SBI Probationary Officer (PO) · Topic Collection

Banking Awareness PYQs

Banking and financial awareness — RBI and monetary policy, banking institutions, financial markets, government schemes, and current economic affairs.

340 Total Questions7 Official PapersYears: 2019–2025Search in Banking Awareness
Showing questions 21–40 of 340Page 2 of 17
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 21

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

During the 55th Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting of RBI held in June 2025, what was the revised Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio set for small-ticket gold loans (below Rs. 2.5 lakh) to enhance borrower credit access?

  1. AOption (a)

    75%

  2. BOption (b)

    80%

  3. COption (c)

    85%

  4. DOption (d)

    90%

  5. EOption (e)

    70%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

85%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 85%.

In News

  • RBI raised the LTV ratio for gold loans up to Rs. 2.5 lakh to 85% during the MPC meeting held in June 2025.

Key Points

  • The revision increases from the earlier 75% to 85% maximum LTV to enable more credit on small gold loans.
  • For gold loans between Rs. 2.5 lakh and Rs. 5 lakh, the LTV ratio was fixed at 80%, and for loans above Rs. 5 lakh at 75%.
  • Updated norms effective from April 1, 2026, to improve financial inclusion for retail borrowers.
  • RBI aims to balance risk management with borrower support, especially in rural and semi-urban markets.
  • Gold loans form a crucial component of informal credit especially during emergencies and festivals.
  • Relaxation is expected to boost lenders' portfolio quality by formalizing and expanding small-ticket loans.
  • The move aligns with the RBI’s accommodative monetary policy stance and rural credit expansion.

Additional Information

  • LTV ratio is the maximum loan amount as a percentage of the collateral value banks can lend.
  • Gold loan customers typically pledge physical gold ornaments or coins as collateral.
  • Smaller loans cater to low-income borrowers needing quick liquidity.
  • MPC adjusts policy rates and guidelines based on inflation and growth outlook.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 22

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

As per the Provisional Estimates released by the National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in May 2025, India's Real GDP growth rate for FY25 was estimated. What was the estimated growth rate for India's Real GDP in FY25 according to these estimates?

  1. AOption (a)

    7.4%

  2. BOption (b)

    6.2%

  3. COption (c)

    6.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    7.0%

  5. EOption (e)

    5.9%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6.5%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.5%.

In News

  • India’s real GDP grew by 6.5% in FY25 according to the Provisional Estimates released by NSO (MoSPI) in May 2025.

Key Points

  • The real GDP growth for FY25 was slightly below the RBI’s earlier forecast of 6.6%.
  • India’s nominal GDP grew by 9.8% during FY25.
  • Q4 FY25 GDP recorded a growth rate of 7.4% indicating strong year-end economic activity.
  • Growth drivers included manufacturing, agriculture, and services sectors.
  • Data reflects a gradual post-pandemic economic recovery and government stimulus impacts.
  • The estimates are provisional and subject to revision with subsequent data.

Additional Information

  • NSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and is responsible for GDP data compilation.
  • Real GDP accounts for inflation adjustment; nominal GDP is at current prices.
  • Indian economy is among the fastest-growing large economies globally with diverse growth profile.
  • GDP figures guide monetary, fiscal, and policy decisions across sectors.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 23

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The first-ever Chess Esports World Cup, held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in August 2025, marked a historic moment in the world of competitive chess, blending esports with traditional gameplay. Which player emerged victorious in this groundbreaking tournament?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hikaru Nakamura

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnus Carlsen

  3. COption (c)

    Alireza Firouzja

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjun Erigaisi

  5. EOption (e)

    Ian Nepomniachtchi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Magnus Carlsen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnus Carlsen.

In News

  • Magnus Carlsen became the first-ever Chess Esports World Cup champion by defeating Alireza Firouzja in the finals in Riyadh, August 2025.

Key Points

  • Carlsen won the final by winning two sets with a score of 3-1 in each.
  • The event was a best-of-three sets format where Carlsen wrapped results in two sets.
  • The $250,000 top prize was awarded to Carlsen along with Team Liquid clinching the overall championship.
  • Carlsen lost only one game during the tournament, demonstrating dominance.
  • GM Hikaru Nakamura took third place by defeating GM Arjun Erigaisi.
  • The tournament had a $1.5 million prize pool, highlighting esports' growing stature in chess.
  • Organized in collaboration with Chess.com and held offline in Saudi Arabia.

