General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Option 2: 98.

Key Points

• Work Done (W): The girl climbs up a rope through a height of 5 meters. The work done is calculated using the formula: Work Done (W) = m × g × h, where:
• m is the mass of the girl = 50 kg.
• g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s².
• h is the height climbed = 5 m.

Substituting the values: W = 50 × 9.8 × 5 = 2450 Joules.

• Power (P): Power is the rate at which work is done. It is calculated using the formula: P = W / t, where:
• W is the work done = 2450 Joules.
• t is the time taken = 25 seconds.

Substituting the values: P = 2450 / 25 = 98 Watts.

• Hence, the power expended by the girl is 98 Watts.
• The correct option is Option 2: 98.

Additional Information

• Work Done:
• Work is the transfer of energy that occurs when a force is applied to an object, causing displacement.
• Formula: W = F × d × cos(θ), where:
• F is the force applied.
• d is the displacement of the object.
• θ is the angle between the force and displacement.
• In this case, the force is due to gravity, so F = m × g.
• Power:
• Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred.
• It is measured in Watts (W), where 1 Watt = 1 Joule/second.
• Formula: P = W / t, where:
• W is the work done.
• t is the time taken.
• Energy:
• Energy is the capacity to do work. It exists in various forms, such as potential energy, kinetic energy, and thermal energy.
• In this context, the girl gains gravitational potential energy as she climbs up the rope.
• Potential Energy (PE) = m × g × h, which is equivalent to the work done in lifting the girl.
• Acceleration Due to Gravity:
• The value of g is approximately 9.8 m/s² on the surface of the Earth.
• This value is used in calculations involving objects in free fall or being lifted vertically.

Important Points

• Units of Measurement:
• Work is measured in Joules (J).
• Power is measured in Watts (W).
• Force is measured in Newtons (N), where 1 Newton = 1 kg·m/s².
• Concept of Efficiency:
• The actual power expended may be higher due to inefficiencies such as friction or energy loss.
• In this problem, we assume ideal conditions with no energy losses.
• Practical Applications:
• Power calculations are crucial in understanding energy consumption in activities such as lifting, running, or operating machinery.
• It helps in designing efficient systems for energy use in various industries.

The correct answer is Rice.

Key Points

• In May 2025, scientists successfully created the first-ever 'pangenome' of Rice, which marks a significant milestone in agricultural genomics.
• Rice is a vital staple food, particularly in Asia, where it constitutes a major part of the daily diet for billions of people.
• A 'pangenome' represents the complete set of genes found across multiple varieties of a species, providing a comprehensive genetic blueprint for enhancing crop yield, disease resistance, and adaptability.
• The creation of the rice pangenome is expected to help breeders and researchers develop climate-resilient rice varieties and improve food security in the face of global challenges such as climate change.
• This breakthrough highlights the importance of rice as a global food crop and the role of advanced genomic research in ensuring sustainable agricultural practices.

Additional Information

• What is a Pangenome?
• A Pangenome is the collection of all the genes present in different varieties or populations of a species, including core genes (common across all varieties) and accessory genes (unique to specific varieties).
• Pangenomes help researchers identify genetic diversity, allowing for targeted improvements in crop traits such as yield, disease resistance, and environmental adaptability.
• Importance of Rice:
• Rice is a staple food for more than 50% of the world's population, particularly in Asia, where countries like India, China, and Japan are among the largest producers and consumers.
• It provides essential carbohydrates and is a primary source of nutrition in many developing countries.
• Rice farming supports the livelihoods of millions of farmers worldwide, making it a critical agricultural commodity.
• Other Crops:
• Maize: A staple food and feed crop widely grown in North America, Africa, and South America. It is used for food, animal feed, and industrial applications.
• Barley: Primarily cultivated in Europe and North America, barley is used for malting, food, and fodder purposes.
• Wheat: A key cereal crop grown in temperate regions globally, it is a major ingredient in bread, pasta, and other food products.
• Significance of Genomic Research in Agriculture:
• Advanced genomic studies, like the creation of pangenomes, enable the identification of genetic traits that improve crop performance and resilience.
• These developments are crucial in addressing challenges such as climate change, pest outbreaks, and increasing global food demand.
• They also support the development of sustainable agricultural practices, ensuring long-term food security.

Important Points

• Rice Production in Asia:
• Asia accounts for over 90% of global rice production, with countries like India, China, Indonesia, and Thailand being major producers.
• Rice cultivation is heavily dependent on irrigation and monsoon rainfall, making it sensitive to climate change impacts.
• Applications of Pangenomics:
• Pangenomics aids in identifying genetic markers for desirable traits, accelerating the breeding process.
• It provides insights into the evolutionary history and genetic diversity of species, supporting conservation efforts.
• In agriculture, pangenomics enables the development of crops with enhanced nutritional value, stress tolerance, and disease resistance.
• Future Prospects:
• Genomic advancements like pangenomics can revolutionize agriculture by addressing challenges such as food security and climate resilience.
• They pave the way for precision agriculture, allowing farmers to optimize crop production based on genetic insights.

The correct answer is Mewar.

Key Points

• Mewar was the only Rajput state that consistently defied Mughal power during the height of their empire. It became a symbol of resistance against Mughal dominance.
• Under the leadership of renowned rulers like Maharana Pratap, Mewar refused to accept Mughal suzerainty, unlike other Rajput states that eventually allied or submitted to the Mughals.
• The Battle of Haldighati (1576) is one of the most notable events where Mewar, led by Maharana Pratap, fiercely resisted the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh, a general of Akbar.
• Despite losing the battle of Haldighati, Maharana Pratap continued guerrilla warfare and retained significant parts of Mewar, showing remarkable resilience.
• Unlike Amber, Bikaner, and Marwar, which formed alliances with the Mughals and even served in their administration, Mewar upheld its independence for a longer period.

