ministry of Defence and comprises athletes from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• It provides a structured training environment and world-class facilities for athletes, enabling them to excel in national and international competitions.
• The board has produced several medal-winning athletes in the Olympics, Asian Games, and other global sporting events.
• SSCB emphasizes discipline and dedication, which are integral qualities of the armed forces personnel competing under its banner.
• Raja Bhalindra Singh:
• Raja Bhalindra Singh was a renowned sports administrator and contributed immensely to the growth of sports in India.
• He served as the president of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and played a crucial role in advancing India's participation in global sporting events.
• The trophy named after him symbolizes excellence and dedication in sports.
• Other Teams:
• Maharashtra: Known for its strong presence in cricket and kabaddi, Maharashtra fields competitive teams in several national-level sports events.
• Madhya Pradesh: Has been growing steadily in sports infrastructure and talent development, particularly in archery and hockey.
• Bihar: Although still developing its sports programs, Bihar is known for producing athletes in wrestling and athletics.
• Sports Infrastructure in India:
• India has been investing heavily in sports infrastructure and talent development, with initiatives like the Khelo India program.
• National-level events like the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy play a key role in fostering competitive sports culture and identifying new talent.

Important Points

• Significance of the Trophy: The Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy is not just a symbol of victory but also a platform for recognizing excellence in sports and encouraging athletes to strive for greatness.
• Role of SSCB: The SSCB's contribution to Indian sports is unparalleled, with its athletes regularly performing at elite levels across diverse sports.
• India's Sports Policy: The government has been implementing programs to improve sports infrastructure and support athletes, which benefits organizations like SSCB.
• Historical Wins: SSCB's consistent victories in the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy reflect its dominance and commitment to fostering sportsmanship and excellence.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Agnisara:
• Agnisara is a yogic practice that focuses on stimulating the digestive fire (Agni) and improving overall health.
• It involves rapid contraction and expansion of the abdominal muscles while holding the breath, which improves digestion and strengthens the core.
• Agnisara kriya is classified under the Shatkarma (six purification techniques) in Hatha Yoga.
• It is primarily performed to detoxify the body, balance the digestive system, and promote overall vitality. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Kapalabhati:
• Kapalabhati is a yogic breathing technique that involves forceful exhalation and passive inhalation.
• It is one of the Shatkarma (cleansing techniques) in yoga and is often referred to as "skull-shining breathing" due to its cleansing effects on the nasal passages and sinuses.
• This practice helps in detoxification, improves respiratory efficiency, and enhances mental clarity.
• Regular practice of Kapalabhati is believed to bring about physical and mental rejuvenation. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Both Agnisara and Kapalabhati are important practices in yoga that focus on improving physical and mental health through specific techniques.
• Both terms are integral to traditional yogic practices and are widely acknowledged in modern yoga therapy for their health benefits.
• Hence, the correct answer is Both I and II.

Additional Information

• Shatkarma:
• The Shatkarmas are six purification techniques in Hatha Yoga, namely Neti, Dhauti, Basti, Trataka, Nauli, and Kapalabhati.
• These practices are designed to purify the body and mind, promoting overall health and balance.
• Each technique targets specific organs or systems, such as the respiratory, digestive, or nervous systems.
• Benefits of Agnisara:
• Improves digestion by stimulating digestive organs and enhancing metabolism.
• Strengthens abdominal muscles and promotes core stability.
• Detoxifies the body by removing toxins through improved circulation and digestion.
• Benefits of Kapalabhati:
• Improves lung capacity and respiratory efficiency.
• Detoxifies the nasal passages and sinuses, promoting better breathing.
• Enhances mental focus, clarity, and alertness.
• Stimulates the abdominal region, aiding in digestion and metabolism.
• Modern Applications of Yogic Practices:
• Yoga techniques like Agnisara and Kapalabhati are used in modern wellness programs for stress relief and improving physical fitness.
• They are also included in therapeutic yoga practices for managing chronic conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, and respiratory disorders.

Important Points

• Precautions for Agnisara and Kapalabhati:
• These practices should be performed on an empty stomach.
• Individuals with respiratory issues, heart conditions, or abdominal problems should consult a healthcare professional before practicing.
• Pregnant women should avoid these practices due to their impact on abdominal muscles.
• Historical Context:
• Both Agnisara and Kapalabhati originate from ancient Hatha Yoga texts and are integral to yogic traditions.
• They are described in texts like Hatha Yoga Pradipika and Gheranda Samhita.