Additional Information

  • Chess esports combine traditional chess with online competitive gaming features.
  • Alireza Firouzja was a top contender without a loss before the finals.
  • Team Liquid led by Carlsen edged out other teams in overall esports standings.
  • Esports chess events are increasing in popularity, merging digital and classical skills.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 24

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

EarthCARE (Earth Cloud, Aerosol and Radiation Explorer) is a joint satellite mission designed to improve understanding of how clouds and aerosols influence Earth’s radiation budget and climate, using a combination of active and passive sensors including a cloud-profiling radar and lidar. It is a collaborative project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and which other space agency?

  1. AOption (a)

    German Aerospace Center

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

  3. COption (c)

    National Aeronautics and Space Administration

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Space Research Organisation

  5. EOption (e)

    Canadian Space Agency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).

In News

  • EarthCARE is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) to study clouds, aerosols, and radiation.

Key Points

  • EarthCARE carries cloud profiling radar (CPR), atmospheric lidar, multispectral imager, and broadband radiometer instruments.
  • Mission aims to reduce uncertainty in climate models by quantifying cloud-aerosol-radiation interactions.
  • ESA leads mission development and operations, while JAXA provides key radar technology and scientific contributions.
  • Data will improve understanding of how clouds influence the heating and cooling of the atmosphere.
  • EarthCARE operates in sun-synchronous orbit providing global coverage of cloud and aerosol vertical structures.
  • The mission supports IPCC assessments and climate policy by refining radiative forcing estimates.
  • Launch is part of ESA’s Earth Explorer programme focused on scientific Earth observation missions.

Additional Information

  • ESA is Europe’s intergovernmental space agency with 22 member states.
  • JAXA is Japan’s national aerospace agency responsible for space and satellite missions.
  • Earth Explorer missions include SMOS, CryoSat, Aeolus, and Biomass.
  • Aerosols are tiny particles in the atmosphere that can scatter or absorb sunlight affecting the climate.
  • JAXA
  • Established in- 2003
  • HQ - Tokyo
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 25

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In June 2025, the World Health Organization announced a significant public health achievement in the fight against neglected tropical diseases, confirming that another African country had successfully eliminated human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem. This made it the 10th country globally to be recognized for eliminating this vector-borne parasitic disease. Which African nation received this WHO validation in 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uganda

  2. BOption (b)

    Rwanda

  3. COption (c)

    Kenya

  4. DOption (d)

    Tanzania

  5. EOption (e)

    Malawi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kenya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kenya.

In News

  • In June 2025, WHO validated Kenya as the 10th country globally to eliminate human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem.

Key Points

  • Kenya achieved WHO validation for eliminating sleeping sickness, a vector-borne parasitic disease transmitted by tsetse flies.
  • Sleeping sickness caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense leads to fatal neurological conditions if untreated.
  • Elimination means the disease no longer poses a significant public health threat though continuous surveillance is vital.
  • Kenya implemented extensive vector control, active case detection, treatment, and health education programs over recent decades.
  • The achievement joins Kenya with nine other countries recognized by the WHO for control and elimination success of this neglected tropical disease.
  • Validation supports global targets aligned with WHO’s Roadmap for Neglected Tropical Diseases 2021-2030.
  • Continued focus on surveillance will prevent resurgence and sustain public health gains.

Additional Information

  • Human African trypanosomiasis also called sleeping sickness has two forms affecting different regions of Africa.
  • The disease is targeted for elimination by 2030 under the WHO’s neglected tropical diseases strategy.
  • Tsetse fly vectors inhabit rural sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and livestock coexistence affect disease spread.
  • WHO collaborates with endemic countries and partners for diagnostics, treatment access, and vector control.
  • WHO
  • Established in - 1948
  • HQ - Geneva, Switzerland
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 26

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In the evolving global arms control landscape, one major nuclear power has progressively distanced itself from key bilateral treaties. As of September 2025, which country has officially withdrawn from the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty and has suspended its participation in the New START Treaty, signalling a significant shift in nuclear arms control architecture?

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    United States

  4. DOption (d)

    China

  5. EOption (e)

    North Korea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia.

