Official Paper

SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 13th September 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

170 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (40 questions)

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Eight people of a three-generation family were born on the same date and same month of different years, 1944, 1954, 1961, 1979, 1993, 1998, 2007, and 2014. They are of different ages and like different fruits, viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava, Plum, Watermelon, Kiwi, and Orange. Their age is calculated with respect to the base year 2025.

Note: In a married couple, the husband is older than his wife.

The age digit of M’s child is the reverse of the age digit of M’s father. The age of R’s daughter is equal to the sum of the ages of T and the one who likes Kiwi. The age of the one who likes Watermelon is the cube of a number. Four people were born between P and the one who likes Watermelon. The age difference between P and the one who likes Guava is the same as the age difference between R’s only granddaughter and the one who likes Guava. S is the sister-in-law of M and has two children. N’s mother is immediately older than N, who does not like Kiwi. Three people were born between N and the one who likes Mango. R is three people older than the one who likes Plum. The age difference between M and the one who likes Apple is 17 years. Q does not like Kiwi and Plum. One of the parents of O is not alive. The age of the one who likes Orange is an odd number.

1

What is the total age of males who belong to the first generation?

  1. ((a))

    56 years

  2. ((b))

    51 years

  3. ((c))

    49 years

  4. ((d))

    45 years

  5. ((e))

    40 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

45 years

Given: Eight people of a three-generation family were born on the same date and same month of different years, 1944, 1954, 1961, 1979, 1993, 1998, 2007, and 2014. They are of different ages and like different fruits, viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava, Plum, Watermelon, Kiwi, and Orange. Their age is calculated with respect to the base year 2025.

  1. The age of the one who likes Watermelon is the cube of a number. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)

 

2. Four people were born between P and the one who likes Watermelon.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)P -
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

3. The age difference between M and the one who likes Apple is 17 years. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)- AppleP - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

  1. The age digit of M’s child is the reverse of the age digit of M’s father. (There is only one pair: 81 years and 18 years)
Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's childM's child
2014 (11)P -

 

  1. The age of R’s daughter is equal to the sum of the ages of T and the one who likes Kiwi. (There is only one pair: 64 = 46 + 18 years, so, R's daughter = 64 years)
Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T/KiwiT/Kiwi
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child (T/Kiwi)M's child (T/Kiwi)
2014 (11)P -

  1. S is the sister-in-law of M and has two children. 

  1. The age difference between P and the one who likes Guava is the same as the age difference between R’s only granddaughter and the one who likes Guava. (There is only one pair: 81 - 46 = 35 and 46 - 11 = 35 years, So, T likes Guava)

Now, we can eliminate Case 1. (Because P and R's only granddaughter are not the same)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T - GuavaT - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - KiwiM's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)(R’s only granddaughter) P -R’s only granddaughter

 

So, P is M's father and R is M's mother.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

8. Three people were born between N and the one who likes Mango.  9. N’s mother is immediately older than N, who does not like Kiwi. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)- Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

  1. R is three people older than the one who likes Plum. 
Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

  1. The age of the one who likes Orange is an odd number. (So, S likes Banana)
Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter - Orange

 

  1. Q does not like Kiwi and Plum.  
Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

  1. One of the parents of O is not alive. (So, O is M's child, so that we can eliminate Case II of blood relation.)

This is our final arrangement,

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)S - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)O - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

Total age of males who belong to the first generation = O(18) + N(27) = 45 years.

Hence, the correct answer is 45 years.

2

The one who is two people older than N’s cousin was born in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1993

  2. ((b))

    1998

  3. ((c))

    2007

  4. ((d))

    2014

  5. ((e))

    1979

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1993

Given: Eight people of a three-generation family were born on the same date and same month of different years, 1944, 1954, 1961, 1979, 1993, 1998, 2007, and 2014. They are of different ages and like different fruits, viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava, Plum, Watermelon, Kiwi, and Orange. Their age is calculated with respect to the base year 2025.

1. The age of the one who likes Watermelon is the cube of a number. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)

 

2. Four people were born between P and the one who likes Watermelon.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)P -
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

3. The age difference between M and the one who likes Apple is 17 years. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)- AppleP - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

4. The age digit of M’s child is the reverse of the age digit of M’s father. (There is only one pair: 81 years and 18 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's childM's child
2014 (11)P -

 

5. The age of R’s daughter is equal to the sum of the ages of T and the one who likes Kiwi. (There is only one pair: 64 = 46 + 18 years, so, R's daughter = 64 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T/KiwiT/Kiwi
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child (T/Kiwi)M's child (T/Kiwi)
2014 (11)P -

6. S is the sister-in-law of M and has two children. 

7. The age difference between P and the one who likes Guava is the same as the age difference between R’s only granddaughter and the one who likes Guava. (There is only one pair: 81 - 46 = 35 and 46 - 11 = 35 years, So, T likes Guava)

Now, we can eliminate Case 1. (Because P and R's only granddaughter are not the same)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T - GuavaT - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - KiwiM's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)(R’s only granddaughter) P -R’s only granddaughter

 

So, P is M's father and R is M's mother.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

8. Three people were born between N and the one who likes Mango.  9. N’s mother is immediately older than N, who does not like Kiwi. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)- Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

10. R is three people older than the one who likes Plum. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

11. The age of the one who likes Orange is an odd number. (So, S likes Banana)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter - Orange

 

12. Q does not like Kiwi and Plum.  

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

13. One of the parents of O is not alive. (So, O is M's child, so that we can eliminate Case II of blood relation.)

This is our final arrangement,

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)S - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)O - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

Hence, the correct answer is 1993.

3

The number of persons older than M’s mother is one less than the number of persons younger than the one who likes _____.

  1. ((a))

    Kiwi

  2. ((b))

    Watermelon

  3. ((c))

    Orange

  4. ((d))

    Guava

  5. ((e))

    Plum

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Watermelon

Given: Eight people of a three-generation family were born on the same date and same month of different years, 1944, 1954, 1961, 1979, 1993, 1998, 2007, and 2014. They are of different ages and like different fruits, viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava, Plum, Watermelon, Kiwi, and Orange. Their age is calculated with respect to the base year 2025.

1. The age of the one who likes Watermelon is the cube of a number. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)

 

2. Four people were born between P and the one who likes Watermelon.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)P -
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

3. The age difference between M and the one who likes Apple is 17 years. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)- AppleP - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

4. The age digit of M’s child is the reverse of the age digit of M’s father. (There is only one pair: 81 years and 18 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's childM's child
2014 (11)P -

 

5. The age of R’s daughter is equal to the sum of the ages of T and the one who likes Kiwi. (There is only one pair: 64 = 46 + 18 years, so, R's daughter = 64 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T/KiwiT/Kiwi
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child (T/Kiwi)M's child (T/Kiwi)
2014 (11)P -

6. S is the sister-in-law of M and has two children. 

7. The age difference between P and the one who likes Guava is the same as the age difference between R’s only granddaughter and the one who likes Guava. (There is only one pair: 81 - 46 = 35 and 46 - 11 = 35 years, So, T likes Guava)

Now, we can eliminate Case 1. (Because P and R's only granddaughter are not the same)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T - GuavaT - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - KiwiM's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)(R’s only granddaughter) P -R’s only granddaughter

 

So, P is M's father and R is M's mother.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

8. Three people were born between N and the one who likes Mango.  9. N’s mother is immediately older than N, who does not like Kiwi. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)- Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

10. R is three people older than the one who likes Plum. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

11. The age of the one who likes Orange is an odd number. (So, S likes Banana)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter - Orange

 

12. Q does not like Kiwi and Plum.  

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

13. One of the parents of O is not alive. (So, O is M's child, so that we can eliminate Case II of blood relation.)

This is our final arrangement,

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)S - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)O - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

Hence, the correct answer is Watermelon.

4

Which among the following is the correct combination?

  1. ((a))

    R - Banana

  2. ((b))

    P - Guava

  3. ((c))

    O - Kiwi

  4. ((d))

    Q - Watermelon

  5. ((e))

    M - Plum

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

O - Kiwi

Given: Eight people of a three-generation family were born on the same date and same month of different years, 1944, 1954, 1961, 1979, 1993, 1998, 2007, and 2014. They are of different ages and like different fruits, viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava, Plum, Watermelon, Kiwi, and Orange. Their age is calculated with respect to the base year 2025.

1. The age of the one who likes Watermelon is the cube of a number. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)

 

2. Four people were born between P and the one who likes Watermelon.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)P -
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

3. The age difference between M and the one who likes Apple is 17 years. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)- AppleP - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

4. The age digit of M’s child is the reverse of the age digit of M’s father. (There is only one pair: 81 years and 18 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's childM's child
2014 (11)P -

 

5. The age of R’s daughter is equal to the sum of the ages of T and the one who likes Kiwi. (There is only one pair: 64 = 46 + 18 years, so, R's daughter = 64 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T/KiwiT/Kiwi
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child (T/Kiwi)M's child (T/Kiwi)
2014 (11)P -

6. S is the sister-in-law of M and has two children. 

7. The age difference between P and the one who likes Guava is the same as the age difference between R’s only granddaughter and the one who likes Guava. (There is only one pair: 81 - 46 = 35 and 46 - 11 = 35 years, So, T likes Guava)

Now, we can eliminate Case 1. (Because P and R's only granddaughter are not the same)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T - GuavaT - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - KiwiM's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)(R’s only granddaughter) P -R’s only granddaughter

 

So, P is M's father and R is M's mother.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

8. Three people were born between N and the one who likes Mango.  9. N’s mother is immediately older than N, who does not like Kiwi. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)- Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

10. R is three people older than the one who likes Plum. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

11. The age of the one who likes Orange is an odd number. (So, S likes Banana)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter - Orange

 

12. Q does not like Kiwi and Plum.  

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

13. One of the parents of O is not alive. (So, O is M's child, so that we can eliminate Case II of blood relation.)

This is our final arrangement,

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)S - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)O - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

Hence, the correct answer is O - Kiwi.

5

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    S likes Watermelon

  2. ((b))

    N’s grandmother likes Banana

  3. ((c))

    Total age of Q and M is a multiple of 5

  4. ((d))

    O is older than at least four persons

  5. ((e))

    O’s uncle is older than R

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Total age of Q and M is a multiple of 5

Given: Eight people of a three-generation family were born on the same date and same month of different years, 1944, 1954, 1961, 1979, 1993, 1998, 2007, and 2014. They are of different ages and like different fruits, viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava, Plum, Watermelon, Kiwi, and Orange. Their age is calculated with respect to the base year 2025.

1. The age of the one who likes Watermelon is the cube of a number. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)

 

2. Four people were born between P and the one who likes Watermelon.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)P -
1954 (71)
1961 (64)- Watermelon
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

3. The age difference between M and the one who likes Apple is 17 years. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)- AppleP - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)
2014 (11)P -

 

4. The age digit of M’s child is the reverse of the age digit of M’s father. (There is only one pair: 81 years and 18 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's childM's child
2014 (11)P -

 

5. The age of R’s daughter is equal to the sum of the ages of T and the one who likes Kiwi. (There is only one pair: 64 = 46 + 18 years, so, R's daughter = 64 years)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T/KiwiT/Kiwi
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child (T/Kiwi)M's child (T/Kiwi)
2014 (11)P -

6. S is the sister-in-law of M and has two children. 

7. The age difference between P and the one who likes Guava is the same as the age difference between R’s only granddaughter and the one who likes Guava. (There is only one pair: 81 - 46 = 35 and 46 - 11 = 35 years, So, T likes Guava)

Now, we can eliminate Case 1. (Because P and R's only granddaughter are not the same)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 1Case 2
1944 (81)M's father - Apple(M's father) P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M - WatermelonM -
1979 (46)T - GuavaT - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - KiwiM's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)(R’s only granddaughter) P -R’s only granddaughter

 

So, P is M's father and R is M's mother.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)
1998 (27)- Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

8. Three people were born between N and the one who likes Mango.  9. N’s mother is immediately older than N, who does not like Kiwi. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)- Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

10. R is three people older than the one who likes Plum. 

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M -
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter

 

11. The age of the one who likes Orange is an odd number. (So, S likes Banana)

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)R’s only granddaughter - Orange

 

12. Q does not like Kiwi and Plum.  

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)N's mother - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)M's child - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

13. One of the parents of O is not alive. (So, O is M's child, so that we can eliminate Case II of blood relation.)

This is our final arrangement,

Years (age)Persons - fruits
Case 2
1944 (81)P - Apple
1954 (71)R - Mango
1961 (64)M - Banana
1979 (46)T - Guava
1993 (32)S - Plum
1998 (27)N - Watermelon
2007 (18)O - Kiwi
2014 (11)Q - Orange

 

Hence, the correct answer is Total age of Q and M is a multiple of 5.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions. Observe how phrases are transformed across four steps.

PhraseStep IStep IIStep IIIStep IV
Designed marketing campaign successfullydengisedgnitekramngiapmacyllufsseccusde7 ma10 ca7 su11ed* nz% dz* tt*n% dzt*
Improved team performance consistentlydevorpmimaetecnamrofrepytlnetsisnocim7 te3 pe12 co11hn* ud* qd% dn*q% ndn*
Enhanced customer satisfaction greatlydecnahneremotsucnoitcafsitasyltaergen7 cu7 sa11 gr8do* dt* tz* hs%h% otz*

 

Phrase: Digital innovation strategy execution

6

How many letters are between the second letter from the left in Step I and third letter from the right in Step I?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    More than three

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

Logic:

Step I: Reverse the letters of the word and combine all letters

Step II:

Letters: Last 2 letters of the word

Number: If the number of letters in a word is even, then subtract 1, and if the number of letters in a word is odd, then add 1.

Step III: 

Letters: If the letter is a vowel, change it to the previous letter, and if the letter is a consonant, change it to the next letter.

Symbol: If the number is odd, change it to *, and if the number is even, change it to %.

Step IV: Pick the second letter of * and pick the first letter of %.

Phrase: Digital innovation strategy execution

Step I: latigidnoitavonniygetartsnoitucexe

Step II: di8 in9 st7 ex10

Step III: eh% ho* tu* dy%

Step IV: ed% ou*

The second letter from the left in Step I = a

and the third letter from the right in Step I = e

Letters between a and e are b, c, and d, i.e., 3 letters.

Hence, the correct answer is Three.

7

What will be the correct Step IV Code?

  1. ((a))

    e% dou*

  2. ((b))

    hyh% t*

  3. ((c))

    hy% ht*

  4. ((d))

    ed% ou*

  5. ((e))

    eo% td*

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ed% ou*

Logic:

Step I: Reverse the letters of the word and combine all letters

Step II:

Letters: Last 2 letters of the word

Number: If the number of letters in a word is even, then subtract 1, and if the number of letters in a word is odd, then add 1.

Step III: 

Letters: If the letter is a vowel, change it to the previous letter, and if the letter is a consonant, change it to the next letter.

Symbol: If the number is odd, change it to *, and if the number is even, change it to %.

Step IV: Pick the second letter of * and pick the first letter of %.

Phrase: Digital innovation strategy execution

Step I: latigidnoitavonniygetartsnoitucexe

Step II: di8 in9 st7 ex10

Step III: eh% ho* tu* dy%

Step IV: ed% ou*

Hence, the correct answer is ed% ou*.

8

What is the 2nd element from the left in step III?

  1. ((a))

    eh%

  2. ((b))

    ho*

  3. ((c))

    ou*

  4. ((d))

    tu*

  5. ((e))

    dy%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ho*

Logic:

Step I: Reverse the letters of the word and combine all letters

Step II:

Letters: Last 2 letters of the word

Number: If the number of letters in a word is even, then subtract 1, and if the number of letters in a word is odd, then add 1.

Step III: 

Letters: If the letter is a vowel, change it to the previous letter, and if the letter is a consonant, change it to the next letter.

Symbol: If the number is odd, change it to *, and if the number is even, change it to %.

Step IV: Pick the second letter of * and pick the first letter of %.

Phrase: Digital innovation strategy execution

Step I: latigidnoitavonniygetartsnoitucexe

Step II: di8 in9 st7 ex10

Step III: eh% ho* tu* dy%

Step IV: ed% ou*

Hence, the correct answer is ho.*

Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions.

There is a four-floor residential building such that Floor 2 is above Floor 1, Floor 3 is above Floor 2, and Floor 4 is above Floor 3. Each floor has two flats, named Flat X and Flat Y, where Flat X is to the west of Flat Y. The total area of each flat is 2880 sq ft. Each flat consists of a certain number of rooms, and the area of every room within a flat is equal. No two flats have the same number of rooms.

The flat, having 4 rooms, is on an even-numbered floor and is immediately above the flat in which each room has an area of 180 sq ft, which is located to the east of the flat in which each room has an area of 320 sq ft. The area of each room of one of the flats on Floor 4 is 20 sq ft less than the area of each room of Flat Y on Floor 1. The flat in which each room has an area of 360 sq ft is immediately above the flat having 5 rooms, which is located to the west of the flat in which each room has an area of 480 sq ft, which is situated on an odd-numbered floor. The total number of rooms on Floor 2 is 16, and none of the flats on this floor have rooms with an area less than 160 sq ft.

9

What is the total number of flats on Floor 3?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    28

  5. ((e))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

11

Given: There is a four-floor residential building such that Floor 2 is above Floor 1, Floor 3 is above Floor 2, and Floor 4 is above Floor 3. Each floor has two flats, named Flat X and Flat Y, where Flat X is to the west of Flat Y. The total area of each flat is 2880 sq ft. Each flat consists of a certain number of rooms, and the area of every room within a flat is equal. No two flats have the same number of rooms.

  1. The flat in which each room has an area of 360 sq ft is immediately above the flat having 5 rooms, which is located to the west of the flat in which each room has an area of 480 sq ft, which is situated on an odd-numbered floor. (2880 ÷ 360 = 8 rooms, 2880 ÷ 480 = 6 rooms, 2880 ÷ 5 = 576 sq ft)

Here, we have two cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

FloorsCase 1Case 2
XYXY
4(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
2(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
1

 

  1. The flat having 4 rooms is on an even-numbered floor and is immediately above the flat in which each room has an area of 180 sq ft, which is located to the east of the flat in which each room has an area of 320 sq ft. (2880 ÷ 4 = 720 sq ft, 2880 ÷ 180 = 16 rooms, 2880 ÷ 320 = 9 rooms)

Now, we can eliminate Case 2. (Because there is no vacant place for a 320 sq ft area)

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The total number of rooms on Floor 2 is 16, and none of the flats on this floor have rooms with an area less than 160 sq ft. (i.e., Floor 2 Flat A = 12 rooms, 2880 ÷ 12 = 240 sq ft)
FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The area of each room of one of the flats on Floor 4 is 20 sq ft less than the area of each room of Flat Y on Floor 1. (i.e., Area of each room on floor 4 is 180 - 20 = 160 sq ft, so rooms = 2880 ÷ 160 = 18 rooms)

This is our final arrangement,

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms(160 sq ft) 18 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

Total rooms on floor 3 = 5 + 6 = 11 rooms.

Hence, the correct answer is 11 rooms.

10

How many rooms are there in Flat X on Floor 2?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

  5. ((e))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

12

Given: There is a four-floor residential building such that Floor 2 is above Floor 1, Floor 3 is above Floor 2, and Floor 4 is above Floor 3. Each floor has two flats, named Flat X and Flat Y, where Flat X is to the west of Flat Y. The total area of each flat is 2880 sq ft. Each flat consists of a certain number of rooms, and the area of every room within a flat is equal. No two flats have the same number of rooms.

  1. The flat in which each room has an area of 360 sq ft is immediately above the flat having 5 rooms, which is located to the west of the flat in which each room has an area of 480 sq ft, which is situated on an odd-numbered floor. (2880 ÷ 360 = 8 rooms, 2880 ÷ 480 = 6 rooms, 2880 ÷ 5 = 576 sq ft)

Here, we have two cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

FloorsCase 1Case 2
XYXY
4(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
2(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
1

 

  1. The flat having 4 rooms is on an even-numbered floor and is immediately above the flat in which each room has an area of 180 sq ft, which is located to the east of the flat in which each room has an area of 320 sq ft. (2880 ÷ 4 = 720 sq ft, 2880 ÷ 180 = 16 rooms, 2880 ÷ 320 = 9 rooms)

Now, we can eliminate Case 2. (Because there is no vacant place for a 320 sq ft area)

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The total number of rooms on Floor 2 is 16, and none of the flats on this floor have rooms with an area less than 160 sq ft. (i.e., Floor 2 Flat A = 12 rooms, 2880 ÷ 12 = 240 sq ft)
FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The area of each room of one of the flats on Floor 4 is 20 sq ft less than the area of each room of Flat Y on Floor 1. (i.e., Area of each room on floor 4 is 180 - 20 = 160 sq ft, so rooms = 2880 ÷ 160 = 18 rooms)

This is our final arrangement,

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms(160 sq ft) 18 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

Hence, the correct answer is 12 rooms.

11

Which of the following statements is definitely true?

  1. ((a))

    Flat X on Floor 4 has 6 rooms

  2. ((b))

    Flat Y on Floor 1 has the smallest room area

  3. ((c))

    Flat X on Floor 2 has 4 rooms

  4. ((d))

    The highest number of rooms is in Flat Y on Floor 4

  5. ((e))

    Flat Y on Floor 3 has more rooms than Flat X on Floor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The highest number of rooms is in Flat Y on Floor 4

Given: There is a four-floor residential building such that Floor 2 is above Floor 1, Floor 3 is above Floor 2, and Floor 4 is above Floor 3. Each floor has two flats, named Flat X and Flat Y, where Flat X is to the west of Flat Y. The total area of each flat is 2880 sq ft. Each flat consists of a certain number of rooms, and the area of every room within a flat is equal. No two flats have the same number of rooms.

  1. The flat in which each room has an area of 360 sq ft is immediately above the flat having 5 rooms, which is located to the west of the flat in which each room has an area of 480 sq ft, which is situated on an odd-numbered floor. (2880 ÷ 360 = 8 rooms, 2880 ÷ 480 = 6 rooms, 2880 ÷ 5 = 576 sq ft)

Here, we have two cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

FloorsCase 1Case 2
XYXY
4(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
2(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
1

 

  1. The flat having 4 rooms is on an even-numbered floor and is immediately above the flat in which each room has an area of 180 sq ft, which is located to the east of the flat in which each room has an area of 320 sq ft. (2880 ÷ 4 = 720 sq ft, 2880 ÷ 180 = 16 rooms, 2880 ÷ 320 = 9 rooms)

Now, we can eliminate Case 2. (Because there is no vacant place for a 320 sq ft area)

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The total number of rooms on Floor 2 is 16, and none of the flats on this floor have rooms with an area less than 160 sq ft. (i.e., Floor 2 Flat A = 12 rooms, 2880 ÷ 12 = 240 sq ft)
FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The area of each room of one of the flats on Floor 4 is 20 sq ft less than the area of each room of Flat Y on Floor 1. (i.e., Area of each room on floor 4 is 180 - 20 = 160 sq ft, so rooms = 2880 ÷ 160 = 18 rooms)

This is our final arrangement,

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms(160 sq ft) 18 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

Hence, the correct answer is The highest number of rooms is in Flat Y on Floor 4.

12

What is the sum of all rooms in Flat X of all floors?

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    34

  4. ((d))

    40 

  5. ((e))

    42 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

34

Given: There is a four-floor residential building such that Floor 2 is above Floor 1, Floor 3 is above Floor 2, and Floor 4 is above Floor 3. Each floor has two flats, named Flat X and Flat Y, where Flat X is to the west of Flat Y. The total area of each flat is 2880 sq ft. Each flat consists of a certain number of rooms, and the area of every room within a flat is equal. No two flats have the same number of rooms.

  1. The flat in which each room has an area of 360 sq ft is immediately above the flat having 5 rooms, which is located to the west of the flat in which each room has an area of 480 sq ft, which is situated on an odd-numbered floor. (2880 ÷ 360 = 8 rooms, 2880 ÷ 480 = 6 rooms, 2880 ÷ 5 = 576 sq ft)

Here, we have two cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

FloorsCase 1Case 2
XYXY
4(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms(360 sq ft)
8 rooms
2(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
1

 

  1. The flat having 4 rooms is on an even-numbered floor and is immediately above the flat in which each room has an area of 180 sq ft, which is located to the east of the flat in which each room has an area of 320 sq ft. (2880 ÷ 4 = 720 sq ft, 2880 ÷ 180 = 16 rooms, 2880 ÷ 320 = 9 rooms)

Now, we can eliminate Case 2. (Because there is no vacant place for a 320 sq ft area)

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The total number of rooms on Floor 2 is 16, and none of the flats on this floor have rooms with an area less than 160 sq ft. (i.e., Floor 2 Flat A = 12 rooms, 2880 ÷ 12 = 240 sq ft)
FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

  1. The area of each room of one of the flats on Floor 4 is 20 sq ft less than the area of each room of Flat Y on Floor 1. (i.e., Area of each room on floor 4 is 180 - 20 = 160 sq ft, so rooms = 2880 ÷ 160 = 18 rooms)

This is our final arrangement,

FloorsCase 1
XY
4(360 sq ft) 8 rooms(160 sq ft) 18 rooms
3(576 sq ft) 5 Rooms(480 sq ft) 6 Rooms
2(240 sq ft) 12 Rooms(720 sq ft) 4 Rooms
1(320 sq ft) 9 Rooms(180 sq ft) 16 Rooms

 

Total rooms in Flat X = 8 + 5 + 12 + 9 = 34 rooms.

Hence, the correct answer is 34 rooms.

13

Nine letters are arranged to form a meaningful word. Exactly two letters are placed between D and T. L is placed at the extreme right end of the arrangement. E is placed immediately left of N. Letter I is placed immediately to the left of D. L is placed fourth to the right of T. The second I is placed somewhere to the right of N but is not adjacent to N. A is placed immediately to the right of C. Now, if only one meaningful word is formed, then which letter is the fourth letter from the left end of the newly formed word? If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer. If more than one meaningful word is formed, mark Y as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N

  1. L is placed at the extreme right end of the arrangement.

_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ L

  1. Letter I is placed immediately to the left of D.

I D

3. Exactly two letters are placed between D and T. 

I D _ _ T

  1. L is placed fourth to the right of T.

I D _ _ T _ _ _ L

  1. E is placed immediately left of N. 6. The second I is placed somewhere to the right of N but is not adjacent to N. 

Here, we have 3 Cases, i.e., Case I, Case II, and Case III.

Case I: I D E N T I _ _ L

Case II: I D E N T _ I _ L

Case III: I D E N T _ _ I L

  1. A is placed immediately to the right of C. 

Now, we can eliminate Case II.

Case I: I D E N T I C A L

Case III: I D E N T C A I L

In case III, it's not a meaningful word.

So, the correct word is IDENTICAL.

Hence, the correct answer is N.

Directions: Read the arrangement and answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting at an equal distance in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in Row 1 facing north, and M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting in Row 2 facing south, such that the persons sitting in Row 1 face the persons sitting in Row 2. Each person celebrates his/her birthday on a different date in the month of 30 days. A, B, C, D, E, and F are born on odd-numbered dates, while M, N, O, P, Q, and R are born on even-numbered dates.

The person who faces E celebrates his birthday on double the date of C’s birthday. N faces the person who sits third to the left of F, who celebrates his birthday on the 1st. D sits third to the right of B, who celebrates his birthday on the 15th, and one of them sits at the end of Row 1. The person who celebrates his birthday on 11 is an immediate neighbour of C. M sits immediately right of P, who faces E. The person who faces A celebrates his birthday on the cube of 2. There are three people between the person who celebrates his birthday on the 15th and the person who celebrates his birthday on an odd-numbered date greater than 3 but less than 6.  The person who faces C celebrates his birthday on double the birthday date of M, while the person who sits immediate right of R celebrates his birthday on half the birth date of O. The person who sits diagonally opposite B celebrates his birthday on the square of an even prime number. Q sits exactly between N and R, but R does not face A. The person who celebrates his birthday on the 25th sits immediate left of the person who celebrates his birthday on the 13th. The person sitting at the right end of Row 2 celebrates his birthday on the 6th.

14

Who among the following celebrates his/her birthday on the 2nd?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    M

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Q

Given: Twelve people are sitting at an equal distance in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in Row 1 facing north, and M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting in Row 2 facing south, such that the persons sitting in Row 1 face the persons sitting in Row 2. Each person celebrates his/her birthday on a different date in the month of 30 days. A, B, C, D, E, and F are born on odd-numbered dates, while M, N, O, P, Q, and R are born on even-numbered dates.

1. D sits third to the right of B, who celebrates his birthday on the 15th, and one of them sits at the end of Row 1. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. There are three people between the person who celebrates his birthday on the 15th and the person who celebrates his birthday on an odd-numbered date greater than 3 but less than 6.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. N faces the person who sits third to the left of F, who celebrates his birthday on the 1st. 

  1. M sits immediately right of P, who faces E. 

5. Q sits exactly between N and R, but R does not face A.

  1. The person who faces E celebrates his birthday on double the date of C’s birthday.

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on 11 is an immediate neighbour of C. 8. The person who faces A celebrates his birthday on the cube of 2. 

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on the 25th sits immediately right of the person who celebrates his birthday on the 13th. (Both dates are odd, i.e., the persons are in Row 1.)

  1. The person who sits diagonally opposite B celebrates his birthday on the square of an even prime number.

  1. The person sitting at the right end of Row 2 celebrates his birthday on the 6th.
  2. The person who faces C celebrates his birthday on double the birthday date of M, while the person who sits immediate right of R celebrates his birthday on half the birth date of O.

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is Q.

15

Which of the following pairs are sitting opposite each other?

  1. ((a))

    B - Q

  2. ((b))

    E - M

  3. ((c))

    O - D

  4. ((d))

    E - R

  5. ((e))

    A - N

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

A - N

Given: Twelve people are sitting at an equal distance in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in Row 1 facing north, and M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting in Row 2 facing south, such that the persons sitting in Row 1 face the persons sitting in Row 2. Each person celebrates his/her birthday on a different date in the month of 30 days. A, B, C, D, E, and F are born on odd-numbered dates, while M, N, O, P, Q, and R are born on even-numbered dates.

1. D sits third to the right of B, who celebrates his birthday on the 15th, and one of them sits at the end of Row 1. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

2. There are three people between the person who celebrates his birthday on the 15th and the person who celebrates his birthday on an odd-numbered date greater than 3 but less than 6.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

3. N faces the person who sits third to the left of F, who celebrates his birthday on the 1st. 

4. M sits immediately right of P, who faces E. 

5. Q sits exactly between N and R, but R does not face A.

  1. The person who faces E celebrates his birthday on double the date of C’s birthday.

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on 11 is an immediate neighbour of C. 8. The person who faces A celebrates his birthday on the cube of 2. 

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on the 25th sits immediately right of the person who celebrates his birthday on the 13th. (Both dates are odd, i.e., the persons are in Row 1.)

  1. The person who sits diagonally opposite B celebrates his birthday on the square of an even prime number.

  1. The person sitting at the right end of Row 2 celebrates his birthday on the 6th.
  2. The person who faces C celebrates his birthday on double the birthday date of M, while the person who sits immediate right of R celebrates his birthday on half the birth date of O.

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is A - N.

16

Who sits at the right end of Row 2?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

Given: Twelve people are sitting at an equal distance in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in Row 1 facing north, and M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting in Row 2 facing south, such that the persons sitting in Row 1 face the persons sitting in Row 2. Each person celebrates his/her birthday on a different date in the month of 30 days. A, B, C, D, E, and F are born on odd-numbered dates, while M, N, O, P, Q, and R are born on even-numbered dates.

1. D sits third to the right of B, who celebrates his birthday on the 15th, and one of them sits at the end of Row 1. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

2. There are three people between the person who celebrates his birthday on the 15th and the person who celebrates his birthday on an odd-numbered date greater than 3 but less than 6.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

3. N faces the person who sits third to the left of F, who celebrates his birthday on the 1st. 

4. M sits immediately right of P, who faces E. 

5. Q sits exactly between N and R, but R does not face A.

  1. The person who faces E celebrates his birthday on double the date of C’s birthday.

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on 11 is an immediate neighbour of C. 8. The person who faces A celebrates his birthday on the cube of 2. 

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on the 25th sits immediately right of the person who celebrates his birthday on the 13th. (Both dates are odd, i.e., the persons are in Row 1.)

  1. The person who sits diagonally opposite B celebrates his birthday on the square of an even prime number.

  1. The person sitting at the right end of Row 2 celebrates his birthday on the 6th.
  2. The person who faces C celebrates his birthday on double the birthday date of M, while the person who sits immediate right of R celebrates his birthday on half the birth date of O.

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is M.

17

What is the birthday date of the person who faces P?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    11

  5. ((e))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25

Given: Twelve people are sitting at an equal distance in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in Row 1 facing north, and M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting in Row 2 facing south, such that the persons sitting in Row 1 face the persons sitting in Row 2. Each person celebrates his/her birthday on a different date in the month of 30 days. A, B, C, D, E, and F are born on odd-numbered dates, while M, N, O, P, Q, and R are born on even-numbered dates.

1. D sits third to the right of B, who celebrates his birthday on the 15th, and one of them sits at the end of Row 1. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

2. There are three people between the person who celebrates his birthday on the 15th and the person who celebrates his birthday on an odd-numbered date greater than 3 but less than 6.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

3. N faces the person who sits third to the left of F, who celebrates his birthday on the 1st. 

4. M sits immediately right of P, who faces E. 

5. Q sits exactly between N and R, but R does not face A.

  1. The person who faces E celebrates his birthday on double the date of C’s birthday.

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on 11 is an immediate neighbour of C. 8. The person who faces A celebrates his birthday on the cube of 2. 

  1. The person who celebrates his birthday on the 25th sits immediately right of the person who celebrates his birthday on the 13th. (Both dates are odd, i.e., the persons are in Row 1.)

  1. The person who sits diagonally opposite B celebrates his birthday on the square of an even prime number.

  1. The person sitting at the right end of Row 2 celebrates his birthday on the 6th.
  2. The person who faces C celebrates his birthday on double the birthday date of M, while the person who sits immediate right of R celebrates his birthday on half the birth date of O.

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is 25.

Directions: Each question below is followed by two statements numbered I, and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements carefully and give answer:

18

Six boxes, J, K, L, M, N, and O, are stacked one above the other in a vertical arrangement, not necessarily in the same order. Which box is kept third from the bottom?