Additional Information

• Mewar:
• Located in present-day Rajasthan, Mewar was ruled by the Sisodia dynasty, known for its valiant rulers who prioritized independence over alliances.
• Maharana Pratap is celebrated for his bravery and commitment to maintaining Mewar's sovereignty against the Mughals.
• The forts of Chittorgarh and Kumbhalgarh are iconic symbols of Mewar's resistance and architectural brilliance.
• Amber:
• Amber (modern-day Jaipur) allied with the Mughals early on, under the leadership of Raja Bharmal and later Raja Man Singh.
• Amber's alliance with the Mughals brought political stability and prosperity to the region.
• Bikaner:
• Bikaner, another prominent Rajput state, also allied with the Mughals and contributed to their administration and military campaigns.
• Raja Rai Singh of Bikaner served as a governor under Emperor Akbar.
• Marwar:
• Marwar (modern-day Jodhpur) initially resisted Mughal forces but later allied with them during the reign of Akbar.
• The rulers of Marwar, such as Raja Udai Singh, served the Mughal Empire and strengthened their ties through marital alliances.

Important Points

• Battle of Haldighati (1576): Fought between Maharana Pratap of Mewar and the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh. Although the Mughals claimed victory, Maharana Pratap's continued resistance is remembered as a heroic struggle.
• Chittorgarh Fort: The capital of Mewar, it faced repeated attacks by Mughal and Sultanate forces but stood as a stronghold of Rajput defiance.
• Guerrilla Warfare: Maharana Pratap employed guerrilla tactics to reclaim parts of his kingdom, making it difficult for the Mughals to maintain control over the region.
• Symbol of Rajput Valor: Mewar's resistance, especially under Maharana Pratap, is celebrated in Indian history as a symbol of courage and the refusal to submit to foreign rule.

The correct answer is Miniratna-I.

Key Points

• Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) holds the Miniratna-I status under the categorization of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) as of July 2025.
• Miniratna-I CPSEs are granted greater autonomy and financial powers compared to Miniratna-II and other lower-ranked CPSEs. This includes powers to make investments and enter joint ventures.
• BSNL was established on 1^st October 2000, and it is one of the largest telecommunications companies in India, operating under the ownership of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Government of India.
• The Miniratna-I status allows BSNL to approve investments up to ₹500 crore without requiring approval from the government, provided such investments are within its approved budget.
• BSNL does not hold the Maharatna or Navratna status, which are granted to CPSEs that demonstrate higher financial performance and strategic importance.

Additional Information

• Classification of CPSEs:
• Maharatna: This is the highest status for CPSEs, given to companies with a turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crore, net profit of ₹5,000 crore for three consecutive years, and a significant global presence. Example: ONGC, NTPC.
• Navratna: This status is granted to CPSEs that have a minimum score of 60 based on performance parameters like net profit, total manpower cost, and productivity. Example: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
• Miniratna-I: CPSEs with a positive net worth and a profit for the last three years can qualify as Miniratna-I. They are granted financial autonomy up to ₹500 crore. Example: BSNL, Airports Authority of India.
• Miniratna-II: CPSEs with a smaller operational scale than Miniratna-I but meeting profitability criteria for the last three years are classified as Miniratna-II. Example: Bharat Pumps and Compressors Limited.
• BSNL's Role in Indian Telecom:
• BSNL is a major provider of landline, mobile, broadband, and optical fiber services across India.
• It serves both urban and rural areas, contributing significantly to digital inclusivity in the country.
• BSNL plays a critical role in implementing government initiatives like BharatNet, aimed at providing high-speed internet in rural India.
• Key Features of CPSE Autonomy:
• Autonomy is classified into financial and operational categories, allowing CPSEs to make independent decisions within defined limits.
• Higher autonomy enables CPSEs to improve efficiency, innovate, and compete globally.
• Miniratna-I CPSEs can enter joint ventures and approve capital expenditure without prior approval from the government.
• Important Legislation:
• The Department of Public Enterprises, under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, oversees CPSE classification and status allocation.
• The autonomy and financial powers granted to CPSEs are defined under specific government guidelines aimed at enhancing their operational performance.

Important Points

• Government Guidelines:
• CPSE classification is reviewed periodically to ensure alignment with economic and strategic goals.
• Maharatna and Navratna CPSEs are allowed to invest beyond ₹500 crore, reflecting their larger operational scale.
• BSNL's Strategic Importance:
• BSNL is a critical player in ensuring connectivity in remote and rural areas, advancing the government's Digital India initiative.
• It also supports national security by maintaining communication infrastructure for government and defense purposes.

The correct answer is Raja J. Chelliah.

Key Points

• Raja J. Chelliah was the chairman of the Tax Reforms Committee in 1991, which was constituted by the Government of India to recommend reforms in the taxation system.
• The committee was pivotal in shaping India's modern tax policies, focusing on direct and indirect taxation reforms.
• It aimed to simplify the tax structure, broaden the tax base, and improve compliance to boost revenue collection.
• The recommendations of the committee included reducing tax rates, eliminating exemptions, and introducing VAT (Value Added Tax).
• Raja J. Chelliah is often regarded as the "Father of Tax Reforms" in India due to his significant contributions to the country's fiscal policies.

Additional Information

• Tax Reforms Committee (1991):
• This committee was formed as part of the economic reforms initiated by Manmohan Singh, the then Finance Minister under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao.
• The primary objective was to align India's tax system with the requirements of a modern and liberalized economy.
• The committee's work significantly influenced the introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST) years later.
• Raja J. Chelliah:
• He was a renowned Indian economist and a pioneer in the field of public finance and taxation.
• He played a crucial role in restructuring India's tax system during the economic reforms of the 1990s.
• Chelliah founded the National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP), which continues to play a key role in shaping India's fiscal policies.
• Key Recommendations of the Tax Reforms Committee:
• Reduction of corporate and personal income tax rates to encourage compliance.
• Introduction of a moderate and uniform indirect tax system.
• Focus on eliminating tax exemptions and broadening the tax base to enhance revenue.
• Adoption of a modern tax administration system to reduce evasion and improve efficiency.
• Impact of the Committee's Recommendations:
• The recommendations laid the foundation for India's shift toward a market-oriented economy.
• Many of the reforms proposed by the committee were implemented in subsequent budgets, leading to a more transparent and efficient tax system.
• The reforms contributed to higher tax revenue and better compliance over time.