In News

  • Russia has withdrawn from the INF Treaty and suspended its participation in the New START Treaty, altering post-Cold War nuclear arms control arrangements.

Key Points

  • Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty, signed in 1987, required the elimination of ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges 500–5,500 km.
  • United States formally withdrew from the INF in 2019 citing Russian violations; Russia subsequently suspended and exited obligations.
  • In 2023, Russia announced the suspension of participation in New START, the last remaining US-Russia strategic arms reduction treaty.
  • New START, in force since 2011, caps deployed strategic nuclear warheads at 1,550 and delivery systems at 700 for each side.
  • Suspension affects on-site inspections and data exchanges, reducing transparency and predictability in nuclear arsenals.
  • These moves raise concerns about a renewed arms race and weakening of global non-proliferation regime.
  • Other nuclear-armed states are not party to these bilateral treaties, complicating future multilateral arrangements.

Additional Information

  • Nuclear-weapon states under NPT are the US, Russia, China, UK, and France.
  • INF was the first treaty to eliminate an entire class of nuclear delivery systems.
  • New START was extended in 2021 for five years, now facing an uncertain future.
  • Arms control remains key to strategic stability and crisis prevention among major powers.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 27

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In December 2024, the Reserve Bank of India released a framework for the pilot phase of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) – Retail, known as e-Rupee (e₹-R), expanding its use among selected banks and customer segments. Under this framework, the digital rupee is designed to function as a sovereign legal tender similar to paper currency. What interest rate will the digital e-Rupee carry?

  1. AOption (a)

    0%

  2. BOption (b)

    3% per annum

  3. COption (c)

    4% per annum

  4. DOption (d)

    Linked to savings account rate

  5. EOption (e)

    Variable market-linked rate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0% (no interest).

In News

  • RBI’s CBDC-retail (e₹-R) pilot framework specifies that digital rupee will not carry any interest, similar to physical cash.

Key Points

  • e₹-R is a digital form of central bank money intended primarily as a medium of exchange and store of value for retail users.
  • Like banknotes, CBDC units are non-interest-bearing, preventing disintermediation of bank deposits.
  • Pilot involves select banks issuing CBDC wallets to customers for P2P and P2M transactions via QR codes and mobile apps.
  • The objective is to test operational aspects, user experience, and impact on monetary and financial stability.
  • Design choices align with BIS recommendations that retail CBDC should mimic cash characteristics.
  • RBI launched its first retail CBDC pilot on December 1, 2022, gradually expanding cities and banks.
  • Interoperability with UPI and other digital payment systems is being explored to enhance adoption.

Additional Information

  • CBDC is a digital liability of the central bank, distinct from private cryptocurrencies.
  • Wholesale CBDC (e₹-W) is tested separately for interbank settlements.
  • Design dimensions include token vs account-based, degree of anonymity, and offline capability.
  • Many central banks globally are piloting or researching CBDC frameworks.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 28

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

At the Global FinTech Fest held in Mumbai, NPCI showcased multiple innovations to strengthen India’s digital payment ecosystem, including the launch of UPI Circle, aimed at enabling closed user group payments, and a new Bharat BillPay B2B platform for digitising business-to-business collections. In which year were the UPI Circle and the Bharat BillPay B2B platform launched at the Global FinTech Fest?

  1. AOption (a)

    2023

  2. BOption (b)

    2024

  3. COption (c)

    2025

  4. DOption (d)

    2022

  5. EOption (e)

    2027

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2024

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2024.

In News

  • NPCI launched UPI Circle and a Bharat BillPay B2B platform during Global FinTech Fest 2024 to expand use cases in India’s digital payments.

Key Points

  • UPI Circle allows controlled payments within a defined group such as societies, clubs, or workplaces.
  • Bharat BillPay B2B platform digitises invoicing and collections between businesses using interoperable rails.
  • Launch at GFF 2024 aligns with NPCI’s vision to deepen UPI adoption beyond P2P and retail merchant payments.
  • Solutions showcased NPST’s efforts to cater to corporate collections, recurring payments, and closed-loop ecosystems.
  • Other products presented included RuPay credit on UPI and cross-border offerings via NPCI International.
  • Global FinTech Fest brings regulators, banks, fintechs, and investors together annually.
  • India’s UPI processes billions of transactions monthly, making it key testbed for such innovations.