Statement I: Box L is kept immediately above box M. Box J is kept two boxes above box M. Box N is adjacent to box M but below box K.

Statement II: Box K is kept above box N. Box O is kept below box J. More than one box is placed between box K and box O. Box M is not kept at the top or bottom.

  1. ((a))

    Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer

  2. ((b))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer

  3. ((c))

    Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer

  4. ((d))

    Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer

  5. ((e))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer

Statement I: Box L is kept immediately above box M. Box J is kept two boxes above box M. Box N is adjacent to box M but below box K.

Boxes
Case 1Case 2Case 3
KOK
JKO
LJJ
MLL
NMM
ONN

 

Statement II: Box K is kept above box N. Box O is kept below box J. More than one box is placed between box K and box O. Box M is not kept at the top or bottom.

From I and II,

Boxes
Case 1
K
J
L
M
N
O

 

Hence, the correct answer is Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.

19

Six people, A, B, C, D, E, and F, deliver their presentations on six different days from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. Who delivers the presentation on Wednesday?

Statement I: C delivers the presentation immediately after A, but before B. Exactly two people deliver presentations between C and E. D delivers the presentation immediately before A. F delivers the presentation after D but before B.

Statement II: More than two people deliver presentations after A. E delivers the presentation two days before B. C delivers the presentation after D. An equal number of people deliver presentations before F and after A. D delivers the presentation before A.

  1. ((a))

    Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer

  2. ((b))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer

  3. ((c))

    Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer

  4. ((d))

    ​Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer

  5. ((e))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer

Statement I: C delivers the presentation immediately after A, but before B. Exactly two people deliver presentations between C and E. D delivers the presentation immediately before A. F delivers the presentation after D but before B.

DaysPersons
Case ICase II
MondayED
TuesdayDA
WednesdayAC
ThursdayCF
FridayFB
SaturdayBE

 

Statement II: More than two people deliver presentations after A. E delivers the presentation two days before B. C delivers the presentation after D. An equal number of people deliver presentations before F and after A. D delivers the presentation before A.

DaysPersons
MondayD
TuesdayA
WednesdayC
ThursdayE
FridayF
SaturdayB

 

Hence, the correct answer is Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.

20

Six persons, S, T, U, V, W, and X, sit in a straight row facing north. Who sits immediately to the left of V?

Statement I: S sits second to the right of W. U sits immediately to the right of S. V sits somewhere to the left of W. Exactly three persons sit between X and U.

Statement II: One person sits between T and S. X sits immediately to the right of T. V sits second to the right of T. W is not an immediate neighbour of S.

  1. ((a))

    Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer

  2. ((b))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer

  3. ((c))

    Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer

  4. ((d))

    ​Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer

  5. ((e))

    Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

​Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer

Statement I: S sits second to the right of W. U sits immediately to the right of S. V sits somewhere to the left of W. Exactly three persons sit between X and U.

Statement II: One person sits between T and S. X sits immediately to the right of T. V sits second to the right of T. W is not an immediate neighbour of S.

Hence, the correct answer is Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer.

Directions: Study the passage carefully and answer the given questions.

In recent years, India has witnessed a rapid transformation driven by digital innovation, infrastructure expansion, and a renewed focus on sustainability. The government’s push toward digital public infrastructure, such as UPI, Aadhaar-enabled services, and online governance platforms, has significantly improved service delivery and financial inclusion, particularly in semi-urban and rural areas. At the same time, large-scale infrastructure projects, including highways, metro networks, renewable energy parks, and logistics corridors, aim to boost economic growth and employment. However, this rapid development has also raised concerns regarding environmental impact, data privacy, and equitable access to opportunities. While startups and technology-driven enterprises have benefited from policy support and increased investor confidence, traditional sectors and small businesses often struggle to adapt to fast-changing regulations and digital requirements. As global economic uncertainties persist and climate challenges intensify, policymakers face the task of balancing growth with inclusivity, innovation with regulation, and development with long-term sustainability.

21

Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    Digital public infrastructure has completely eliminated economic inequality in India.

  2. ((b))

    Infrastructure growth alone is sufficient to ensure long-term sustainability.

  3. ((c))

    Rapid development brings both opportunities and challenges that need careful management.

  4. ((d))

    Traditional businesses will inevitably shut down due to digital transformation.

  5. ((e))

    Environmental concerns are no longer relevant in modern development policies.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rapid development brings both opportunities and challenges that need careful management.

Option 1: Incorrect

The passage does not claim that digital infrastructure has completely eliminated inequality. It only states that service delivery and inclusion have improved, not that disparities no longer exist.

Option 2: Incorrect

The paragraph clearly highlights environmental and sustainability concerns, indicating that infrastructure growth alone is not sufficient for long-term progress.

Option 3: Correct

The passage discusses both the benefits of rapid development (growth, inclusion, innovation) and the challenges it brings (environmental impact, data privacy, unequal adaptation). This supports the inference that development requires careful management.

Option 4: Incorrect

Although traditional sectors face challenges, the passage does not suggest their inevitable closure. It merely indicates difficulty in adapting.

Option 5: Incorrect

Environmental concerns are explicitly mentioned, making this option contradictory to the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is Rapid development brings both opportunities and challenges that need careful management.

22

Which of the following conclusions logically follows from the paragraph?

  1. ((a))

    India should completely halt infrastructure and digital expansion.

  2. ((b))

    Policymakers must strike a balance between development, regulation, and inclusivity.

  3. ((c))

    Digital platforms should replace all traditional sectors immediately.

  4. ((d))

    Global economic uncertainties have no impact on India’s growth strategy.

  5. ((e))

    Sustainability and growth cannot coexist.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Policymakers must strike a balance between development, regulation, and inclusivity.

Option 1: Incorrect

The passage does not argue for stopping development; instead, it stresses managing growth responsibly.

Option 2: Correct

The final lines of the paragraph explicitly emphasize balancing growth with inclusivity, innovation with regulation, and development with sustainability. This directly leads to this conclusion.

Option 3: Incorrect

There is no suggestion that digital platforms should entirely replace traditional sectors.

Option 4: Incorrect

The passage acknowledges global economic uncertainties, indicating that they do affect growth strategies.

Option 5: Incorrect

The paragraph implies that sustainability and growth must coexist, not that they are mutually exclusive.

Hence, the correct answer is Policymakers must strike a balance between development, regulation, and inclusivity.

23

Which of the following is an implicit assumption underlying the government’s focus on digital infrastructure and large-scale projects?

  1. ((a))

    Citizens are unwilling to adapt to technological changes.

  2. ((b))

    Economic growth can be enhanced through technology and infrastructure development.

  3. ((c))

    Environmental concerns are secondary to economic progress.

  4. ((d))

    Only urban populations benefit from digital transformation.

  5. ((e))

    Regulations discourage innovation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Economic growth can be enhanced through technology and infrastructure development.

Option 1: Incorrect

The passage does not assume resistance from citizens toward technology adoption.

Option 2: Correct

The government’s emphasis on digital infrastructure and large projects assumes that technology and infrastructure can drive economic growth, efficiency, and inclusion.

Option 3: Incorrect

Environmental concerns are treated as important challenges, not as secondary or ignorable.

Option 4: Incorrect

The passage highlights benefits in semi-urban and rural areas, contradicting this assumption.

Option 5: Incorrect

There is no assumption that regulations inherently discourage innovation; rather, the need for balance is emphasized.

Hence, the correct answer is Economic growth can be enhanced through technology and infrastructure development.

Directions: A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.

Input: PA683 LN475 TU294 BK861 OR537 MI742

Step I: BO643 KM491 SV812 AJ645 PQ492 JL492

Step II: OB13 MK14 VS11 JA15 QP15 LJ15

Step III: ob26 mk28 vs22 ja30 qp30 lj30

Step IV: na78 lj84 ur66 iz90 po90 ki90

Step V: %#69 %%95 #%77 #%80 %#80 %#80

And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the given input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: DE584 AX739 PM261 WS948 CN375 UO682

24

How many numbers are divisible by 4 in Step IV?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Two

Logic:

Step 1: Find the highest digit in the number and write its square. Rearrange the letters in alphabetical order.

For each vowel → next alphabet

For each consonant → previous alphabet

Write the positive difference of the remaining two digits.

Step 2: Reverse the letters obtained in Step 1. Replace the number with the sum of the number obtained in Step 1.

Step 3: Write the 1st and 2nd elements in small letters. Replace the number with multiply by 2.

Step 4: Each letter is replaced by its previous alphabet. The number is multiplied by 3.

Step 5: Replace consonants by (%) and vowels by (#).

In the number:

Odd Digit → -1

Even Digit → +1, and 0 has no change.

Step 5 is the final step of the rearrangement.

Input: DE584 AX739 PM261 WS948 CN375 UO682

Step I: CF641 BW814 LO361 RV814 BM492 PV644

Step II: FC11 WB13 OL10 VR13 MB15 VP14

Step III: fc22 wb26 ol20 vr26 mb30 vp28

Step IV: eb66 va78 nk60 uq78 la90 uo84

Step V: #%77 %#69 %%70 #%69 %#80 ##95

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is Two.

25

In which step are the following elements present in the same manner?

“wb26 ol20 vr26”

  1. ((a))

    Step I

  2. ((b))

    Step II

  3. ((c))

    Step III

  4. ((d))

    Step IV

  5. ((e))

    Step V

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Step III

Logic:

Step 1: Find the highest digit in the number and write its square. Rearrange the letters in alphabetical order.

For each vowel → next alphabet

For each consonant → previous alphabet

Write the positive difference of the remaining two digits.

Step 2: Reverse the letters obtained in Step 1. Replace the number with the sum of the number obtained in Step 1.

Step 3: Write the 1st and 2nd elements in small letters. Replace the number with multiply by 2.

Step 4: Each letter is replaced by its previous alphabet. The number is multiplied by 3.

Step 5: Replace consonants by (%) and vowels by (#).

In the number:

Odd Digit → -1

Even Digit → +1, and 0 has no change.

Step 5 is the final step of the rearrangement.

Input: DE584 AX739 PM261 WS948 CN375 UO682

Step I: CF641 BW814 LO361 RV814 BM492 PV644

Step II: FC11 WB13 OL10 VR13 MB15 VP14

Step III: fc22 wb26 ol20 vr26 mb30 vp28

Step IV: eb66 va78 nk60 uq78 la90 uo84

Step V: #%77 %#69 %%70 #%69 %#80 ##95

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is Step III.

26

Which of the following elements is present in Step II?

  1. ((a))

    FC12

  2. ((b))

    WB13

  3. ((c))

    LO10

  4. ((d))

    VS23

  5. ((e))

    NV15

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

WB13

Logic:

Step 1: Find the highest digit in the number and write its square. Rearrange the letters in alphabetical order.

For each vowel → next alphabet

For each consonant → previous alphabet

Write the positive difference of the remaining two digits.

Step 2: Reverse the letters obtained in Step 1. Replace the number with the sum of the number obtained in Step 1.

Step 3: Write the 1st and 2nd elements in small letters. Replace the number with multiply by 2.

Step 4: Each letter is replaced by its previous alphabet. The number is multiplied by 3.

Step 5: Replace consonants by (%) and vowels by (#).

In the number:

Odd Digit → -1

Even Digit → +1, and 0 has no change.

Step 5 is the final step of the rearrangement.

Input: DE584 AX739 PM261 WS948 CN375 UO682

Step I: CF641 BW814 LO361 RV814 BM492 PV644

Step II: FC11 WB13 OL10 VR13 MB15 VP14

Step III: fc22 wb26 ol20 vr26 mb30 vp28

Step IV: eb66 va78 nk60 uq78 la90 uo84

Step V: #%77 %#69 %%70 #%69 %#80 ##95

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is WB13.

27

Which among the following combinations of letters are present in Step IV?

  1. ((a))

    eb

  2. ((b))

    pq

  3. ((c))

    rs

  4. ((d))

    tu

  5. ((e))

    More than one option

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

eb

Logic:

Step 1: Find the highest digit in the number and write its square. Rearrange the letters in alphabetical order.

For each vowel → next alphabet

For each consonant → previous alphabet

Write the positive difference of the remaining two digits.

Step 2: Reverse the letters obtained in Step 1. Replace the number with the sum of the number obtained in Step 1.

Step 3: Write the 1st and 2nd elements in small letters. Replace the number with multiply by 2.

Step 4: Each letter is replaced by its previous alphabet. The number is multiplied by 3.

Step 5: Replace consonants by (%) and vowels by (#).

In the number:

Odd Digit → -1

Even Digit → +1, and 0 has no change.

Step 5 is the final step of the rearrangement.

Input: DE584 AX739 PM261 WS948 CN375 UO682

Step I: CF641 BW814 LO361 RV814 BM492 PV644

Step II: FC11 WB13 OL10 VR13 MB15 VP14

Step III: fc22 wb26 ol20 vr26 mb30 vp28

Step IV: eb66 va78 nk60 uq78 la90 uo84

Step V: #%77 %#69 %%70 #%69 %#80 ##95

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is eb.

28

What will be the sum of all the numbers obtained in Step II?

  1. ((a))

    62

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    76

  4. ((d))

    80

  5. ((e))

    88

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

76

Logic:

Step 1: Find the highest digit in the number and write its square. Rearrange the letters in alphabetical order.

For each vowel → next alphabet

For each consonant → previous alphabet

Write the positive difference of the remaining two digits.

Step 2: Reverse the letters obtained in Step 1. Replace the number with the sum of the number obtained in Step 1.

Step 3: Write the 1st and 2nd elements in small letters. Replace the number with multiply by 2.

Step 4: Each letter is replaced by its previous alphabet. The number is multiplied by 3.

Step 5: Replace consonants by (%) and vowels by (#).

In the number:

Odd Digit → -1

Even Digit → +1, and 0 has no change.

Step 5 is the final step of the rearrangement.

Input: DE584 AX739 PM261 WS948 CN375 UO682

Step I: CF641 BW814 LO361 RV814 BM492 PV644

Step II: FC11 WB13 OL10 VR13 MB15 VP14

Step III: fc22 wb26 ol20 vr26 mb30 vp28

Step IV: eb66 va78 nk60 uq78 la90 uo84

Step V: #%77 %#69 %%70 #%69 %#80 ##95

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is 76.

29

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the given question.

Governments are promoting electric vehicles (EVs) as a solution to reduce urban air pollution and dependence on fossil fuels. While EV adoption has increased, challenges such as limited charging infrastructure, high initial costs, and uneven electricity supply remain significant barriers. Without addressing these issues, large-scale adoption of electric vehicles may remain slow.

Which of the following is an implicit assumption underlying the promotion of electric vehicles?

  1. ((a))

    Electricity generation is completely pollution-free.

  2. ((b))

    People are unwilling to use public transport.

  3. ((c))

    Improved infrastructure will encourage wider adoption of electric vehicles.

  4. ((d))

    Fossil fuel prices will remain constant.

  5. ((e))

    Electric vehicles are suitable only for urban areas.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Improved infrastructure will encourage wider adoption of electric vehicles.

Option 1: Incorrect

The passage does not assume electricity generation to be completely pollution-free.

Option 2: Incorrect

Public transport usage is not discussed in the passage.

Option 3: Correct

The promotion of electric vehicles assumes that addressing issues like charging infrastructure and supply will lead to wider adoption, which is essential for the policy to succeed.

Option 4: Incorrect

There is no assumption regarding fossil fuel price stability.

Option 5: Incorrect

The passage does not restrict electric vehicles to urban areas only.

Hence, the correct answer is Improved infrastructure will encourage wider adoption of electric vehicles.

30

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the given question.

Studies indicate a steady decline in reading habits among young people, with digital entertainment and social media consuming much of their leisure time. Educators warn that reduced reading may affect vocabulary development, critical thinking, and concentration. Despite this, libraries and reading programs receive limited funding and attention.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action based on the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Ban the use of social media among students.

  2. ((b))

    Increase funding for libraries and introduce engaging reading programs for youth.

  3. ((c))

    Replace textbooks with short online summaries.

  4. ((d))

    Ignore the trend as digital media is inevitable.

  5. ((e))

    Reduce academic workload to allow more free time.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Increase funding for libraries and introduce engaging reading programs for youth.

Option 1: Incorrect

Banning social media is an extreme and impractical step not suggested by the passage.

Option 2: Correct

The passage highlights declining reading habits and limited support for libraries, making increased funding and engaging programs the most practical and relevant action.

Option 3: Incorrect

Replacing textbooks with summaries would further weaken reading habits.

Option 4: Incorrect

Ignoring the issue contradicts the concerns raised by educators.

Option 5: Incorrect

Reducing workload does not directly address the decline in reading habits.

Hence, the correct answer is Increase funding for libraries and introduce engaging reading programs for youth.

31

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the given question.

Many companies are increasingly using artificial intelligence-based tools to screen job applications and shortlist candidates. These systems can process large volumes of data quickly and reduce human bias to some extent. However, concerns have been raised that such tools may unintentionally reinforce existing biases if trained on flawed data. Moreover, candidates often have little clarity about how decisions are made, leading to issues of transparency and accountability.

Which of the following is the strongest argument against excessive reliance on AI-based hiring tools?

  1. ((a))

    AI systems are expensive to install and maintain.

  2. ((b))

    Human recruiters take more time to evaluate candidates.

  3. ((c))

    AI tools may perpetuate hidden biases and lack transparency in decision-making.

  4. ((d))

    Job applicants prefer traditional interview methods.

  5. ((e))

    Most companies lack the technical expertise to use AI.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

AI tools may perpetuate hidden biases and lack transparency in decision-making.

Option 1: Incorrect

The cost of AI systems is not the central concern raised in the passage.

Option 2: Incorrect

The speed of human recruiters is not presented as a drawback or a strong argument.

Option 3: Correct

The passage clearly highlights the risk of reinforcing hidden biases and the lack of transparency in AI-based decision-making, making this the strongest argument against excessive reliance on such tools.

Option 4: Incorrect

Applicant preference is not discussed in the passage.

Option 5: Incorrect

Lack of technical expertise is not mentioned as a major concern.

Hence, the correct answer is AI tools may perpetuate hidden biases and lack transparency in decision-making.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Ten different books - History, Science, Geography, Economics, Literature, Mathematics, Psychology, Philosophy, Biology, and Politics - are kept in an almirah having four vertical stacks: Stack 1, Stack 2, Stack 3, and Stack 4. Stack 2 is to the east of Stack 1, Stack 3 is to the east of Stack 2, and Stack 4 is to the east of Stack 3. Each stack contains a different number of books. The number of books decreases from west to east, i.e., Stack 1 has more books than Stack 2, Stack 2 has more books than Stack 3, and Stack 3 has more books than Stack 4. At least one book is kept in each stack, and the top of all four stacks contains a book.

Science is kept immediately above History in the same stack. The geography book is kept two books above the Mathematics book in the same stack. The psychology book is kept to the east of the Politics book, which is not kept in Stack 3. Philosophy is kept at the top of Stack 3. History is kept two positions above Biology in the same stack. The literature book is not kept in Stack 4.

32

Which book is kept at the top of Stack 1?

  1. ((a))

    Psychology

  2. ((b))

    Science

  3. ((c))

    Literature

  4. ((d))

    Mathematics

  5. ((e))

    Geography

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Science

Given: Ten different books - History, Science, Geography, Economics, Literature, Mathematics, Psychology, Philosophy, Biology, and Politics - are kept in an almirah having four vertical stacks: Stack 1, Stack 2, Stack 3, and Stack 4. Stack 2 is to the east of Stack 1, Stack 3 is to the east of Stack 2, and Stack 4 is to the east of Stack 3. Each stack contains a different number of books. The number of books decreases from west to east, i.e., Stack 1 has more books than Stack 2, Stack 2 has more books than Stack 3, and Stack 3 has more books than Stack 4. At least one book is kept in each stack, and the top of all four stacks contains a book.

Stack 1 (4 Books)Stack 2 (3 Books)Stack 3 (2 Books)Stack 4 (1 Book)

 

  1. Philosophy is kept at the top of Stack 3. 
  2. Science is kept immediately above History in the same stack.
  3. History is kept two positions above Biology in the same stack.
Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
Biology

 

  1. The psychology book is kept to the east of the Politics book, which is not kept in Stack 3.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
Biology

 

Case 2: 

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
BiologyPoliticsPsychology

 

  1. The geography book is kept two books above the Mathematics book in the same stack.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematics

 

  1. The literature book is not kept in Stack 4.

This is our final arrangement,

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematicsLiteratureEconomics

 

Hence, the correct answer is Science.

33

How many total books are kept in Stack 2 and Stack 4?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Given: Ten different books - History, Science, Geography, Economics, Literature, Mathematics, Psychology, Philosophy, Biology, and Politics - are kept in an almirah having four vertical stacks: Stack 1, Stack 2, Stack 3, and Stack 4. Stack 2 is to the east of Stack 1, Stack 3 is to the east of Stack 2, and Stack 4 is to the east of Stack 3. Each stack contains a different number of books. The number of books decreases from west to east, i.e., Stack 1 has more books than Stack 2, Stack 2 has more books than Stack 3, and Stack 3 has more books than Stack 4. At least one book is kept in each stack, and the top of all four stacks contains a book.

Stack 1 (4 Books)Stack 2 (3 Books)Stack 3 (2 Books)Stack 4 (1 Book)

 

1. Philosophy is kept at the top of Stack 3.  2. Science is kept immediately above History in the same stack. 3. History is kept two positions above Biology in the same stack.

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
Biology

 

  1. The psychology book is kept to the east of the Politics book, which is not kept in Stack 3.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
Biology

 

Case 2: 

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
BiologyPoliticsPsychology

 

  1. The geography book is kept two books above the Mathematics book in the same stack.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematics

 

  1. The literature book is not kept in Stack 4.

This is our final arrangement,

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematicsLiteratureEconomics

 

Hence, the correct answer is 4.

34

Which of the following pairs is in the same stack?

  1. ((a))

    Economics - Literature

  2. ((b))

    Literature - Psychology

  3. ((c))

    Science - Economics

  4. ((d))

    Geography - Psychology

  5. ((e))

    Mathematics - History

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Geography - Psychology

Given: Ten different books - History, Science, Geography, Economics, Literature, Mathematics, Psychology, Philosophy, Biology, and Politics - are kept in an almirah having four vertical stacks: Stack 1, Stack 2, Stack 3, and Stack 4. Stack 2 is to the east of Stack 1, Stack 3 is to the east of Stack 2, and Stack 4 is to the east of Stack 3. Each stack contains a different number of books. The number of books decreases from west to east, i.e., Stack 1 has more books than Stack 2, Stack 2 has more books than Stack 3, and Stack 3 has more books than Stack 4. At least one book is kept in each stack, and the top of all four stacks contains a book.

Stack 1 (4 Books)Stack 2 (3 Books)Stack 3 (2 Books)Stack 4 (1 Book)

 

1. Philosophy is kept at the top of Stack 3.  2. Science is kept immediately above History in the same stack. 3. History is kept two positions above Biology in the same stack.

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
Biology

 

  1. The psychology book is kept to the east of the Politics book, which is not kept in Stack 3.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
Biology

 

Case 2: 

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
BiologyPoliticsPsychology

 

  1. The geography book is kept two books above the Mathematics book in the same stack.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematics

 

  1. The literature book is not kept in Stack 4.

This is our final arrangement,

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematicsLiteratureEconomics

 

Hence, the correct answer is Geography - Psychology.

35

Which book is kept immediately above Politics?

  1. ((a))

    Science

  2. ((b))

    Geography

  3. ((c))

    Literature

  4. ((d))

    Psychology

  5. ((e))

    History

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

History

Given: Ten different books - History, Science, Geography, Economics, Literature, Mathematics, Psychology, Philosophy, Biology, and Politics - are kept in an almirah having four vertical stacks: Stack 1, Stack 2, Stack 3, and Stack 4. Stack 2 is to the east of Stack 1, Stack 3 is to the east of Stack 2, and Stack 4 is to the east of Stack 3. Each stack contains a different number of books. The number of books decreases from west to east, i.e., Stack 1 has more books than Stack 2, Stack 2 has more books than Stack 3, and Stack 3 has more books than Stack 4. At least one book is kept in each stack, and the top of all four stacks contains a book.

Stack 1 (4 Books)Stack 2 (3 Books)Stack 3 (2 Books)Stack 4 (1 Book)

 

1. Philosophy is kept at the top of Stack 3.  2. Science is kept immediately above History in the same stack. 3. History is kept two positions above Biology in the same stack.

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
Biology

 

  1. The psychology book is kept to the east of the Politics book, which is not kept in Stack 3.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
Biology

 

Case 2: 

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
History
Philosophy
BiologyPoliticsPsychology

 

  1. The geography book is kept two books above the Mathematics book in the same stack.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

Case 1:

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematics

 

  1. The literature book is not kept in Stack 4.

This is our final arrangement,

Stack 1Stack 2Stack 3Stack 4
Science
HistoryGeography
PoliticsPsychologyPhilosophy
BiologyMathematicsLiteratureEconomics

 

Hence, the correct answer is History.

Directions: Study the passage carefully and answer the given questions.

In recent years, urban centers across the country have experienced a sharp increase in air pollution levels, largely due to rapid urbanization, growing vehicular traffic, and increased construction activity. Despite the introduction of emission norms and periodic restrictions on vehicle usage, pollution levels often exceed safe limits, especially during winter months. Public transport systems in many cities remain inadequate, leading to heavy dependence on private vehicles. Additionally, awareness campaigns on pollution control have had limited impact due to inconsistent enforcement and lack of coordination among local authorities. Health experts have repeatedly warned that prolonged exposure to polluted air can lead to serious respiratory and cardiovascular diseases, particularly affecting children and the elderly. Given these challenges, city administrations are under increasing pressure to adopt more effective and sustainable measures to address the worsening air quality.

36

Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action based on the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Impose an immediate and permanent ban on all private vehicles in urban areas.

  2. ((b))

    Strengthen public transport infrastructure and ensure strict enforcement of emission regulations.

  3. ((c))

    Ignore short-term pollution spikes and focus only on long-term urban expansion.

  4. ((d))

    Shift all administrative offices to rural areas to reduce urban population density.

  5. ((e))

    Conduct awareness campaigns without implementing any regulatory measures.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Strengthen public transport infrastructure and ensure strict enforcement of emission regulations.

Option 1: Incorrect

A complete and permanent ban on private vehicles is extreme and impractical. The passage does not suggest such a drastic measure.

Option 2: Correct

The passage highlights inadequate public transport and weak enforcement of emission norms. Strengthening public transport and enforcing regulations directly addresses the core problems identified.

Option 3: Incorrect

Ignoring short-term pollution spikes contradicts the health concerns emphasized in the passage.

Option 4: Incorrect

Shifting administrative offices to rural areas is neither discussed nor logically connected to controlling urban air pollution.

Option 5: Incorrect

The passage notes that awareness campaigns alone have had a limited impact. Hence, relying only on them would be insufficient.

Hence, the correct answer is Strengthen public transport infrastructure and ensure strict enforcement of emission regulations.

37

Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Air pollution is solely caused by industrial activities.

  2. ((b))

    Existing pollution control measures have been partially ineffective.

  3. ((c))

    Urban residents are completely unaware of pollution-related health risks.

  4. ((d))

    Construction activity has no role in worsening air quality.

  5. ((e))

    Health experts oppose urban development.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Existing pollution control measures have been partially ineffective.

Option 1: Incorrect

The passage identifies multiple causes of air pollution, including vehicular traffic and construction, not just industrial activity.

Option 2: Correct

Despite emission norms and restrictions, pollution levels remain high, indicating that existing measures have not been fully effective.

Option 3: Incorrect

The passage mentions awareness campaigns, implying that people are not completely unaware of pollution-related risks.

Option 4: Incorrect

Construction activity is explicitly mentioned as a contributing factor, making this option factually incorrect.

Option 5: Incorrect

Health experts warn about the consequences of pollution, but do not oppose urban development itself.

Hence, the correct answer is Existing pollution control measures have been partially ineffective.

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A * B (18m) means A is 8m north of B

A % B (24m) means A is 14m south of B

A & B (28m) means A is 18m east of B

A @ B (35m) means A is 25m west of B

Now, consider the following information:

M * N (16m), O @ P (32m), N & O (36m), Q & P (42m), S @ R (58m), S % T (27m), U % Q (20m), R * U (22m), X * R (30m)

38

In which direction is M with respect to P?

  1. ((a))

    Northeast

  2. ((b))

    Northwest

  3. ((c))

    Southeast

  4. ((d))

    Southwest

  5. ((e))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Northeast

A * B (18m) → A is 8m north of B

A % B (24m) → A is 14m south of B

A & B (28m) → A is 18m east of B

A @ B (35m) → A is 25m west of B

then,

M * N (16m) → M is 6m north of N

O @ P (32m) → O is 22m west of P

N & O (36m) → N is 26m east of O

Q & P (42m) → Q is 32m east of P

S @ R (58m) → S is 48m west of R

S % T (27m) → S is 17m south of T

U % Q (20m) → U is 10m south of Q

R * U (22m) → R is 12m north of U

X * R (30m) → X is 20m north of R

The possible diagram is as follows,

Hence, the correct answer is North-east.

39

What is the distance between U and X?

  1. ((a))

    22 m

  2. ((b))

    24 m

  3. ((c))

    26 m

  4. ((d))

    32 m

  5. ((e))

    36 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

32 m

A * B (18m) → A is 8m north of B

A % B (24m) → A is 14m south of B

A & B (28m) → A is 18m east of B

A @ B (35m) → A is 25m west of B

then,

M * N (16m) → M is 6m north of N

O @ P (32m) → O is 22m west of P

N & O (36m) → N is 26m east of O

Q & P (42m) → Q is 32m east of P

S @ R (58m) → S is 48m west of R

S % T (27m) → S is 17m south of T

U % Q (20m) → U is 10m south of Q

R * U (22m) → R is 12m north of U

X * R (30m) → X is 20m north of R

The possible diagram is as follows,

The distance between U and X = 20 + 2 + 10 = 32 m.

Hence, the correct answer is 32 m.

40

Which of the following statement is true?

  1. ((a))

    R is northwest of N.

  2. ((b))

    S is west of O.

  3. ((c))

    U is northeast of M.

  4. ((d))

    X is northeast of P.

  5. ((e))

    T is east of M.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

X is northeast of P.

A * B (18m) → A is 8m north of B

A % B (24m) → A is 14m south of B

A & B (28m) → A is 18m east of B

A @ B (35m) → A is 25m west of B

then,

M * N (16m) → M is 6m north of N

O @ P (32m) → O is 22m west of P

N & O (36m) → N is 26m east of O

Q & P (42m) → Q is 32m east of P

S @ R (58m) → S is 48m west of R

S % T (27m) → S is 17m south of T

U % Q (20m) → U is 10m south of Q

R * U (22m) → R is 12m north of U

X * R (30m) → X is 20m north of R

The possible diagram is as follows,

Hence, the correct answer is X is northeast of P.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (30 questions)

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

The given table represents:

  • The percentage distribution of bats sold by four shopkeepers (A, B, C, and D) out of the total bats available, and
  • The percentage distribution of footballs sold by each shopkeeper out of the total footballs available.
Shopkeepers% of bats sold% of footballs sold
A10%(2x + 4y)%
B(3x − 2y)%15%
C45%2y%
D(2x + y)%35%

 

Additional Information:

  • The difference between the number of bats and footballs sold by shopkeeper A is 780.
  • The number of bats sold by shopkeeper B is equal to the number of footballs sold by him.
41

The average number of items (bats and footballs combined) sold by shopkeepers A and C together is how much percentage more than the average number of items sold by shopkeepers B and D together?

  1. ((a))

    7.55%

  2. ((b))

    8.24%

  3. ((c))

    9.45%

  4. ((d))

    8.96%

  5. ((e))

    10.15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8.96%

General Solution:

First, we solve for 'x' and 'y' using the percentage distributions and given conditions. Let 'B' be the total number of bats available and 'F' be the total number of footballs available.

Solve for x and y:

⇒ Total % of bats sold = 100%

⇒ 10 + (3x - 2y) + 45 + (2x + y) = 100

⇒ 5x - y = 45 ... (Equation 1)

⇒ Total % of footballs sold = 100%

⇒ (2x + 4y) + 15 + 2y + 35 = 100

⇒ 2x + 6y = 50 ⇒ x + 3y = 25 ... (Equation 2)

⇒ Multiply Eq. 1 by 3: 15x - 3y = 135. Add to Eq. 2: 16x = 160 ⇒ x = 10.

⇒ Substitute x=10 in Eq. 2: 10 + 3y = 25 ⇒ 3y = 15 ⇒ y = 5.

Thus,

Shopkeeper% Bats Sold% Footballs Sold
A10%(20+20) = 40%
B(30-10) = 20%15%
C45%10%
D(20+5) = 25%35%

Find Total Bats (B) and Total Footballs (F):

⇒ Condition for B: Bats sold by B = Footballs sold by B

⇒ 20% of B = 15% of F ⇒ 0.2B = 0.15F ⇒ B = 0.75F.

⇒ Condition for A: Difference between bats and footballs sold is 780.

⇒ |10% of B - 40% of F| = 780

⇒ |0.1(0.75F) - 0.4F| = 780 ⇒ |0.075F - 0.4F| = 780

⇒ 0.325F = 780 ⇒ F = 780 / 0.325 = 2400.

⇒ B = 0.75 × 2400 = 1800.

Calculations:

⇒ Items sold by A: Bats (180) + Footballs (0.4 × 2400 = 960) = 1140.

⇒ Items sold by C: Bats (0.45 × 1800 = 810) + Footballs (240) = 1050.

⇒ Average (A, C) = (1140 + 1050) / 2 = 1095.

⇒ Items sold by B: Bats (0.2 × 1800 = 360) + Footballs (360) = 720.

⇒ Items sold by D: Bats (0.25 × 1800 = 450) + Footballs (840) = 1290.

⇒ Average (B, D) = (720 + 1290) / 2 = 1005.

⇒ Difference = 1095 - 1005 = 90.

⇒ Percentage = (90 / 1005) × 100 ≈ 8.955%.

∴ The percentage is 8.96%.

42

Assume that the above sales were made from the initial stock.

Later,

  • Shopkeeper A returned 25% of the bats sold by him as defective, and
  • Shopkeeper B returned 30 footballs sold by him as defective.

After these returns, the remaining stock of bats and footballs (initial stock minus net sales) was increased by 20% for the next sales cycle.