Important Points

• Manmohan Singh: He was the Finance Minister in 1991 and played a crucial role in initiating the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) reforms in India. However, he was not the chairman of the Tax Reforms Committee.
• P. Chidambaram: He served as Finance Minister in later years but did not lead the Tax Reforms Committee in 1991.
• Shakti Kant Das: He is a former Economic Affairs Secretary and currently serves as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). He was not associated with the Tax Reforms Committee of 1991.
• The Tax Reforms Committee under Raja J. Chelliah's chairmanship remains a landmark in India's fiscal history, driving substantial changes in the country's tax landscape.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Capital expenditure refers to spending that creates or increases long-term assets.
• It adds to the productive capacity of the economy.
• It results in physical or financial assets for the government or economy.
• It is part of the capital budget.

Additional Information

• Says: “It does not create physical or financial assets”
• Wrong because capital expenditure always creates assets such as:
• Roads, bridges, railways
• Schools, hospitals
• Machinery, equipment
• So, it directly increases national productive capacity.
• Promotes economic growth and development
• Helps in infrastructure expansion
• Increases productive capacity of the economy

The correct answer is Barrackpore.

Key Points

• Mangal Pandey, a soldier in the 34^th Bengal Native Infantry of the British East India Company, was a key figure in the events leading to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• Mangal Pandey attacked British officers on March 29, 1857, at the military garrison of Barrackpore near Kolkata (then Calcutta).
• He was subsequently court-martialed and sentenced to death for his actions of rebellion and insubordination.
• Barrackpore, a town in West Bengal, served as a major military cantonment under the British rule, and it was the location of this significant incident.
• Mangal Pandey was hanged to death on April 8, 1857, at Barrackpore, making him one of the earliest martyrs of the Indian freedom struggle.

Additional Information

• Background to the Incident:
• The immediate cause of the rebellion was the introduction of the new Enfield P-53 rifle, which required soldiers to bite off the greased cartridge. The grease was rumored to be made of cow and pig fat, offending both Hindu and Muslim religious beliefs.
• Mangal Pandey's protest was symbolic of the growing discontent among Indian soldiers, also known as sepoys, against British rule.
• Indian Rebellion of 1857:
• The event at Barrackpore is often considered one of the initial sparks of the Indian Rebellion of 1857, also known as the First War of Indian Independence.
• The rebellion, which began in May 1857, was a widespread but ultimately unsuccessful uprising against British rule in India.
• Barrackpore’s Historical Significance:
• Barrackpore was one of the first military cantonments established by the British in India, dating back to the late 18^th century.
• It later became a site of numerous protests and uprisings against British colonial rule during the freedom struggle.
• Mangal Pandey’s Legacy:
• Mangal Pandey is remembered as a symbol of resistance against British colonial oppression.
• The Government of India honors his sacrifice, and numerous institutions, films, and memorials have been created in his name, including the Mangal Pandey Park in Barrackpore.

Important Points

• Other Locations Mentioned in the Options:
• Chandigarh: This city was not established during Mangal Pandey’s time. It was planned by Le Corbusier and became the capital of Punjab and Haryana post-independence.
• Delhi: Though Delhi played a significant role in the 1857 rebellion, it was not related to the specific incident involving Mangal Pandey.
• Lucknow: Another key center during the 1857 rebellion, but not connected to Mangal Pandey’s actions directly.
• Impact of the 1857 Rebellion:
• The rebellion marked a turning point in Indian history, leading to the dissolution of the East India Company in 1858.
• The British Crown took direct control of Indian administration, marking the beginning of the British Raj.
• Current Relevance:
• Mangal Pandey is celebrated as one of the earliest martyrs in India’s struggle for independence.
• His story is taught in Indian history as an example of courage and the fight against oppression.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• A Constitution Amendment Bill in India requires a special majority for its adoption in the Parliament.
• This special majority is defined as a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the procedure for amending the Constitution, including the requirement for this special majority.
• The total membership of the House refers to the total strength of the House, irrespective of vacancies or absentees.
• The inclusion of "members present and voting" excludes those who abstain from voting or are absent during the voting process.
• The dates in the incorrect options (Options 1, 3, 4, and 5) are irrelevant to the context of passing Constitution Amendment Bills. Hence, the correct answer is Option 2, which aligns with the legal requirements for a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368.

Additional Information

• Types of Majority:
• Simple Majority: Refers to a majority of members present and voting. It is used for ordinary bills and certain motions.
• Absolute Majority: Refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, regardless of whether members are present or absent.
• Effective Majority: Refers to a majority of the total membership of the House, excluding vacancies.
• Special Majority: Used for amending the Constitution. Requires a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.
• Procedure for Amending the Constitution:
• A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not necessarily on the recommendation of the President.
• The Bill must be passed by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament (as defined under Article 368).
• In some cases, the Bill also needs to be ratified by at least half of the State Legislatures (e.g., for changes in federal provisions).
• Once passed, the Bill is sent to the President for assent. The President cannot withhold assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill.
• Articles Related to Constitutional Amendments:
• Article 368: Lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution.
• Article 4: Deals with laws made under Articles 2 and 3, which may include provisions for amending the Constitution without following the Article 368 procedure.
• Examples of Constitutional Amendments:
• 42^nd Amendment (1976): Known as the "Mini-Constitution," it brought extensive changes to the Constitution.
• 73^rd Amendment (1992): Introduced the Panchayati Raj system in India.
• 101^st Amendment (2016): Introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST).