Additional Information

  • NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) is the umbrella organisation for retail payments in India.
  • UPI (Unified Payments Interface) enables instant transfers via mobile using virtual payment addresses.
  • Bharat BillPay is an RBI-regulated bill payment system for utilities, telecom, and other recurring payments.
  • GFF is co-organised by NPCI, Payments Council of India, and Fintech Convergence Council.
  • NPCI
  • Established in - 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 29

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Department of Posts (DoP) to tap into India Post’s vast network of over 1.6 lakh post offices for mutual fund distribution, investor awareness, and financial literacy, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas. Until what date is this initial agreement between AMFI and DoP valid?

  1. AOption (a)

    21 August 2028

  2. BOption (b)

    31 March 2028

  3. COption (c)

    31 December 2026

  4. DOption (d)

    30 June 2028

  5. EOption (e)

    31 March 2026

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21 August 2028

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21 Aug 2028.

In News

  • AMFI and the Department of Posts signed MoU on August 21, 2025, valid until August 21, 2028, for mutual fund distribution through the post office network.

Key Points

  • The three-year MoU commencing August 21, 2025, enables empanelled AMCs to offer mutual fund schemes through 1.6 lakh post offices across India.
  • Department of Posts staff receive training as mutual fund facilitators to handle investor onboarding, KYC, and transaction support services.
  • The initial agreement valid till August 21, 2028, provides an evaluation period for scaling distribution volumes and investor acquisition metrics.
  • Focus targets Tier 2/3 cities and rural areas where post offices serve as trusted financial literacy and service delivery points.
  • Integration supports AMFI's "Mutual Funds Sahi Hai" campaign reaching underserved geographies beyond urban wealth centres.
  • Technology platforms of India Post Payments Bank enable digital mutual fund transactions alongside traditional paperwork options.
  • Partnership expected to onboard first-time investors into SIPs and market-linked products through familiar post office channels.

Additional Information

  • AMFI represents 45 Asset Management Companies managing over Rs 60 lakh crore AUM as of 2025.
  • India Post operates the largest postal network globally with 1.36 lakh post offices serving rural populations.
  • Mutual fund penetration remains low at 15% household coverage requiring distribution expansion strategies.
  • SEBI regulations mandate AMFI membership for mutual fund distributors ensuring investor protection standards.
  • AMFI
  • Established in - 1995
  • HQ - Mumbai
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 30

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Reserve Bank of India compiles Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) to capture granular information on bank credit, deposits, and branch-level characteristics for policy and research. BSR-1 specifically relates to credit profiles of borrowers and is crucial for understanding the sectoral and regional distribution of lending. On what periodicity is the BSR-1 return on bank credit currently collected by the RBI?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quarterly

  2. BOption (b)

    Half-yearly

  3. COption (c)

    Annually

  4. DOption (d)

    Monthly

  5. EOption (e)

    Bi-monthly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quarterly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Quarterly.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India collects Basic Statistical Return on bank credit (BSR-1) from scheduled commercial banks on a quarterly basis.

Key Points

  • BSR-1 captures detailed borrower-wise credit information, enabling analysis of sectoral and geographical bank lending patterns.
  • Data are submitted by banks every quarter, facilitating timely and granular insights for monetary and credit policy formulation.
  • The quarterly frequency supports RBI’s assessment of credit flow and detection of emerging risks or concentrations.
  • Scheduled commercial banks report BSR data electronically under the regulatory framework.
  • RBI uses BSR-1 data for compiling banking sector statistics and macroprudential supervision.
  • Periodic submission enhances data accuracy and policy responsiveness to credit demand-supply dynamics.
  • The quarterly BSR-1 has replaced the earlier annual compilation improving efficiency and availability of credit data.

Additional Information

  • Basic Statistical Returns were introduced in 1972 for standardised data collection on banking sector performance.
  • BSR-1 returns include information on advances to individuals, businesses, priority sectors, and large borrowers.
  • Quarterly data publication supports transparency and market discipline in banking.
  • Other BSR returns such as BSR-2 cover deposits, while BSR-3 gives branch-level statistics.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 31

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In March 2025, to expand the reach of social security benefits and formalize the informal workforce, the Ministry of Labour and Employment announced major enhancements to the e-Shram portal, which already has over 30 crore unorganised workers registered. With which scheme aimed at supporting street vendors is the e-Shram portal being integrated?