What is the total number of items (bats + footballs) available for the next cycle?

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    84

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    108

  5. ((e))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

90

General Solution:

First, we solve for 'x' and 'y' using the percentage distributions and given conditions. Let 'B' be the total number of bats available and 'F' be the total number of footballs available.

Solve for x and y:

⇒ Total % of bats sold = 100%

⇒ 10 + (3x - 2y) + 45 + (2x + y) = 100

⇒ 5x - y = 45 ... (Equation 1)

⇒ Total % of footballs sold = 100%

⇒ (2x + 4y) + 15 + 2y + 35 = 100

⇒ 2x + 6y = 50 ⇒ x + 3y = 25 ... (Equation 2)

⇒ Multiply Eq. 1 by 3: 15x - 3y = 135. Add to Eq. 2: 16x = 160 ⇒ x = 10.

⇒ Substitute x=10 in Eq. 2: 10 + 3y = 25 ⇒ 3y = 15 ⇒ y = 5.

Thus,

Shopkeeper% Bats Sold% Footballs Sold
A10%(20+20) = 40%
B(30-10) = 20%15%
C45%10%
D(20+5) = 25%35%

Find Total Bats (B) and Total Footballs (F):

⇒ Condition for B: Bats sold by B = Footballs sold by B

⇒ 20% of B = 15% of F ⇒ 0.2B = 0.15F ⇒ B = 0.75F.

⇒ Condition for A: Difference between bats and footballs sold is 780.

⇒ |10% of B - 40% of F| = 780

⇒ |0.1(0.75F) - 0.4F| = 780 ⇒ |0.075F - 0.4F| = 780

⇒ 0.325F = 780 ⇒ F = 780 / 0.325 = 2400.

⇒ B = 0.75 × 2400 = 1800.

Calculations:

⇒ Bats sold by A = 10% of 1800 = 180. Returns = 25% of 180 = 45.

⇒ Footballs sold by B = 15% of 2400 = 360. Returns = 30.

⇒ Initial Stock: Bats = 1800, Footballs = 2400. Total = 4200.

⇒ Total bats sold (all shopkeepers) = 1800. Total footballs sold (all shopkeepers) = 2400.

⇒ Net sales after returns: Bats = 1800 - 45 = 1755. Footballs = 2400 - 30 = 2370.

⇒ Remaining Stock: Bats = 1800 - 1755 = 45. Footballs = 2400 - 2370 = 30.

⇒ Total remaining stock = 45 + 30 = 75.

⇒ Stock for next cycle = 75 × 1.2 = 90.

∴ The total number of items available is 90.

43

The cost price of one bat is ₹200 and that of one football is ₹300. Shopkeeper D earns a profit of 20% on selling all his footballs. If shopkeeper C sells all his footballs at the same selling price per football as shopkeeper D, what will be the total profit earned by shopkeeper C on selling all his footballs?

  1. ((a))

    ₹12,800

  2. ((b))

    ₹14,400

  3. ((c))

    ₹15,600

  4. ((d))

    ₹16,000

  5. ((e))

    ₹18,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹14,400

General Solution:

First, we solve for 'x' and 'y' using the percentage distributions and given conditions. Let 'B' be the total number of bats available and 'F' be the total number of footballs available.

Solve for x and y:

⇒ Total % of bats sold = 100%

⇒ 10 + (3x - 2y) + 45 + (2x + y) = 100

⇒ 5x - y = 45 ... (Equation 1)

⇒ Total % of footballs sold = 100%

⇒ (2x + 4y) + 15 + 2y + 35 = 100

⇒ 2x + 6y = 50 ⇒ x + 3y = 25 ... (Equation 2)

⇒ Multiply Eq. 1 by 3: 15x - 3y = 135. Add to Eq. 2: 16x = 160 ⇒ x = 10.

⇒ Substitute x=10 in Eq. 2: 10 + 3y = 25 ⇒ 3y = 15 ⇒ y = 5.

Thus,

Shopkeeper% Bats Sold% Footballs Sold
A10%(20+20) = 40%
B(30-10) = 20%15%
C45%10%
D(20+5) = 25%35%

Find Total Bats (B) and Total Footballs (F):

⇒ Condition for B: Bats sold by B = Footballs sold by B

⇒ 20% of B = 15% of F ⇒ 0.2B = 0.15F ⇒ B = 0.75F.

⇒ Condition for A: Difference between bats and footballs sold is 780.

⇒ |10% of B - 40% of F| = 780

⇒ |0.1(0.75F) - 0.4F| = 780 ⇒ |0.075F - 0.4F| = 780

⇒ 0.325F = 780 ⇒ F = 780 / 0.325 = 2400.

⇒ B = 0.75 × 2400 = 1800.

Calculations:

⇒ Footballs sold by D = 35% of 2400 = 840.

⇒ Cost Price (CP) of one football = ₹300.

⇒ Profit of D = 20%. Selling Price (SP) of D = 300 × 1.2 = ₹360 per football.

⇒ Footballs sold by C = 10% of 2400 = 240.

⇒ Shopkeeper C sells at the same SP (₹360).

⇒ Profit per football for C = SP - CP = 360 - 300 = ₹60.

⇒ Total Profit for C = 240 × 60 = ₹14,400.

∴ The total profit earned by C is ₹14,400.

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

The bar graph given below represents the percentage of boys in four different schools P, Q, R, and S.

Additional Information:

  1. The ratio of the number of girls in schools P : Q : R : S is 6 : 3 : 5 : 11 respectively.
  2. The difference between the number of boys in school S and the combined number of boys in schools Q and R is 15.
44

The total number of boys in schools P and S together is what percentage of the total number of students in a new school T, given that the number of girls in school T is 25% more than the number of girls in school Q, and the ratio of boys to girls in school T is 5 : 3.

  1. ((a))

    120%

  2. ((b))

    150%

  3. ((c))

    160%

  4. ((d))

    175%

  5. ((e))

    180%

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

180%

General Solution:

First, we need to determine the actual number of boys and girls in each school by combining the percentage of boys with the given ratio of girls.

Express total students and boys in terms of the number of girls:

⇒ Let the number of girls in schools P, Q, R, and S be 6k, 3k, 5k, and 11k respectively.

⇒ School P: Boys = 60%, so Girls = 40%. ⇒ 40% of Total = 6k ⇒ Total = 15k, Boys = 9k.

⇒ School Q: Boys = 70%, so Girls = 30%. ⇒ 30% of Total = 3k ⇒ Total = 10k, Boys = 7k.

⇒ School R: Boys = 20%, so Girls = 80%. ⇒ 80% of Total = 5k ⇒ Total = 6.25k, Boys = 1.25k.

⇒ School S: Boys = 45%, so Girls = 55%. ⇒ 55% of Total = 11k ⇒ Total = 20k, Boys = 9k.

Solve for 'k' using the additional information:

⇒ Difference between boys in S and the combined boys in Q and R is 15.

⇒ |BoysS - (BoysQ + BoysR)| = 15

⇒ |9k - (7k + 1.25k)| = 15

⇒ |9k - 8.25k| = 15

⇒ 0.75k = 15 ⇒ k = 20.

Final Counts for each school:

⇒ School P: Girls = 120, Boys = 180, Total = 300.

⇒ School Q: Girls = 60, Boys = 140, Total = 200.

⇒ School R: Girls = 100, Boys = 25, Total = 125.

⇒ School S: Girls = 220, Boys = 180, Total = 400.

Calculations:

⇒ Total boys in P and S together = 180 + 180 = 360.

⇒ Girls in school T = 125% of Girls in Q = 1.25 × 60 = 75.

⇒ Ratio in school T is Boys : Girls = 5 : 3.

⇒ 3 parts = 75 

⇒ Boys in T = (5/3) × 75 = 125. Total students in T = 75 + 125 = 200.

Total boys (360) / Total students in T (200) = 180%.

∴ The correct percentage is 180%.

45

If 75% of boys in school P and 80% of girls in school R pass the final examination, how many students from these two specific groups together fail to pass the exam?

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    70

  4. ((d))

    65

  5. ((e))

    75

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

65

General Solution:

First, we need to determine the actual number of boys and girls in each school by combining the percentage of boys with the given ratio of girls.

Express total students and boys in terms of the number of girls:

⇒ Let the number of girls in schools P, Q, R, and S be 6k, 3k, 5k, and 11k respectively.

⇒ School P: Boys = 60%, so Girls = 40%. ⇒ 40% of Total = 6k ⇒ Total = 15k, Boys = 9k.

⇒ School Q: Boys = 70%, so Girls = 30%. ⇒ 30% of Total = 3k ⇒ Total = 10k, Boys = 7k.

⇒ School R: Boys = 20%, so Girls = 80%. ⇒ 80% of Total = 5k ⇒ Total = 6.25k, Boys = 1.25k.

⇒ School S: Boys = 45%, so Girls = 55%. ⇒ 55% of Total = 11k ⇒ Total = 20k, Boys = 9k.

Solve for 'k' using the additional information:

⇒ Difference between boys in S and the combined boys in Q and R is 15.

⇒ |BoysS - (BoysQ + BoysR)| = 15

⇒ |9k - (7k + 1.25k)| = 15

⇒ |9k - 8.25k| = 15

⇒ 0.75k = 15 ⇒ k = 20.

Final Counts for each school:

⇒ School P: Girls = 120, Boys = 180, Total = 300.

⇒ School Q: Girls = 60, Boys = 140, Total = 200.

⇒ School R: Girls = 100, Boys = 25, Total = 125.

⇒ School S: Girls = 220, Boys = 180, Total = 400.

Calculations:

⇒ Boys in P who fail = (100% - 75%) of 180 = 25% of 180 = 45.

⇒ Girls in R who fail = (100% - 80%) of 100 = 20% of 100 = 20.

⇒ Total failed students = 45 + 20 = 65.

∴ 65 students failed to pass.

46

In the next academic year (2026), the number of boys in school Q is expected to increase by 20%, while the number of girls in school S is expected to decrease by 15%. What will be the difference between the total number of students in schools S and Q in the year 2026?

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    139

  3. ((c))

    141

  4. ((d))

    152

  5. ((e))

    163

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

139

General Solution:

First, we need to determine the actual number of boys and girls in each school by combining the percentage of boys with the given ratio of girls.

Express total students and boys in terms of the number of girls:

⇒ Let the number of girls in schools P, Q, R, and S be 6k, 3k, 5k, and 11k respectively.

⇒ School P: Boys = 60%, so Girls = 40%. ⇒ 40% of Total = 6k ⇒ Total = 15k, Boys = 9k.

⇒ School Q: Boys = 70%, so Girls = 30%. ⇒ 30% of Total = 3k ⇒ Total = 10k, Boys = 7k.

⇒ School R: Boys = 20%, so Girls = 80%. ⇒ 80% of Total = 5k ⇒ Total = 6.25k, Boys = 1.25k.

⇒ School S: Boys = 45%, so Girls = 55%. ⇒ 55% of Total = 11k ⇒ Total = 20k, Boys = 9k.

Solve for 'k' using the additional information:

⇒ Difference between boys in S and the combined boys in Q and R is 15.

⇒ |BoysS - (BoysQ + BoysR)| = 15

⇒ |9k - (7k + 1.25k)| = 15

⇒ |9k - 8.25k| = 15

⇒ 0.75k = 15 ⇒ k = 20.

Final Counts for each school:

⇒ School P: Girls = 120, Boys = 180, Total = 300.

⇒ School Q: Girls = 60, Boys = 140, Total = 200.

⇒ School R: Girls = 100, Boys = 25, Total = 125.

⇒ School S: Girls = 220, Boys = 180, Total = 400.

Calculations:

⇒ School Q in 2026: Boys increase by 20% = 140 × 1.2 = 168. Girls remain 60. Total = 228.

⇒ School S in 2026: Girls decrease by 15% = 220 × 0.85 = 187. Boys remain 180. Total = 367.

⇒ Difference = 367 - 228 = 139.

∴ The difference is 139.

47

What is the respective ratio of the total number of students in schools P and R together to the average number of girls in all four schools?

  1. ((a))

    17:5

  2. ((b))

    16:5

  3. ((c))

    17:6

  4. ((d))

    15:4

  5. ((e))

    18:7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17:5

General Solution:

First, we need to determine the actual number of boys and girls in each school by combining the percentage of boys with the given ratio of girls.

Express total students and boys in terms of the number of girls:

⇒ Let the number of girls in schools P, Q, R, and S be 6k, 3k, 5k, and 11k respectively.

School P: Boys = 60%, so Girls = 40%. ⇒ 40% of Total = 6k ⇒ Total = 15k, Boys = 9k.

School Q: Boys = 70%, so Girls = 30%. ⇒ 30% of Total = 3k ⇒ Total = 10k, Boys = 7k.

School R: Boys = 20%, so Girls = 80%. ⇒ 80% of Total = 5k ⇒ Total = 6.25k, Boys = 1.25k.

School S: Boys = 45%, so Girls = 55%. ⇒ 55% of Total = 11k ⇒ Total = 20k, Boys = 9k.

Solve for 'k' using the additional information:

⇒ Difference between boys in S and the combined boys in Q and R is 15.

⇒ |BoysS - (BoysQ + BoysR)| = 15

⇒ |9k - (7k + 1.25k)| = 15

⇒ |9k - 8.25k| = 15

⇒ 0.75k = 15 ⇒ k = 20.

Final Counts for each school:

School P: Girls = 120, Boys = 180, Total = 300.

School Q: Girls = 60, Boys = 140, Total = 200.

School R: Girls = 100, Boys = 25, Total = 125.

School S: Girls = 220, Boys = 180, Total = 400.

Calculations:

⇒ Total students in P and R together = 300 + 125 = 425.

⇒ Average number of girls in all schools = (120 + 60 + 100 + 220) / 4 = 500 / 4 = 125.

⇒ Required Ratio = 425 : 125.

⇒ Dividing both sides by 25 = 17 : 5.

∴ The correct option is 17:5.

48

A cylinder of volume x cm³ is initially filled with liquid up to 50% of its capacity. One solid sphere of volume y cm³ is then dropped into the cylinder, causing the liquid level to rise by 2 cm. In the same manner, four more identical spheres are successively dropped into the cylinder, after which the cylinder becomes completely full. All spheres are identical and each has a volume of y cm³. Find the value of 50% of the volume of the cylinder in terms of the volume of the cylinder and the volume of a sphere.

  1. ((a))

    1/8​ × (Volume of Cylinder) + 6 × (Volume of Sphere)

  2. ((b))

    2/5​ × (Volume of Cylinder) + 2 × (Volume of Sphere)

  3. ((c))

    1/6​ × (Volume of Cylinder) + 4 × (Volume of Sphere)

  4. ((d))

    3/10​ × (Volume of Cylinder) + 2 × (Volume of Sphere)

  5. ((e))

    1/4​ × (Volume of Cylinder) + 3 × (Volume of Sphere)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3/10​ × (Volume of Cylinder) + 2 × (Volume of Sphere)

Shortcut Trick

Let Volume of Cylinder = x and Volume of Sphere = y.

Initial liquid volume = 0.5x. Total capacity filled by (liquid + 5 spheres) = x.

Volume of 1 sphere (y) corresponds to a height of 2 cm. Volume of 5 spheres = 5y.

Let total height of cylinder be H. Initial height = 0.5H. Rise for 5 spheres = 5 × 2 = 10 cm.

Since 0.5H + 10 cm = H, then 0.5H = 10 cm, so H = 20 cm. 1 cm height = x/20 volume.

Rise of 2 cm = (x/20) × 2 = x/10. Therefore, y = x/10 ⇒ x = 10y.

Target: 0.5x = 5y. From options, 3/10(10y) + 2y = 3y + 2y = 5y.

∴ The correct answer is 3/10 × (Volume of Cylinder) + 2 × (Volume of Sphere).

Alternate Method

Given: Volume of cylinder = x, Volume of sphere = y. Initial liquid = 0.5x.

Formula: Volume = Base Area × Height. Volume displaced = Volume of submerged object.

⇒ Let A be the base area of the cylinder. 1 sphere causes 2 cm rise ⇒ y = A × 2.

⇒ Total spheres dropped = 1 + 4 = 5 spheres. Total volume of spheres = 5y.

⇒ Total volume (x) = Initial Liquid (0.5x) + Volume of 5 spheres (5y).

⇒ x − 0.5x = 5y ⇒ 0.5x = 5y.

⇒ Since y = 2A and x = H × A, then 5(2A) = 0.5(H × A) ⇒ 10A = 0.5HA ⇒ H = 20 cm.

⇒ Relationship: x = 10y (since 10 cm height is 0.5x and corresponds to 5y).

⇒ 50% of Volume = 0.5x = 5y.

⇒ Check Option 4: (3/10)x + 2y = (3/10)(10y) + 2y = 3y + 2y = 5y.

∴ The correct answer is 3/10 × (Volume of Cylinder) + 2 × (Volume of Sphere).

Additional Information

Archimedes Principle in Cylinders

When a solid is immersed in a liquid-filled cylinder, the volume of the displaced liquid equals the volume of the submerged part of the solid: Vsolid = πr2hrise.

Cylinder and Sphere Volumes

Volume of Cylinder = πr2h and Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πR3. In level-rise problems, the base area πr2 remains constant.

A number series follows a specific pattern:

N², (N + 1)2, (N + 2)², (N + 3)2, (N + 4)², …

where N is the smallest even prime number

49

Find the value of: √[(N + 576) / 2]

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    17

  5. ((e))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

17

Shortcut Trick

Identify N: The smallest even prime number is 2.

Substitute N = 2 into the given expression: √[(2 + 576) ÷ 2].

⇒ √[578 ÷ 2] = √289.

⇒ 17.

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Alternate Method

Given:

The value of N is defined as the smallest even prime number.

Expression to evaluate: √[(N + 576) / 2]

Formula Used:

Definition of prime numbers: N = 2.

Calculations:

⇒ Smallest even prime number (N) = 2

⇒ Expression = √[(2 + 576) ÷ 2]

⇒ Expression = √[578 ÷ 2]

⇒ Expression = √289

⇒ Expression = 17

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Additional Information

Prime Number Properties

A prime number has exactly two factors: 1 and itself. 2 is the only even prime number and the smallest prime number.

Perfect Squares

Understanding squares of numbers up to 30 is crucial: 172 = 289, 182 = 324, 192 = 361.

Arithmetic Progression of Squares

The series follows the pattern (N + k)2. If N = 2, the series is 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ... representing consecutive squares starting from 22.

50

Determine the value of the 7th term of the series.

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    64

  4. ((d))

    49

  5. ((e))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

64

Shortcut Trick

Identify the smallest even prime number: N = 2.

The series pattern is given as (N + k − 1)2 for the kth term.

For the 7th term (k = 7): (2 + 7 − 1)2 = 82.

82 = 64.

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given:

Pattern: N2, (N + 1)2, (N + 2)2, (N + 3)2, (N + 4)2, ...

N = Smallest even prime number2

Formula Used:

The kth term of the series Tk = (N + k − 1)2

22 T1 → 32 T2 → 42 T3 → 52 T4 → 62 T5 → 72 T6 → 82

Calculations:

⇒ According to the passage, N = 2 (the only even prime number).

⇒ The 7th term corresponds to k = 7.

⇒ T7 = (2 + 7 − 1)2

⇒ T7 = (2 + 6)2

⇒ T7 = 82

⇒ T7 = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Prime Number Properties

A prime number has exactly two factors. 2 is unique as it is the only even prime number and the smallest prime number.

Square Series Pattern

A series following (N+x)2 logic is a Perfect Square Series where the base values follow an Arithmetic Progression.

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

The given donut chart represents the total number of vehicles (Trucks + Buses) manufactured by a company across three different months. The line graph shows the percentage of trucks sold out of the total trucks manufactured in each month, and the percentage of buses sold out of the total buses manufactured in each month.

The table provides the number of buses sold in each month.

MonthsNumber of buses sold
April30
May63
June90

 

Note: In every month, the number of trucks manufactured is two-thirds of the number of buses manufactured in that month.

51

In the next month, July, the number of trucks manufactured was 200% of the number of trucks sold in April, and the number of buses manufactured was 150% of the number of buses sold in June. If 60% of trucks and 80% of buses were sold in July, how many vehicles remained unsold in that month?

  1. ((a))

    75

  2. ((b))

    98

  3. ((c))

    105

  4. ((d))

    87

  5. ((e))

    198

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

87

General Solution:

First, we need to find the value of x and the specific number of trucks and buses manufactured and sold for each month.

Relation between Trucks and Buses:

⇒ Let Buses manufactured in a month be B. Then Trucks manufactured (T) = (2/3)B.

⇒ Total vehicles (V) = T + B = (2/3)B + B = (5/3)B.

⇒ From this, B = 3/5 of Total Vehicles and T = 2/5 of Total Vehicles.

Solving for x using May data:

⇒ For May: Total vehicles = x. Buses manufactured = (3/5)x.

⇒ Buses sold in May = 84% of (3/5)x = 63 (given in table).

⇒ 0.84 × 0.6x = 63 ⇒ 0.504x = 63 ⇒ x = 63 / 0.504 = 125.

Calculating inventories for all months (x = 125):

April (2x = 250):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 250 = 150; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 250 = 100.

⇒ Buses Sold = 20% of 150 = 30; Trucks Sold = 75% of 100 = 75.

May (x = 125):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 125 = 75; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 125 = 50.

⇒ Buses Sold = 84% of 75 = 63; Trucks Sold = 80% of 50 = 40.

June (2.4x = 300):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 300 = 180; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 300 = 120.

⇒ Buses Sold = 50% of 180 = 90; Trucks Sold = 45% of 120 = 54.

Calculations:

⇒ Trucks manufactured (July) = 200% of Trucks sold (April) = 2 × 75 = 150.

⇒ Buses manufactured (July) = 150% of Buses sold (June) = 1.5 × 90 = 135.

⇒ Unsold Trucks (July) = 40% of 150 = 60.

⇒ Unsold Buses (July) = 20% of 135 = 27.

⇒ Total unsold = 60 + 27 = 87.

∴ The correct answer is 87.

52

It is found that 20% of the unsold trucks in May and 30% of the unsold buses in June were defective. These defective vehicles were identified after sales and were not part of the sold inventory. What is the total number of non-defective vehicles from these two groups combined?

  1. ((a))

    68

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    85

  4. ((d))

    99

  5. ((e))

    71

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

71

General Solution:

First, we need to find the value of x and the specific number of trucks and buses manufactured and sold for each month.

Relation between Trucks and Buses:

⇒ Let Buses manufactured in a month be B. Then Trucks manufactured (T) = (2/3)B.

⇒ Total vehicles (V) = T + B = (2/3)B + B = (5/3)B.

⇒ From this, B = 3/5 of Total Vehicles and T = 2/5 of Total Vehicles.

Solving for x using May data:

⇒ For May: Total vehicles = x. Buses manufactured = (3/5)x.

⇒ Buses sold in May = 84% of (3/5)x = 63 (given in table).

⇒ 0.84 × 0.6x = 63 ⇒ 0.504x = 63 ⇒ x = 63 / 0.504 = 125.

Calculating inventories for all months (x = 125):

April (2x = 250):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 250 = 150; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 250 = 100.

⇒ Buses Sold = 20% of 150 = 30; Trucks Sold = 75% of 100 = 75.

May (x = 125):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 125 = 75; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 125 = 50.

⇒ Buses Sold = 84% of 75 = 63; Trucks Sold = 80% of 50 = 40.

June (2.4x = 300):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 300 = 180; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 300 = 120.

⇒ Buses Sold = 50% of 180 = 90; Trucks Sold = 45% of 120 = 54.

Calculations:

⇒ Unsold trucks in May = 10. Defective = 20% of 10 = 2. Non-defective = 10 - 2 = 8.

⇒ Unsold buses in June = 90. Defective = 30% of 90 = 27. Non-defective = 90 - 27 = 63.

⇒ Total non-defective = 8 + 63 = 71.

∴ The correct answer is 71.

53

What is the difference between the total number of vehicles (trucks + buses) that remained unsold in June and those that remained unsold in May?

  1. ((a))

    122

  2. ((b))

    134

  3. ((c))

    142

  4. ((d))

    128

  5. ((e))

    156

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

134

General Solution:

First, we need to find the value of x and the specific number of trucks and buses manufactured and sold for each month.

Relation between Trucks and Buses:

⇒ Let Buses manufactured in a month be B. Then Trucks manufactured (T) = (2/3)B.

⇒ Total vehicles (V) = T + B = (2/3)B + B = (5/3)B.

⇒ From this, B = 3/5 of Total Vehicles and T = 2/5 of Total Vehicles.

Solving for x using May data:

⇒ For May: Total vehicles = x. Buses manufactured = (3/5)x.

⇒ Buses sold in May = 84% of (3/5)x = 63 (given in table).

⇒ 0.84 × 0.6x = 63 ⇒ 0.504x = 63 ⇒ x = 63 / 0.504 = 125.

Calculating inventories for all months (x = 125):

April (2x = 250):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 250 = 150; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 250 = 100.

⇒ Buses Sold = 20% of 150 = 30; Trucks Sold = 75% of 100 = 75.

May (x = 125):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 125 = 75; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 125 = 50.

⇒ Buses Sold = 84% of 75 = 63; Trucks Sold = 80% of 50 = 40.

June (2.4x = 300):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 300 = 180; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 300 = 120.

⇒ Buses Sold = 50% of 180 = 90; Trucks Sold = 45% of 120 = 54.

Calculations:

⇒ Unsold in May = (75 - 63) + (50 - 40) = 12 + 10 = 22.

⇒ Unsold in June = (180 - 90) + (120 - 54) = 90 + 66 = 156.

⇒ Difference = 156 - 22 = 134.

∴ The correct answer is 134.

54

If the total number of vehicles (trucks + buses) sold in May is k, then approximately what percentage of k is the number of buses sold in that month?

  1. ((a))

    38.83%

  2. ((b))

    61.17%

  3. ((c))

    55.45%

  4. ((d))

    63.00%

  5. ((e))

    45.50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

61.17%

General Solution:

First, we need to find the value of x and the specific number of trucks and buses manufactured and sold for each month.

Relation between Trucks and Buses:

⇒ Let Buses manufactured in a month be B. Then Trucks manufactured (T) = (2/3)B.

⇒ Total vehicles (V) = T + B = (2/3)B + B = (5/3)B.

⇒ From this, B = 3/5 of Total Vehicles and T = 2/5 of Total Vehicles.

Solving for x using May data:

⇒ For May: Total vehicles = x. Buses manufactured = (3/5)x.

⇒ Buses sold in May = 84% of (3/5)x = 63 (given in table).

⇒ 0.84 × 0.6x = 63 ⇒ 0.504x = 63 ⇒ x = 63 / 0.504 = 125.

Calculating inventories for all months (x = 125):

April (2x = 250):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 250 = 150; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 250 = 100.

⇒ Buses Sold = 20% of 150 = 30; Trucks Sold = 75% of 100 = 75.

May (x = 125):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 125 = 75; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 125 = 50.

⇒ Buses Sold = 84% of 75 = 63; Trucks Sold = 80% of 50 = 40.

June (2.4x = 300):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 300 = 180; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 300 = 120.

⇒ Buses Sold = 50% of 180 = 90; Trucks Sold = 45% of 120 = 54.

Calculations:

⇒ k = (Buses sold in May) + (Trucks sold in May) = 63 + 40 = 103.

⇒ Percentage = (Buses sold / k) × 100 = (63 / 103) × 100 = 61.165...% ⇒ 61.17%.

∴ The correct answer is 61.17%.

55

The number of trucks manufactured in the month of June is what percentage of the total number of buses manufactured across all three months combined? (Round off your answer to two decimal places.)

  1. ((a))

    29.63%

  2. ((b))

    25.55%

  3. ((c))

    33.33%

  4. ((d))

    35.17%

  5. ((e))

    41.22%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

29.63%

General Solution:

First, we need to find the value of x and the specific number of trucks and buses manufactured and sold for each month.

Relation between Trucks and Buses:

⇒ Let Buses manufactured in a month be B. Then Trucks manufactured (T) = (2/3)B.

⇒ Total vehicles (V) = T + B = (2/3)B + B = (5/3)B.

⇒ From this, B = 3/5 of Total Vehicles and T = 2/5 of Total Vehicles.

Solving for x using May data:

⇒ For May: Total vehicles = x. Buses manufactured = (3/5)x.

⇒ Buses sold in May = 84% of (3/5)x = 63 (given in table).

⇒ 0.84 × 0.6x = 63 ⇒ 0.504x = 63 ⇒ x = 63 / 0.504 = 125.

Calculating inventories for all months (x = 125):

April (2x = 250):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 250 = 150; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 250 = 100.

⇒ Buses Sold = 20% of 150 = 30; Trucks Sold = 75% of 100 = 75.

May (x = 125):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 125 = 75; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 125 = 50.

⇒ Buses Sold = 84% of 75 = 63; Trucks Sold = 80% of 50 = 40.

June (2.4x = 300):

⇒ Buses Manufactured = (3/5) × 300 = 180; Trucks Manufactured = (2/5) × 300 = 120.

⇒ Buses Sold = 50% of 180 = 90; Trucks Sold = 45% of 120 = 54.

Calculations:

⇒ Trucks manufactured in June = 120.

⇒ Total buses manufactured = 150 (April) + 75 (May) + 180 (June) = 405.

⇒ Percentage = (120 / 405) × 100 = 29.629...% ⇒ 29.63%.

∴ The correct answer is 29.63%.

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

The following information relates to the number of students registered, appeared, qualified, and not qualified for an examination conducted over three years: 2020, 2021, and 2022.

Year 2020

  • Students who appeared were 90% of the total registered students.
  • The number of students who did not qualify was 288.
  • The number of students who qualified was 162.

Year 2021

  • The ratio of students who appeared in 2020 to 2021 is 5 : 4.
  • Students who appeared constituted 80% of the total registered students.

Year 2022

  • Students who appeared were 70% of the total registered students.
  • The number of students who appeared in 2020 was 100 more than those who appeared in 2022.

Note:

  • Total Registered = Appeared + Not Appeared
  • Qualified = Appeared − Not Qualified

Additional Information

  • The total number of students who qualified across all three years is 686.
  • The total number of students who qualified in all three years is p% of the total number of students who appeared during these years.
56

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE?

I. The number of students who did not appear for the exam in 2021 was 90.

II. The sum of students who registered in 2021 and students who appeared in 2022 is exactly 800.

III. The number of students who qualified in 2020 is exactly 30% of the students registered in that year.

  1. ((a))

    Both I and III

  2. ((b))

    Only I

  3. ((c))

    Only III

  4. ((d))

    Only I and II

  5. ((e))

    All I, II, and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only III

General Solution:

We need to determine the count of students who registered, appeared, qualified, and did not qualify for each year based on the provided conditions.

Year 2020:

⇒ Appeared = Qualified + Not Qualified = 162 + 288 = 450.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.90 = 450 / 0.90 = 500.

⇒ Not Appeared = 500 - 450 = 50.

Year 2021:

⇒ Ratio of Appeared (2020 : 2021) = 5 : 4.

⇒ 5 units = 450 ⇒ 1 unit = 90 ⇒ Appeared (2021) = 4 × 90 = 360.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.80 = 360 / 0.80 = 450.

⇒ Not Appeared = 450 - 360 = 90.

Year 2022:

⇒ Appeared (2022) = Appeared (2020) - 100 = 450 - 100 = 350.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.70 = 350 / 0.70 = 500.

⇒ Not Appeared = 500 - 350 = 150.

Totals:

⇒ Total Appeared = 450 + 360 + 350 = 1160.

⇒ Total Qualified = 686 (Given).

⇒ Total Registered = 500 + 450 + 500 = 1450.

⇒ p% = (Total Qualified / Total Appeared) × 100 = (686 / 1160) × 100 ≈ 59.13%.

Calculations:

⇒ I. Not appeared 2021 = 90. (True).

⇒ II. Registered 2021 (450) + Appeared 2022 (350) = 800. (True).

⇒ III. Qualified 2020 (162) is 30% of Registered 2020 (500). 500 × 0.30 = 150. (162 ≠ 150). (NOT TRUE).

∴ The correct option is Only III.

57

If the number of students who qualified in 2021 was exactly 75% of the number of students who appeared in that year, then how many students did not qualify in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    84

  3. ((c))

    288

  4. ((d))

    96

  5. ((e))

    105

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

96

General Solution:

We need to determine the count of students who registered, appeared, qualified, and did not qualify for each year based on the provided conditions.

Year 2020:

⇒ Appeared = Qualified + Not Qualified = 162 + 288 = 450.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.90 = 450 / 0.90 = 500.

⇒ Not Appeared = 500 - 450 = 50.

Year 2021:

⇒ Ratio of Appeared (2020 : 2021) = 5 : 4.

⇒ 5 units = 450 ⇒ 1 unit = 90 ⇒ Appeared (2021) = 4 × 90 = 360.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.80 = 360 / 0.80 = 450.

⇒ Not Appeared = 450 - 360 = 90.

Year 2022:

⇒ Appeared (2022) = Appeared (2020) - 100 = 450 - 100 = 350.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.70 = 350 / 0.70 = 500.

⇒ Not Appeared = 500 - 350 = 150.

Totals:

⇒ Total Appeared = 450 + 360 + 350 = 1160.

⇒ Total Qualified = 686 (Given).

⇒ Total Registered = 500 + 450 + 500 = 1450.

⇒ p% = (Total Qualified / Total Appeared) × 100 = (686 / 1160) × 100 ≈ 59.13%.

Calculations:

⇒ Qualified (2021) = 0.75 × 360 = 270.

⇒ Total Qualified = Qualified(2020) + Qualified(2021) + Qualified(2022).

⇒ 686 = 162 + 270 + Qualified(2022).

⇒ 686 = 432 + Qualified(2022) ⇒ Qualified(2022) = 254.

⇒ Not Qualified (2022) = Appeared(2022) - Qualified(2022).

⇒ Not Qualified (2022) = 350 - 254 = 96.

∴ The correct option is 96.

58

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE?

I. The value of p is greater than 50%.

II. The number of students who appeared in 2021 is greater than the number who appeared in 2022.

III. The total number of students registered across all three years is 1500.

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Only II 

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II

  4. ((d))

    Only III

  5. ((e))

    Both II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only III

General Solution:

We need to determine the count of students who registered, appeared, qualified, and did not qualify for each year based on the provided conditions.