Important Points

• The special majority under Article 368 ensures that significant changes to the Constitution have widespread support and cannot be passed easily by a simple majority.
• In cases where a federal feature is affected (e.g., altering the distribution of powers between the Union and States), ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures is necessary.
• Not all amendments require a special majority; for example, amendments made under Articles 2 and 3 (related to the reorganization of states) are exceptions.
• As of 2023, there have been 105 constitutional amendments, demonstrating the evolving nature of the Indian Constitution to address changing societal and political needs.

The correct answer is 1921-1951.

Key Points

• The period from 1921-1951 is referred to as the era of steady population growth in India.
• During this period, India witnessed gradual changes in population dynamics owing to improved health conditions and a decline in mortality rates.
• The 1921 Census marked the beginning of population stabilization after experiencing fluctuations in earlier decades due to famines and pandemics.
• The 1941 Census indicated a continued rise in population despite challenges such as World War II.
• Post-1921, advancements in public health, sanitation, and medical interventions contributed significantly to steady population growth.

Additional Information

• 1921 Census:
• The 1921 Census is known as the "Year of Great Divide" in Indian demographic history.
• It marked the transition from declining population trends to steady growth due to advancements in public health and reduced death rates.
• Mortality rates began to decline significantly after 1921, laying the foundation for population stabilization.
• Population Growth Factors:
• Key factors contributing to population growth included improvements in medical facilities, public health campaigns, and sanitation.
• The introduction of vaccines and antibiotics helped combat deadly diseases like smallpox and cholera.
• Better agricultural practices and food availability mitigated the impact of famines.
• Impact of World War II (1939–1945):
• Despite the disruptions caused by World War II, population growth continued steadily during the 1940s.
• Government measures to address healthcare and food security during the war years played a crucial role in sustaining population growth.
• Post-1921 Developments:
• Public health infrastructure expanded significantly during this period, contributing to reduced mortality rates.
• The rise of urbanization and industrialization also played a role in shaping population dynamics.

Important Points

• Population Trends in Earlier Decades:
• Prior to 1921, India's population fluctuated due to famines, pandemics, and high mortality rates.
• The 1810s-1900s witnessed frequent outbreaks of diseases like plague, cholera, and influenza.
• Significance of the 1921-1951 Period:
• This period laid the foundation for modern demographic trends in India.
• It marked the transition to steady population growth, which continued into the post-independence era.
• Role of Government Initiatives:
• Government efforts in healthcare and sanitation during the British colonial era contributed to improved population stability.
• Public campaigns addressing hygiene and medical awareness were instrumental in reducing mortality.

The correct answer is 560 BCE.

Key Points

• Gautama Buddha, also known as Siddhartha Gautama, was born approximately in 560 BCE in Lumbini, which is located in present-day Nepal.
• He was born into the Shakya clan to King Śuddhodana and Queen Māyā. Siddhartha's father was the ruler of the small kingdom of Kapilavastu.
• Historians and Buddhist traditions generally agree upon 560 BCE as an approximate date for his birth, though there are minor variations in dates based on different sources and traditions.
• Gautama Buddha is the founder of Buddhism, one of the world's major religions, which emphasizes the path to enlightenment through ethical living, meditation, and wisdom.
• The birthplace of Buddha, Lumbini, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and it holds great significance for Buddhists worldwide.

Additional Information

• Life of Gautama Buddha:
• Buddha lived a life of luxury as a prince but renounced his royal life at the age of 29 to seek the truth about life and suffering.
• He attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya, India, at the age of 35.
• Buddha spent the rest of his life teaching the Dharma (the universal truth) and founded the Buddhist monastic community, the Sangha.
• He passed away at the age of 80 in Kushinagar, India, in what is known as the Mahaparinirvana.
• The Four Noble Truths:
• The foundation of Buddha's teachings is based on the Four Noble Truths, which explain the nature of suffering and the path to its cessation.
• The truths are: Dukkha (suffering exists), Samudaya (there is a cause of suffering), Nirodha (suffering can end), and Magga (there is a path to the cessation of suffering).
• The Eightfold Path:
• The way to overcome suffering is through the Eightfold Path, which consists of right view, intention, speech, action, livelihood, effort, mindfulness, and concentration.
• This path is also referred to as the Middle Way, as it avoids extremes of indulgence and asceticism.
• Significance of 560 BCE:
• The approximate birth year of Gautama Buddha (560 BCE) marks a significant period in ancient history as it coincides with the rise of intellectual and spiritual traditions in India, such as Jainism and the Upanishadic philosophy.
• Buddha's teachings laid the foundation for the spread of Buddhism across Asia, influencing cultures, philosophies, and art in countries like China, Japan, Sri Lanka, and Tibet.

Important Points

• Other Dates:
• Option 2 (432 BCE): This year is too late and does not align with historical and traditional accounts of Buddha's life.
• Option 3 (361 BCE): This date is inconsistent with the generally accepted timeline of Gautama Buddha's life.
• Option 4 (263 BCE): This is the period associated with Emperor Ashoka, who spread Buddhism widely, not Buddha's birth.
• Historical Sources:
• Early Buddhist texts such as the Tripitaka and the Jataka tales provide insights into the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha.
• The Edicts of Ashoka, inscribed on pillars and rocks across India, provide archaeological evidence of Buddhism's spread and teachings.
• Global Influence:
• Buddhism is now practiced by over 500 million people worldwide and has influenced various philosophical and cultural traditions.
• The teachings of Buddha continue to inspire movements for peace, mindfulness, and ethical living across the globe.

The correct answer is Rajaraja I.