  1. AOption (a)

    DAY-NULM

  2. BOption (b)

    PM SVANidhi

  3. COption (c)

    PM Street Vendor Pension Yojana

  4. DOption (d)

    PM Jan Dhan Yojana

  5. EOption (e)

    Stand Up India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PM SVANidhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PM SVANidhi.

In News

  • The Ministry of Labour and Employment announced integration of the e-Shram portal with PM SVANidhi and other social security schemes to expand coverage for unorganised workers including street vendors.

Key Points

  • e-Shram is a national database of unorganised workers capturing occupation, residence, and Aadhaar-linked details to streamline benefit delivery.
  • Integration with PM SVANidhi enables the identification of eligible street vendors for collateral-free working capital loans.
  • Linking databases reduces duplication, improves targeting, and ensures that vendor benefits reach genuine beneficiaries quickly.
  • PM SVANidhi provides initial working capital loans of Rs 10,000, with enhanced limits on timely repayment and digital transactions.
  • e-Shram is also being linked with Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana and PM Jeevan Jyoti/Suraksha Bima schemes for wider social security.
  • The integrated approach supports urban livelihoods, especially those affected by economic disruptions.
  • Data-driven convergence helps design future welfare schemes for informal and self-employed workers more effectively.

Additional Information

  • PM SVANidhi (Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi) was launched in June 2020.
  • It targets street vendors in urban and peri-urban areas adversely impacted by COVID-19.
  • e-Shram registration is voluntary but encouraged through awareness campaigns and the CSC network.
  • Unorganised workers include construction workers, street vendors, domestic workers, and gig/platform workers.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 32

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In March 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the extension of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK), a statutory body established for safeguarding the rights and welfare of manual scavengers and sanitation workers, with a total financial implication of Rs 50.91 crore for the extended period. Up to which date was the term of NCSK extended by the Cabinet?

  1. AOption (a)

    June 30, 2028

  2. BOption (b)

    March 31, 2027

  3. COption (c)

    March 31, 2028

  4. DOption (d)

    December 31, 2027

  5. EOption (e)

    March 31, 2026

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

March 31, 2028

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is March 31, 2028.

In News

  • Union Cabinet approved a three-year extension of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) tenure beyond March 31, 2025, up to March 31, 2028.

Key Points

  • National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) mandate includes recommending welfare measures, monitoring the implementation of laws like the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers Act, 2013, and addressing grievances of Safai Karamcharis.
  • The extension ensures continuity in monitoring schemes for rehabilitation, livelihood support, and social security of sanitation workers.
  • Financial implication of Rs 50.91 crore for 2025-26 to 2027-28 covers salaries, allowances, and administrative expenses of the Commission.
  • NCSK conducts visits, inspections, and inquiries into complaints regarding non-payment of wages, safety gear, and inhuman working conditions.
  • The Commission advises Central and State Governments on policy corrections to fully eradicate manual scavenging.
  • The extension reflects the government’s commitment to the dignity of labour and the elimination of hazardous cleaning practices.
  • NCSK also coordinates with State-level commissions and departments to ensure convergence of welfare schemes.

Additional Information

  • NCSK was initially constituted in 1994 and has since been extended periodically as a non-constitutional body.
  • Safai Karamcharis include sanitation workers engaged in cleaning sewers, septic tanks, and solid waste handling.
  • The 2013 Act prohibits manual scavenging and mandates mechanisation of sewer and septic tank cleaning.
  • Rehabilitation measures include skill development, alternative employment, and financial assistance.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 33

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

Which of the following statements about RTGS are correct?

  1. RTGS is a real-time fund transfer system that settles payments individually without netting.
  2. RTGS transactions have a minimum limit of ₹2 lakh and no maximum limit.
  3. RTGS was available 24x7 from its inception.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only

In News

  • RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement) is a system for continuous, real-time settlement of funds on an individual order basis, without netting debits and credits.

Key Points

  • RTGS is used primarily for large-value transactions.
  • The minimum transaction amount for RTGS is ₹2 lakh, and there is no maximum limit.
  • From December 2020, RTGS is available round-the-clock (24x7) including holidays and weekends.
  • Earlier, RTGS was available only during banking hours on working days (7 AM to 6 PM, excluding 2nd and 4th Saturdays).