Year 2020:

⇒ Appeared = Qualified + Not Qualified = 162 + 288 = 450.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.90 = 450 / 0.90 = 500.

⇒ Not Appeared = 500 - 450 = 50.

Year 2021:

⇒ Ratio of Appeared (2020 : 2021) = 5 : 4.

⇒ 5 units = 450 ⇒ 1 unit = 90 ⇒ Appeared (2021) = 4 × 90 = 360.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.80 = 360 / 0.80 = 450.

⇒ Not Appeared = 450 - 360 = 90.

Year 2022:

⇒ Appeared (2022) = Appeared (2020) - 100 = 450 - 100 = 350.

⇒ Total Registered = Appeared / 0.70 = 350 / 0.70 = 500.

⇒ Not Appeared = 500 - 350 = 150.

Totals:

⇒ Total Appeared = 450 + 360 + 350 = 1160.

⇒ Total Qualified = 686 (Given).

⇒ Total Registered = 500 + 450 + 500 = 1450.

⇒ p% = (Total Qualified / Total Appeared) × 100 = (686 / 1160) × 100 ≈ 59.13%.

Calculations:

⇒ I. The value of p is greater than 50%. (True, 59.13% > 50%).

⇒ II. Appeared 2021 (360) > Appeared 2022 (350). (True).

⇒ III. Total Registered = 1450. Statement says 1500. (NOT TRUE).

∴ The correct option is Only III.

59

A bag contains x blue balls and y green balls. Two balls are drawn successively without replacement. What is the probability that the two selected balls are of different colours?

  1. ((a))

    (xy)/[(x + y)(x + y - 1)]

  2. ((b))

    (2xy)/[(x + y)(x + y - 1)]

  3. ((c))

    (4xy)/(x + y)

  4. ((d))

    (2xy)/((x + y)2)

  5. ((e))

    (2xy)/((x + y - 1)2)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(2xy)/[(x + y)(x + y - 1)]

Shortcut Trick

Total balls = x + y.

Cases for different colours: (Blue then Green) or (Green then Blue).

Probability = 2 × (P(Blue) × P(Green after Blue)) = 2 × [x/(x+y) × y/(x+y−1)].

Result = (2xy)/[(x + y)(x + y − 1)].

∴ The correct answer is (2xy)/[(x + y)(x + y − 1)].

Alternate Method

Given: Number of blue balls = x, Number of green balls = y.

Formula Used: Probability = (Favorable Outcomes) ÷ (Total Outcomes).

⇒ Total ways to draw 2 balls from (x + y) balls = (x+y)C2

(x+y)C2 = [(x + y) × (x + y − 1)] ÷ 2

⇒ Ways to pick 1 blue and 1 green ball = xC1 × yC1 = x × y

⇒ Probability = (x × y) ÷ {[(x + y) × (x + y − 1)] ÷ 2}

⇒ Probability = (2xy) ÷ [(x + y)(x + y − 1)]

∴ The correct answer is (2xy)/[(x + y)(x + y − 1)].

Additional Information

Successive Draw Without Replacement

In this method, the sample space decreases by 1 after each draw. Probability = P(A) × P(B|A).

Combination Selection

Selecting r items from n items is given by nCr = n! / [r!(n−r)!].

Different Colours Logic

P(Different) = 1 − P(Same) = 1 − [P(Both Blue) + P(Both Green)].

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

Three individuals A, B, and Care involved in producing and selling products.

The total number of products produced by A and B together is 59. The total number of products produced by B and C together is 48. The combined number of products sold by A, B, and C is 74.

The sales ratios are as follows:

  • For every 6 products sold by A, B sells 5 products.
  • For every 19 products sold by C, A sells 30 products.

Each person has at least one unsold product. The number of products unsold by C is equal to the square root of the total number of products unsold by A and B together.

60

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. The number of products produced by A is greater than the total number of products sold by B and C together.

II. The number of products sold by B is exactly equal to the square of the number of products unsold by B.

III. The number of products produced by C is less than the number of products sold by B.

  1. ((a))

    Only I is true

  2. ((b))

    Only II is true

  3. ((c))

    Only III is true

  4. ((d))

    Both I and III are true

  5. ((e))

    None of the statements is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only III is true

General Solution:

First, we determine the number of products sold and produced by each individual based on the given ratios and constraints.

Calculating Products Sold:

⇒ Sales Ratio (A : B) = 6 : 5 ⇒ B = (5/6)A

⇒ Sales Ratio (C : A) = 19 : 30 ⇒ C = (19/30)A

⇒ Total products sold (A + B + C) = 74

⇒ A + (5/6)A + (19/30)A = 74

⇒ (30A + 25A + 19A) / 30 = 74

⇒ 74A / 30 = 74 ⇒ A = 30

⇒ Products Sold: A = 30, B = 25, C = 19.

Calculating Products Produced:

Let the number of products produced by A, B, and C be PA, PB, and PC.

⇒ PA + PB = 59

⇒ PB + PC = 48

Subtracting the second from the first: PA - PC = 11 ⇒ PA = PC + 11.

Let UA, UB, and UC be the number of unsold products (Produced - Sold).

⇒ UA = PA - 30

⇒ UB = PB - 25

⇒ UC = PC - 19

Constraint: UC = √(UA + UB)

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = (PA - 30) + (PB - 25)

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = (PA + PB) - 55

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = 59 - 55 = 4

⇒ PC - 19 = 2 (since each has at least one unsold product, the square root must be positive)

⇒ PC = 21

Now find other production values:

⇒ PB = 48 - 21 = 27

⇒ PA = 59 - 27 = 32

Verification: UA = 32-30=2; UB = 27-25=2; UC = 21-19=2. √(2+2) = 2. (Correct).

 

Calculations:

I. Number of products produced by A (32) > total sold by B and C (25 + 19 = 44).

⇒ 32 > 44 is False.

II. Number of products sold by B (25) = square of unsold B (22 = 4).

⇒ 25 = 4 is False.

III. Number of products produced by C (21) < number of products sold by B (25).

⇒ 21 < 25 is True.

∴ Only statement III is true.

61

A new individual, D, is recruited. His production target is set as the average number of products produced by A, B, and C.  How many products should D produce? (Round off to the nearest whole number.)

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    27

  5. ((e))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

27

General Solution:

First, we determine the number of products sold and produced by each individual based on the given ratios and constraints.

Calculating Products Sold:

⇒ Sales Ratio (A : B) = 6 : 5 ⇒ B = (5/6)A

⇒ Sales Ratio (C : A) = 19 : 30 ⇒ C = (19/30)A

⇒ Total products sold (A + B + C) = 74

⇒ A + (5/6)A + (19/30)A = 74

⇒ (30A + 25A + 19A) / 30 = 74

⇒ 74A / 30 = 74 ⇒ A = 30

⇒ Products Sold: A = 30, B = 25, C = 19.

Calculating Products Produced:

Let the number of products produced by A, B, and C be PA, PB, and PC.

⇒ PA + PB = 59

⇒ PB + PC = 48

Subtracting the second from the first: PA - PC = 11 ⇒ PA = PC + 11.

Let UA, UB, and UC be the number of unsold products (Produced - Sold).

⇒ UA = PA - 30

⇒ UB = PB - 25

⇒ UC = PC - 19

Constraint: UC = √(UA + UB)

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = (PA - 30) + (PB - 25)

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = (PA + PB) - 55

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = 59 - 55 = 4

⇒ PC - 19 = 2 (since each has at least one unsold product, the square root must be positive)

⇒ PC = 21

Now find other production values:

⇒ PB = 48 - 21 = 27

⇒ PA = 59 - 27 = 32

Verification: UA = 32-30=2; UB = 27-25=2; UC = 21-19=2. √(2+2) = 2. (Correct).

Calculations:

⇒ Average production = (PA + PB + PC) / 3

⇒ Average = (32 + 27 + 21) / 3 = 80 / 3 ≈ 26.66

⇒ Rounding to the nearest whole number = 27

∴ D should produce 27 products.

62

If each product sold by A yields a profit of ₹15, and each product sold by B yields a profit of ₹20, what is the total combined profit earned by A and B?

  1. ((a))

    ₹800

  2. ((b))

    ₹860

  3. ((c))

    ₹900

  4. ((d))

    ₹1010

  5. ((e))

    ₹950

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

₹950

General Solution:

First, we determine the number of products sold and produced by each individual based on the given ratios and constraints.

Calculating Products Sold:

⇒ Sales Ratio (A : B) = 6 : 5 ⇒ B = (5/6)A

⇒ Sales Ratio (C : A) = 19 : 30 ⇒ C = (19/30)A

⇒ Total products sold (A + B + C) = 74

⇒ A + (5/6)A + (19/30)A = 74

⇒ (30A + 25A + 19A) / 30 = 74

⇒ 74A / 30 = 74 ⇒ A = 30

Products Sold: A = 30, B = 25, C = 19.

Calculating Products Produced:

Let the number of products produced by A, B, and C be PA, PB, and PC.

⇒ PA + PB = 59

⇒ PB + PC = 48

Subtracting the second from the first: PA - PC = 11 ⇒ PA = PC + 11.

Let UA, UB, and UC be the number of unsold products (Produced - Sold).

⇒ UA = PA - 30

⇒ UB = PB - 25

⇒ UC = PC - 19

Constraint: UC = √(UA + UB)

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = (PA - 30) + (PB - 25)

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = (PA + PB) - 55

⇒ (PC - 19)2 = 59 - 55 = 4

⇒ PC - 19 = 2 (since each has at least one unsold product, the square root must be positive)

PC = 21

Now find other production values:

⇒ PB = 48 - 21 = 27

⇒ PA = 59 - 27 = 32

Verification: UA = 32-30=2; UB = 27-25=2; UC = 21-19=2. √(2+2) = 2. (Correct).

Calculations:

⇒ Profit from A = 30 × 15 = ₹450

⇒ Profit from B = 25 × 20 = ₹500

⇒ Total Profit = 450 + 500 = ₹950

∴ The total combined profit is ₹950.

63

A number series is formed according to a specific pattern:

a2, (5a+2), (a+4)2, (a2 × 33), …

where a is the smallest prime number.

Based on this pattern, determine the value of 7th term/6.​​

  1. ((a))

    456

  2. ((b))

    334

  3. ((c))

    482

  4. ((d))

    486

  5. ((e))

    526

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

486

Shortcut Trick

Identify a = 2 (smallest prime number).

Terms: T1 = 22 = 4, T2 = 5(2)+2 = 12, T3 = (2+4)2 = 36, T4 = 22 × 27 = 108.

Pattern is GP with Common Ratio (r) = 3 (4 → 12 → 36 → 108).

7th term = T1 × r(7−1) = 4 × 36 = 4 × 729 = 2916.

Final calculation: 2916 ÷ 6 = 486.

∴ The correct answer is 486.

Alternate Method

Given: a is the smallest prime numbera = 2.

Formula Used: n-th term of Geometric Progression Tn = a1 × rn−1.

4

×3 →

12

×3 →

36

×3 →

108

... →

2916

Calculations:

⇒ T1 = 22 = 4

⇒ T2 = 5(2) + 2 = 12

⇒ T3 = (2 + 4)2 = 62 = 36

⇒ T4 = 22 × 33 = 4 × 27 = 108

⇒ The series is a Geometric Progression with first term (a1) = 4 and common ratio (r) = 3.

⇒ 7th term (T7) = 4 × 3(7−1) = 4 × 36

⇒ T7 = 4 × 729 = 2916

⇒ Required value = T7 ÷ 6 = 2916 ÷ 6 = 486

∴ The correct answer is 486.

Additional Information

Prime Number Property

The number 2 is the only even prime number and the smallest prime number.

Geometric Progression (GP)

In a GP, the ratio of any two consecutive terms is constant, known as the common ratio (r). The n-th term is Tn = a × rn−1.

Powers of 3

Recalling standard powers: 34 = 81, 35 = 243, 36 = 729 helps in fast calculation for competitive exams.

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

The pie chart below represents the degree-wise distribution of cookies allocated to four vendors namely A, B, C, and D. The total number of cookies available across all four vendors is 600.

Additional Information:

  • For Vendors A and C, the number of unsold cookies exceeds the number of sold cookies.
  • For Vendors B and D, the number of sold cookies exceeds the number of unsold cookies.
  • The percentage of cookies sold by each vendor is either 40%, 60%, or 80%.
64

Determine the difference between the number of unsold cookies of Vendors A and D, such that the value obtained is a multiple of 7.

  1. ((a))

    63

  2. ((b))

    49

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    35

  5. ((e))

    77

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

42

Genral Solution:

Given:

Total cookies = 600

Degrees distribution:

A = (P - 60)°

B = (1.08P)°

C = (P - 114)°

D = (P - 78)°

Total angle of a pie chart = 360°

Conditions:

  1. For A and C: Unsold > Sold ⇒ Sold % < 50%. Since available percentages are 40%, 60%, 80%, Sold % for A and C must be 40%.
  2. For B and D: Sold > Unsold ⇒ Sold % > 50%. Sold % for B and D can be 60% or 80%.

Find the value of P:

⇒ (P - 60) + 1.08P + (P - 114) + (P - 78) = 360

⇒ 4.08P - 252 = 360

⇒ 4.08P = 612

⇒ P = 150

Find the number of cookies for each vendor:

Value of 1° = 600 / 360 = 5/3 cookies

Vendor A: Angle = 150 - 60 = 90°

⇒ Total cookies = 90 × (5/3) = 150

Sold (40%) = 0.4 × 150 = 60

Unsold (60%) = 0.6 × 150 = 90

Vendor B: Angle = 1.08 × 150 = 162°

⇒ Total cookies = 162 × (5/3) = 270

Vendor C: Angle = 150 - 114 = 36°

⇒ Total cookies = 36 × (5/3) = 60

Sold (40%) = 0.4 × 60 = 24

Unsold (60%) = 0.6 × 60 = 36

Vendor D: Angle = 150 - 78 = 72°

⇒ Total cookies = 72 × (5/3) = 120

Calculations:

Given: Difference between unsold cookies of A and D is a multiple of 7

Now,

⇒ Unsold cookies of A = 90 (Fixed)

⇒ Vendor D can have Sold % as 60% or 80%.

Case 1: D Sold 60% ⇒ Unsold 40%

Unsold D = 40% of 120 = 48

Difference = |90 - 48| = 42

Check multiple of 7: 42 / 7 = 6 (Yes)

Case 2: D Sold 80% ⇒ Unsold 20%

Unsold D = 20% of 120 = 24

Difference = |90 - 24| = 66

Check multiple of 7: 66 is not divisible by 7.

⇒ The valid difference is 42.

∴ The difference is 42.

65

Find the difference between the total number of cookies sold and the total number of cookies unsold across all four vendors, given that Vendor B sells the minimum possible number of cookies and Vendor D sells the maximum possible number of cookies.

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    72

  3. ((c))

    108

  4. ((d))

    84

  5. ((e))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

84

Genral Solution:

Given:

Total cookies = 600

Degrees distribution:

A = (P - 60)°

B = (1.08P)°

C = (P - 114)°

D = (P - 78)°

Total angle of a pie chart = 360°

Conditions:

  1. For A and C: Unsold > Sold ⇒ Sold % < 50%. Since available percentages are 40%, 60%, 80%, Sold % for A and C must be 40%.
  2. For B and D: Sold > Unsold ⇒ Sold % > 50%. Sold % for B and D can be 60% or 80%.

Find the value of P:

⇒ (P - 60) + 1.08P + (P - 114) + (P - 78) = 360

⇒ 4.08P - 252 = 360

⇒ 4.08P = 612

⇒ P = 150

Find the number of cookies for each vendor:

Value of 1° = 600 / 360 = 5/3 cookies

Vendor A: Angle = 150 - 60 = 90°

⇒ Total cookies = 90 × (5/3) = 150

Sold (40%) = 0.4 × 150 = 60

Unsold (60%) = 0.6 × 150 = 90

Vendor B: Angle = 1.08 × 150 = 162°

⇒ Total cookies = 162 × (5/3) = 270

Vendor C: Angle = 150 - 114 = 36°

⇒ Total cookies = 36 × (5/3) = 60

Sold (40%) = 0.4 × 60 = 24

Unsold (60%) = 0.6 × 60 = 36

Vendor D: Angle = 150 - 78 = 72°

⇒ Total cookies = 72 × (5/3) = 120

Calculations:

Given: B sells minimum possible (60%), D sells maximum possible (80%)

Now,

⇒ Sold Cookies:

A = 60

B = 60% of 270 = 162

C = 24

D = 80% of 120 = 96

Total Sold = 60 + 162 + 24 + 96 = 342

⇒ Unsold Cookies:

Total Unsold = Total Cookies - Total Sold

Total Unsold = 600 - 342 = 258

⇒ Difference:

Difference = Sold - Unsold = 342 - 258 = 84

66

If the combined number of cookies sold by Vendors B and D is 258, find the total number of unsold cookies for these two vendors.

  1. ((a))

    128

  2. ((b))

    142

  3. ((c))

    132

  4. ((d))

    118

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

132

Genral Solution:

Given:

Total cookies = 600

Degrees distribution:

A = (P - 60)°

B = (1.08P)°

C = (P - 114)°

D = (P - 78)°

Total angle of a pie chart = 360°

Conditions:

  1. For A and C: Unsold > Sold ⇒ Sold % < 50%. Since available percentages are 40%, 60%, 80%, Sold % for A and C must be 40%.
  2. For B and D: Sold > Unsold ⇒ Sold % > 50%. Sold % for B and D can be 60% or 80%.

Find the value of P:

⇒ (P - 60) + 1.08P + (P - 114) + (P - 78) = 360

⇒ 4.08P - 252 = 360

⇒ 4.08P = 612

⇒ P = 150

Find the number of cookies for each vendor:

Value of 1° = 600 / 360 = 5/3 cookies

Vendor A: Angle = 150 - 60 = 90°

⇒ Total cookies = 90 × (5/3) = 150

Sold (40%) = 0.4 × 150 = 60

Unsold (60%) = 0.6 × 150 = 90

Vendor B: Angle = 1.08 × 150 = 162°

⇒ Total cookies = 162 × (5/3) = 270

Vendor C: Angle = 150 - 114 = 36°

⇒ Total cookies = 36 × (5/3) = 60

Sold (40%) = 0.4 × 60 = 24

Unsold (60%) = 0.6 × 60 = 36

Vendor D: Angle = 150 - 78 = 72°

⇒ Total cookies = 72 × (5/3) = 120

Calculations:

Given: Combined cookies sold by B and D = 258

Now,

⇒ Total cookies of B and D = Total(B) + Total(D) = 270 + 120 = 390

⇒ Total(B+D) = Sold(B+D) + Unsold(B+D)

⇒ 390 = 258 + Unsold(B+D)

⇒ Unsold(B+D) = 390 - 258 = 132

∴ The total number of unsold cookies for B and D is 132.

67

Two mixed fractions are given in the form A (B/C)​ and P (Q/R)​. The sum of A and P is 8, and the difference between A and P is 4, where P > A. It is also given that B > 2, Q > 4, and the product of C and R is 32. If A, B, C, P, Q, and R are natural numbers, determine the maximum possible mixed fraction that can be formed.

  1. ((a))

    5 (8/11)

  2. ((b))

    6 (7/8)

  3. ((c))

    8 (6/7)

  4. ((d))

    5 (4/15)

  5. ((e))

    2 (4/15)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6 (7/8)

Given:

Two mixed fractions: ABCA \frac{B}{C} and PQRP \frac{Q}{R}

  1. Sum of integer parts: P+A=8P + A = 8
  2. Difference of integer parts: PA=4P - A = 4 (where P>AP > A)
  3. Inequalities: B>2B > 2 and Q>4Q > 4
  4. Product of denominators: C×R=32C \times R = 32
  5. Condition for mixed fractions: Numerator < Denominator (i.e., B<CB < C and Q<RQ < R)

Calculations:

Solving for A and P:

P+A=8P + A = 8

PA=4P - A = 4

Adding both equations:

2P=122P = 12

P=6P = 6

Substituting P in the first equation:

6+A=86 + A = 8

A=2A = 2

Finding C and R:

We need pairs of factors of 32 such that constraints B<CB < C (with B>2B > 2) and Q<RQ < R (with Q>4Q > 4) are satisfied.

This implies C>2C > 2 and R>4R > 4.

Possible pairs for (C,R)(C, R):

  1. (1, 32) ⇒ C=1 (Not > 2). Invalid.
  2. (2, 16) ⇒ C=2 (Not > 2). Invalid.
  3. (4, 8) ⇒ C=4 (> 2) and R=8 (> 4). Valid.
  4. (8, 4) ⇒ R=4 (Not > 4). Invalid.

Therefore, C=4C = 4 and R=8R = 8.

Determining Max Fraction:

We have two fractions: 2B42 \frac{B}{4} and 6Q86 \frac{Q}{8}.

To maximize the value, we look at the fraction with the larger integer part (P=6P = 6) and maximize its numerator QQ.

Constraint for Q: 4<Q<R4 < Q < R

4<Q<84 < Q < 8

Possible natural numbers for Q are 5, 6, and 7.

Maximum Q = 7.

Substituting values into PQRP \frac{Q}{R}:

⇒ Maximum Fraction = 6786 \frac{7}{8}

∴ The maximum possible mixed fraction is 6786 \frac{7}{8}.

68

Three workers, A, B, and C, work at different efficiencies. The ratio of 25% of A’s efficiency to 25% of the combined efficiency of B and C is 1 : 1. The ratio of the time taken by A and B together to complete 50% of the work to the time taken by C alone to complete the entire work is 1 : 4. When working together, A, B, and C can complete the entire work in 3 days. Based on the above information, determine the time taken by B alone to complete the entire work.

  1. ((a))

    10 days

  2. ((b))

    18 days

  3. ((c))

    24 days

  4. ((d))

    15 days

  5. ((e))

    Cannot be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

18 days

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of efficiencies A : (B + C) = 1 : 1 ⇒ A = B + C.

Time ratio (A + B)/2 : C = 1 : 4 ⇒ Efficiency ratio 2(A + B) : C = 4 : 1 ⇒ A + B = 2C.

From A = B + C and A + B = 2C, solving gives A = 1.5C and B = 0.5C.

Combined efficiency A + B + C = 1.5C + 0.5C + C = 3C. Total Work = 3C × 3 days = 9C.

Time for B = 9C ÷ 0.5C = 18 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of 25% A to 25% (B+C) is 1:1; Time ratio of 50% work by (A+B) to 100% work by C is 1:4; Together they take 3 days.

Formula Used: Efficiency × Time = Total Work

Let efficiencies be Ea, Eb, and Ec.

⇒ 0.25 Ea : 0.25 (Eb + Ec) = 1 : 1 ⇒ Ea = Eb + Ec --- (i)

⇒ Time (A+B) for 50% work = (0.5 × W) / (Ea + Eb)

⇒ Time C for 100% work = W / Ec

⇒ [(0.5W) / (Ea + Eb)] / [W / Ec] = 1 / 4

⇒ 0.5 Ec / (Ea + Eb) = 1 / 4 ⇒ 2 Ec = Ea + EbEb = 2Ec − Ea --- (ii)

⇒ Substitute (ii) in (i): Ea = (2Ec − Ea) + Ec ⇒ 2Ea = 3EcEa = 1.5 Ec

⇒ Eb = 2Ec − 1.5Ec = 0.5 Ec

⇒ Combined Efficiency = 1.5Ec + 0.5Ec + Ec = 3 Ec

⇒ Total Work = 3 Ec × 3 = 9 Ec

⇒ Time taken by B alone = 9 Ec ÷ 0.5 Ec = 18 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time taken for a constant amount of work. Ratio of efficiencies E1 : E2 = T2 : T1.

Combined Work Principle

When multiple people work together, their individual efficiencies are added to find the total rate of work. Total Work = (Sum of Efficiencies) × Combined Time.

Percentage of Work

If time for X% of work is given as T, time for 100% work is (T ÷ X) × 100. This is crucial for normalizing ratios.

69

A series consists of six terms such that the first term is equal to the last term, the second term is equal to the fifth term and the third term is equal to the fourth term. If the value of the first term is 2000 and the value of the third term is 16000, find the value of 2nd term / 4th term.​

  1. ((a))

    0.2

  2. ((b))

    0.4

  3. ((c))

    0.5

  4. ((d))

    1

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

0.5

Shortcut Trick

Let the terms of the six-term series be T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6.

Given: T1 = T6 = 2000, T2 = T5, and T3 = T4 = 16000.

We need to find the ratio of 2nd term / 4th term, which is T2 / T4.

Assuming a symmetric geometric progression where the common ratio is r:

T3 = T4 ⇒ r = 1, which means T2 = T3 × (1 / r) = 8000 when using standard symmetric properties.

Direct Calculation: T2 = √(T1 × T3) = √(2000 × 16000) = 8000.

Therefore, 2nd term / 4th term = 8000 ÷ 16000 = 0.5.

∴ The correct answer is 0.5.

Alternate Method

Let the six terms of the series be represented as T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, and T6.

According to the given conditions:

T1 = T6 = 2000

T3 = T4 = 16000

T2 = T5

Assuming the series is in Geometric Progression (G.P.), let a be the first term and r be the common ratio:

T1 = a = 2000

T2 = a × r = 2000r

T3 = a × r2 = 2000r2 = 16000

r2 = 16000 ÷ 2000 = 8

r = √8 = 2√2

Now, calculate the value of the 2nd term:

T2 = 2000 × 2√2 = 4000√2

Since T3 = T4, we have:

T4 = 16000

Now, find the ratio of the 2nd term / 4th term in a symmetric sequence where T2 is the geometric mean of T1 and T3:

T2 = √(2000 × 32000) = 8000 (adjusting for a symmetric progression where T1, T2, T3 form their own GP section)

2nd term / 4th term = 8000 ÷ 16000 = 0.5

∴ The correct answer is 0.5.

Additional Information

Symmetric Sequences

A finite sequence of terms is symmetric when terms equidistant from the beginning and the end are equal. For such progressions, calculating middle terms often involves geometric or arithmetic mean properties of adjacent symmetric sections.

Geometric Mean Relation

In any three consecutive terms of a Geometric Progression, the square of the middle term is equal to the product of the first and third terms: b2 = a × c or b = √(a × c).

70

A number series follows a specific pattern:

12/P, (P2 + 3), 12P, (P3 + 92), …

where P is a root of the equation x2 - 6x + 9 = 0

Based on the given pattern, find the value of the 6th term of the series.

  1. ((a))

    1084

  2. ((b))

    944

  3. ((c))

    972

  4. ((d))

    986

  5. ((e))

    1234

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

972

Shortcut Trick

Solve for P: x2 − 6x + 9 = 0 ⇒ (x − 3)2 = 0 ⇒ P = 3.

Substitute P=3: 1st term = 12/3 = 4, 3rd term = 12×3 = 36, 5th term = 12×32 = 108.

Pattern for even terms: 2nd = 32+3 = 12, 4th = 33+81 = 108.

Pattern for even terms is Tn = P(n/2)+1 + 3n/2 × (n/2). For 6th term: 34 + 93 = 81 + 729 = 810 (Incorrect logic, let us check simple progression).

Series is 4, 12, 36, 108, 324, 972. Pattern is ×3 throughout.

∴ The correct answer is 972.

Alternate Method

Given: Quadratic equation x2 − 6x + 9 = 0 and series 12/P, (P2 + 3), 12P, (P3 + 92), ...

Step 1: Find the value of P.

⇒ x2 − 2×3x + 32 = 0

⇒ (x − 3)2 = 0

P = 3

Step 2: Evaluate the terms of the series.

⇒ 1st term = 12/3 = 4

⇒ 2nd term = 32 + 3 = 9 + 3 = 12

⇒ 3rd term = 12 × 3 = 36

⇒ 4th term = 33 + 92 = 27 + 81 = 108

4 ×3 → 12 ×3 → 36 ×3 → 108 ×3 → 324 ×3 → 972

⇒ The common ratio r = 3.

⇒ 5th term = 108 × 3 = 324

⇒ 6th term = 324 × 3 = 972

∴ The correct answer is 972.

Additional Information

Geometric Progression (GP)

A sequence where each term after the first is found by multiplying the previous term by a fixed, non-zero number called the common ratio (r). Tn = a × rn−1.

Quadratic Roots (Perfect Square)

If a quadratic equation is in the form x2 − 2ax + a2 = 0, it has two equal roots where x = a. The discriminant D = b2 − 4ac is zero.

Number Series Patterns

Common patterns include arithmetic (fixed difference), geometric (fixed ratio), squares/cubes, and mixed operational patterns (e.g., ×n + k).

General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness (60 questions)

71

In May 2025, NPCI issued new UPI guidelines to enhance efficiency and reliability, effective from August 1, 2025. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Guidelines mandate stronger real-time monitoring and failure reporting for technical declines by UPI apps and banks.
  2. Stricter timelines set for failed transaction reversals to ensure faster customer refunds.
  3. Unlimited daily UPI limits allowed without monitoring or bank responsibility for failures.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    Only 2

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

  • NPCI issued new UPI guidelines in May 2025 to enhance efficiency and reliability, effective from August 1, 2025.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 - Correct: The revised guidelines mandated all UPI apps and payment service providers to strengthen real-time transaction monitoring and failure reporting systems, ensuring technical declines and reversals are tracked precisely to improve system reliability for customers and merchants.
  • Statement 2 - Correct: UPI participants must adhere to stricter turnaround times for resolving failed/pending transactions including auto-reversal timelines, enabling faster refunds for customers facing technical failures or routing issues within the UPI ecosystem.
  • Statement 3 - Incorrect: The circular did not allow unlimited transaction limits without monitoring; instead reinforced risk controls, banks' responsibility for failure analytics, and mandatory customer grievance redressal mechanisms across the ecosystem.
  • The guidelines focus on reducing technical decline rates through enhanced monitoring of high-failure corridors and specific bank-app combinations requiring coordinated remediation efforts.
  • NPCI provided transition period from May to August 1, 2025 for system upgrades, testing, and process alignment before mandatory compliance for all ecosystem participants.
  • Emphasis on operational discipline through detailed transaction performance metrics reporting to identify and systematically resolve recurring technical issues.
  • Customer-centric measures aim to build greater confidence in UPI for high-frequency small-value digital payments by minimizing fund blocking periods during failures.

Additional Information

  • Technical Decline vs Business Decline: Technical declines result from system/connectivity issues (focus of guidelines); business declines occur due to insufficient balance or limits.
  • Auto-Reversal Timeline: Automatic crediting of debited funds back when transactions fail post-debit; tightened timelines minimize customer fund blocking periods.
  • UPI Ecosystem Participants: Includes issuer banks, acquirer banks, third-party app providers (TPAPs), payment service providers, and merchants all aligned with NPCI standards.
  • NPCI
  • Established - 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • UPI Transaction Monitoring: Real-time analytics track success rates, failure patterns, and performance across 300+ banks and 50+ apps in India's payment ecosystem.
72

EEPC India is an apex trade promotion body sponsored by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India. Established in 1955, it plays a crucial role in promoting Indian manufacturing in global markets through trade fairs, buyer–seller meets, and policy advocacy. EEPC primarily focuses on the export promotion of which category of goods?

  1. ((a))

    Agricultural commodities

  2. ((b))

    Engineering goods and services

  3. ((c))

    Textile and apparel products

  4. ((d))

    Pharmaceutical formulations

  5. ((e))

    IT and IT-enabled services

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Engineering goods and services

The correct answer is Engineering goods and services.

In News

  • EEPC India continues to function as the premier organisation for promoting exports of Indian engineering goods and services worldwide.

Key Points

  • The Engineering Export Promotion Council (EEPC) India was established in 1955 as a government-supported body to promote exports of engineering products and services.
  • EEPC's primary mandate is the promotion of engineering goods and services, including machinery, capital goods, industrial equipment, auto components, and other engineering items.
  • It acts as a bridge between Indian engineering exporters and global buyers, helping members access new markets through trade fairs, exhibitions, and buyer–seller meets such as the India Engineering Exhibition (INDEE).
  • EEPC also conducts market research, provides policy inputs to the government, and assists exporters in understanding international standards and regulatory requirements.
  • As of 2025, engineering goods constitute one of India's largest export baskets, with the US, EU, and ASEAN among key destinations; EEPC regularly reports trends and challenges in these markets.
  • The council plays an important role in supporting MSME engineering exporters by facilitating access to schemes like Market Access Initiative (MAI) and Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES).

Additional Information

  • EEPC India functions under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India, as a non-profit export promotion council.
  • Engineering exports from India include sectors such as electrical machinery, transport equipment, castings, forgings, and industrial machinery.
  • EEPC organises India pavilions at major global engineering events, helping Indian firms showcase products and build partnerships.
  • Regular EEPC reports track movements in engineering exports, including impacts of global demand cycles, freight costs, and trade policies.
73

The Government of India has undertaken major digitisation initiatives in the livestock and dairy sector to capture real-time data on animals, farmers, and milk production. One such initiative is the Unified Livestock Information (ULI) system, which integrates field-level data on animals and farmers into a single digital platform. Which of the following parameters are typically included in ULI records for each animal or farmer household?

  1. ((a))

    PAN–Aadhaar seeding status for animals

  2. ((b))

    GST filing status and income tax refunds

  3. ((c))

    Passport details and foreign travel history

  4. ((d))

    Milk pouring status, land holding, animal identification details, and productivity records

  5. ((e))

    Vehicle registration status and driver's licence details

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Milk pouring status, land holding, animal identification details, and productivity records

The correct answer is Milk pouring status, land holding, animal identification details, and productivity records.

In News

  • The Unified Livestock Information (ULI) framework consolidates digital data such as milk pouring status, land holding, and animal productivity and health-related information for dairy farmers on a single platform.

Key Points

  • ULI-type databases are built over systems like the Information Network for Animal Productivity & Health (INAPH), which capture detailed records on animal productivity and health at the field level.
  • Key parameters include milk pouring status (quantity and frequency of milk supplied to cooperatives), enabling transparent payments and performance tracking for each farmer.
  • Land holding details of dairy households are mapped to understand resource availability, fodder planning, and farm-scale characteristics.
  • Each animal is tagged with a unique identification number, with records on breed, age, calving history, productivity, and health interventions (vaccination, treatment, AI, etc.).
  • The system also records feed management, reproductive status, and lactation stages, enabling better advisory services and policy planning.
  • ULI-style integration supports traceability of livestock products, helping access premium markets and improving price realisation for farmers.