Key Points

• Rajendra I, one of the most prominent rulers of the Chola dynasty, was the son of Rajaraja I, the great Chola emperor who laid the foundation for the Chola Empire’s expansion and administrative reforms.
• Rajaraja I ruled from 985–1014 CE and is credited with consolidating and strengthening the Chola dynasty into a formidable empire.
• Under Rajaraja I’s reign, the Chola Empire witnessed significant territorial expansion, including conquests in Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and parts of South India, which Rajendra I later expanded further.
• Rajaraja I was instrumental in initiating large-scale temple constructions, including the renowned Brihadeeswarar Temple at Thanjavur, which is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. His architectural patronage was a legacy continued by his son, Rajendra I.
• Rajendra I succeeded his father in 1014 CE and carried forward his legacy by further expanding the empire to include regions like Southeast Asia and the Gangetic plains.

Additional Information

• Rajaraja I’s Achievements:
• He established a highly organized and efficient administrative system, dividing the empire into provinces called mandalams for better governance.
• He introduced a systematic revenue collection system and ensured the prosperity of the empire through trade and agriculture.
• Rajaraja I’s military campaigns led to the annexation of northern Sri Lanka, which he renamed Mummudi Chola Mandalam.
• He was a patron of art and architecture and played a significant role in the development of Dravidian temple architecture.
• Rajendra I’s Contributions:
• Rajendra I is known for his naval expeditions, particularly the conquest of the Srivijaya Empire (modern-day Indonesia and Malaysia), marking the Chola Empire as a maritime power.
• He built a new capital city called Gangaikonda Cholapuram to commemorate his victory over the Ganga dynasty.
• Under his reign, the Chola Empire became one of the most powerful empires in Asia, with influence spreading across Southeast Asia.
• Rajendra I also constructed numerous temples and irrigation systems, further strengthening the empire’s infrastructure.
• Other Options Explained:
• Vijayalaya: He was the founder of the Chola dynasty in the 9^th century CE, but he was not the father of Rajendra I.
• Parantaka Chola I: He was an earlier ruler of the Chola dynasty (907–950 CE) and a significant figure in its early expansion but not directly related to Rajendra I.
• Kulothunga: He was a later Chola ruler who reigned in the 11^th century CE, long after Rajendra I’s time.

Important Points

• Brihadeeswarar Temple: Built by Rajaraja I, this temple remains a masterpiece of Chola architecture and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• Chola Navy: The Chola dynasty developed one of the most powerful navies in ancient India, which played a crucial role in their conquests under Rajendra I.
• Trade and Economy: Both Rajaraja I and Rajendra I encouraged maritime trade, especially in the Indian Ocean region, fostering economic prosperity.
• Inscriptional Evidence: The reigns of Rajaraja I and Rajendra I are well-documented through inscriptions, which provide valuable insights into their governance and achievements.

The correct answer is 15.

Key Points

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations (UN) and is responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
• As of 31^st July 2025, the UNSC comprises a total of 15 members, which include both permanent and non-permanent members.
• The UNSC has 5 permanent members with veto power: China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, and United States.
• The remaining 10 non-permanent members are elected for a two-year term by the United Nations General Assembly, with seats allocated based on geographical representation.
• The non-permanent members represent regions such as Asia-Pacific, Africa, Latin America, Eastern Europe, and Western Europe.

Additional Information

• Permanent Members and Veto Power:
• The 5 permanent members are often referred to as the P5 or Permanent Five.
• Each permanent member has the power to veto any substantive resolution, effectively blocking its adoption.
• This veto power is a significant feature of the UNSC and has often been a subject of debate regarding fairness and reform.
• Non-Permanent Members:
• The 10 non-permanent members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for a two-year term.
• They are chosen to ensure equitable geographical representation, with specific numbers of seats allocated to different regions.
• For example, 3 seats are allocated to Africa, 2 to Asia-Pacific, 2 to Latin America and the Caribbean, 1 to Eastern Europe, and 2 to Western Europe and others.
• Functions of the UNSC:
• The UNSC has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
• It can authorize the deployment of peacekeeping forces, impose sanctions, and approve military action to address threats to peace.
• The council also recommends the appointment of the UN Secretary-General and the admission of new members to the UN.
• Reforms and Criticism:
• The structure and functioning of the UNSC have been criticized for being outdated and unrepresentative, particularly with regard to the permanent membership.
• There have been calls for reforms, such as expanding the number of permanent members to include countries like India, Brazil, Germany, and Japan (often collectively referred to as the G4 nations).

Important Points

• Historical Background:
• The UNSC was established in 1945 following the conclusion of World War II as part of the United Nations.
• It replaced the League of Nations, which had failed to prevent global conflict.
• Voting System:
• For a resolution to pass, it requires the affirmative votes of 9 out of 15 members, including the consent of all 5 permanent members.
• If any permanent member casts a veto, the resolution cannot be adopted.
• Peacekeeping Operations:
• The UNSC plays a critical role in authorizing and overseeing peacekeeping missions across the globe.
• These missions are conducted in conflict zones to maintain ceasefires, protect civilians, and support political processes.

The correct answer is Amrit Mohan Prasad.

Key Points

• Amrit Mohan Prasad was appointed as the Director General of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) in September 2024.
• The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) of India, responsible for guarding the borders of India with Nepal and Bhutan.
• Amrit Mohan Prasad is a distinguished officer with extensive experience in the field of law enforcement and border security.
• He succeeds the outgoing Director General and has been tasked with ensuring the effective functioning of the SSB and maintaining the security of India’s borders.
• The appointment of the Director General of SSB is a significant decision as it directly impacts the operational efficiency and strategic planning of India’s border security system.

Additional Information

• Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB):
• The SSB was established in 1963 in the wake of the Chinese aggression and was initially tasked with fostering a sense of security among the people living in border areas.
• It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The SSB’s primary duties include border guarding, counter-insurgency operations, and providing assistance during natural disasters.
• Role of the Director General:
• The Director General (DG) is the highest-ranking official in the SSB and oversees all operations, planning, and administration.
• The DG is responsible for implementing government policies and ensuring the operational preparedness of the force.
• Other Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF):
• In addition to the SSB, India has several other CAPFs, including the Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), and Central Industrial Security Force (CISF).
• Each of these forces is tasked with specific responsibilities, ranging from border security to industrial safety and counter-terrorism.
• Key Challenges Faced by SSB:
• Securing borders with porous boundaries shared with Nepal and Bhutan.
• Combating illegal immigration, smuggling, and human trafficking across the borders.
• Maintaining peace and order in sensitive border regions and fostering community development programs.