Additional Information

  • RTGS facilitates the instant and gross settlement of payments, making it crucial for high-value interbank transactions.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 34

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In May 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated India's first deep-water transshipment hub, Vizhinjam International Seaport in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, during his two-day visit, marking a major milestone in maritime infrastructure development under a public-private partnership model with an investment of over Rs 8,800 crore. What is the developer’s name of the Vizhinjam Port, which has already handled over 5.93 lakh TEUs during trial operations?

  1. AOption (a)

    JSW Infrastructure Ltd

  2. BOption (b)

    Tata Projects Ltd

  3. COption (c)

    Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

  4. DOption (d)

    Larsen & Toubro Ltd

  5. EOption (e)

    Reliance Ports Ltd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ).

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated Vizhinjam International Seaport developed by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ) on May 2, 2025, in Kerala.

Key Points

  • Vizhinjam Port operates under a landlord model with APSEZ as concessionaire through Adani Vizhinjam Port Private Limited since construction began in December 2015.
  • The port achieved 110% capacity utilization handling 285 ships and 5.93 lakh TEUs even before official commissioning in trial operations from July 2024.
  • Phase one cost Rs 8,800 crore with Adani Group planning Rs 9,500 crore investment for subsequent phases reaching 3 million TEUs capacity by 2028.
  • Vizhinjam is India's first deep-water transhipment hub reducing dependence on foreign ports like Colombo and Singapore for cargo handling.
  • The port features semi-automated operations with natural depth up to 20 meters enabling the largest container ships to dock directly.
  • During February-March 2025, it topped cargo movements among south and west coast ports handling 1 lakh TEUs monthly.
  • The project generates significant revenue sharing with the Centre receiving 60 paise per rupee customs duty collected.

Additional Information

  • Transhipment ports transfer cargo between ships without ground handling, reducing transit time and costs for Indian trade.
  • TEU (Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit) measures container shipping capacity standard globally.
  • Vizhinjam's location provides natural protection from cyclones and strategic proximity to international shipping routes.
  • The landlord port model involves the private operation of facilities on government-owned land.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 35

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In May 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated India's first deep-water transshipment hub, Vizhinjam International Seaport in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, during his two-day visit, marking a major milestone in maritime infrastructure development under a public-private partnership model with an investment of over Rs 8,800 crore. What is the developer’s name of the Vizhinjam Port, which has already handled over 5.93 lakh TEUs during trial operations?

  1. AOption (a)

    JSW Infrastructure Ltd

  2. BOption (b)

    Tata Projects Ltd

  3. COption (c)

    Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

  4. DOption (d)

    Larsen & Toubro Ltd

  5. EOption (e)

    Reliance Ports Ltd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ).

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated Vizhinjam International Seaport developed by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ) on May 2, 2025, in Kerala.

Key Points

  • Vizhinjam Port operates under a landlord model with APSEZ as concessionaire through Adani Vizhinjam Port Private Limited since construction began in December 2015.
  • The port achieved 110% capacity utilization handling 285 ships and 5.93 lakh TEUs even before official commissioning in trial operations from July 2024.
  • Phase one cost Rs 8,800 crore with Adani Group planning Rs 9,500 crore investment for subsequent phases reaching 3 million TEUs capacity by 2028.
  • Vizhinjam is India's first deep-water transhipment hub reducing dependence on foreign ports like Colombo and Singapore for cargo handling.
  • The port features semi-automated operations with natural depth up to 20 meters enabling the largest container ships to dock directly.
  • During February-March 2025, it topped cargo movements among south and west coast ports handling 1 lakh TEUs monthly.
  • The project generates significant revenue sharing with the Centre receiving 60 paise per rupee customs duty collected.

Additional Information

  • Transhipment ports transfer cargo between ships without ground handling, reducing transit time and costs for Indian trade.
  • TEU (Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit) measures container shipping capacity standard globally.
  • Vizhinjam's location provides natural protection from cyclones and strategic proximity to international shipping routes.
  • The landlord port model involves the private operation of facilities on government-owned land.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 36

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

On January 14, 2025, Union Minister Piyush Goyal inaugurated India's first dedicated spice board focusing on turmeric promotion, research, and export development with Palle Ganga Reddy appointed as the inaugural chairman. The board aims to enhance farmer incomes through value addition and global market access. What is the headquarters location of the National Turmeric Board?