The correct answer is Seoul Olympics.

Key Points

• Table tennis made its Olympic debut during the 1988 Seoul Olympics.
• The sport was included in both men's and women's events, featuring singles and doubles competitions.
• The inclusion of table tennis in the Olympics was a result of its growing popularity worldwide, particularly in Asian countries such as China, Japan, and South Korea.
• Since its debut in Seoul, table tennis has become one of the most competitive sports in the Olympics, with China dominating the medal tally in subsequent games.
• The governing body of table tennis, the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF), played a significant role in advocating for its inclusion in the Olympic program.

Additional Information

• Historical Background:
• Table tennis originated in England during the late 19^th century as an indoor version of lawn tennis.
• It became a competitive sport with standardized rules in the early 20^th century and spread globally.
• Features of Table Tennis:
• It is played on a rectangular table divided by a net, with players using paddles to hit a lightweight ball.
• The game requires precision, agility, and quick reflexes.
• Olympic Success:
• China is the most successful nation in Olympic table tennis history, having won the majority of gold medals since 1988.
• Other countries such as South Korea, Germany, and Sweden have also performed well in Olympic table tennis events.
• Key Milestones:
• The International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) was founded in 1926, establishing global rules and competitions.
• The World Table Tennis Championships began in the same year, showcasing international talent.
• Table tennis was officially recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in the 1980s.

Important Points

• China’s Dominance:
• China has won 28 out of 32 gold medals awarded in table tennis since its inclusion in the Olympics.
• Top Chinese players such as Ma Long, Deng Yaping, and Li Xiaoxia are celebrated for their Olympic achievements.
• Olympic Events:
• Table tennis includes singles and team events for both men and women.
• The mixed doubles event was added to the Olympic program in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• Growth of the Sport:
• Table tennis is now played in over 200 countries, with millions of players worldwide.
• The game has advanced technologically, with improvements in paddles, balls, and playing surfaces.

The correct answer is Nilgiri Tahr.

Key Points

• The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius) is an endemic species found in the Western Ghats of India, particularly in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• This animal is a type of mountain goat known for its unique appearance, with a coarse, short fur coat that is usually brown or gray and a distinctive curved horn.
• The Nilgiri Tahr is the state animal of Tamil Nadu and is listed as Endangered under the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss and poaching.
• They are typically found in rugged terrains and grasslands at altitudes of 1,200-2,600 meters, such as the Eravikulam National Park and the Mukurthi National Park.
• Unlike other species of Tahr, the Nilgiri Tahr prefers open terrain and is known for its excellent climbing skills.

Additional Information

• Barasingha:
• The Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii), also known as the swamp deer, is found in the marshy grasslands of northern and central India, including regions like Assam, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• It is recognized by its large antlers that can have up to 12 tines or points.
• The Barasingha is listed as Vulnerable under the IUCN Red List due to habitat destruction and poaching.
• Sambar Deer:
• The Sambar deer (Rusa unicolor) is one of the largest deer species and is native to the Indian subcontinent.
• It has a thick coat of brown fur and large, rugged antlers. It is commonly found in dense forests and grasslands.
• This species is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List but is widely distributed across India.
• Chital:
• The Chital (Axis axis), also known as the spotted deer, is one of the most commonly seen deer species in India.
• It is recognized by its reddish-brown coat with white spots and is found in open grasslands and deciduous forests.
• The Chital is listed as Least Concern under the IUCN Red List due to its wide distribution and stable population.
• Conservation Efforts for Nilgiri Tahr:
• The Nilgiri Tahr is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures the highest level of protection under Indian law.
• Efforts like habitat restoration and anti-poaching measures are being implemented in areas like the Eravikulam National Park to protect this species.
• State governments, along with wildlife organizations, regularly conduct population surveys and awareness programs to ensure the long-term survival of the species.

Important Points

• The Nilgiri Tahr is one of the few species of mountain goats found in South India and is an important part of the ecosystem in the Western Ghats.
• Its conservation status highlights the critical need for preserving biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats, which are under threat from deforestation and human encroachment.
• Tourism in areas like the Eravikulam National Park has raised awareness about the Nilgiri Tahr but has also led to challenges in balancing conservation with human activities.
• Programs like the Nilgiri Tahr Conservation Project aim to mitigate the threats faced by this species and ensure its survival for future generations.