Important Points

• The Director General of SSB is generally appointed from the Indian Police Service (IPS), ensuring that the officer has extensive knowledge and experience in law enforcement and border management.
• The SSB also plays a vital role in humanitarian efforts during natural disasters and emergencies in border regions.
• India’s border security strategy is continuously evolving, with a focus on adopting modern technology and improving infrastructure in border areas.
• Effective leadership in the SSB is crucial to maintaining the integrity of India’s borders and ensuring the safety of border communities.

The correct answer is 2028.

Key Points

• The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched by the Government of India in 2019 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti to provide functional tap water connections to every rural household.
• The scheme's primary goal is to ensure safe and adequate drinking water for all rural homes through individual household tap connections by 2024.
• During the Union Budget 2025-26, the Finance Minister announced the extension of the Jal Jeevan Mission until 2028. This decision is intended to address the challenges and ensure the scheme's comprehensive success.
• The extension aims to cover any remaining gaps in rural areas and enhance the sustainability of water supply systems.
• This extended timeline reflects the government's commitment to achieving universal access to clean drinking water in rural areas while addressing infrastructure and resource challenges.

Additional Information

• Jal Jeevan Mission Objectives:
• To provide adequate and safe drinking water to every household in rural areas through tap connections.
• To promote the judicious use of water and enhance the sustainability of water resources.
• To ensure the functioning and maintenance of water supply systems through community participation.
• Key Features of Jal Jeevan Mission:
• Focus on source sustainability measures such as recharge and reuse through greywater management.
• Emphasis on the convergence of other schemes like MGNREGA and Swachh Bharat Mission to create water resource structures.
• Capacity building and training for village-level institutions to manage water supply infrastructure.
• Budget Allocation:
• The Government of India allocated Rs. 60,000 crore for the Jal Jeevan Mission in the 2023-24 budget.
• This reflects the government's prioritization of water security and rural development.
• Achievements So Far:
• As of 2023, over 11 crore rural households have been provided with tap water connections under the Jal Jeevan Mission.
• Several states, such as Goa, Telangana, and Haryana, have achieved 100% coverage.

Important Points

• Challenges in Implementation:
• Ensuring water availability in water-stressed areas and regions with limited resources.
• Addressing issues of quality such as contamination by fluoride, arsenic, and other pollutants.
• Promoting community ownership and participation for the sustainable operation of water systems.
• Global Perspective:
• The Jal Jeevan Mission aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 6, which aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
• Similar initiatives like the Safe Water Network and Water.org work towards clean water access globally.

The correct answer is Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Key Points

• The District Project Management Units (DPMUs) initiative under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme was launched in July 2025 to empower artisans and craftsmen across India.
• This scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), which is responsible for promoting, developing, and enhancing the skills of small and medium-scale entrepreneurs in India.
• The PM Vishwakarma Scheme aims to support traditional artisans and craftsmen such as carpenters, blacksmiths, potters, and cobblers, among others, to enhance their productivity and improve their livelihoods.
• Under this initiative, DPMUs act as implementation units at the district level, ensuring effective delivery of scheme benefits, including skill training, financial support, and market linkages for artisans.
• The Ministry of MSME plays a crucial role in achieving the objectives of this scheme by coordinating with state governments and local bodies to address the challenges faced by artisans and small-scale entrepreneurs.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME):
• The MSME Ministry is responsible for formulating policies and implementing various programs to promote and support the growth of micro, small, and medium enterprises in India.
• It also oversees schemes like Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme, PMEGP (Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme), and Skill India Programme to support entrepreneurs.
• The Ministry plays a vital role in employment generation and contributes significantly to India's GDP.
• PM Vishwakarma Scheme:
• The scheme is designed to empower traditional artisans and craftsmen by providing financial assistance, training, and infrastructure support.
• It aims to preserve India's rich heritage of traditional skills and promote self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat).
• The scheme also includes provisions for subsidized loans, raw material procurement, and access to advanced tools and technology.
• DPMUs (District Project Management Units):
• These units are established at the district level to ensure the smooth implementation of government schemes like PM Vishwakarma.
• They provide essential services such as beneficiary identification, monitoring, and support for training and capacity building of artisans.
• The units also act as a bridge between the government and artisans, ensuring effective communication and addressing grievances.
• Other Ministries and Schemes:
• Ministry of Rural Development: Focuses on rural employment and infrastructure development, such as MGNREGA and PMAY (Gramin).
• Ministry of Commerce: Responsible for trade and export promotion, often dealing with initiatives like SEZs (Special Economic Zones).
• Ministry of Agriculture: Oversees schemes like PM-KISAN and focuses on the welfare of farmers and agricultural productivity.

Important Points

• PM Vishwakarma Scheme: Launched to support artisans and craftsmen in improving their skills and access to modern technologies, ensuring better livelihoods.
• Skill Development: The scheme includes training modules for artisans to enhance their traditional skills and adapt to modern market demands.
• Economic Impact: By empowering traditional artisans, the scheme contributes to the growth of the MSME sector, which is a backbone of India's economy.
• Implementation: The DPMUs, under the Ministry of MSME, ensure that the scheme benefits reach the grassroots level effectively and efficiently.

The correct answer is Basketball.

Key Points

• Basketball was invented by Dr. James Naismith in 1891. It was originally designed as an indoor sport to keep athletes active during the winter months.
• Naismith, a Canadian-American physical educator, created the game while working at the International YMCA Training School in Springfield, Massachusetts, USA.
• The original game consisted of throwing a soccer ball into a peach basket that was nailed to a balcony, hence the name "Basketball."
• The first game of basketball was played on December 21, 1891, with 13 basic rules that Naismith had formulated.
• Over time, the sport evolved, leading to the development of modern rules, professional leagues like the NBA (National Basketball Association), and widespread global popularity.