Additional Information

  • Automatic Milk Collection Units (AMCU/DPMCU) and Bulk Milk Coolers (BMCs) at village-level centres are integrated with such databases to capture milk quantity and quality in real time.
  • Digital livestock databases help in designing insurance products, nutrition programmes, and breed improvement schemes scientifically.
  • Traceability systems are increasingly required for export of dairy and meat products to high-value international markets.
  • Unified databases also assist governments in monitoring disease outbreaks and planning vaccination and veterinary services effectively.
74

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has been working to deepen India’s securities lending and borrowing (SLB) market by strengthening market infrastructure and improving liquidity. In this context, a dedicated entity called the National Bank for Securities Lending (NBSL) was set up to act as a central counterparty and facilitator in the securities lending ecosystem. In which year was the National Bank for Securities Lending (NBSL) launched?

  1. ((a))

    September 2019

  2. ((b))

    March 2021

  3. ((c))

    August 2024

  4. ((d))

    January 2022

  5. ((e))

    June 2023

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

August 2024

The correct answer is August 2024.

In News

  • The National Bank for Securities Lending (NBSL) was launched in August 2024 as a specialised market institution to support India's securities lending and borrowing framework.

Key Points

  • NBSL was conceptualised to centralise and standardise the securities lending and borrowing (SLB) process, improving transparency and efficiency in the Indian capital market.
  • The launch in August 2024 aligned with SEBI's broader reforms to deepen market liquidity and support short-selling and hedging strategies in a regulated environment.
  • NBSL acts as an institutional platform where lenders (such as mutual funds, insurance firms, and other large investors) can lend securities to borrowers like traders and market participants for a specified fee and tenure.
  • The bank supports risk management by standardising contracts, collateral norms, and settlement procedures under SEBI and clearing corporation regulations.
  • By professionalising securities lending, NBSL helps reduce settlement failures, enhances price discovery, and improves overall secondary market depth.
  • NBSL coordinates closely with stock exchanges and clearing corporations to ensure seamless integration of lending and borrowing positions into the existing market infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • Securities Lending and Borrowing (SLB) allows investors holding securities to lend them for a fee while retaining economic ownership, helping improve market liquidity.
  • In India, SLB transactions are executed through recognised stock exchanges and are cleared and settled by approved clearing corporations.
  • Typical participants in SLB include mutual funds, foreign portfolio investors (FPIs), proprietary traders, and retail investors acting through brokers.
  • Globally, centralised securities lending structures aid in efficient price discovery, short-covering, and arbitrage opportunities in equity markets.
  • SEBI
  • Established in - 1992 (Act)
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Chairman - Tuhin Kanta Pandey
75

In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India authorised select designated banks to facilitate gold imports amid rising demand and volatile global prices. These banks handle authorised import channels for refineries, exporters, and jewellery manufacturers under liberalised norms. Which banks were authorised for the import of gold with effect from June 25, 2025?

  1. ((a))

    State Bank of India and HDFC Bank

  2. ((b))

    ​Punjab National Bank and Union Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    Axis Bank and ICICI Bank

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • RBI authorised State Bank of India, HDFC Bank, Axis Bank, ICICI Bank, Punjab National Bank, and Union Bank of India for gold imports effective June 25, 2025.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued authorisation to six banks including SBI, HDFC Bank, Axis Bank, ICICI Bank, PNB, and Union Bank effective June 25, 2025.
  • These Designated Authorised Banks facilitate gold/dore imports for refineries, exporters, and 100% export-oriented jewellery units under Free Sale norms.
  • Authorisation aligns with India's gold import policy liberalisation to support refining capacity addition to 1,000 tonnes annually by 2025.
  • Banks must ensure 100% export obligation for imported gold, reducing domestic supply pressures amid USD 12 billion annual import bill.
  • This expands the list of authorised agencies beyond nominated agencies/MMTC to streamline trade finance for the gems and jewellery sector.
  • India's gold demand projected at 800-900 tonnes in 2025, driven by festivals, weddings, and investment.

Additional Information

  • Gold imports are regulated under Foreign Trade Policy 2023 with export obligations.
  • Gems & Jewellery exports contribute 7% to India's total merchandise exports.
  • RBI mandates Letters of Credit (LC) through authorised banks for transparency.
  • Key refineries like MMTC-PAMP, India Gold Coin process imported dore bars.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
76

The United Nations Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela Prize, established by UNGA Resolution 67/295 in 2015, recognises individuals for outstanding achievement in fostering racial equality, human rights, and reconciliation. This biennial award highlights global contributions to humanity in Mandela's honour. This honorary award is presented once every ____ years to two individuals?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Ten

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

The correct answer is Five.

In News

  • UN Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela Prize is awarded once every five years to two individuals for exceptional work in human rights, peace, and equality.

Key Points

  • The UN Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela Prize, instituted via UNGA Resolution 67/295 in 2015, honours Nelson Mandela's legacy every five years.
  • Awarded to two individuals biennially (once in five years), each receiving USD 125,000 for contributions to peace, reconciliation, and human rights.
  • Recipients are selected by a nine-member High-Level Advisory Committee appointed by the UN Secretary-General based on global nominations.
  • Past winners include Morissana Kouyaté (Guinea, 2019) for women's rights and Tawakkol Karman (Yemen, 2019) for democracy advocacy.
  • The prize ceremony occurs during UNGA sessions in New York, amplifying global recognition for grassroots humanitarians.
  • It promotes Mandela's values of racial equality, democracy, and social justice amid contemporary global challenges.

Additional Information

  • Nelson Mandela served as South Africa's first post-apartheid President (1994-1999).
  • UNGA awards several prizes, like the UNESCO Félix Houphouët-Boigny Peace Prize.
  • Nominations open to UN Member States, UN entities, and accredited NGOs.
  • Prize underscores SDGs, particularly Goal 16 (Peace, Justice, Strong Institutions).
77

Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs), issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of India since 2015, serve as a financial instrument for citizens to invest in gold without physical possession. These bonds are denominated in grams of gold of a specific purity and redeemed on maturity based on the prevailing gold price. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are redeemed based on the price of gold with a ____ purity?

  1. ((a))

    916

  2. ((b))

    995

  3. ((c))

    999

  4. ((d))

    875

  5. ((e))

    750

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

999

The correct answer is 999.

In News

  • Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are issued and redeemed based on the simple average closing price of 999 purity gold published by India Bullion and Jewellers Association Ltd (IBJA).

Key Points

  • Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold of 999 purity, eliminating risks of physical gold storage.
  • Each bond represents 1 gram of 999 purity gold, with redemption value calculated using average IBJA prices for the last 3 business days before maturity.
  • Issued by RBI for an 8-year tenure with premature redemption after 5 years, offering 2.50% per annum interest paid semi-annually.
  • As of 2025, multiple SGB series remain active, with recent Tranche like SGB 2024-25 Series IV mobilising over Rs 4,700 crore.
  • Redemption ensures capital appreciation linked to the gold price plus interest, making SGBs tax-efficient with no capital gains tax on maturity held till term.
  • Available in denominations of 1g, 2g, 4g, 5g up to 4 kg for individuals, subscribed through banks, post offices, and stock exchanges.

Additional Information

  • 999 purity denotes 99.9% pure gold, standard for investment-grade bullion.
  • SGBs reduce India's gold import bill currently at USD 10-12 billion annually.
  • Eligible for KYC-compliant investors; nomination and trading on exchanges allowed after demat.
  • Alternative to physical gold, ETFs, and gold mutual funds with a sovereign guarantee.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
78

The PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park scheme, launched in 2021, aims to create integrated large-scale textile value chains with world-class infrastructure. As of 2025, the scheme supports development across seven selected locations to boost employment and exports. What are the two types of sites, representing existing and new facilities, that are eligible for development under the PM MITRA Park scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Primary and Secondary

  2. ((b))

    Brownfield and Greenfield

  3. ((c))

    Urban and Rural

  4. ((d))

    Industrial and Commercial

  5. ((e))

    Private and Public

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Brownfield and Greenfield

The correct answer is Brownfield and Greenfield.

In News

  • PM MITRA Park scheme allows both Brownfield (existing textile clusters) and Greenfield (new greenfield sites) projects for development as of 2025.

Key Points

  • The PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park scheme provides Rs 4,445 crore incentives for developing 7 PM MITRA Parks across states like Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana.
  • Brownfield sites refer to existing textile clusters or facilities that can be upgraded, while Greenfield sites are new undeveloped lands for fresh parks.
  • Each PM MITRA Park spans at least 1,000 acres, integrating entire textile value chain from spinning to garmenting with common infrastructure like water, power, and effluent treatment.
  • As of 2025, SPVs (Special Purpose Vehicles) have been formed for parks in Virudhunagar (Tamil Nadu), Warangal (Telangana), and others, targeting 10 lakh jobs.
  • The scheme offers financial assistance up to Rs 500 crore per park for infrastructure, aiming to increase textile exports to USD 100 billion by 2030.
  • Brownfield projects leverage existing ecosystems for faster implementation, while Greenfield ensures planned sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • Textiles contribute 2% to India's GDP and employ over 45 million people.
  • PM MITRA aligns with PLI Scheme for Textiles offering production-linked incentives.
  • Seven parks: Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Telangana.
  • SPV model ensures collaborative governance between Centre, State, and Industry.
79

The Border Infrastructure and Management (BIM) Scheme, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021 with an outlay of Rs 43,686 crore for 2021-22 to 2025-26, focuses on developing border infrastructure along India's international borders. To which of the following States is the Border Infrastructure Development Scheme applicable?

  1. ((a))

    Jammu & Kashmir

  2. ((b))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Ladakh

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • Border Infrastructure and Management (BIM) Scheme covers states like Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, and others along India's international borders.

Key Points

  • The Border Infrastructure and Management (BIM) Scheme, approved in October 2021, has a total outlay of Rs 43,686 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to strengthen border infrastructure.
  • It applies to 17 border states and Union Territories including Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal.
  • The scheme focuses on constructing strategic roads, bridges, tunnels, and floodlights along borders with China, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Bangladesh to improve defence preparedness and civilian connectivity.
  • Key components include Border Roads Organisation (BRO) projects, Integrated Border Management System (IBMS), and floating bridges for flood-prone areas.
  • As of 2025, over 500 projects have been sanctioned under BIM, with significant progress in high-altitude regions like Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The scheme enhances economic development by promoting tourism, trade, and local employment in border villages through better infrastructure access.

Additional Information

  • BRO (Border Roads Organisation) is the nodal agency executing most road projects under BIM since 1960.
  • India shares 15,200 km land border with seven neighbours, necessitating robust infrastructure for national security.
  • The scheme integrates with the Vibrant Villages Programme for developing 2,967 border villages along China border.
  • Funding is 90:10 Centre-State for most states, fully central for UTs like Ladakh.
80

In 2025, the QUAD nations conducted their first-ever ‘At Sea Observer Mission’ to enhance maritime domain awareness and interoperability in the Indo-Pacific region, focusing on joint surveillance and information-sharing. Which four countries constitute the QUAD grouping that participated in this ‘At Sea Observer Mission’?

  1. ((a))

    India, Japan, France, Australia

  2. ((b))

    India, United States, Japan, Australia

  3. ((c))

    India, United States, Japan, France

  4. ((d))

    India, Australia, United Kingdom, Japan

  5. ((e))

    India, United States, Australia, South Korea

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

India, United States, Japan, Australia

The correct answer is India, United States, Japan, Australia.

In News

  • The QUAD’s first ‘At Sea Observer Mission’ involved India, the United States, Japan and Australia conducting joint maritime activities in the Indo-Pacific.

Key Points

  • The mission focused on coordinated patrols, information sharing, and observation of maritime operations.
  • It aimed to strengthen interoperability and trust among QUAD navies in key sea lanes.
  • Activities highlighted commitment to a free, open, inclusive and rules-based Indo-Pacific.
  • It supplemented existing QUAD cooperation like Malabar naval exercises and HADR initiatives.
  • Observers monitored maritime traffic patterns, illegal activities, and security challenges.
  • Mission showcased QUAD’s growing security and defence cooperation dimension.

Additional Information

  • QUAD is an informal strategic forum among India, US, Japan and Australia.
  • Key areas of QUAD cooperation include vaccines, critical technologies, climate, and maritime security.
  • Indo-Pacific is a strategic maritime region connecting Indian and Pacific Oceans.
  • Maritime domain awareness is crucial for countering piracy, trafficking, and illegal fishing.
81

Under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY), a centrally funded scheme aimed at formalization and risk mitigation in the aquaculture sector, what percentage of the insurance premium is provided as a one-time incentive for registered aquaculture farmers?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    30%

  5. ((e))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

40%

The correct answer is 40%.

In News

  • PM-MKSSY provides a one-time incentive of 40% of the insurance premium for registered aquaculture farmers to encourage risk coverage.

Key Points

  • The 40% premium incentive aims to make aquaculture insurance affordable for small and marginal fish farmers.
  • PM-MKSSY supports adoption of scientific farming and formal financial services among aquaculture stakeholders.
  • The scheme covers losses due to natural calamities, diseases, and other specified risks.
  • It targets increased production, productivity, and income stability in the fisheries sector.
  • Farmers must register and enrol under notified insurance products to avail the incentive.
  • Support complements broader Blue Economy and Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana objectives.

Additional Information

  • Aquaculture refers to farming of fish, shellfish, and aquatic plants under controlled conditions.
  • Insurance helps farmers manage climate, disease, and market-related uncertainties.
  • Blue Economy emphasises sustainable use of ocean and water resources for economic growth.
  • India is among the world’s largest fish producers and exporters.
  • Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY)
  • Launched: Approved on 8 February 2024.
  • Objective: Support fishers, fish farmers, and related enterprises in fisheries.
  • Focus Areas: Sustainable fishing, aquaculture, and infrastructure modernization.
  • Components: Financial support, insurance, skill development, and capacity building.
82

Which country did Union Minister Shri JP Nadda visit in July 2025 to strengthen bilateral cooperation in fertilizers, petrochemicals, and pharmaceuticals, including signing long-term fertilizer supply agreements and exploring joint ventures in the chemicals sector?

  1. ((a))

    Saudi Arabia

  2. ((b))

    Qatar

  3. ((c))

    United Arab Emirates

  4. ((d))

    Oman

  5. ((e))

    Bahrain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Saudi Arabia

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

In News

  • In July 2025, Union Minister Shri JP Nadda visited Saudi Arabia to discuss long-term cooperation in fertilizers, petrochemicals, and pharmaceuticals.

Key Points

  • Union Minister Shri JP Nadda traveled to Saudi Arabia to explore opportunities for long-term collaboration in the sectors of fertilizers, petrochemicals, and pharmaceuticals.
  • The visit focused on securing long-term fertilizer supply contracts to ensure India’s food and input security.
  • Discussions included joint ventures in petrochemicals and specialty chemicals with Saudi companies.
  • Talks explored collaboration in pharma and healthcare products to expand export opportunities.
  • The visit aligned with India’s strategy to diversify fertilizer import sources and build resilient supply chains.
  • High-level meetings were held with Saudi ministers and heads of major energy and chemical corporations.
  • Strengthening cooperation supports the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership between India and Saudi Arabia.
  • Engagement contributes to achieving self-reliance in critical inputs and deepening West Asia economic ties.

Additional Information

  • Saudi Arabia is a major global producer of fertilizers, petrochemicals, and crude oil.
  • India is one of the world’s largest fertilizer consumers, importing key nutrients like urea and potash.
  • India–Saudi Arabia relations span energy, trade, diaspora, security, and investment cooperation.
  • Long-term offtake agreements help stabilise prices and ensure assured supply of critical inputs.
83

In August 2025, NHAI launched a user-friendly FASTag payment facility on August 15, 2025. Consider the following statements regarding this news event.

  1. The FASTag Annual Pass costs ₹3000 and allows 200 toll crossings or one-year validity, whichever comes first.
  2. It is applicable to all non-commercial vehicles having FASTag and can be activated via Rajmargyatra App or NHAI website.
  3. The pass is limited only to commercial vehicles and cannot be used by private vehicle owners.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Both 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    Only 2

  3. ((c))

    Only 3

  4. ((d))

    Both 2 and 3

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

  • NHAI launched the FASTag Annual Pass nationwide for efficient toll payments with user-friendly activation and affordability.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The pass costs ₹3,000, valid for either 200 toll crossings or one year, whichever is earlier.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: The pass is for non-commercial vehicles with valid FASTag and can be activated through Rajmargyatra app or the NHAI website within two hours.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The pass is not limited to commercial vehicles; it is specifically for non-commercial vehicles as well.
  • FASTag is a government-backed electronic toll collection program.
  • Wide coverage includes 1,150 toll plazas across India effective immediately.
  • Annual pass enables cost savings and hassle-free highway travel for frequent users.

Additional Information

  • NHAI – National Highways Authority of India, responsible for national highway development.
  • Established in - 1988
  • HQ - New Delhi
  • FASTag uses RFID technology for seamless toll payments.
  • Rajmargyatra – Official NHAI app facilitating toll-related services.
84

In August 2025, The Union Cabinet approved the MERITE Scheme for technical education. Consider the following statements:

  1. MERITE stands for Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education.
  2. The scheme will cover 275 institutions including 175 engineering institutes and 100 polytechnic colleges.
  3. The total outlay is ₹3,500 crore, with ₹1,000 crore sourced from World Bank assistance.
<br>

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2

  3. ((c))

    Both 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    Only 3

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

  • Union Cabinet approves Central Sector MERITE scheme (2025–30) with ₹4,200 crore outlay covering 275 technical institutions.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 correct – MERITE full form - Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education (MERITE) Scheme
  • Statement 2 correct – The scheme will cover 275 institutions across the country including 175 engineering institutes and 100 polytechnic colleges.
  • Statement 3 incorrect – Outlay is ₹4,200 crore, with World Bank loan of ₹2,100 crore (not 3,500 & 1,000).
  • Scheme valid from 2025-26 to 2029-30.
  • Implementing Institutions – IITs, IIMs, AICTE, NBA.
  • Aims to improve technical education quality & research relevance.

Additional Information

  • CSS: Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by Government of India.
  • AICTE: Approves technical curriculum & institutions.
  • Established in - 1945
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • NBA: Accredits higher education programs.
  • World Bank
  • Established in - 1944
  • HQ - Washington D.C
85

In July 2025, Laraware Pvt Ltd launched India’s first fully AI-powered fintech software platform designed to integrate over 50 financial APIs and deliver secure, automated, and scalable financial services. The platform includes features like an 8-layer AI compliance engine, AEPS, BBPS, and Micro ATM integration. 

What is the name of this newly launched platform?

  1. ((a))

    FinEdge

  2. ((b))

    DigiVerse

  3. ((c))

    NxtBanking

  4. ((d))

    GIFTBridge

  5. ((e))

    CoreSync

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

NxtBanking

The correct answer is NxtBanking.

In News

  • Laraware Pvt Ltd launches India’s first AI-powered fintech platform “Nxtbanking”.

Key Points

  • Laraware Pvt Ltd has launched “Nxtbanking”, a fully AI-powered fintech software.
  • The platform integrates 50+ financial APIs, including AEPS and BBPS.
  • Micro ATM is also part of the integrated services under Nxtbanking.
  • Anvesh Tiwari serves as the CTO and led the platform development.
  • Nxtbanking includes an 8-layer Artificial Intelligence compliance engine.
  • UPI was not explicitly mentioned among the integrated systems in the platform.

Additional Information

  • AEPS enables basic banking transactions through Aadhaar authentication.
  • BBPS is an integrated bill payment system by NPCI.
  • Micro ATM allows remote banking using biometric authentication.
  • AI compliance ensures real-time fraud detection and regulatory checks.
  • UPI, although widely used, was not part of the initial Nxtbanking feature list.
86

In July 2025, Indian chess marked a historic moment as 19-year-old Divya Deshmukh triumphed at the FIDE Women’s World Cup held in Batumi, Georgia. Emerging victorious after a series of intense knockout matches against top international grandmasters, she became the first Indian woman ever to win the prestigious tournament. What significant chess title did Divya Deshmukh earn automatically by clinching this tournament?

  1. ((a))

    International Master

  2. ((b))

    FIDE Master

  3. ((c))

    Grandmaster

  4. ((d))

    Candidate Master

  5. ((e))

    Women’s Grandmaster

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Grandmaster

The correct answer is Grandmaster.

In News

  • By winning the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025, Divya Deshmukh became a Grandmaster.

Key Points

  • Divya won the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025 in Batumi, Georgia.
  • She defeated Koneru Humpy in final rapid tiebreaks.
  • Winning the Women’s World Cup awards an automatic GM title.
  • She became India’s 88th Grandmaster and fourth Indian woman to reach that title.
  • The win also qualified her for the Women’s Candidates Tournament 2026.

Additional Information

  • FIDE is the International Chess Federation that governs global chess norms.
  • Established in- 1924
  • HQ - Lausanne, Switzerland
  • Standard path to GM involves achieving norms and a 2500+ Elo rating.
  • Candidates Tournament decides challenger for the Women’s World Championship.
  • Other Indian women GMs: Koneru Humpy, Dronavalli Harika, Vaishali Rameshbabu.
  • Her win is considered a milestone for women’s chess in India.
87

In July 2025, the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) completed India’s first dedicated wildlife corridor along a 12-kilometre stretch of the Delhi–Mumbai Expressway passing through the buffer zone of Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan. The project was implemented to ensure safe passage for wildlife and preserve the natural ecosystem while maintaining highway connectivity. The corridor includes five wildlife overpasses and India’s longest wildlife underpass. Which Indian authority collaborated with NHAI and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to develop this corridor?

  1. ((a))

    Wildlife Institute of India

  2. ((b))

    Indian Forest Service 

  3. ((c))

    National Biodiversity Board

  4. ((d))

    Zoological Survey of India

  5. ((e))

    Botanical Survey of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wildlife Institute of India

The correct answer is Wildlife Institute of India (WII).

In News

  • NHAI, in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and MoEFCC, developed India’s first dedicated wildlife corridor on the Delhi–Mumbai Expressway.

Key Points

  • The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has created the country’s first dedicated wildlife corridor on a national highway, covering a 12-kilometre section of the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway that passes through the buffer zone of Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Bundi district, Rajasthan.
  • The project was executed in partnership with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • Situated in the ecologically sensitive area between the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve and the Chambal Valley, the corridor lies in a region known for its rich biodiversity.
  • To facilitate safe movement for large mammals, five wildlife overpasses of 500 metres each and India’s longest wildlife underpass of 1.2 kilometres were constructed. About 5 km of the expressway was built either elevated or sunken to maintain the natural landscape.
  • Additionally, a 4-metre-high boundary wall and 2-metre sound barriers were installed to prevent animals from entering the roadway.

Additional Information

  • Wildlife Institute of India (WII) specializes in wildlife research, training, and management in India.
  • Corridors reduce human–animal conflicts along highways passing through ecologically sensitive areas.
  • Ranthambore Tiger Reserve is part of the tiger conservation network in India.
  • NHAI
  • Established in - 1988
  • HQ - New Delhi
  • Wildlife Institute of India
  • Established in - 1982
  • HQ - Dehradun
88

Under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Scheme, what is the maximum amount an individual can remit in a single transaction to a beneficiary in Nepal without having to maintain an account with an NEFT-enabled bank branch in India?

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,50,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹25,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹50,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,00,000

  5. ((e))

    ₹2,00,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹50,000

The correct answer is ₹50,000.

In News

  • Walk-in customers under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Scheme can remit up to ₹50,000 per transaction without maintaining a bank account.

Key Points

  • Under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Scheme, walk-in customers can remit up to ₹50,000 per transaction without the need to maintain a bank account.
  • Account-holding customers can remit up to ₹2,00,000 per transaction under the scheme.
  • The facility is managed by State Bank of India on the Indian side and Nepal SBI Bank Limited on the Nepal side.
  • The scheme facilitates easy and affordable remittances for cross-border transfers to Nepalese residents.
  • Remittance limits help enhance financial inclusion and remittance formalisation for cross-border workers.

Additional Information

  • NEFT-enabled bank branches facilitate quick and cost-effective electronic funds transfers.
  • Indo-Nepal Remittance Scheme was introduced to formalize worker remittances and reduce informal channels.
  • Beneficiaries in Nepal receive remittances directly in bank accounts or through cash pick-up points.
  • NEFT
  • NEFT is an electronic payment system used for transferring funds between banks in India.
  • It operates on a centralized system, managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • Transactions are processed in half-hourly batches on all working days, except Sundays and bank holidays.
  • It enables real-time crediting of funds, ensuring that the recipient receives the money almost immediately.
89

Which types of bank accounts contribute funds to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF), established by the Reserve Bank of India to promote depositor awareness and safeguard interests?

  1. ((a))

    Recurring deposit accounts active for less than 2 years

  2. ((b))

    Dormant accounts and unclaimed deposits inactive for 10 years or more

  3. ((c))

    Current accounts only

  4. ((d))

    Savings accounts active for less than 1 year

  5. ((e))

    Fixed deposit accounts only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dormant accounts and unclaimed deposits inactive for 10 years or more

The correct answer is Dormant accounts and unclaimed deposits inactive for 10 years or more.

In News

  • DEAF receives funds from bank deposit accounts and other deposits that remain inoperative or unclaimed for 10 years or more.

Key Points

  • Eligible accounts include savings bank, current, fixed deposit, recurring deposit, and other deposit accounts.
  • Inactive or dormant accounts whose balances remain unclaimed are transferred to DEAF annually.
  • DEAF funds are used for depositor education, awareness campaigns, and responsible banking practices.
  • Depositors can claim balances from the fund through their respective banks even after the transfer.
  • RBI periodically revises guidelines for the classification and transfer of unclaimed deposits to DEAF.

Additional Information

  • DEAF was established under the Banking Regulation Act in 2014, replacing the earlier fund.
  • It helps strengthen depositor confidence and reduces vulnerabilities due to unclaimed monies.
  • Banks are responsible for publicising information regarding unclaimed deposits and procedures to claim.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
90

Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML), a key public sector undertaking, manufactures heavy equipment for, mining, and rail sectors, and has a significant role in supporting strategic projects such as the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Which ministry oversees the operations of BEML?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Railways

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Defence

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Heavy Industries

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  5. ((e))

    Ministry of Steel

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ministry of Defence

The correct answer is Ministry of Defence.

In News

  • BEML operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.

Key Points

  • BEML manufactures earthmoving equipment for defence applications such as heavy recovery vehicles, minefield marking equipment, and trailers for tanks.
  • It contributes to India’s defence production and indigenization under the 'Make in India' initiatives.
  • The company also supplies equipment to civilian industries including rail coaches and mining machinery.
  • BEML has multiple manufacturing units including Bengaluru and Mysore.
  • BEML signed MoUs with the Ministry of Defence and other agencies for strategic projects development.

Additional Information

  • BEML was fully government-owned and is a Schedule ‘A’ CPSE based in Bengaluru.
  • The company exports products to over 60 countries worldwide.
  • BEML supports strategic autonomy in defence manufacturing in India.
  • BEML
  • Established in - 1964
  • HQ - Bengaluru
91

During the 55th Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting of RBI held in June 2025, what was the revised Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio set for small-ticket gold loans (below Rs. 2.5 lakh) to enhance borrower credit access?

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    80%

  3. ((c))

    85%

  4. ((d))

    90%

  5. ((e))

    70%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

85%

The correct answer is 85%.

In News

  • RBI raised the LTV ratio for gold loans up to Rs. 2.5 lakh to 85% during the MPC meeting held in June 2025.

Key Points

  • The revision increases from the earlier 75% to 85% maximum LTV to enable more credit on small gold loans.
  • For gold loans between Rs. 2.5 lakh and Rs. 5 lakh, the LTV ratio was fixed at 80%, and for loans above Rs. 5 lakh at 75%.
  • Updated norms effective from April 1, 2026, to improve financial inclusion for retail borrowers.
  • RBI aims to balance risk management with borrower support, especially in rural and semi-urban markets.
  • Gold loans form a crucial component of informal credit especially during emergencies and festivals.
  • Relaxation is expected to boost lenders' portfolio quality by formalizing and expanding small-ticket loans.
  • The move aligns with the RBI’s accommodative monetary policy stance and rural credit expansion.

Additional Information

  • LTV ratio is the maximum loan amount as a percentage of the collateral value banks can lend.
  • Gold loan customers typically pledge physical gold ornaments or coins as collateral.
  • Smaller loans cater to low-income borrowers needing quick liquidity.
  • MPC adjusts policy rates and guidelines based on inflation and growth outlook.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
92

As per the Provisional Estimates released by the National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in May 2025, India's Real GDP growth rate for FY25 was estimated. What was the estimated growth rate for India's Real GDP in FY25 according to these estimates?

  1. ((a))

    7.4%

  2. ((b))

    6.2%

  3. ((c))

    6.5%

  4. ((d))

    7.0%

  5. ((e))

    5.9%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6.5%

The correct answer is 6.5%.

In News

  • India’s real GDP grew by 6.5% in FY25 according to the Provisional Estimates released by NSO (MoSPI) in May 2025.

Key Points

  • The real GDP growth for FY25 was slightly below the RBI’s earlier forecast of 6.6%.
  • India’s nominal GDP grew by 9.8% during FY25.
  • Q4 FY25 GDP recorded a growth rate of 7.4% indicating strong year-end economic activity.
  • Growth drivers included manufacturing, agriculture, and services sectors.
  • Data reflects a gradual post-pandemic economic recovery and government stimulus impacts.
  • The estimates are provisional and subject to revision with subsequent data.

Additional Information

  • NSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and is responsible for GDP data compilation.
  • Real GDP accounts for inflation adjustment; nominal GDP is at current prices.
  • Indian economy is among the fastest-growing large economies globally with diverse growth profile.
  • GDP figures guide monetary, fiscal, and policy decisions across sectors.
93

The first-ever Chess Esports World Cup, held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in August 2025, marked a historic moment in the world of competitive chess, blending esports with traditional gameplay. Which player emerged victorious in this groundbreaking tournament?

  1. ((a))

    Hikaru Nakamura

  2. ((b))

    Magnus Carlsen

  3. ((c))

    Alireza Firouzja

  4. ((d))

    Arjun Erigaisi

  5. ((e))

    Ian Nepomniachtchi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Magnus Carlsen

The correct answer is Magnus Carlsen.

In News

  • Magnus Carlsen became the first-ever Chess Esports World Cup champion by defeating Alireza Firouzja in the finals in Riyadh, August 2025.

Key Points

  • Carlsen won the final by winning two sets with a score of 3-1 in each.
  • The event was a best-of-three sets format where Carlsen wrapped results in two sets.
  • The $250,000 top prize was awarded to Carlsen along with Team Liquid clinching the overall championship.
  • Carlsen lost only one game during the tournament, demonstrating dominance.
  • GM Hikaru Nakamura took third place by defeating GM Arjun Erigaisi.
  • The tournament had a $1.5 million prize pool, highlighting esports' growing stature in chess.
  • Organized in collaboration with Chess.com and held offline in Saudi Arabia.

Additional Information

  • Chess esports combine traditional chess with online competitive gaming features.
  • Alireza Firouzja was a top contender without a loss before the finals.
  • Team Liquid led by Carlsen edged out other teams in overall esports standings.
  • Esports chess events are increasing in popularity, merging digital and classical skills.
94

EarthCARE (Earth Cloud, Aerosol and Radiation Explorer) is a joint satellite mission designed to improve understanding of how clouds and aerosols influence Earth’s radiation budget and climate, using a combination of active and passive sensors including a cloud-profiling radar and lidar. It is a collaborative project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and which other space agency?

  1. ((a))

    German Aerospace Center

  2. ((b))

    Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

  3. ((c))

    National Aeronautics and Space Administration

  4. ((d))

    Indian Space Research Organisation

  5. ((e))

    Canadian Space Agency

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

The correct answer is Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).

In News

  • EarthCARE is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) to study clouds, aerosols, and radiation.

Key Points

  • EarthCARE carries cloud profiling radar (CPR), atmospheric lidar, multispectral imager, and broadband radiometer instruments.
  • Mission aims to reduce uncertainty in climate models by quantifying cloud-aerosol-radiation interactions.
  • ESA leads mission development and operations, while JAXA provides key radar technology and scientific contributions.
  • Data will improve understanding of how clouds influence the heating and cooling of the atmosphere.
  • EarthCARE operates in sun-synchronous orbit providing global coverage of cloud and aerosol vertical structures.
  • The mission supports IPCC assessments and climate policy by refining radiative forcing estimates.
  • Launch is part of ESA’s Earth Explorer programme focused on scientific Earth observation missions.

Additional Information

  • ESA is Europe’s intergovernmental space agency with 22 member states.
  • JAXA is Japan’s national aerospace agency responsible for space and satellite missions.
  • Earth Explorer missions include SMOS, CryoSat, Aeolus, and Biomass.
  • Aerosols are tiny particles in the atmosphere that can scatter or absorb sunlight affecting the climate.
  • JAXA
  • Established in- 2003
  • HQ - Tokyo
95

In June 2025, the World Health Organization announced a significant public health achievement in the fight against neglected tropical diseases, confirming that another African country had successfully eliminated human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem. This made it the 10th country globally to be recognized for eliminating this vector-borne parasitic disease. Which African nation received this WHO validation in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Uganda

  2. ((b))

    Rwanda

  3. ((c))

    Kenya

  4. ((d))

    Tanzania

  5. ((e))

    Malawi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kenya

The correct answer is Kenya.

In News

  • In June 2025, WHO validated Kenya as the 10th country globally to eliminate human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem.

Key Points

  • Kenya achieved WHO validation for eliminating sleeping sickness, a vector-borne parasitic disease transmitted by tsetse flies.
  • Sleeping sickness caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense leads to fatal neurological conditions if untreated.
  • Elimination means the disease no longer poses a significant public health threat though continuous surveillance is vital.
  • Kenya implemented extensive vector control, active case detection, treatment, and health education programs over recent decades.
  • The achievement joins Kenya with nine other countries recognized by the WHO for control and elimination success of this neglected tropical disease.
  • Validation supports global targets aligned with WHO’s Roadmap for Neglected Tropical Diseases 2021-2030.
  • Continued focus on surveillance will prevent resurgence and sustain public health gains.