  1. AOption (a)

    Baramati, Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Guntur, Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Erode, Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Nizamabad, Telangana

  5. EOption (e)

    Sangli, Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nizamabad, Telangana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nizamabad, Telangana.

In News

  • National Turmeric Board was inaugurated at Nizamabad, Telangana by Piyush Goyal with Palle Ganga Reddy as chairman.

Key Points

  • Nizamabad was selected as headquarters due to Telangana's significant turmeric production and processing infrastructure.
  • The board promotes scientific cultivation, quality standards, and value-added turmeric products.
  • Palle Ganga Reddy was appointed the first chairman, leveraging his agricultural and spice sector expertise.
  • Initiative supports one district one product scheme positioning Nizamabad as a turmeric hub.
  • Focus areas include export promotion, GI tagging, and farmer-centric development programs.
  • India produces 75% of the global turmeric supply mainly from Telangana, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • The board facilitates R&D for high-yielding varieties and sustainable farming practices adoption.

Additional Information

  • Turmeric contains curcumin responsible for its medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties.
  • National Turmeric Board is similar to the Spices Board India and the Coconut Development Board.
  • ODOP scheme promotes regional economic specialisation through district-specific products.
  • Turmeric exports reached record values driven by medicinal and nutraceutical demand.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 37

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In the Union Budget for 2025-26 presented in February 2025, the Indian government announced measures to bolster the domestic textile industry's competitiveness by rationalizing import duties on key raw materials. This included the exemption of basic customs duty on certain inputs essential for textile manufacturing. What specific item saw the removal of 11% customs duty to support the sector?

  1. AOption (a)

    Man-made fibre

  2. BOption (b)

    Cotton lint

  3. COption (c)

    Polyester staple fibre

  4. DOption (d)

    Viscose staple fibre

  5. EOption (e)

    Nylon filament yarn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cotton lint

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cotton lint.

In News

  • The government removed 11% customs duty on cotton lint import to support the domestic textile industry in the February 2025 budget.

Key Points

  • Cotton lint duty removal reduces raw material costs for spinning mills, enhancing price competitiveness.
  • India major cotton producer but imports extra-long staple cotton for high-quality yarn production.
  • Measure addresses domestic supply shortages during lean production periods supporting garment exports.
  • The textile sector contributes 2% to India's GDP and employs over 45 million people directly/indirectly.
  • Duty rationalisation aligns with the Production Linked Incentive scheme, boosting manufacturing capacity.
  • Initiative supports Atmanirbhar Bharat in textiles while ensuring affordable input availability.
  • Budget measures target increasing India's global textile export share from current 4% levels.

Additional Information

  • Cotton lint is cleaned cotton fibre used as the primary raw material for yarn spinning.
  • Extra-long staple cotton varieties are imported mainly from USA and Australia for premium fabrics.
  • Textile export promotion councils coordinate sector growth and international market access.
  • PLI scheme provides financial incentives for capacity expansion in textiles manufacturing.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 38

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

According to the National Tiger Conservation Authority’s Phase IV tiger estimation report released in July 2025 on Global Tiger Day, a particular tiger reserve showed remarkable population growth, adding 27 tigers through expanded coverage in newly surveyed zones. It was also identified as the third most densely populated tiger reserve in India, following Corbett and Bandipur. Which tiger reserve achieved this distinction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kanha Tiger Reserve

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagarhole Tiger Reserve

  3. COption (c)

    Kaziranga Tiger Reserve

  4. DOption (d)

    Ranthambore Tiger Reserve

  5. EOption (e)

    Sundarbans Tiger Reserve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kaziranga Tiger Reserve

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kaziranga Tiger Reserve.

In News

  • Kaziranga Tiger Reserve achieved third third-highest tiger density globally at 18.65 tigers per 100 sq km.