Additional Information

• Dr. James Naismith:
• Born on November 6, 1861, in Almonte, Ontario, Canada.
• He was a physician, teacher, and coach with a deep interest in physical education.
• In addition to inventing basketball, Naismith also introduced the first football helmet.
• Development of Basketball:
• The first professional basketball league, the National Basketball League (NBL), was established in 1898.
• The NBA was formed in 1949 after a merger between the NBL and the Basketball Association of America (BAA).
• Basketball became an Olympic sport in 1936, with the first Olympic event held in Berlin, Germany.
• Comparison with Other Sports:
• Cricket: Originated in England during the 16^th century and is widely popular in countries like India, Australia, and England.
• Hockey: The modern version of field hockey originated in England in the mid-19^th century and is the national sport of India and Pakistan.
• Polo: A sport with ancient roots, played on horseback, originating in Persia (modern-day Iran) as early as the 6^th century BCE.
• Significance of Basketball:
• It is one of the most popular sports globally, with millions of fans and players across continents.
• The sport promotes physical fitness, teamwork, strategic thinking, and social interaction.
• Key tournaments include the NBA Finals, FIBA World Cup, and Olympic Games.

Important Points

• Global Reach: Basketball is played in over 200 countries, and its governing body, FIBA (International Basketball Federation), oversees global regulations and competitions.
• NBA Stars: Legendary players like Michael Jordan, LeBron James, and Kobe Bryant have contributed to the sport's immense popularity.
• Women's Basketball: The WNBA (Women's National Basketball Association) was founded in 1996 and has been a platform for female athletes to showcase their talents.
• Paralympics: Basketball is also a popular sport in the Paralympic Games, played as wheelchair basketball.

The correct answer is Amrit Mohan Prasad.

Key Points

• Amrit Mohan Prasad was appointed as the Director General of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) in September 2024, succeeding the previous DG of the paramilitary force.
• The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is one of India's Central Armed Police Forces responsible for guarding the India-Nepal and India-Bhutan borders.
• Amrit Mohan Prasad is a senior officer with extensive experience in border security and internal security operations. His leadership is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the SSB.
• The appointment of the Director General is made by the Government of India based on the officer's merit, experience, and capability to lead a paramilitary force effectively.
• The SSB plays a vital role in ensuring national security, preventing trans-border crimes, and maintaining peace and tranquility along India's borders with Nepal and Bhutan.

Additional Information

• Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB):
• The SSB was established in 1963 after the Sino-Indian War to strengthen India's border security.
• It is tasked with ensuring the security of the India-Nepal and India-Bhutan borders, covering an area of approximately 1,751 km and 699 km, respectively.
• The force also assists in providing disaster management, conducting civic action programs, and supporting the local population in border areas.
• Role of Director General in SSB:
• The Director General oversees the overall functioning, strategy formulation, and operational planning of the force.
• He ensures that the force is equipped and trained to handle challenges such as cross-border infiltration, smuggling, and maintaining border peace.
• Other Key Appointments in Border Security Forces:
• India's border security forces include the Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), and Assam Rifles, each led by their respective Director Generals.
• Appointments to these roles are typically made from the Indian Police Service (IPS) or other senior paramilitary officers.
• Importance of Border Security:
• India shares borders with seven neighboring countries, making border security a vital aspect of national security.
• Forces like the SSB play a crucial role in preventing illegal immigration, smuggling, and infiltration while fostering friendly relations with neighboring countries.

Important Points

• Organizational Structure of SSB:
• The SSB functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• It comprises various battalions and formations deployed along the borders and in other parts of the country.
• Recent Initiatives by SSB:
• Implementation of advanced surveillance technology and drones for better border monitoring.
• Collaboration with local communities to enhance intelligence gathering and ensure border area development.

The correct answer is The game of judo was invented in the year 1882..

Key Points

• Judo is a modern martial art created by Dr. Jigoro Kano in the year 1882 in Japan.
• The term "Judo" translates to "The Gentle Way" in English, emphasizing the art's focus on skill and technique rather than brute force.
• Dr. Jigoro Kano founded the Kodokan Judo Institute in Tokyo, Japan, to teach and promote Judo as both a sport and a way of life.
• Judo was developed as a refinement of traditional Japanese jujutsu techniques, focusing on throws, grapples, and submissions.
• It became an Olympic sport in 1964, debuting at the Tokyo Summer Olympics, further solidifying its global popularity.

Additional Information

• Development of Judo:
• Dr. Jigoro Kano, born in 1860, was an educator and athlete who sought to modernize martial arts by creating a discipline that combined physical education, mental discipline, and moral education.
• Judo prioritizes techniques such as throws (nage-waza), pins (osaekomi-waza), and submission techniques (shime-waza and kansetsu-waza).
• Unlike many martial arts, Judo avoids strikes and weapon techniques, focusing on unarmed combat and using an opponent's strength against them.
• Global Popularity:
• Judo is now practiced worldwide, with millions of practitioners across various countries.
• The International Judo Federation (IJF), founded in 1951, oversees competitive Judo globally, organizing events such as the World Judo Championships.
• Judo's inclusion in the Olympics in 1964 marked a turning point in its international recognition and popularity.
• Philosophy and Values:
• Judo promotes the principles of mutual welfare and benefit, along with maximum efficiency in the use of energy.
• It emphasizes respect, discipline, and personal growth, aligning with its roots in traditional Japanese culture.
• Historical Context:
• Judo evolved from jujutsu, which was practiced by Japanese samurai as a means of self-defense.
• Dr. Kano refined jujutsu techniques to create Judo, removing dangerous and outdated methods to ensure safety and accessibility for practitioners.