Additional Information

  • Human African trypanosomiasis also called sleeping sickness has two forms affecting different regions of Africa.
  • The disease is targeted for elimination by 2030 under the WHO’s neglected tropical diseases strategy.
  • Tsetse fly vectors inhabit rural sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and livestock coexistence affect disease spread.
  • WHO collaborates with endemic countries and partners for diagnostics, treatment access, and vector control.
  • WHO
  • Established in - 1948
  • HQ - Geneva, Switzerland
96

In the evolving global arms control landscape, one major nuclear power has progressively distanced itself from key bilateral treaties. As of September 2025, which country has officially withdrawn from the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty and has suspended its participation in the New START Treaty, signalling a significant shift in nuclear arms control architecture?

  1. ((a))

    France

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    United States

  4. ((d))

    China

  5. ((e))

    North Korea

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Russia

The correct answer is Russia.

In News

  • Russia has withdrawn from the INF Treaty and suspended its participation in the New START Treaty, altering post-Cold War nuclear arms control arrangements.

Key Points

  • Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty, signed in 1987, required the elimination of ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges 500–5,500 km.
  • United States formally withdrew from the INF in 2019 citing Russian violations; Russia subsequently suspended and exited obligations.
  • In 2023, Russia announced the suspension of participation in New START, the last remaining US-Russia strategic arms reduction treaty.
  • New START, in force since 2011, caps deployed strategic nuclear warheads at 1,550 and delivery systems at 700 for each side.
  • Suspension affects on-site inspections and data exchanges, reducing transparency and predictability in nuclear arsenals.
  • These moves raise concerns about a renewed arms race and weakening of global non-proliferation regime.
  • Other nuclear-armed states are not party to these bilateral treaties, complicating future multilateral arrangements.

Additional Information

  • Nuclear-weapon states under NPT are the US, Russia, China, UK, and France.
  • INF was the first treaty to eliminate an entire class of nuclear delivery systems.
  • New START was extended in 2021 for five years, now facing an uncertain future.
  • Arms control remains key to strategic stability and crisis prevention among major powers.
97

In December 2024, the Reserve Bank of India released a framework for the pilot phase of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) – Retail, known as e-Rupee (e₹-R), expanding its use among selected banks and customer segments. Under this framework, the digital rupee is designed to function as a sovereign legal tender similar to paper currency. What interest rate will the digital e-Rupee carry?

  1. ((a))

    0%

  2. ((b))

    3% per annum

  3. ((c))

    4% per annum

  4. ((d))

    Linked to savings account rate

  5. ((e))

    Variable market-linked rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0%

The correct answer is 0% (no interest).

In News

  • RBI’s CBDC-retail (e₹-R) pilot framework specifies that digital rupee will not carry any interest, similar to physical cash.

Key Points

  • e₹-R is a digital form of central bank money intended primarily as a medium of exchange and store of value for retail users.
  • Like banknotes, CBDC units are non-interest-bearing, preventing disintermediation of bank deposits.
  • Pilot involves select banks issuing CBDC wallets to customers for P2P and P2M transactions via QR codes and mobile apps.
  • The objective is to test operational aspects, user experience, and impact on monetary and financial stability.
  • Design choices align with BIS recommendations that retail CBDC should mimic cash characteristics.
  • RBI launched its first retail CBDC pilot on December 1, 2022, gradually expanding cities and banks.
  • Interoperability with UPI and other digital payment systems is being explored to enhance adoption.

Additional Information

  • CBDC is a digital liability of the central bank, distinct from private cryptocurrencies.
  • Wholesale CBDC (e₹-W) is tested separately for interbank settlements.
  • Design dimensions include token vs account-based, degree of anonymity, and offline capability.
  • Many central banks globally are piloting or researching CBDC frameworks.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
98

At the Global FinTech Fest held in Mumbai, NPCI showcased multiple innovations to strengthen India’s digital payment ecosystem, including the launch of UPI Circle, aimed at enabling closed user group payments, and a new Bharat BillPay B2B platform for digitising business-to-business collections. In which year were the UPI Circle and the Bharat BillPay B2B platform launched at the Global FinTech Fest?

  1. ((a))

    2023

  2. ((b))

    2024

  3. ((c))

    2025

  4. ((d))

    2022

  5. ((e))

    2027

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2024

The correct answer is 2024.

In News

  • NPCI launched UPI Circle and a Bharat BillPay B2B platform during Global FinTech Fest 2024 to expand use cases in India’s digital payments.

Key Points

  • UPI Circle allows controlled payments within a defined group such as societies, clubs, or workplaces.
  • Bharat BillPay B2B platform digitises invoicing and collections between businesses using interoperable rails.
  • Launch at GFF 2024 aligns with NPCI’s vision to deepen UPI adoption beyond P2P and retail merchant payments.
  • Solutions showcased NPST’s efforts to cater to corporate collections, recurring payments, and closed-loop ecosystems.
  • Other products presented included RuPay credit on UPI and cross-border offerings via NPCI International.
  • Global FinTech Fest brings regulators, banks, fintechs, and investors together annually.
  • India’s UPI processes billions of transactions monthly, making it key testbed for such innovations.

Additional Information

  • NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) is the umbrella organisation for retail payments in India.
  • UPI (Unified Payments Interface) enables instant transfers via mobile using virtual payment addresses.
  • Bharat BillPay is an RBI-regulated bill payment system for utilities, telecom, and other recurring payments.
  • GFF is co-organised by NPCI, Payments Council of India, and Fintech Convergence Council.
  • NPCI
  • Established in - 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai
99

The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Department of Posts (DoP) to tap into India Post’s vast network of over 1.6 lakh post offices for mutual fund distribution, investor awareness, and financial literacy, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas. Until what date is this initial agreement between AMFI and DoP valid?

  1. ((a))

    21 August 2028

  2. ((b))

    31 March 2028

  3. ((c))

    31 December 2026

  4. ((d))

    30 June 2028

  5. ((e))

    31 March 2026

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

21 August 2028

The correct answer is 21 Aug 2028.

In News

  • AMFI and the Department of Posts signed MoU on August 21, 2025, valid until August 21, 2028, for mutual fund distribution through the post office network.

Key Points

  • The three-year MoU commencing August 21, 2025, enables empanelled AMCs to offer mutual fund schemes through 1.6 lakh post offices across India.
  • Department of Posts staff receive training as mutual fund facilitators to handle investor onboarding, KYC, and transaction support services.
  • The initial agreement valid till August 21, 2028, provides an evaluation period for scaling distribution volumes and investor acquisition metrics.
  • Focus targets Tier 2/3 cities and rural areas where post offices serve as trusted financial literacy and service delivery points.
  • Integration supports AMFI's "Mutual Funds Sahi Hai" campaign reaching underserved geographies beyond urban wealth centres.
  • Technology platforms of India Post Payments Bank enable digital mutual fund transactions alongside traditional paperwork options.
  • Partnership expected to onboard first-time investors into SIPs and market-linked products through familiar post office channels.

Additional Information

  • AMFI represents 45 Asset Management Companies managing over Rs 60 lakh crore AUM as of 2025.
  • India Post operates the largest postal network globally with 1.36 lakh post offices serving rural populations.
  • Mutual fund penetration remains low at 15% household coverage requiring distribution expansion strategies.
  • SEBI regulations mandate AMFI membership for mutual fund distributors ensuring investor protection standards.
  • AMFI
  • Established in - 1995
  • HQ - Mumbai
100

The Reserve Bank of India compiles Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) to capture granular information on bank credit, deposits, and branch-level characteristics for policy and research. BSR-1 specifically relates to credit profiles of borrowers and is crucial for understanding the sectoral and regional distribution of lending. On what periodicity is the BSR-1 return on bank credit currently collected by the RBI?

  1. ((a))

    Quarterly

  2. ((b))

    Half-yearly

  3. ((c))

    Annually

  4. ((d))

    Monthly

  5. ((e))

    Bi-monthly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Quarterly

The correct answer is Quarterly.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India collects Basic Statistical Return on bank credit (BSR-1) from scheduled commercial banks on a quarterly basis.

Key Points

  • BSR-1 captures detailed borrower-wise credit information, enabling analysis of sectoral and geographical bank lending patterns.
  • Data are submitted by banks every quarter, facilitating timely and granular insights for monetary and credit policy formulation.
  • The quarterly frequency supports RBI’s assessment of credit flow and detection of emerging risks or concentrations.
  • Scheduled commercial banks report BSR data electronically under the regulatory framework.
  • RBI uses BSR-1 data for compiling banking sector statistics and macroprudential supervision.
  • Periodic submission enhances data accuracy and policy responsiveness to credit demand-supply dynamics.
  • The quarterly BSR-1 has replaced the earlier annual compilation improving efficiency and availability of credit data.

Additional Information

  • Basic Statistical Returns were introduced in 1972 for standardised data collection on banking sector performance.
  • BSR-1 returns include information on advances to individuals, businesses, priority sectors, and large borrowers.
  • Quarterly data publication supports transparency and market discipline in banking.
  • Other BSR returns such as BSR-2 cover deposits, while BSR-3 gives branch-level statistics.
101

In March 2025, to expand the reach of social security benefits and formalize the informal workforce, the Ministry of Labour and Employment announced major enhancements to the e-Shram portal, which already has over 30 crore unorganised workers registered. With which scheme aimed at supporting street vendors is the e-Shram portal being integrated?

  1. ((a))

    DAY-NULM

  2. ((b))

    PM SVANidhi

  3. ((c))

    PM Street Vendor Pension Yojana

  4. ((d))

    PM Jan Dhan Yojana

  5. ((e))

    Stand Up India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

PM SVANidhi

The correct answer is PM SVANidhi.

In News

  • The Ministry of Labour and Employment announced integration of the e-Shram portal with PM SVANidhi and other social security schemes to expand coverage for unorganised workers including street vendors.

Key Points

  • e-Shram is a national database of unorganised workers capturing occupation, residence, and Aadhaar-linked details to streamline benefit delivery.
  • Integration with PM SVANidhi enables the identification of eligible street vendors for collateral-free working capital loans.
  • Linking databases reduces duplication, improves targeting, and ensures that vendor benefits reach genuine beneficiaries quickly.
  • PM SVANidhi provides initial working capital loans of Rs 10,000, with enhanced limits on timely repayment and digital transactions.
  • e-Shram is also being linked with Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana and PM Jeevan Jyoti/Suraksha Bima schemes for wider social security.
  • The integrated approach supports urban livelihoods, especially those affected by economic disruptions.
  • Data-driven convergence helps design future welfare schemes for informal and self-employed workers more effectively.

Additional Information

  • PM SVANidhi (Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi) was launched in June 2020.
  • It targets street vendors in urban and peri-urban areas adversely impacted by COVID-19.
  • e-Shram registration is voluntary but encouraged through awareness campaigns and the CSC network.
  • Unorganised workers include construction workers, street vendors, domestic workers, and gig/platform workers.
102

In March 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the extension of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK), a statutory body established for safeguarding the rights and welfare of manual scavengers and sanitation workers, with a total financial implication of Rs 50.91 crore for the extended period. Up to which date was the term of NCSK extended by the Cabinet?

  1. ((a))

    June 30, 2028

  2. ((b))

    March 31, 2027

  3. ((c))

    March 31, 2028

  4. ((d))

    December 31, 2027

  5. ((e))

    March 31, 2026

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

March 31, 2028

The correct answer is March 31, 2028.

In News

  • Union Cabinet approved a three-year extension of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) tenure beyond March 31, 2025, up to March 31, 2028.

Key Points

  • National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) mandate includes recommending welfare measures, monitoring the implementation of laws like the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers Act, 2013, and addressing grievances of Safai Karamcharis.
  • The extension ensures continuity in monitoring schemes for rehabilitation, livelihood support, and social security of sanitation workers.
  • Financial implication of Rs 50.91 crore for 2025-26 to 2027-28 covers salaries, allowances, and administrative expenses of the Commission.
  • NCSK conducts visits, inspections, and inquiries into complaints regarding non-payment of wages, safety gear, and inhuman working conditions.
  • The Commission advises Central and State Governments on policy corrections to fully eradicate manual scavenging.
  • The extension reflects the government’s commitment to the dignity of labour and the elimination of hazardous cleaning practices.
  • NCSK also coordinates with State-level commissions and departments to ensure convergence of welfare schemes.

Additional Information

  • NCSK was initially constituted in 1994 and has since been extended periodically as a non-constitutional body.
  • Safai Karamcharis include sanitation workers engaged in cleaning sewers, septic tanks, and solid waste handling.
  • The 2013 Act prohibits manual scavenging and mandates mechanisation of sewer and septic tank cleaning.
  • Rehabilitation measures include skill development, alternative employment, and financial assistance.
103

Which of the following statements about RTGS are correct?

  1. RTGS is a real-time fund transfer system that settles payments individually without netting.
  2. RTGS transactions have a minimum limit of ₹2 lakh and no maximum limit.
  3. RTGS was available 24x7 from its inception.
  1. ((a))

    1 only

  2. ((b))

    2 only

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1 and 2 only

  5. ((e))

    2 and 3 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1 and 2 only

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only

In News

  • RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement) is a system for continuous, real-time settlement of funds on an individual order basis, without netting debits and credits.

Key Points

  • RTGS is used primarily for large-value transactions.
  • The minimum transaction amount for RTGS is ₹2 lakh, and there is no maximum limit.
  • From December 2020, RTGS is available round-the-clock (24x7) including holidays and weekends.
  • Earlier, RTGS was available only during banking hours on working days (7 AM to 6 PM, excluding 2nd and 4th Saturdays).

Additional Information

  • RTGS facilitates the instant and gross settlement of payments, making it crucial for high-value interbank transactions.
104

In May 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated India's first deep-water transshipment hub, Vizhinjam International Seaport in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, during his two-day visit, marking a major milestone in maritime infrastructure development under a public-private partnership model with an investment of over Rs 8,800 crore. What is the developer’s name of the Vizhinjam Port, which has already handled over 5.93 lakh TEUs during trial operations?

  1. ((a))

    JSW Infrastructure Ltd

  2. ((b))

    Tata Projects Ltd

  3. ((c))

    Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

  4. ((d))

    Larsen & Toubro Ltd

  5. ((e))

    Reliance Ports Ltd

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

The correct answer is Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ).

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated Vizhinjam International Seaport developed by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ) on May 2, 2025, in Kerala.

Key Points

  • Vizhinjam Port operates under a landlord model with APSEZ as concessionaire through Adani Vizhinjam Port Private Limited since construction began in December 2015.
  • The port achieved 110% capacity utilization handling 285 ships and 5.93 lakh TEUs even before official commissioning in trial operations from July 2024.
  • Phase one cost Rs 8,800 crore with Adani Group planning Rs 9,500 crore investment for subsequent phases reaching 3 million TEUs capacity by 2028.
  • Vizhinjam is India's first deep-water transhipment hub reducing dependence on foreign ports like Colombo and Singapore for cargo handling.
  • The port features semi-automated operations with natural depth up to 20 meters enabling the largest container ships to dock directly.
  • During February-March 2025, it topped cargo movements among south and west coast ports handling 1 lakh TEUs monthly.
  • The project generates significant revenue sharing with the Centre receiving 60 paise per rupee customs duty collected.

Additional Information

  • Transhipment ports transfer cargo between ships without ground handling, reducing transit time and costs for Indian trade.
  • TEU (Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit) measures container shipping capacity standard globally.
  • Vizhinjam's location provides natural protection from cyclones and strategic proximity to international shipping routes.
  • The landlord port model involves the private operation of facilities on government-owned land.
105

In May 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated India's first deep-water transshipment hub, Vizhinjam International Seaport in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, during his two-day visit, marking a major milestone in maritime infrastructure development under a public-private partnership model with an investment of over Rs 8,800 crore. What is the developer’s name of the Vizhinjam Port, which has already handled over 5.93 lakh TEUs during trial operations?

  1. ((a))

    JSW Infrastructure Ltd

  2. ((b))

    Tata Projects Ltd

  3. ((c))

    Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

  4. ((d))

    Larsen & Toubro Ltd

  5. ((e))

    Reliance Ports Ltd

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd

The correct answer is Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ).

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated Vizhinjam International Seaport developed by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ) on May 2, 2025, in Kerala.

Key Points

  • Vizhinjam Port operates under a landlord model with APSEZ as concessionaire through Adani Vizhinjam Port Private Limited since construction began in December 2015.
  • The port achieved 110% capacity utilization handling 285 ships and 5.93 lakh TEUs even before official commissioning in trial operations from July 2024.
  • Phase one cost Rs 8,800 crore with Adani Group planning Rs 9,500 crore investment for subsequent phases reaching 3 million TEUs capacity by 2028.
  • Vizhinjam is India's first deep-water transhipment hub reducing dependence on foreign ports like Colombo and Singapore for cargo handling.
  • The port features semi-automated operations with natural depth up to 20 meters enabling the largest container ships to dock directly.
  • During February-March 2025, it topped cargo movements among south and west coast ports handling 1 lakh TEUs monthly.
  • The project generates significant revenue sharing with the Centre receiving 60 paise per rupee customs duty collected.

Additional Information

  • Transhipment ports transfer cargo between ships without ground handling, reducing transit time and costs for Indian trade.
  • TEU (Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit) measures container shipping capacity standard globally.
  • Vizhinjam's location provides natural protection from cyclones and strategic proximity to international shipping routes.
  • The landlord port model involves the private operation of facilities on government-owned land.
106

On January 14, 2025, Union Minister Piyush Goyal inaugurated India's first dedicated spice board focusing on turmeric promotion, research, and export development with Palle Ganga Reddy appointed as the inaugural chairman. The board aims to enhance farmer incomes through value addition and global market access. What is the headquarters location of the National Turmeric Board?

  1. ((a))

    Baramati, Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Guntur, Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Erode, Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Nizamabad, Telangana

  5. ((e))

    Sangli, Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nizamabad, Telangana

The correct answer is Nizamabad, Telangana.

In News

  • National Turmeric Board was inaugurated at Nizamabad, Telangana by Piyush Goyal with Palle Ganga Reddy as chairman.

Key Points

  • Nizamabad was selected as headquarters due to Telangana's significant turmeric production and processing infrastructure.
  • The board promotes scientific cultivation, quality standards, and value-added turmeric products.
  • Palle Ganga Reddy was appointed the first chairman, leveraging his agricultural and spice sector expertise.
  • Initiative supports one district one product scheme positioning Nizamabad as a turmeric hub.
  • Focus areas include export promotion, GI tagging, and farmer-centric development programs.
  • India produces 75% of the global turmeric supply mainly from Telangana, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • The board facilitates R&D for high-yielding varieties and sustainable farming practices adoption.

Additional Information

  • Turmeric contains curcumin responsible for its medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties.
  • National Turmeric Board is similar to the Spices Board India and the Coconut Development Board.
  • ODOP scheme promotes regional economic specialisation through district-specific products.
  • Turmeric exports reached record values driven by medicinal and nutraceutical demand.
107

In the Union Budget for 2025-26 presented in February 2025, the Indian government announced measures to bolster the domestic textile industry's competitiveness by rationalizing import duties on key raw materials. This included the exemption of basic customs duty on certain inputs essential for textile manufacturing. What specific item saw the removal of 11% customs duty to support the sector?

  1. ((a))

    Man-made fibre

  2. ((b))

    Cotton lint

  3. ((c))

    Polyester staple fibre

  4. ((d))

    Viscose staple fibre

  5. ((e))

    Nylon filament yarn

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cotton lint

The correct answer is Cotton lint.

In News

  • The government removed 11% customs duty on cotton lint import to support the domestic textile industry in the February 2025 budget.

Key Points

  • Cotton lint duty removal reduces raw material costs for spinning mills, enhancing price competitiveness.
  • India major cotton producer but imports extra-long staple cotton for high-quality yarn production.
  • Measure addresses domestic supply shortages during lean production periods supporting garment exports.
  • The textile sector contributes 2% to India's GDP and employs over 45 million people directly/indirectly.
  • Duty rationalisation aligns with the Production Linked Incentive scheme, boosting manufacturing capacity.
  • Initiative supports Atmanirbhar Bharat in textiles while ensuring affordable input availability.
  • Budget measures target increasing India's global textile export share from current 4% levels.

Additional Information

  • Cotton lint is cleaned cotton fibre used as the primary raw material for yarn spinning.
  • Extra-long staple cotton varieties are imported mainly from USA and Australia for premium fabrics.
  • Textile export promotion councils coordinate sector growth and international market access.
  • PLI scheme provides financial incentives for capacity expansion in textiles manufacturing.
108

According to the National Tiger Conservation Authority’s Phase IV tiger estimation report released in July 2025 on Global Tiger Day, a particular tiger reserve showed remarkable population growth, adding 27 tigers through expanded coverage in newly surveyed zones. It was also identified as the third most densely populated tiger reserve in India, following Corbett and Bandipur. Which tiger reserve achieved this distinction?

  1. ((a))

    Kanha Tiger Reserve

  2. ((b))

    Nagarhole Tiger Reserve

  3. ((c))

    Kaziranga Tiger Reserve

  4. ((d))

    Ranthambore Tiger Reserve

  5. ((e))

    Sundarbans Tiger Reserve

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kaziranga Tiger Reserve

The correct answer is Kaziranga Tiger Reserve.

In News

  • Kaziranga Tiger Reserve achieved third third-highest tiger density globally at 18.65 tigers per 100 sq km.

Key Points

  • Kaziranga recorded 148 tigers across 1,307.49 sq km area reflecting 27 tiger increase since 2022 estimation.
  • Tiger density 18.65 per 100 sq km ranks third after Bandipur (19.83) and Corbett (19.56).
  • First-time sampling in Biswanath Wildlife Division captured all 27 additional tigers boosting the population.
  • Estimation used camera trap methodology with mark-recapture framework across three divisions from Dec 2023-Apr 2024.
  • Habitat expansion by 200 sq km including encroachment-free areas enhanced tiger movement and breeding.
  • Kaziranga primarily known for one-horned rhinos now recognized as critical tiger habitat.
  • Success attributed to habitat protection, anti-poaching measures, and connectivity improvements.

Additional Information

  • NTCA coordinates tiger conservation across 53 tiger reserves in India under Project Tiger.
  • Phase IV estimation uses advanced camera trapping and occupancy protocols for accurate population data.
  • Tiger density measures tigers per 100 sq km indicating habitat carrying capacity.
  • Global Tiger Day celebrated July 29 raises awareness for tiger conservation worldwide.
109

According to the RBI's updated guidelines for the Cheque Truncation System, clarified in its Frequently Asked Questions document, a viral claim about mandatory specific ink colours for writing cheques was debunked. The central bank emphasized cheque legibility and permanence over prescribed colours while advising against multi-coloured inks. What specific mandate regarding mandatory ink colour for cheques did RBI clarify as non-existent?

  1. ((a))

    Blue ink only mandate

  2. ((b))

    Requirement to use only blue or green ink

  3. ((c))

    Specific hue requirement

  4. ((d))

    Mandatory black ink prescription

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Requirement to use only blue or green ink

The correct answer is the Requirement to use only blue or green ink.

In News

  • RBI clarified that no mandatory ink colour requirement exists for writing cheques under Cheque Truncation System guidelines.

Key Points

  • RBI has not prescribed specific ink colours; viral claims about a black ink ban from January 2025 are false.
  • Guidelines recommend image-friendly permanent ink ensuring legibility in the Cheque Truncation System (CTS).
  • Using different coloured inks on the same cheque may render it invalid due to tampering concerns.
  • CTS eliminates physical cheque movement by truncating images for clearing and settlement.
  • Fact-checks by PIB and RBI confirm no colour-specific mandates exist in official guidelines.
  • Public urged to rely on official RBI sources, avoiding misinformation about cheque writing norms.
  • Cheque security depends on clear writing, signatures, and anti-fraud features not ink hue.

Additional Information

  • Cheque Truncation System, operational since 2010 processes electronic cheque images, reducing clearing time.
  • CTS-2010 grids ensure standardised cheque formats across participating banks.
  • Permanent ink prevents fading crucial for long-term record keeping and legal validity.
  • RBI FAQs provide comprehensive guidance on cheque usage and best practices.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
110

An Indian airport made history by becoming the nation’s first to be built under the Public-Private Partnership model and later gained global acclaim for operating entirely on solar power through a massive 12 MWp solar plant spread across 45 acres with over 46,000 panels. Which airport holds both distinctions of being India’s first PPP airport and the world’s first fully solar-powered airport?

  1. ((a))

    Hyderabad Rajiv Gandhi Airport

  2. ((b))

    Cochin International Airport

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru Kempegowda Airport

  4. ((d))

    Delhi Indira Gandhi Airport

  5. ((e))

    Mumbai Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cochin International Airport

The correct answer is Cochin International Airport.

In News

  • Cochin International Airport became world's first fully solar-powered airport and India's first PPP model airport.

Key Points

  • Cochin Airport commissioned a 12 MWp solar power plant in 2015 making it the world's first fully solar-powered airport.
  • The airport was constructed under a public-private partnership model involving government and private equity.
  • Solar plant comprises 46,150 panels spread across 45 acres near the air cargo complex, generating all airport power needs.
  • It handles over 5 million passengers annually as Kerala's largest and busiest airport.
  • The Public-Private Partnership model demonstrated successful infrastructure development through private sector participation.
  • Solar energy adoption reduced operational costs and carbon footprint significantly.
  • The achievement positioned India as global leader in sustainable aviation infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • PPP model shares risks and rewards between government and private investors for infrastructure projects.
  • Solar power plant capacity measured in MWp (megawatt peak) indicates maximum power generation potential.
  • Cochin Airport connects Kerala with major domestic and international destinations.
  • Sustainable aviation initiatives support India's renewable energy targets in transport sector.
111

In January 2025, the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas launched a centralized digital platform to streamline grievance redressal for stakeholders involved in biofuel production from agricultural residues under the PM JI-VAN Yojana. The portal facilitates online complaint registration, tracking, and resolution specifically for the Jaiv Indhan-Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh scheme projects. What is the name of this dedicated grievance redressal portal?

  1. ((a))

    PM Biofuel Complaint Portal

  2. ((b))

    CHT Grievance System

  3. ((c))

    SAC Redressal Platform

  4. ((d))

    NIVARAN

  5. ((e))

    Bioethanol Dispute Portal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

NIVARAN

The correct answer is NIVARAN.

In News

  • Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas launched the NIVARAN portal in January 2025 as a dedicated grievance redressal platform for PM JI-VAN Yojana stakeholders.

Key Points

  • NIVARAN provides a centralised online mechanism for registering, tracking, and resolving complaints related to JI-VAN scheme projects.
  • Centre for High Technology (CHT) manages the portal as a nodal agency under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas for biofuel initiatives.
  • The platform addresses grievances concerning second-generation ethanol production from lignocellulosic biomass and agricultural residues.
  • PM JI-VAN scheme supports 12 commercial and 10 demonstration projects across two phases from 2018-2024 with financial assistance.
  • Scientific Advisory Committee (SAC) appraises projects while NIVARAN ensures timely stakeholder issue resolution during implementation.
  • Portal facilitates 24x7 access promoting transparency, accountability, and efficient project execution in biofuel sector.
  • Initiative reduces stubble burning pollution while enhancing energy security through domestic biofuel production capacity.

Additional Information

  • PM JI-VAN full form: Pradhan Mantri Jaiv Indhan-Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran Yojana focusing on crop residue management.
  • CHT provides secretarial support to SAC for project evaluation and financial grant recommendations under the scheme.
  • Second-generation ethanol produced from non-food biomass reduces fossil fuel import dependence and greenhouse emissions.
  • Agricultural residues include rice straw, wheat stubble, sugarcane bagasse, and cotton stalks suitable for biofuel conversion.
112

In August 2025, the Government of India appointed RBI Executive Director Rajiv Ranjan to a key leadership position at a multilateral bank. Rajiv Ranjan, with over three decades of experience in macroeconomic policy, was appointed for a five-year term also serving as Chief Risk Officer. At which institution was Rajiv Ranjan appointed as Vice President representing the India constituency?

  1. ((a))

    International Monetary Fund

  2. ((b))

    Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

  3. ((c))

    New Development Bank 

  4. ((d))

    World Bank

  5. ((e))

    Asian Development Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

New Development Bank 

The correct answer is New Development Bank (NDB).

In News

  • New Development Bank (NDB) appointed RBI's Rajiv Ranjan as Vice President and Chief Risk Officer for five years.

Key Points

  • Rajiv Ranjan joined RBI in 1989 and has served as Executive Director and Monetary Policy Committee member since 2022.
  • His expertise covers monetary policy, fiscal policy, the external sector, and international relations at the RBI.
  • NDB was established in 2015 by the BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) for infrastructure financing.
  • Ranjan represents the India constituency at NDB, focusing on sustainable development projects in emerging markets.
  • Prior experience includes deputation to the Central Bank of Oman and various RBI departments.
  • The appointment strengthens India's leadership role in multilateral development financing institutions.
  • NDB mobilizes resources for infrastructure and sustainable development, avoiding the traditional donor-recipient model.

Additional Information

  • New Development Bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China, with equal shareholding among founding members.
  • Chief Risk Officer oversees NDB's risk management framework for project financing.
  • BRICS institutions complement traditional multilateral banks like the World Bank and ADB.
  • Ranjan holds a PhD in Economics from Mumbai University and Master's from the Delhi School of Economics.
113

At the 4th Asian Surfing Championships held in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu in August 2025, an Indian surfer created history by winning India's first-ever individual medal in the continental surfing competition. Which surfer secured the bronze medal in the Open Men's category with a score of 12.60 points?

  1. ((a))

    Harish P

  2. ((b))

    Srikanth D

  3. ((c))

    Kishore Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Ramesh Budihal

  5. ((e))

    Shrishti Selvam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ramesh Budihal

The correct answer is Ramesh Budihal.

In News

  • Ramesh Budihal won bronze medal in Open Men's category at Asian Surfing Championships 2025 held in India.

Key Points

  • Ramesh Budihal from Kerala secured India's first individual medal at Asian Surfing Championships with 12.60 points.
  • The event served as final qualifiers for 2026 Asian Games surfing competition in Japan.
  • Budihal advanced to medal round after finishing second in the semi-final heat with 11.43 points.
  • India hosted the championships for first time at Mahabalipuram beaches, Tamil Nadu.
  • Gold medal won by South Korea's Kanoa Heejae (15.17 points) and silver by Indonesia's Pajar Ariyana (14.57 points).
  • Budihal started surfing at age five in Kovalam, Kerala, marking his breakthrough performance.
  • The medal boosted India's surfing profile ahead of international competitions.

Additional Information

  • Surfing scores are based on wave riding performance, judged on difficulty, variety, and execution.
  • Asian Surfing Championships are organised by the Asian Surfing Championships board annually.
  • Mahabalipuram is known for suitable surfing conditions and a historic beach location.
  • India's surfing growth is supported by the Surfing Federation of India established in 2015.
114

In September 2025, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) awarded its prestigious Equator Prize to ten global community-led initiatives for nature-based solutions addressing climate resilience and sustainable development. Among the winners was an Indian women's collective from Karnataka's Dharwad district recognized for conserving indigenous seed varieties and promoting sustainable agriculture in drylands. Who was the leader of the Women's Self-Help Group that received this honour?

  1. ((a))

    Radha Kumari

  2. ((b))

    Lakshmi Devi

  3. ((c))

    Savitri Bai

  4. ((d))

    Bibi Fatima

  5. ((e))

    Meera Devi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bibi Fatima

The correct answer is Bibi Fatima.

In News

  • Bibi Fatima Women's Self-Help Group from Teertha village, Karnataka, won the UNDP Equator Prize 2025 as the sole Indian recipient.

Key Points

  • The group led by Bibi Fatima conserved indigenous seeds and promoted climate-resilient farming in Karnataka's drylands.
  • Bibi Fatima Swa Sahaya Sangha demonstrated community-led solutions transforming agriculture amid climate challenges.
  • The Equator Prize recognizes grassroots efforts integrating biodiversity conservation with sustainable livelihoods.
  • The Karnataka collective was one of ten global winners from nine countries selected for transformative environmental impact.
  • Their work focused on reviving traditional seeds suited to local conditions, reducing dependency on chemical inputs.
  • The initiative empowered women farmers through collective action and knowledge sharing on sustainable practices.
  • The award highlights India's community-driven approaches to climate adaptation and food security.

Additional Information

  • Equator Prize is awarded biannually by UNDP's Equator Initiative to honour local solutions for sustainable development.
  • Indigenous seeds are drought-resistant varieties adapted to local agro-climatic conditions over generations.
  • Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are women-led community organizations promoting economic empowerment in rural India.
  • The prize recognizes efforts aligning with UN Sustainable Development Goals, particularly SDG 13 on climate action.
115

In the context of the PRAVAAH portal, which was launched by the Reserve Bank of India on May 28, 2024, to streamline regulatory application processes for banks and financial institutions through a secure web-based platform, making it mandatory from May 1, 2025, what does the letter “V” stand for in PRAVAAH?

  1. ((a))

    Verification

  2. ((b))

    Validation

  3. ((c))

    Vetting

  4. ((d))

    Vigilance

  5. ((e))

    Value

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Validation

The correct answer is Validation.

In News

  • RBI launched the PRAVAAH portal as Platform for Regulatory Application, VAlidation and AutHorisation to simplify application processes for regulated entities.

Key Points

  • PRAVAAH provides a single-window digital interface for submitting applications for licenses, approvals, and authorisations to the RBI.
  • The portal enables real-time tracking of application status, progress updates, and communication with RBI officials.
  • From May 1, 2025, all regulated entities including banks and NBFCs must use PRAVAAH for regulatory submissions.
  • It includes pre-loaded application forms, user manuals, FAQs, and video tutorials to assist applicants.
  • The platform has processed nearly 4,000 requests since launch, enhancing transparency and reducing processing delays.
  • PRAVAAH eliminates manual submissions and multiple channels, creating a centralised secure system for regulatory compliance.
  • RBI mandated its use to improve efficiency in the regulatory approval ecosystem for financial institutions.

Additional Information

  • Regulated Entities (REs) include commercial banks, payment banks, small finance banks, and non-banking financial companies.
  • The portal supports general-purpose forms for applications without specific pre-loaded formats.
  • PRAVAAH aligns with RBI's digital transformation initiatives for regulatory processes.
  • It promotes paperless operations and faster turnaround times for regulatory clearances.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor  - Sanjay Malhotra
116

The Reserve Bank of India launched the Scheme to democratise access to government securities by allowing individual investors to buy and sell G-Secs directly with the central bank. Under this scheme, what is the dedicated account called that retail investors must open with RBI to invest in government securities online?