Key Points

  • Kaziranga recorded 148 tigers across 1,307.49 sq km area reflecting 27 tiger increase since 2022 estimation.
  • Tiger density 18.65 per 100 sq km ranks third after Bandipur (19.83) and Corbett (19.56).
  • First-time sampling in Biswanath Wildlife Division captured all 27 additional tigers boosting the population.
  • Estimation used camera trap methodology with mark-recapture framework across three divisions from Dec 2023-Apr 2024.
  • Habitat expansion by 200 sq km including encroachment-free areas enhanced tiger movement and breeding.
  • Kaziranga primarily known for one-horned rhinos now recognized as critical tiger habitat.
  • Success attributed to habitat protection, anti-poaching measures, and connectivity improvements.

Additional Information

  • NTCA coordinates tiger conservation across 53 tiger reserves in India under Project Tiger.
  • Phase IV estimation uses advanced camera trapping and occupancy protocols for accurate population data.
  • Tiger density measures tigers per 100 sq km indicating habitat carrying capacity.
  • Global Tiger Day celebrated July 29 raises awareness for tiger conservation worldwide.
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 39

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

According to the RBI's updated guidelines for the Cheque Truncation System, clarified in its Frequently Asked Questions document, a viral claim about mandatory specific ink colours for writing cheques was debunked. The central bank emphasized cheque legibility and permanence over prescribed colours while advising against multi-coloured inks. What specific mandate regarding mandatory ink colour for cheques did RBI clarify as non-existent?

  1. AOption (a)

    Blue ink only mandate

  2. BOption (b)

    Requirement to use only blue or green ink

  3. COption (c)

    Specific hue requirement

  4. DOption (d)

    Mandatory black ink prescription

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Requirement to use only blue or green ink

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Requirement to use only blue or green ink.

In News

  • RBI clarified that no mandatory ink colour requirement exists for writing cheques under Cheque Truncation System guidelines.

Key Points

  • RBI has not prescribed specific ink colours; viral claims about a black ink ban from January 2025 are false.
  • Guidelines recommend image-friendly permanent ink ensuring legibility in the Cheque Truncation System (CTS).
  • Using different coloured inks on the same cheque may render it invalid due to tampering concerns.
  • CTS eliminates physical cheque movement by truncating images for clearing and settlement.
  • Fact-checks by PIB and RBI confirm no colour-specific mandates exist in official guidelines.
  • Public urged to rely on official RBI sources, avoiding misinformation about cheque writing norms.
  • Cheque security depends on clear writing, signatures, and anti-fraud features not ink hue.

Additional Information

  • Cheque Truncation System, operational since 2010 processes electronic cheque images, reducing clearing time.
  • CTS-2010 grids ensure standardised cheque formats across participating banks.
  • Permanent ink prevents fading crucial for long-term record keeping and legal validity.
  • RBI FAQs provide comprehensive guidance on cheque usage and best practices.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)·General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness
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Question 40

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

An Indian airport made history by becoming the nation’s first to be built under the Public-Private Partnership model and later gained global acclaim for operating entirely on solar power through a massive 12 MWp solar plant spread across 45 acres with over 46,000 panels. Which airport holds both distinctions of being India’s first PPP airport and the world’s first fully solar-powered airport?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hyderabad Rajiv Gandhi Airport

  2. BOption (b)

    Cochin International Airport

  3. COption (c)

    Bengaluru Kempegowda Airport

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi Indira Gandhi Airport

  5. EOption (e)

    Mumbai Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cochin International Airport

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cochin International Airport.

In News

  • Cochin International Airport became world's first fully solar-powered airport and India's first PPP model airport.

Key Points

  • Cochin Airport commissioned a 12 MWp solar power plant in 2015 making it the world's first fully solar-powered airport.
  • The airport was constructed under a public-private partnership model involving government and private equity.
  • Solar plant comprises 46,150 panels spread across 45 acres near the air cargo complex, generating all airport power needs.
  • It handles over 5 million passengers annually as Kerala's largest and busiest airport.
  • The Public-Private Partnership model demonstrated successful infrastructure development through private sector participation.
  • Solar energy adoption reduced operational costs and carbon footprint significantly.
  • The achievement positioned India as global leader in sustainable aviation infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • PPP model shares risks and rewards between government and private investors for infrastructure projects.
  • Solar power plant capacity measured in MWp (megawatt peak) indicates maximum power generation potential.
  • Cochin Airport connects Kerala with major domestic and international destinations.
  • Sustainable aviation initiatives support India's renewable energy targets in transport sector.

How should I prepare for Banking Awareness in SBI Probationary Officer (PO)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.