Important Points

• Modern Judo Competitions:
• Judo matches are conducted on a mat called a tatami, where competitors aim to score points through throws, pins, and submissions.
• Scoring in Judo includes Ippon (full point), Waza-ari (half point), and Yuko (minor score), with Ippon being the ultimate goal for victory.
• Weight classes ensure fair competition among participants, making Judo accessible to individuals of different body types.
• Educational Impact:
• Judo is widely taught in schools and universities, especially in Japan, as a means of physical education and moral development.
• It is recognized as a way to improve physical fitness, mental resilience, and social values.
• Judo Uniform:
• Practitioners wear a uniform called a judogi, consisting of a jacket, pants, and a belt that signifies rank and skill level.
• Belt colors range from white (beginner) to black (advanced), with additional ranks such as dan levels for experienced practitioners.

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points

• India's first Public Private Partnership (PPP) Green Waste Processing Plant was established in Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
• Indore is known for its commitment to cleanliness and has consistently topped the Swachh Survekshan rankings, making it an ideal location for such a sustainable initiative.
• The plant focuses on processing green waste, including organic waste from gardens, parks, and agricultural areas, to generate compost and bio-energy.
• The facility was developed under a PPP model, where the Indore Municipal Corporation collaborated with private entities to ensure efficient waste management and recycling practices.
• The initiative aims to tackle the issue of waste management by converting biodegradable waste into useful resources, contributing to India's sustainable development goals and waste-to-energy efforts.

Additional Information

• Public-Private Partnership (PPP):
• PPP is a collaboration between government bodies and private sector companies to deliver public services or infrastructure efficiently.
• It enables shared responsibility, where the private sector brings expertise and investment while the government ensures regulatory compliance and public welfare.
• PPP models are widely used in sectors like transportation, energy, healthcare, and waste management.
• Indore's Achievements in Waste Management:
• Indore has been ranked as India's cleanest city in the Swachh Survekshan rankings for several consecutive years due to its innovative waste management strategies.
• The city has implemented initiatives like segregation of waste at source, door-to-door waste collection, and composting units.
• It has set an example for other cities in India to adopt sustainable waste management practices.
• Green Waste Processing:
• Green waste refers to biodegradable waste from plants, gardens, and agricultural sources.
• Processing green waste involves converting it into compost, mulch, or bio-energy, minimizing its environmental impact.
• Such initiatives reduce the burden on landfills and contribute to circular economy practices.
• Swachh Survekshan:
• Swachh Survekshan is an annual survey conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to assess the cleanliness and sanitation of cities across India.
• The rankings are based on parameters like waste segregation, processing, and public feedback.
• Indore has consistently topped the rankings, showcasing its dedication to cleanliness and waste management.

Important Points

• Role of PPP in Waste Management:
• PPP models are crucial for addressing urban challenges like waste management by combining public oversight with private innovation.
• They ensure cost-effective and efficient solutions, leveraging private sector expertise.
• Global Examples of Green Waste Processing Plants:
• Countries like Sweden, Germany, and Japan have advanced facilities for green waste processing, contributing to their high recycling rates.
• India is gradually adopting similar technologies to achieve sustainable waste management goals.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Mando is a traditional Goan form of lyrical music and dance that expresses themes of love, tragedy, social injustice, and political resistance. It is an integral part of Goan culture.
• The origins of Mando can be traced back to the 19^th century, during the Portuguese colonial period in Goa. It combines Indian and Western musical elements, reflecting the cultural fusion of the time.
• Mando songs are typically slow and melodious, with verses and refrains. They are performed with an ensemble of musical instruments such as the violin, guitar, and Ghumat (a traditional Goan percussion instrument).
• The dance associated with Mando is graceful and elegant, often performed by couples dressed in traditional Goan attire. It showcases the rich heritage of Goa.
• Mando serves as a medium to highlight the socio-political struggles of Goans during colonial rule, making it not just an art form but also a historical narrative.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Mando Music:
• Mando songs are typically written in the Konkani language, the official language of Goa.
• The themes of Mando often reflect the emotions of love, heartbreak, and longing, as well as the social issues faced by Goan society.
• The music is slow-paced, with a melancholic tone that evokes deep emotional responses.
• Traditional instruments like the violin, guitar, and percussion are used to create a harmonious blend of melodies.
• Historical Context:
• The Mando evolved during the Portuguese rule in Goa, combining Indian and European musical traditions. The colonial influence is evident in the use of Western instruments.
• It was popularized among the Goan elite as a form of artistic expression and gradually spread to the masses.
• During the freedom struggle and social movements, Mando songs were used to express political resistance and critique social injustices.
• Other Cultural Forms of Goa:
• Goa is known for its vibrant cultural heritage, including forms like Dekhni, Fugdi, and Dashavatar.
• The Dekhni dance represents a blend of Western and Indian music, performed during festive occasions.
• Fugdi is a folk dance performed primarily by women during religious and social celebrations.
• Dashavatar is a theatrical performance depicting the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu, showcasing Goa's deep spiritual traditions.
• Other States Mentioned:
• Uttarakhand: Known for its folk music like Jagar and Pandav Nritya, which are rooted in spiritual and mythological themes.
• Bihar: Famous for Bhojpuri folk music and dances like Jat-Jatin and Sohar, which depict rural life and culture.
• Tamil Nadu: Renowned for classical music and dance forms like Bharatanatyam and Carnatic music, which have ancient origins.

Important Points

• UNESCO Recognition: Efforts have been made to preserve Mando as a part of Goa’s cultural heritage, and it is being considered for recognition as an Intangible Cultural Heritage by UNESCO.
• Festivals: Mando performances are an integral part of Goan festivals like Shigmo and Carnival, which highlight the region's unique traditions.
• Preservation: Organizations and artists in Goa actively work to preserve and promote Mando through workshops, performances, and documentation.
• Global Appeal: The fusion of Indian and Western elements in Mando has garnered international interest, showcasing Goa's rich cultural diversity.