  1. ((a))

    G-Sec Direct Investor Account

  2. ((b))

    RBI Retail Savings Gilt Account

  3. ((c))

    Retail G-Sec Investment Account

  4. ((d))

    Retail Direct Gilt Account

  5. ((e))

    Retail Bond Access Account

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Retail Direct Gilt Account

The correct answer is Retail Direct Gilt  Account.

In News

  • Under the RBI Retail Direct Scheme, individual investors invest in government securities through a free-of-cost Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) Account maintained with the RBI.

Key Points

  • The scheme enables resident individuals to open an online RDG Account directly with the RBI via the dedicated Retail Direct portal.
  • Through the RDG Account, investors can participate in primary issuances of G-Secs, T-Bills, SDLs, and Sovereign Gold Bonds.
  • Retail investors can also trade eligible government securities in the secondary market using the same account.
  • No account opening or maintenance charges are levied by RBI for RDG Accounts.
  • The scheme eliminates the need for intermediaries like brokers or DP for basic G-Sec investments.
  • It broadens the investor base for government borrowing and encourages small savers to access risk-free instruments.
  • Transactions and holdings are reflected online, with email/SMS alerts for transparency and convenience.

Additional Information

  • Government securities (G-Secs) are debt instruments issued by the Central or State governments.
  • They are considered risk-free in terms of default and are used by conservative investors.
  • RBI acts as banker and debt manager to the government, handling G-Sec auctions.
  • Retail inclusion in G-Sec markets supports financial market deepening and savings mobilisation.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
117

In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India released a draft circular proposing changes to the gold and silver loan norms to improve risk management and transparency. As per this draft, banks are required to treat each standard gold or silver coin as a separate security and clearly record its quantity and purity. According to the proposal, what is the maximum combined weight (in grams) of gold and silver coins that an individual borrower can pledge for a loan?

  1. ((a))

    50 grams

  2. ((b))

    200 grams

  3. ((c))

    100 grams

  4. ((d))

    250 grams

  5. ((e))

    500 grams

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

100 grams

The correct answer is 100 grams.

In News

  • RBI’s June 2025 draft circular on gold and silver loans proposed that banks accept standard gold and silver coins as security only up to a combined weight of 100 grams per borrower.

Key Points

  • The draft guidelines cap the aggregate weight of standard gold and silver coins together at 100 grams per borrower for loan purposes.
  • Coins must be issued by banks, MMTC or other RBI/SEBI–regulated entities, and must carry proper fineness and hallmarks.
  • The proposal requires banks to record details like weight, purity, number of coins and value at the time of pledge.
  • RBI’s move seeks to prevent misuse of high-value coins and ensure alignment with prudential lending norms on precious metals.
  • These guidelines complement existing LTV norms and KYC requirements for gold loans.
  • Draft instructions were placed in the public domain for stakeholder comments before finalisation.
  • The framework aims to improve transparency in valuation and custody of coin-based collateral.

Additional Information

  • Gold loans are typically sanctioned against jewellery or coins with a regulatory cap on LTV ratios.
  • Standardised coins have uniform purity and weight, making valuation more objective.
  • Draft regulatory proposals help RBI gauge industry feedback before issuing final directions.
  • Prudential norms on precious metal loans aim to mitigate price volatility and concentration risk.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
118

Which organisation was recognised by the Reserve Bank of India as a Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) in August 2025 to enhance market integrity and transparency in the fixed income, money market, and derivatives segments?

  1. ((a))

    National Stock Exchange

  2. ((b))

    Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India

  3. ((c))

    Association of Mutual Funds in India

  4. ((d))

    Bombay Stock Exchange

  5. ((e))

    Securities and Exchange Board of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India

The correct answer is Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA).

In News

  • RBI recognised Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA) as a Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) in August 2025.

Key Points

  • Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA) is a market association representing participants in fixed income, money market, and derivatives segments.
  • SRO status enables FIMMDA to develop industry best practices, compliance frameworks, and dispute resolution mechanisms.
  • Recognition aims to improve market conduct, transparency, and investor protection in bond and derivatives markets.
  • SROs complement the regulator’s supervisory functions by self-regulation within the industry.
  • FIMMDA has collaborated with RBI, SEBI, and exchanges for product development and market growth.
  • Status helps in building investor confidence and a robust market infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • FIMMDA was incorporated in 1999 as an industry body for fixed-income markets.
  • SRO framework is part of financial sector reforms encouraging co-regulation.
  • Market participants include banks, mutual funds, insurance companies, and brokers.
119

India and which country reaffirmed their commitment to improve bilateral defence cooperation during the 13th Joint Defence Cooperation Committee (JDCC) meeting held at the Secretary level for the first time in New Delhi in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    United Arab Emirates

  3. ((c))

    United States of America

  4. ((d))

    Australia

  5. ((e))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

United Arab Emirates

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates (UAE).

In News

  • India and the UAE reaffirmed their commitment to strengthening bilateral defence cooperation during the 13th JDCC meeting held in New Delhi in 2025.

Key Points

  • The meeting was co-chaired by India’s Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh and the UAE’s Under Secretary of Defense Lt Gen Ibrahim Nasser Alawi.
  • Partnership includes enhanced military training, maritime security cooperation including SAR and anti-piracy.
  • India-UAE cooperation advances joint defence manufacturing and technology development.
  • MoU signed between the Indian Coast Guard and the UAE National Guard for maritime security coordination.
  • Collaboration focused on Indian Ocean Region real-time information sharing and pollution response.

Additional Information

  • United Arab Emirates is a key strategic partner for India in the Middle East region.
  • JDCC is a bilateral forum to review and strengthen defence cooperation.
  • Maritime cooperation plays a critical role in ensuring security in the Indian Ocean.
120

Under the National Automated Clearing House (NACH) mandate, recurring payments are subject to a specified upper limit for a single transaction. This limit ensures smooth processing of payments, especially for regular services and subscriptions. What is the upper limit, in rupees, set for a single transaction under the NACH mandate for all recurring payments?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 25 lakh

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1 lakh

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 5 lakh

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 10 lakh

  5. ((e))

    No limit

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 10 lakh

The correct answer is Rs. 10 lakh.

In News

  • NPCI has set the upper limit for a single transaction under the NACH mandate for recurring payments at Rs. 10 lakh.

Key Points

  • The NPCI has set the maximum limit of ₹10 lakh for a single transaction under the NACH mandate for recurring payments.
  • The NACH platform supports bulk and recurring transactions such as SIPs, utility bill payments and EMI deductions.
  • The upper limit of Rs. 10 lakh protects users against unauthorized debits above the mandate amounts.
  • Mandate registration includes enabling or restricting AFA (Additional Factor of Authentication) based on the amount.
  • Physical NACH permits no limit on registration amount, but e-NACH sets limits to enhance payment security.

Additional Information

  • NACH is a centralized electronic clearing service for interbank payments.
  • ENACH is an electronic NACH using digital mandates via NPCI APIs.
  • NACH grows in preference over cheques for recurring financial commitments.
  • NPCI
  • Established in - 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai
121

On May 28, 2025, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved higher Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for 14 Kharif crops for marketing season 2025-26, ensuring remunerative returns to farmers with the highest increases for nigerseed, ragi, cotton, and sesamum while maintaining the policy. What was the specific multiple of the All-India weighted average cost of production to which the MSP was increased for these Kharif crops?

  1. ((a))

    1.75 times

  2. ((b))

    1.6 times

  3. ((c))

    1.5 times

  4. ((d))

    2 times

  5. ((e))

    1.25 times

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1.5 times

The correct answer is 1.5 times.

In News

  • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved MSP for 14 Kharif crops at minimum of 1.5 times the All-India weighted average cost of production for the 2025-26 season on May 28, 2025.

Key Points

  • The MSP policy aligns with the Union Budget 2018-19 commitment fixing MSP at least 1.5 times the comprehensive cost of production (A2+FL).
  • Highest absolute MSP increases recommended for nigerseed (Rs 820/quintal), ragi (Rs 596), cotton (Rs 589), and sesamum (Rs 579).
  • Expected farmer margins are highest for bajra (63%), maize (59%), tur (59%), and urad (53%) over production costs.
  • Remaining crops provide a minimum 50% margin ensuring remunerative prices and production diversification incentives.
  • MSP determination considers comprehensive cost data from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • Initiative supports farmer income security while balancing market dynamics and consumer interests.
  • Kharif crops sown with monsoon onset include paddy, maize, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops.

Additional Information

  • A2+FL cost includes direct expenses (A2) plus family labour (FL) value forming the MSP calculation base.
  • CACP recommends MSP based on cost data, demand-supply, terms of trade, and inter-crop price parity.
  • Kharif Marketing Season covers the June-July sowing to harvest period typically October onwards.
  • The government procures notified crops at MSP through agencies like FCI, NAFED ensuring price support.
122

In August 2025, the Union Minister of State for Finance announced that NABARD and NCDC infused significant funds into cooperative banks. Which of the following statements about this financial support is/are correct?

  1. NABARD and NCDC jointly infused more than Rs 42,000 crore into cooperative banks during FY 2024–25.
  2. Andhra Pradesh received the highest disbursement from NABARD, while Telangana stood second.
  3. Except for one Urban Cooperative Bank in West Bengal, all cooperative banks are operating on the Core Banking Solution (CBS) platform.
  1. ((a))

    Only 2

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Only 3

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both 1 and 3

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.

In News

  • NABARD and the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) infused over Rs 42,000 crore into cooperative banks during FY 2024–25 to strengthen rural credit and cooperative financing.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The combined infusion by NABARD and NCDC exceeded Rs 42,000 crore in FY 2024–25.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Andhra Pradesh topped the NCDC disbursement list, not the NABARD disbursement list; Madhya Pradesh led NABARD disbursements with Rs 4,430 crore.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The Minister confirmed that, except for one UCB in West Bengal, all cooperative banks are on the Core Banking Solution (CBS) platform.
  • Odisha and Karnataka followed Madhya Pradesh in NABARD disbursements with Rs 4,113 crore and Rs 3,655.52 crore, respectively.
  • Among NCDC allocations, Andhra Pradesh (Rs 3,730 crore) was the top recipient followed by Telangana (Rs 2,000 crore).
  • Bihar, once a key beneficiary, did not receive any allocation from NCDC in FY 2024–25.

Additional Information

  • NABARD – Established in 1982, HQ: Mumbai
  • NCDC – Established in 1963, HQ: New Delhi
  • CBS – a centralized system that enables real-time banking operations across multiple branches.
  • Cooperative banks play a crucial role in rural credit delivery and socio-economic inclusion.
  • The initiative aligns with India's vision of a technologically integrated cooperative banking ecosystem.
123

In August 2025, India’s largest-ever handloom-focused hackathon was organized, bringing together over 400 innovators and 250 teams to develop tech-enabled solutions for the handloom industry. The event aimed to address the challenges faced by handloom weavers and enhance the sector's growth. Held at a premier academic institute, this hackathon served as a platform to drive innovation and sustainability in the industry. Which premier institute hosted this hackathon?

  1. ((a))

    IIT Bombay

  2. ((b))

    IIT Delhi

  3. ((c))

    IIM Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    IIIT Hyderabad

  5. ((e))

    NID Gandhinagar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

IIT Delhi

The correct answer is IIT Delhi.

In News

  • India’s largest handloom-focused hackathon was conducted at IIT Delhi in 2025, with over 400 participants from 250 teams competing to develop scalable solutions for the handloom industry.

Key Points

  • The hackathon coincided with National Handloom Day (7th August) and focused on innovation in design, operations, and digital integration for the handloom sector.
  • Participants included students, startups, and grassroots entrepreneurs working in teams over 36 hours to devise user-centric tech solutions.
  • The theme was "DREAM IT; DO IT," emphasizing creative, impactful, and implementable solutions.
  • The event was organized by the Development Commissioner for Handlooms under the Government of India.
  • The hackathon aimed at modernizing the traditional industry with technology to improve market access and sustainability.
  • The event fostered collaboration between skilled weavers, technologists and design thinkers across the country.
  • The hackathon provided prizes and recognition, incentivizing innovation and growth in the sector.

Additional Information

  • The handloom sector is a vital part of India’s cultural heritage and rural economy.
  • National Handloom Day is celebrated on August 7 every year.
  • Technology integration aims to address challenges like production efficiency and market reach.
  • The hackathon promotes eco-friendly and sustainable practices in handloom production.
  • Such initiatives help empower artisans and preserve traditional crafts in modern markets.
124

In August 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gave its approval for the merger of New India Co-operative Bank with one of the largest urban co-operative banks in the country, marking a significant consolidation in the co-operative banking sector. The move aims to enhance operational efficiency and financial stability for both institutions. Which of the following largest urban co-operative banks is involved in this merger with New India Co-operative Bank, according to the RBI's approval?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Overseas Bank

  2. ((b))

    Cosmos Co-operative Bank

  3. ((c))

    HDFC Bank

  4. ((d))

    Saraswat Co-operative Bank

  5. ((e))

    Canara Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Saraswat Co-operative Bank

The correct answer is Saraswat Co-operative Bank.

In News

  • RBI approved the merger of New India Co-operative Bank with Saraswat Co-operative Bank, to be effective August 4, 2025.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the merger of New India Co-operative Bank with the largest urban co-operative bank, Saraswat Co-operative Bank.
  • Saraswat Co-operative Bank will absorb all assets and liabilities of New India Co-operative Bank.
  • All branches of NICB will function as Saraswat Bank branches after the merger.
  • RBI approved the Scheme of Amalgamation under Section 44A(4) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
  • NICB was under RBI moratorium since February 2025 due to embezzlement and governance failures.
  • Special General Meetings and board approvals of both banks preceded the merger execution.
  • Saraswat is India’s largest urban co-operative bank by assets and network.
  • The merger is intended to boost financial stability and customer confidence.

Additional Information

  • Saraswat Co-operative Bank established in 1918
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
  • Urban co-operative banks serve local communities and SMEs
  • Merger allows for better resource utilization and governance
  • Banking Regulation Act 1949: Governs all Indian banks
  • Moratorium: RBI’s step when bank faces financial distress
125

In August 2025, T. N. Manoharan, a prominent figure in the Indian banking sector, passed away. He had served as the Chairman of a well-known bank, contributing significantly to its growth and development. In recognition of his exceptional services to the banking industry, he was also conferred with the prestigious Padma Shri award. Which of the following banks did T. N. Manoharan serve as the Chairman before his passing in September 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Canara Bank

  2. ((b))

    Saraswat Bank

  3. ((c))

    South Indian Bank

  4. ((d))

    IDBI Bank

  5. ((e))

    HDFC Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IDBI Bank

The correct answer is IDBI Bank.

In News

  • T. N. Manoharan, Chairman of IDBI Bank and Padma Shri awardee, has passed away.

Key Points

  • India mourns the loss of T. N. Manoharan, the Chairman of IDBI Bank and a renowned Chartered Accountant, who passed away
  • T. N. Manoharan was serving as Chairman of IDBI Bank at the time of his demise.
  • Padma Shri awardee and distinguished Chartered Accountant.
  • Former President of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI).
  • Part of the Satyam revival team, won Business Leadership Award and Indian of the Year 2009.
  • Conferred with Padma Shri civil award in 2010.
  • Known for his contributions to banking, accounting, and corporate governance.
  • His passing marks a loss to the financial and corporate sector.

Additional Information

  • IDBI Bank
  • Established in - 1964
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Canara Bank
  • ​Established in - 1906
  • HQ - Bengaluru
  • South Indian Bank
  • ​Established in - 1929
  • HQ - Thrissur, Kerala
  • Saraswat Bank
  • ​Established in - 1918
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • HDFC Bank
  • Established in - 1994
  • HQ - Mumbai
126

In July 2025, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) launched the first Regional Process Lab (RPL) under the Aadi KARMAYOGI Abhiyan aimed at training State Master Trainers. This initiative is designed to support inclusive tribal development across the Southern Indian states by enhancing the skills and capacity of local leaders. In which city was this significant event held to mark the commencement of this vital training program?

  1. ((a))

    Dehradun

  2. ((b))

    Bhopal

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Bhubaneswar

  5. ((e))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bengaluru

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

In News

  • MoTA launched the first Regional Process Lab under the Aadi KARMAYOGI Abhiyan in Bengaluru to build capacity of tribal grassroots functionaries in South India.

Key Points

  • The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) launched the first Regional Process Lab (RPL) of the Aadi KARMAYOGI Abhiyan, National Mission for Responsive Governance in Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • The RPL serves as a training hub for State Master Trainers from Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
  • Aadi KARMAYOGI Abhiyan aims to create a network of 20 lakh tribal grassroots functionaries and village-level leaders for inclusive tribal development.
  • The initiative is part of the National Mission for Responsive Governance led by MoTA.
  • The RPL enhances last-mile service delivery and strengthens governance in tribal regions.
  • The capacity-building model cascades training from State Master Trainers to district and village-level functionaries.
  • The mission supports effective implementation of tribal welfare schemes through motivated and citizen-centric officials.
  • The launch marks an important step in empowering tribal leaders across southern states of India.

Additional Information

  • About Aadi KARMAYOGI Abhiyan:
  • Launched in - June 2025 to improve tribal welfare through training of field officials.
  • Launched under - Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PMJANMAN) and Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA).
  • PM-JANMAN Scheme:
  • ​​Launched in - 2023 with a total outlay of Rs. 24,104 crore
  • focusing on - 11 critical areas across 9 ministries benefiting 75 communities in 18 states and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • Regional Process Labs (RPLs) are district-level institutional platforms for training and capacity building.
127

In July 2025, IIFL Home Finance secured a $100 million loan from an international financial institution to boost affordable housing loans and promote green building initiatives for low-income families in India. This funding aligns with India’s climate commitments and supports developers of sustainable affordable housing projects. IIFL Home Finance secured loan from which financial institution?

  1. ((a))

    World Bank

  2. ((b))

    International Monetary Fund

  3. ((c))

    Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

  4. ((d))

    New Development Bank

  5. ((e))

    Asian Development Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

The correct answer is Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.

In News

  • IIFL Home Finance receives $100 million funding from the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank to boost affordable housing loans and green building projects in India.

Key Points

  • IIFL Home Finance gets $100 million  from the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
  • The $100 million loan will support home loans for economically weaker and low-income families in urban and semi-urban India.
  • Funds will also finance developers building affordable housing projects adhering to green certification standards.
  • IIFL Home Finance aims to expand homeownership opportunities for underserved families across the country with this funding.
  • The investment comes at a pivotal time, aligning with the ongoing implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Urban (PMAY-U 2.0), which seeks to address urban housing shortages across India
  • This partnership helps advance India’s green building agenda aligned with its climate goals.
  • AIIB is a multilateral development bank headquartered in Beijing, operating since 2016 with 110 member states.
  • IIFL Home Finance holds a significant asset base and focuses on underserved geographies including tier 2 to 4 towns.

Additional Information

  • About Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank:
  • Established on January 16, 2016;
  • Headquarters - Beijing, China;
  • Members - 110 member states;
  • President - Zou Jiayi, former Vice Finance Minister of China.
  • IIFL Home Finance focuses on affordable housing finance with a network across 18 states in India.
  • Green building certification promotes sustainability by reducing environmental impact during construction.
  • Affordable housing supports India's socio-economic development by enabling access to housing for lower-income groups.
128

In July 2025, Switzerland has completed ratification of the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) signed between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) in March 2024 after 16 years of negotiations. The TEPA is expected to come into force in October 2025. Which of the following is NOT a member of EFTA?

  1. ((a))

    Iceland

  2. ((b))

    Switzerland

  3. ((c))

    Norway

  4. ((d))

    Liechtenstein

  5. ((e))

    Denmark

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Denmark

The correct answer is Denmark.

In News

  • Switzerland ratifies India-EFTA TEPA Agreement; pact to come into force by October 2025.

Key Points

  • Switzerland, on behalf of the EFTA bloc, has completed the national process of ratification, thus ensuring that the India-EFTA TEPA will be legally enforced by October 2025.
  • The agreement was originally signed in New Delhi on March 10, 2024, following 16 years of prolonged negotiations between India and EFTA member nations.
  • EFTA consists of four countries—Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein.
  • The deal aims to reduce trade tariffs, facilitate services and investments, ensure market access, and promote sustainable development cooperation between the regions.
  • EFTA has pledged a collective investment of USD 100 billion into India over the next 15 years, demonstrating confidence in India’s growth outlook and reforms.
  • Switzerland is already the 12th largest foreign investor in India, and its FDI has surged from CHF 551 million in 2000 to CHF 10 billion in 2024, making TEPA’s implementation even more significant.

Additional Information

  • EFTA was established in 1960 as an alternative to the European Economic Community (EEC).
  • Denmark is a member of the European Union, not of EFTA, hence excluded from TEPA negotiations.
  • India-EFTA TEPA is among the largest trade agreements signed by India in recent years, unlocking benefits for pharmaceuticals, services, automobiles, and technology sectors.
  • Trade and investment agreements are vital for India’s global trade diversification strategy, complementing FTAs with UAE, Australia, and ongoing talks with EU and UK.
129

In May 2025, which of the following statements is correct regarding Jio BlackRock Asset Management Company (AMC)?

  1. It is a joint venture between Jio Financial Services and BlackRock, each holding 50:50.
  2. SEBI gave final approval in 2025, making it the 48th player in India’s ₹70 trillion MF industry.
  3. Sid Swaminathan has been named CEO of Jio Financial Services after this JV approval.
  1. ((a))

    Only 1

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 3

  4. ((d))

    Both 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    All 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2

In News

  • SEBI gave final approval to Jio BlackRock AMC in 2025; JV had earlier in-principle approval Oct 2024.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 correct – Jio BlackRock Asset Management (AMC) has received the final approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) to start a mutual fund (MF) business each holding 50:50.
  • Statement 2 correct – 2025 final approval; industry count now 48 AMCs managing ₹70 trillion AUM.
  • Statement 3 incorrect – The joint venture will be headed by Sid Swaminathan as its Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (CEO)., not JFS as whole.
  • Launch considered disruptive as Jio may bring digital scale into mutual funds distribution.
  • BlackRock is world’s largest asset manager (>USD 9 trillion AUM).
  • Expected focus: low-cost passive funds, ETFs, digital-first retail investor outreach.
  • Approval signals SEBI’s openness to global JV entries in India’s MF industry.
  • MF penetration in India is still ~16% of GDP, indicating growth potential.

Additional Information

  • MF Industry AUM ~₹70 trillion (2025), 48 players.
  • Largest AMCs: SBI MF, HDFC MF, ICICI Pru MF.
  • Reliance Jio enters multiple finance verticals since 2023 via JFS entity.
  • SEBI
  • Established in - 1992
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Chairman - Tuhin Kanta Pandey
130

In July 2025, the world’s oldest marathon runner, nicknamed the “Turbaned Tornado,” passed away in Punjab at the age of 114 following a road accident. He became the first centenarian to complete a full marathon in Toronto in 2011 and was also the torchbearer in the 2012 London Olympics. Who was this legendary Indian-born British runner?

  1. ((a))

    Milkha Singh

  2. ((b))

    Hari Chand

  3. ((c))

    Fauja Singh

  4. ((d))

    Bhupinder Singh

  5. ((e))

    Gurbachan Singh Randhawa

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fauja Singh

The correct answer is Fauja Singh.

In News

  • World’s oldest marathon runner Fauja Singh passed away at the age of 114 in Punjab.

Key Points

  • Fauja Singh died in 2025 at the age of 114 in a road accident in Punjab.
  • He was born in India but later became a British citizen.
  • He took up long-distance running at the age of 89 years.
  • He became the first centenarian to complete a full marathon at Toronto in 2011.
  • He was the torchbearer in the 2012 London Summer Olympics Opening Ceremony.
  • His autobiography, titled "Turbaned Tornado" was written by Khushwant Singh in Chandigarh.

Additional Information

  • Fauja Singh Key Facts
  • Nicknamed “Turbaned Tornado.”
  • Set age-group records in multiple races globally.
  • Advocate of fitness and health awareness among the elderly.
  • Symbol of inspiration in athletics despite a late-life career start.

English Language (40 questions)

131

Read the paragraph below, divided into sections (A, B, C, D, E), and identify which sections contain grammatical errors. Choose the correct option that includes the sections with errors.

(A) The museum's new exhibit are absolutely fascinating. (B) It showcases artefacts from ancient civilisations. (C) Many visitors find it both educational and entertaining. (D) I highly recommend visiting during the weekend for a full experience. (E) You will definitely enjoys the guided tours available.

  1. ((a))

    AD

  2. ((b))

    AE

  3. ((c))

    BC

  4. ((d))

    DE

  5. ((e))

    No Error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

AE

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • In part A: "The museum's new exhibit are absolutely fascinating." The subject "exhibit" is singular, so it should be "is" instead of "are."
  • In part E: "You will definitely enjoys the guided tours available." The verb "enjoys" should be "enjoy" to agree with the subject "You."
  • Thus, the errors are located in parts A and E of the paragraph.

Therefore, the correct answer is AE.

 

Correct Sentences: "The museum's new exhibit is absolutely fascinating."

"You will definitely enjoy the guided tours available."

 

Additional Information

  • B: "It showcases artefacts from ancient civilisations." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • C: "Many visitors find it both educational and entertaining." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • D: "I highly recommend visiting during the weekend for a full experience." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the paragraph, but there are errors in parts A and E.
132

Read the paragraph below, divided into sections (A, B, C, D, E), and identify which sections contain grammatical errors. Choose the correct option that includes the sections with errors.

(A) Everyone in the team have contributed to the project's success. (B) We are grateful for their hard works and dedication. (C) The final report was submitted before the deadline. (D) This achievement demonstrates the power of collaboration. (E) Let us remember to celebrate our achievements together.

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    CE

  3. ((c))

    AD

  4. ((d))

    AE

  5. ((e))

    No Error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AB

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • In part A: "Everyone in the team have contributed to the project's success." The subject "everyone" is singular, so it should be "has" instead of "have."
  • In part B: "We are grateful for their hard works and dedication." The phrase should be "hard work" instead of "hard works."
  • Thus, the errors are located in parts A and B of the paragraph.

Therefore, the correct answer is AB.

 

Correct Sentences: "Everyone in the team has contributed to the project's success."

"We are grateful for their hard work and dedication."

 

Additional Information

  • C: "The final report was submitted before the deadline." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • D: "This achievement demonstrates the power of collaboration." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • E: "Let us remember to celebrate our achievements together." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the paragraph, but there are errors in parts A and B.
133

Read the paragraph below, divided into sections (A, B, C, D, E), and identify which sections contain grammatical errors. Choose the correct option that includes the sections with errors.

(A) The chef's special dish include an exotic blend of spices. (B) Many customers find it irresistible and keep returning for more. (C) The restaurant is known for its exceptional service. (D) We strive to make each dining experience unique and memorable. (E) Don't forget to try our signature desserts, which is the perfect end to a meal.

  1. ((a))

    AB

  2. ((b))

    AC

  3. ((c))

    BE

  4. ((d))

    AE

  5. ((e))

    No Error

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

AE

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • In part A: "The chef's special dish include an exotic blend of spices." The subject "dish" is singular, so it should be "includes" instead of "include."
  • In part E: "Don't forget to try our signature desserts, which is the perfect end to a meal." The subject "desserts" is plural, so it should be "which are" instead of "which is."
  • Thus, the errors are located in parts A and E of the paragraph.

Therefore, the correct answer is AE.

 

Correct Sentences: "The chef's special dish includes an exotic blend of spices."

"Don't forget to try our signature desserts, which are the perfect end to a meal."

 

Additional Information

  • B: "Many customers find it irresistible and keep returning for more." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • C: "The restaurant is known for its exceptional service." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • D: "We strive to make each dining experience unique and memorable." – This part of the paragraph is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the paragraph, but there are errors in parts A and E.
134

Directions: In the following question, there is a sentence given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as your answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

Her husband's unravel (A) behavior and frequent (B) absences from home made (C) their marriage inappropriate (D) within a year.

  1. ((a))

    A-B

  2. ((b))

    B-C

  3. ((c))

    C-D

  4. ((d))

    D-A

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D-A

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. D-A

Key PointsThe given sentence is -

Her husband's _______ (A) behavior and _______ (B) absences from home ______ (C) their marriage _______ (D) within a year.

To answer the question let's first look at the meanings of all the marked words.

  • (A) Unravel - It's a verb that means disintegrate or be destroyed (असफल होना)
  • (B) Frequent - It's an adjective that means occurring or done many times at short intervals (अक्सर)
  • (C) Made - It's a verb that means alter something so that it forms something else (बनाना)
  • (D) Inappropriate - It's an adjective that means not suitable or proper in the circumstances (अनुचित)

As we can see that in the given sentence 'behavior' is a noun and it needs an adjective before it while in the given arrangement it has 'unravel' before it which is a verb.

There are two adjectives in the marked words that are 'frequent' and 'inappropriate' and out of these two the most suitable adjective for behaviour is inappropriate. (Inappropriate behavior means the behavior that is not acceptable)

Also, The most suitaible place for 'unravel' i.e. a verb would be after the phrase 'made their marriage'. (Made their marriage unravel means to cause their marriage to fail)

Therefore, the correct answer would be D-A

The correct sentence after rearrangement -

'Her husband's inappropriate behavior and frequent absences from home made their marriage unravel within a year.'

Directions: Rearrange the following sentences A, B, C, D, E, and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below.

<br>

A. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit.

B. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia.

C. India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions.

D. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group.

E. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions.

F. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia.

135

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph introduces the incredibly diverse linguistic landscape of India and sets the stage for a geographical journey through its languages.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it sets the overall topic and scope of the discussion:
  • "India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions."
  • Sentence B follows as it provides the overarching context and nature of this linguistic journey:
  • "This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia."
  • Sentence E is the third sentence because it begins the detailed geographical description from the starting point mentioned in C (far northwest):
  • "In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions."
  • Sentence A is the fourth as it continues the eastward progression, detailing the dominant Indo-Aryan languages:
  • "Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit."
  • Sentence D is the fifth as it introduces another major language family (Dravidian) that is found further south and east, distinct from the Indo-Aryan group:
  • "Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group."
  • Sentence F is the sixth and final sentence, completing the geographical overview by covering the languages of the Northeast:
  • "Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."
  • The correct sequence is CBEADF.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."

136

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph introduces the incredibly diverse linguistic landscape of India and sets the stage for a geographical journey through its languages.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it sets the overall topic and scope of the discussion:
  • "India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions."
  • Sentence B is the second sentence as it provides the overarching context and nature of this linguistic journey, logically following the introduction of the "remarkable transition":
  • "This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia."
  • Sentence E is the third sentence because it begins the detailed geographical description from the starting point mentioned in C (far northwest):
  • "In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions."
  • Sentence A is the fourth as it continues the eastward progression, detailing the dominant Indo-Aryan languages:
  • "Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit."
  • Sentence D is the fifth as it introduces another major language family (Dravidian) that is found further south and east, distinct from the Indo-Aryan group:
  • "Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group."
  • Sentence F is the sixth and final sentence, completing the geographical overview by covering the languages of the Northeast:
  • "Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."
  • The correct sequence is CBEADF.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."

137

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

E

The correct answer is Option 5.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph introduces the incredibly diverse linguistic landscape of India and sets the stage for a geographical journey through its languages.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it sets the overall topic and scope of the discussion:
  • "India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions."
  • Sentence B is the second sentence as it provides the overarching context and nature of this linguistic journey, logically following the introduction of the "remarkable transition":
  • "This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia."
  • Sentence E is the third sentence because it begins the detailed geographical description from the starting point mentioned in C (far northwest):
  • "In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions."
  • Sentence A is the fourth as it continues the eastward progression, detailing the dominant Indo-Aryan languages:
  • "Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit."
  • Sentence D is the fifth as it introduces another major language family (Dravidian) that is found further south and east, distinct from the Indo-Aryan group:
  • "Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group."
  • Sentence F is the sixth and final sentence, completing the geographical overview by covering the languages of the Northeast:
  • "Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."
  • The correct sequence is CBEADF.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."

138

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph introduces the incredibly diverse linguistic landscape of India and sets the stage for a geographical journey through its languages.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it sets the overall topic and scope of the discussion:
  • "India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions."
  • Sentence B is the second sentence as it provides the overarching context and nature of this linguistic journey, logically following the introduction of the "remarkable transition":
  • "This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia."
  • Sentence E is the third sentence because it begins the detailed geographical description from the starting point mentioned in C (far northwest):
  • "In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions."
  • Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it continues the eastward progression from the northwest, detailing the dominant Indo-Aryan languages found in the Northern and Eastern plains:
  • "Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit."
  • Sentence D is the fifth as it introduces another major language family (Dravidian) that is found further south and east, distinct from the Indo-Aryan group:
  • "Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group."
  • Sentence F is the sixth and final sentence, completing the geographical overview by covering the languages of the Northeast:
  • "Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."
  • The correct sequence is CBEADF.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."

139

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph introduces the incredibly diverse linguistic landscape of India and sets the stage for a geographical journey through its languages.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it sets the overall topic and scope of the discussion:
  • "India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions."
  • Sentence B is the second sentence as it provides the overarching context and nature of this linguistic journey, logically following the introduction of the "remarkable transition":
  • "This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia."
  • Sentence E is the third sentence because it begins the detailed geographical description from the starting point mentioned in C (far northwest):
  • "In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions."
  • Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it continues the eastward progression from the northwest, detailing the dominant Indo-Aryan languages found in the Northern and Eastern plains:
  • "Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit."
  • Sentence D is the fifth sentence as it introduces another major language family (Dravidian) that is found further south and east, distinct from the Indo-Aryan group, logically following the discussion of Indo-Aryan languages:
  • "Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group."
  • Sentence F is the sixth and final sentence, completing the geographical overview by covering the languages of the Northeast:
  • "Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."
  • The correct sequence is CBEADF.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."

140

Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

F

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph introduces the incredibly diverse linguistic landscape of India and sets the stage for a geographical journey through its languages.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it sets the overall topic and scope of the discussion:
  • "India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions."
  • Sentence B is the second sentence as it provides the overarching context and nature of this linguistic journey, logically following the introduction of the "remarkable transition":
  • "This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia."
  • Sentence E is the third sentence because it begins the detailed geographical description from the starting point mentioned in C (far northwest):
  • "In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions."
  • Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it continues the eastward progression from the northwest, detailing the dominant Indo-Aryan languages found in the Northern and Eastern plains:
  • "Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit."
  • Sentence D is the fifth sentence as it introduces another major language family (Dravidian) that is found further south and east, distinct from the Indo-Aryan group:
  • "Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group."
  • Sentence F is the sixth and final sentence, completing the geographical overview by covering the languages of the Northeast, logically concluding the journey across India's linguistic landscape:
  • "Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."
  • The correct sequence is CBEADF.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"India's linguistic landscape is incredibly diverse, showcasing a remarkable transition in languages from its far northwest to the easternmost regions. This journey reveals a fascinating tapestry of linguistic evolution, influenced by migrations, invasions, and cultural exchanges over millennia. In the far northwest, languages like Kashmiri, Punjabi, and Sindhi, belonging to the Indo-Aryan family, show strong influences from Persian and Arabic due to historical interactions. Moving eastward, we encounter the Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Assamese, which dominate the Northern and Eastern plains, originating from Sanskrit. Further south and east, the Dravidian family, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, forms a distinct and ancient branch, unrelated to the Indo-Aryan group. Beyond these, the Northeast is home to numerous Tibeto-Burman languages, reflecting its geographical proximity and cultural ties with Southeast Asia."

141

Directions: In the following question, there is a sentence given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as your answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

The Prime minister of India said that at a time when the biggest continues (A) of the world are in turmoil (B), India economies (C) to provide free (D) rations to 80 crore Indians.

  1. ((a))

    A-C

  2. ((b))

    B-D

  3. ((c))

    D-A

  4. ((d))

    C-D

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-C

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. A-C

Key PointsThe given sentence is - 

The Prime minister of India said that at a time when the biggest _______ (A) of the world are in _______ (B), India _______ (C) to provide ______ (D) rations to 80 crore Indians.

To answer the question let's first look at the meanings of all the marked words.

  • (A) Continues - It's a verb which means 'persist in an activity or process' (क़ायम रखना/ज़ारी रखना)
  • (B) Turmoil - It's a noun that means 'a state of great disturbance, confusion, or uncertainty' (उथल-पुथल)
  • (C) Economies - It's a plural noun that means 'the state of a country or region in terms of the production and consumption of goods and services and the supply of money' (अर्थव्यवस्थाएं)
  • (D) Free - It's an adverb which means 'without cost or payment' (बिना मूल्य के)

After looking at the meanings of all the marked words we can come to the conclusion that 'biggest' is a superlative adjective and it will need a noun after it and in the given arrangement it is followed by 'continues' that is a verb.

Also, we need a verb in its base form (1st form) because this part of the sentence

is in present simple tense. 

That's why 'continues' will be interchanged with economies.

 

Therefore, the correct answer would be A-C.

 

The sentence after rearrangement will be -

'The Prime minister of India said that at a time when the biggest economies of the world are in turmoil, India continues to provide free rations to 80 crore Indians.'

142

Directions: Choose the combination that creates a grammatically and contextually coherent sentence.

A. The conference was a great success,i. due toD. the thorough planning and organization.
B. The child showed remarkable talent,ii. whileE. he could play several instruments flawlessly.
C. The weather improved,iii. becauseF. we decided to go for a hike.
  1. ((a))

    A-i-D

  2. ((b))

    B-ii-E

  3. ((c))

    C-iii-F

  4. ((d))

    A-iii-E

  5. ((e))

    C-i-D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A-i-D

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's review the given phrases in the table:

  • A: The conference was a great success,
  • This phrase indicates the positive outcome of the conference.
  • B: The child showed remarkable talent,
  • This phrase means that the child exhibited exceptional skills.
  • C: The weather improved,
  • This phrase means that the weather conditions got better.
  • D: the thorough planning and organization.
  • This phrase means careful and meticulous preparation and structure.
  • E: he could play several instruments flawlessly.
  • This phrase means that he was able to play multiple musical instruments without any errors.
  • F: we decided to go for a hike.
  • This phrase means that we made the decision to go on a walking trip in a natural setting.

 

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

  • i. due to
  • It means "because of," indicating a reason or cause.
  • For example:
  • The match was canceled due to the rain.
  • ii. while
  • It means "at the same time as," indicating simultaneous actions.
  • For example:
  • She was studying while he was cooking.
  • iii. because
  • It means "for the reason that," indicating a cause.
  • For example:
  • He was late because he missed the bus.

So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that the combination A-i-D can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence:

  • The conference was a great success due to the thorough planning and organization.

Therefore, the correct answer is "A-i-D."

143

Directions: Choose the combination that creates a grammatically and contextually coherent sentence.

A. The government announced a slew of reforms,i.  meanwhile,D. he always managed to keep his calm during the chaos.
B. Her passion for painting was evident,ii. becauseE. it benefits both the environment and public health.
C. Recycling should be mandatory,iii. althoughF. he had the evidence to support his claim.
  1. ((a))

    B-ii-E

  2. ((b))

    A-iii-D

  3. ((c))

    A-i-E

  4. ((d))

    C-iii-F

  5. ((e))

    C-ii-E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

C-ii-E

The correct answer is option 5.

 Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

  • A. The government announced a slew of reforms,

This phrase mentions the government declaring multiple changes.

  • B. Her passion for painting was evident,

This phrase indicates that her love for painting was clear and obvious.

  • C. Recycling should be mandatory,

This phrase suggests that recycling ought to be required by law.

  • D. he always managed to keep his calm during the chaos.

This phrase describes his ability to stay calm in stressful situations.

  • E. it benefits both the environment and public health.

This phrase highlights the advantages of a certain action for the environment and health.

  • F. he had the evidence to support his claim.

This phrase mentions that he possessed proof to back up his statement.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

  • i. meanwhile

It means "during the same time" or "at the same time."

For Example: I was preparing dinner; meanwhile, my friend set the table.

  • ii. because

It means "for the reason that" or "since."

For Example: She was late because she missed the bus.

  • iii. although

It means "in spite of the fact that" or "even though."

For Example: Although it was raining, they went for a walk.

So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that only the combination C-ii-E can make a grammatically and contextually coherent sentence.

The complete coherent sentence would be: "Recycling should be mandatory, because it benefits both the environment and public health."

The sentence supports the idea that recycling should be obligatory by highlighting its benefits.

Therefore, the correct answer is C-ii-E.

144

Directions: Choose the combination that creates a grammatically and contextually coherent sentence.

A. The team worked tirelessly,i. wherebyD. a breakthrough in the study was achieved.
B. She couldn't imagine forgiving him,ii. thusE. he maintained a respectful demeanor throughout the discussion.
C. The committee reached a unanimous decisioniii. althoughF. her trust in him had been shattered completely.
  1. ((a))

    A-iii-D

  2. ((b))

    B-ii-E and A-i-F

  3. ((c))

    A-ii-D and B-iii-F

  4. ((d))

    A-i-F

  5. ((e))

    C-iii-F and A-iii-D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A-ii-D and B-iii-F

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

  • A: The team worked tirelessly,
  • This phrase indicates that the group put in a lot of effort without rest.
  • B: She couldn't imagine forgiving him,
  • This phrase suggests that it was unimaginable for her to forgive someone.
  • C: The committee reached a unanimous decision
  • This phrase means that everyone in the group agreed on the decision.
  • D: a breakthrough in the study was achieved.
  • This phrase indicates that a significant discovery was made in research.
  • E: he maintained a respectful demeanor throughout the discussion.
  • This phrase insists that he was polite and respectful during the conversation.
  • F: her trust in him had been shattered completely.
  • This phrase indicates that she no longer trusted him at all.

 

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

  • i. whereby
  • It means "by which," indicating a method or means.
  • For Example:
  • They have introduced a new system whereby all employees must check in electronically.
  • ii. thus
  • It means "as a result," indicating a consequence.
  • For Example:
  • He didn't sleep well; thus, he was very tired the next day.
  • iii. although
  • It means "in spite of the fact that," indicating a contrast.
  • For Example:
  • Although it was cold, they went for a walk.

So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that the combinations A-ii-D and B-iii-F can make grammatically and contextually meaningful sentences:

  • The team worked tirelessly, thus a breakthrough in the study was achieved.
  • She couldn't imagine forgiving him, although her trust in him had been shattered completely.

Therefore, the correct answer is "A-ii-D and B-iii-F."

145

Directions: In the following question, there is a sentence given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as your answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

Despite the eagerness (A) seen among parents and students towards schools, children’s basic literacy (B) levels have taken a big hit, with their reading ability as compared (C) to numeracy skills declining (D) much more sharply and dropping to pre-2012 levels.

  1. ((a))

    A-B

  2. ((b))

    D-A

  3. ((c))

    C-B

  4. ((d))

    C-D

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No rearrangement required

The correct answer is option 5 i.e. no rearrangement required.

Key Points The given sentence is - 

 

Despite the ______ (A) seen among parents and students towards schools, children’s basic ______ (B) levels have taken a big hit, with their reading ability as ______ (C) to numeracy skills ______ (D) much more sharply and dropping to pre-2012 levels.

 

To answer the question let's first look at the meanings of all the marked words.

  • (A) Eagerness - It's a noun that means enthusiasm to do or to have something; keenness (उत्सुकता)
  • (B) Literacy - It's a noun that means the ability to read and write (साक्षरता)
  • (C) Compared - It's a verb that means estimate, measure, or note the similarity or dissimilarity between (तुलना)
  • (D) Declining - It's a verb that means become smaller, fewer, or less; decrease (घटता)

 

After looking at the meanings of all the marked words we can conclude that all the marked words are placed correctly and don't require any rearrangement.

 

Therefore, the correct answer would be no rearrangement required.

146

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

My future plans include learning a new language, travelling to different countries, and also getting improve my cooking skills.

  1. ((a))

    improving my cooking skills

  2. ((b))

    to get my cooking skills better

  3. ((c))

    get better in my cooking skills

  4. ((d))

    get my cooking skills improved

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

improving my cooking skills

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'improving my cooking skills'.

 Key Points

  • The phrase “getting improve my cooking skills" is grammatically incorrect.
  • The gerund form (verb + ing) should be used to maintain consistency with the other mentioned plans (learning and travelling), which are in the gerund form.
  • The corrected phrase "improving my cooking skills" accurately conveys the author's intention to enhance their cooking skills as part of their future plans.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'improving my cooking skills'.

The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: ‘My future plans include learning a new language, travelling to different countries, and also improving my cooking skills.’

147

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

She felt overwhelmed by the enormity of the task, but determined to perch through nonetheless.

  1. ((a))

    push through nonetheless

  2. ((b))

    perch over nonetheless

  3. ((c))

    perceive through nonetheless

  4. ((d))

    push over nonetheless

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

push through nonetheless

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'push through nonetheless'.

 Key Points

  • The initial phrase "perch through nonetheless" is incorrect in this context.
  • "Perch" typically refers to sitting or resting high up on something, whereas in this context, the correct idiom is "push through", which means to continue with something difficult.
  • By using the phrase 'push through nonetheless', the sentence correctly conveys the struggle and determination of the subject, despite being overwhelmed.
  • 'Push through' is a common phrase used to define the act of persisting or continuing with something challenging.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'push through nonetheless'.

The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: ‘She felt overwhelmed by the enormity of the task, but determined to push through nonetheless.’

148

Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.

Every man, woman, and child in the village, along their livestock, were forced to evacuate

  1. ((a))

    along with their livestock

  2. ((b))

    along by their livestock

  3. ((c))

    along to their livestock

  4. ((d))

    livestock along them

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

along with their livestock

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'along with their livestock'.

 Key Points

  • The initial phrase "along their livestock" is grammatically incorrect.
  • We use the phrase "along with" to include something or someone additional.
  • The corrected phrase 'along with their livestock' maintains the structure of the sentence and shows the proper relationship between the villagers, their livestock, and the act of evacuation.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'along with their livestock'.

The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: ‘Every man, woman, and child in the village, along with their livestock, were forced to evacuate.’

149

Five statements are given below, labeled A, B, C, D, and E, among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. Once a central banker, always a central banker, at least when it comes to the choice of words! It is apparent each time you listen to Dr. C Rangarajan.

B. In his immediate reaction to the last Union budget, speaking to Financial Express Online, he was happy that the composition of government expenditure has changed in favor of capital expenditure (read: towards asset and job creation) though the quantum of expenditures is not seeing a significant change (if one were to compare the revised estimates for 2020-21 and Budget Estimates for 2021-22).

C. However, the budget document says, “the interest payment is expected to come down in the medium term because of availability of liquidity in the market, and RBI’s.

D. The NABE survey found that 64 percent of its forecasters favor enacting structural policies spending on items like infrastructure or education to stimulate growth, while 38 percent supported increased tax revenue and 37 percent favor spending restraint.

E. The rate of interest, he feels, will ultimately have to be decided by the extent of borrowing the government is making. Therefore, the government will have to work towards a policy of borrowing less.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. D

  • The theme of the coherent paragraph is the Financial suggestions in the union budget. It is given in sentence 5 that The rate of interest, he feels, will ultimately have to be decided by the extent of borrowing the government is making. Therefore, the government will have to work towards a policy of borrowing less.
  • In sentence A it is given that ' always a central banker, at least when it comes to the choice of words'
  • In sentence B it is given that 'In his immediate reaction to the last Union budget, speaking to Financial Express.' that is further information of sentence A.
  • In sentence C  ' the budget document says, “the interest payment is expected to come down in the medium term because of availability of liquidity in the market, and RBI’s.' It gives further information in sentences A and C of the Financial suggestions in the union budget.
  • In sentence E it is given that 'Therefore, the government will have to work towards a policy of borrowing less.' It is further information to sentence 3 in this way sentences A, B, C and E are related to each other.
  • Sentence D is talking about The NABE survey for infrastructure or education which is completely different from the coherent paragraph.

Correct option: *'*The NABE survey found that 64 percent of its forecasters favor enacting structural policies spending on items like infrastructure or education to stimulate growth, while 38 percent supported increased tax revenue and 37 percent favor spending restraint.' 

150

Directions: In the following question, there is a sentence given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as your answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

Generally (A) people tend to see fitness as a/an extremely (B) difficult goal to achieve, involving hours and hours of perseverance (C) workouts, visits to the gym, and strenuous (D) that asks you to sacrifice the normal pleasures of life.

  1. ((a))

    A-B

  2. ((b))

    B-C

  3. ((c))

    C-D

  4. ((d))

    A-D

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C-D

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. C-D 

Key Points

The given sentence is - 

_______ (A) people tend to see fitness as a/an _______ (B) difficult goal to achieve, involving hours and hours of _________ (C) workouts, visits to the gym, and ________ (D) that asks you to sacrifice the normal pleasures of life.

To answer the question let's first look at the meanings of all the marked words.

  • (A) Generally - It's an adverb which means 'in most cases; usually' (आम तौर पर/सामान्यतः)
  • (B) Extremely - It's an adverb that means 'to a very great degree; very' (बहुत ज़्यादा/अत्यंत)
  • (C) Perseverance - It's a noun that means 'persistence in doing something despite difficulty or delay in achieving success' (दृढ़ता/धीरज)
  • (D) Strenuous - It's an adjective that means 'requiring or using great effort or exertion' (ज़ोरदार/दृढ़)

After looking at the meanings of all the words we can conclude that in the given sentence 'workouts' is a plural noun that needs an adjective before it and 'perseverance' is a noun so, it will be interchanged with 'strenuous' which is an adjective.

In the given sentence, adjective 'strenuous' is describing the quantity of the noun 'workouts'.

Therefore, the correct answer will be C-D.

The correct statement after the rearrangement will be 'Generally people tend to see fitness as an extremely difficult goal to achieve, involving hours and hours of strenuous workouts, visits to the gym, and perseverance that asks you to sacrifice the normal pleasures of life.'

 

Additional InformationAdjective - Adjectives are words that come before nouns to describe the qualities or states of being of nouns, such as tall, beautiful, fast etc.

  • For example -
  • You have a beautiful house. 
  • Here, the adjective 'beautiful' is describing the quality of the noun 'house.
  • I don't have an extra notebook. 
  • Here, the adjective 'extra' is describing the quality of the noun 'notebook.
151

Directions: In the following sentence, four words given in bold are marked as A, B, C, and D, which are possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If no interchange is required, mark option 5 i.e., "No interchange required" as your answer.

The flimflammer (A) tried to sell a grandiloquent (B) scheme but his heterodoxies (C) and infiltration (D) were soon exposed.

  1. ((a))

    A-D

  2. ((b))

    B-C

  3. ((c))

    C-A and B-D

  4. ((d))

    A-C

  5. ((e))

    No interchange required

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No interchange required

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

The sentence given is:

"The flimflammer (A) tried to sell a grandiloquent (B) scheme but his heterodoxies (C) and infiltration (D) were soon exposed."

  • The phrase "tried to sell a grandiloquent scheme" is acceptable — grandiloquent here conveys an overblown, pompous or extravagant scheme.
  • Both heterodoxies (unorthodox beliefs/practices) and infiltration (covert penetration) can be exposed, so the clause "his heterodoxies and infiltration were soon exposed" is meaningful and grammatically correct.
  • No marked word needs to be swapped to make the sentence grammatical and sensible.

Therefore, no interchange is required — Option 5.

Word Meanings

  • Flimflammer — a swindler or con man (धोखेबाज़).
  • Grandiloquent — pompous or high-flown in style; extravagant in expression (भड़कीला, आडंबरपूर्ण).
  • Heterodoxies — unorthodox beliefs or opinions (विपरीत या पारंपरिक मत के विरोधी विचार).
  • Infiltration — the act of secretly entering or gaining access (गुप्त प्रवेश/घुसपैठ).

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In the realm of medical science, the administration of medications and treatments is a crucial process that directly impacts patient outcomes. Traditionally, the two most common methods of drug delivery have been through injections and oral capsules. Each method has distinct advantages and disadvantages, and recent advancements in research, particularly from the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), are poised to revolutionise this aspect of healthcare. For many patients, the mere thought of needles can evoke a sense of dread and anxiety. This fear, known as needle phobia, is a significant barrier to effective medical treatment for a considerable portion of the population. Injections, although effective in delivering drugs quickly into the bloodstream, come with the disadvantages of pain, the risk of infection at the injection site, and the necessity for medical professionals to administer the medication. These factors contribute to decreased patient compliance and increased healthcare costs. On the other hand, oral capsules offer a more convenient and generally painless option, as they can be self-administered without the need for a healthcare provider. Capsules are particularly advantageous for their ease of use and non-invasive nature. However, they are not suitable for all types of medications. Many drugs degrade in the acidic environment of the stomach or are not absorbed efficiently in the gastrointestinal tract, making capsules an unreliable method for drugs requiring precise dosing. Recognising these challenges, researchers at MIT have been at the ___________ drug delivery technologies. One of their most notable advancements is a new capsule-based technology designed to administer insulin for patients with Type-1 diabetes. This groundbreaking innovation addresses several limitations associated with traditional methods of insulin delivery. Type-1 diabetes requires continual management of blood glucose levels through the administration of insulin. Historically, this has been achieved through regular injections, which can be burdensome and painful for patients. The MIT research team focused on creating a capsule that could deliver insulin effectively without the discomfort associated with needles. The technology involves a specially engineered capsule that houses a tiny, spring-loaded needle made of insulin. When the capsule reaches the stomach, the needle is injected directly into the stomach lining, painlessly delivering the insulin into the bloodstream. This method leverages the stomach's thick lining, which is less sensitive to pain than the skin, and ensures that the insulin is released in a controlled manner. The capsule's design ensures that the insulin remains stable in the stomach's acidic conditions and is protected until it is absorbed. This innovation holds the potential to transform the management of Type-1 diabetes, making treatment more accessible and less intimidating for patients. The pros of this new technology are evident. It reduces the pain and anxiety associated with needle injections, increases patient compliance, and eliminates the need for frequent doctor visits for insulin administration. Moreover, it opens the door to the oral delivery of other biologic drugs that currently require injections, such as certain cancer medications and vaccines. However, this new technology is not without its challenges and limitations. Ensuring the consistent production of these advanced capsules on a large scale is complex and may pose significant manufacturing challenges. Additionally, long-term studies are necessary to fully understand the capsule's effects on the stomach lining and its efficacy in various patient populations. Furthermore, the cost of developing and producing such sophisticated drug delivery systems might initially be higher than traditional methods, potentially making it less accessible to underprivileged communities.

Despite these potential obstacles, the ongoing research and development at MIT represent a significant leap forward in medical science. As technology progresses, the hope is that such innovations will become more cost-effective and widely available, ultimately improving the quality of life for millions of patients worldwide. The new capsule-based drug delivery system exemplifies how thoughtful, patient-centred medical advancements can overcome longstanding barriers in healthcare, offering a glimpse into a future where painful injections could be a distant memory.

152

According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of injections as a drug delivery method?

  1. ((a))

    Pain at the injection site

  2. ((b))

    Risk of infection

  3. ((c))

    Necessity for medical professionals to administer the medication

  4. ((d))

    Decreased patient compliance

  5. ((e))

    Supply chain issues

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Supply chain issues

The correct answer is Option 5.

 

Key Points

  • The passage lists several disadvantages of injections as a drug delivery method, including pain at the injection site, the risk of infection, the necessity for medical professionals to administer the medication, and decreased patient compliance.
  • Supply chain issues are not mentioned as a disadvantage of injections in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 5.

 

Supporting Information: "Injections, although effective in delivering drugs quickly into the bloodstream, come with the disadvantages of pain, the risk of infection at the injection site, and the necessity for medical professionals to administer the medication. These factors contribute to decreased patient compliance and increased healthcare costs."

 

Additional Information

  • Pain at the injection site, risk of infection, necessity for medical professionals to administer the medication, and decreased patient compliance are explicitly listed as disadvantages of injections.
  • Supply chain issues are not mentioned in the passage concerning the disadvantages of injections.
153

The passage states that one of the main advantages of oral capsules is that they are:

  1. ((a))

    Suitable for all medications

  2. ((b))

    Non-invasive and convenient

  3. ((c))

    Stable in the stomach's acidic conditions

  4. ((d))

    Always absorbed efficiently in the gastrointestinal tract

  5. ((e))

    Free from any risk of side effects

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Non-invasive and convenient

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The passage highlights that oral capsules are particularly advantageous for their ease of use and non-invasive nature, making them convenient for self-administration without the need for a healthcare provider.
  • Option 1: The passage mentions that oral capsules are not suitable for all types of medications.
  • Option 3: The passage discusses that many drugs degrade in the stomach's acidic environment, so this is not typically an advantage of oral capsules.
  • Option 4: The passage states that many drugs are not absorbed efficiently in the gastrointestinal tract when taken as oral capsules, therefore, this is not an advantage.
  • Option 5: The passage does not discuss oral capsules being free from any risk of side effects.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Supporting Information: "On the other hand, oral capsules offer a more convenient and generally painless option, as they can be self-administered without the need for a healthcare provider. Capsules are particularly advantageous for their ease of use and non-invasive nature."

 

Additional Information

  • Suitable for all medications: The passage mentions that oral capsules are not suitable for all types of medications.
  • Non-invasive and convenient: The passage highlights these as key advantages of oral capsules.
  • Stable in the stomach's acidic conditions: The passage states that many drugs degrade in the stomach's acidic environment.
  • Always absorbed efficiently in the gastrointestinal tract: The passage mentions that many drugs are not absorbed efficiently.
  • Free from any risk of side effects: The passage does not address the risk of side effects for oral capsules.
154

Which of the following inferences can be made based on the passage?

A) Traditional needle injections are still the most reliable form of insulin delivery despite the disadvantages.

B) There could be future innovations in oral vaccine delivery based on MIT’s new technology.

C) Patients with needle phobia are likely to benefit significantly from the new oral capsule technology.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    Both B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both B and C

The correct answer is 'Option 5'.

 

Key Points

  • A) Traditional needle injections are still the most reliable form of insulin delivery despite the disadvantages.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. While the passage discusses the disadvantages of needle injections, it does not explicitly state that they are the most reliable form of insulin delivery despite these disadvantages.
  • B) There could be future innovations in oral vaccine delivery based on MIT’s new technology.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that the new capsule-based technology opens the door to the oral delivery of other biologic drugs that currently require injections, including vaccines.
  • C) Patients with needle phobia are likely to benefit significantly from the new oral capsule technology.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly states that the new capsule technology reduces pain and anxiety associated with needle injections, which would benefit patients with needle phobia.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both B and C.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Incorrect because A cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Only B: Incorrect because both B and C can be inferred from the passage.
  • Only C: Incorrect because both B and C can be inferred from the passage.
  • Both A and C: Incorrect because A cannot be inferred from the passage.
155

The passage suggests that MIT's new capsule technology is revolutionary primarily because it:

  1. ((a))

    Completely eliminates the need for injections for all types of medications.

  2. ((b))

    Delivers insulin without causing pain, addressing the issue of needle phobia.

  3. ((c))

    Guarantees 100% absorption of all drugs in the stomach lining.

  4. ((d))

    Can be administered without any professional medical supervision.

  5. ((e))

    Offers an instant cure for Type-1 diabetes.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Delivers insulin without causing pain, addressing the issue of needle phobia.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The passage suggests that MIT's new capsule technology is revolutionary because it delivers insulin without causing pain, which addresses the issue of needle phobia.
  • The passage does not claim that the technology completely eliminates the need for injections for all types of medications, guarantees 100% absorption of all drugs in the stomach lining, can be administered without any professional medical supervision, or offers an instant cure for Type-1 diabetes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Supporting Information: "For many patients, the mere thought of needles can evoke a sense of dread and anxiety. This fear, known as needle phobia, is a significant barrier to effective medical treatment for a considerable portion of the population... The MIT research team focused on creating a capsule that could deliver insulin effectively without the discomfort associated with needles."

 

Additional Information

  • Completely eliminates the need for injections for all types of medications: The passage does not make this claim.
  • Delivers insulin without causing pain, addressing the issue of needle phobia: This is the primary reason the technology is considered revolutionary.
  • Guarantees 100% absorption of all drugs in the stomach lining: The passage does not mention such a guarantee.
  • Can be administered without any professional medical supervision: The passage does not provide detailed information on whether professional supervision is unnecessary.
  • Offers an instant cure for Type-1 diabetes: The passage discusses managing diabetes, not curing it.
156

What is the correct phrase to fill the blank in the passage: ‘Recognising these challenges, researchers at MIT have been at the ___________ drug delivery technologies.’?

  1. ((a))

    pinnacle of enhancing advanced

  2. ((b))

    forefront of developing innovative

  3. ((c))

    edge of creating superior

  4. ((d))

    centre of improving conventional

  5. ((e))

    helm of designing groundbreaking

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

forefront of developing innovative

The correct answer is 'forefront of developing innovative'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "forefront of developing innovative" means being at the leading position in creating new and unique ideas or technologies.
  • This phrase fits well in the passage about MIT researchers working on new drug delivery technologies.
  • The other options: "pinnacle of enhancing advanced," "edge of creating superior," "centre of improving conventional," and "helm of designing groundbreaking" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Recognising these challenges, researchers at MIT have been at the forefront of developing innovative drug delivery technologies.

Additional Information

  • Pinnacle of enhancing advanced: means being at the highest point in improving something already advanced.
  • Edge of creating superior: means being at a border or advantage point in making something better.
  • Centre of improving conventional: means being in the middle of enhancing standard methods.
  • Helm of designing groundbreaking: means being in a leading position in making something revolutionary.
157

According to the passage, which of the given statements is correct?

A) Oral capsules are advantageous because they are non-invasive.

B) MIT is creating a new pill that eliminates insulin use altogether.

C) The new capsule technology relies on the use of a spring-loaded needle.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and C

  5. ((e))

    A, B, and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and C

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Oral capsules are advantageous because they are non-invasive.
  • This statement is correct as it accurately reflects the information provided in the passage.
  • Statement B: MIT is creating a new pill that eliminates insulin use altogether.
  • The passage mentions that MIT is developing a capsule to deliver insulin, but it does not claim to eliminate insulin use altogether.
  • Statement C: The new capsule technology relies on the use of a spring-loaded needle.
  • This statement is correct as it aligns with the information provided in the passage about the MIT research team creating a capsule with a spring-loaded needle.
  • Hence, the statements A and C are identified as correct in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘A and C’.

158

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Oral capsules are always unstable in the acidic environment of the stomach.

B) MIT’s capsule for insulin delivery uses a spring-loaded mechanism to administer the drug.

C) The new capsule technology is only applicable to insulin delivery.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and C

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and C

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Oral capsules are always unstable in the acidic environment of the stomach.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage mentions that many drugs degrade in the acidic environment of the stomach, but it does not state that oral capsules are always unstable.
  • Statement B: MIT’s capsule for insulin delivery uses a spring-loaded mechanism to administer the drug.
  • This statement is correct as it accurately reflects the information provided in the passage.
  • Statement C: The new capsule technology is only applicable to insulin delivery.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage mentions that the new capsule technology opens the door to the oral delivery of other biologic drugs, not just insulin.
  • Hence, the statements A and C are identified as incorrect in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘A and C’.

159

Match the following terms from Column A with their closest meanings in Column B:

 

Column AColumn B
1. ComplianceA) To manage or supervise the execution
2. DegradeB) Causing no discomfort or suffering
3. AdministerC) Conformity in fulfilling requirements
4. PainlessD) To break down chemically
5. SophisticatedE) Highly developed or complex
  1. ((a))

    1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-E

  2. ((b))

    1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E

  3. ((c))

    1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C

  4. ((d))

    1-E, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B

  5. ((e))

    1-D, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C, 5-A

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e., 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E.

Key Points

  • The word "Compliance" (अनुपालन) means conformity in fulfilling requirements; adherence to rules or standards.
  • Example: The new regulations are imposed to ensure compliance with safety standards.
  • "Degrade" (अपकर्षण) means to break down chemically; to deteriorate or reduce in quality.
  • Example: Over time, exposure to sunlight can degrade the integrity of the plastic.
  • "Administer" (प्रबंध) means to manage or supervise the execution or fulfilment of something.
  • Example: The nurse will administer the medication to the patients.
  • "Painless" (पीड़ारहित) means causing no discomfort or suffering; without physical pain.
  • Example: The procedure was quick and painless.
  • "Sophisticated" (परिष्कृत) means highly developed or complex; advanced in design or technology.
  • Example: The new software has a sophisticated algorithm to handle large datasets efficiently.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Creative (रचनात्मक): Use of imagination or original ideas to create something.
  • Example: Her creative approach to problem-solving often leads to innovative solutions.
  • Ideal (आदर्श): Conception of something in its absolute perfection.
  • Example: He has an ideal vision for what our society should look like.
  • Fresh (ताजा): Something that is new, recent, or not previously known.
  • Example: I just want a fresh start in a new city.
160

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to “Efficacy” in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Ineffectiveness

  2. ((b))

    Efficiency

  3. ((c))

    Sluggishness

  4. ((d))

    Uselessness

  5. ((e))

    Simplicity

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Efficiency

The correct answer is: Efficiency.

Key Points

  • The word "efficacy" means the ability to produce a desired or intended result; effectiveness. (प्रभावशीलता)
  • Example: The efficacy of the new drug was proven in clinical trials.
  • "Efficiency" refers to the ability to accomplish a task with the minimum expenditure of time and effort; effectiveness combined with speed and economy. (कार्यकुशलता)
  • Example: Her efficiency at work resulted in her promotion.

Therefore, the correct answer is: efficiency.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Ineffectiveness (अप्रभावशीलता): Lack of effectiveness; not producing the desired result.
  • Example: The ineffectiveness of the outdated methods was a major concern.
  • Sluggishness (सुस्ती): Lack of energy or alertness; lethargy.
  • Example: The sluggishness of the economy slowed down market growth.
  • Uselessness (निष्फलता): The quality of having no practical use or value.
  • Example: The tool's uselessness became apparent during the repair work.
  • Simplicity (सरलता): The quality or condition of being easy to understand or do; lack of complexity.
  • Example: The simplicity of the new software system made it user-friendly.y

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The landscape of employment has undergone significant transformations in recent years, particularly in the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic. Both the United States and the United Kingdom have witnessed profound shifts in employment patterns as individuals and organisations adapt to a new normal. Remote work, once a rare perk, has become a standard arrangement for many white-collar jobs. In the US, this has led to an unparalleled embrace of Work-From-Home (WFH) policies, allowing employees to perform their duties from virtually any location. The UK has mirrored this trend, with hybrid work models becoming increasingly popular. Companies have realised the potential for cost savings on office space and the benefits of a more flexible workforce. However, this move towards virtual working environments has also highlighted challenges related to maintaining corporate culture, employee engagement, and productivity. As businesses navigate these new dynamics, they are continuously refining their approaches to create sustainable and effective work models for the future. An in-depth survey conducted recently sheds light on the influence of an ageing population and the growing need for family care in the workforce. This survey encompassed a diverse group of respondents, spanning various industries and age groups, and revealed compelling insights. One of the most prominent findings was the significant impact of the ageing workforce on employment trends. With a larger proportion of the workforce nearing retirement age, businesses are facing a potential skills gap. Many older employees possess critical institutional knowledge and expertise, and their retirement could lead to a loss of valuable skills and experience. This scenario is prompting organisations to devise strategies for knowledge transfer and mentorship programmes to bridge the gap between outgoing and incoming employees. Additionally, the survey highlighted the increasing family care responsibilities shouldered by many workers, particularly those in the 'sandwich generation'—individuals who are simultaneously caring for their ageing parents and their own children. These dual responsibilities often require flexible working arrangements to balance professional and personal obligations. Companies that recognise and accommodate these needs are more likely to retain and attract talent. The importance of providing support for family care, such as flexible hours, remote work options, and enhanced family leave policies, was underscored as a critical factor in employee satisfaction and retention.

Job creation, meanwhile, continues to be a focal point of economic recovery efforts. The pandemic-induced recession prompted substantial job losses, but recent trends suggest a positive trajectory. The demand for certain job roles has surged, particularly in healthcare, technology, and logistics. Healthcare professionals, for instance, have seen a marked increase in demand due to ongoing public health concerns and an ageing population. The tech industry, driven by the need for digital transformation, continues to grow, creating jobs in software development, cybersecurity, and data analysis. Logistics and e-commerce have also boomed, with companies investing heavily in warehousing and distribution infrastructure to meet the higher consumer demand for online shopping. Overall, the employment landscape in the US is marked by a delicate balance of adapting to new work preferences, addressing the challenges posed by an ageing workforce, and capitalising on job creation opportunities in emerging sectors. Policymakers, employers, and employees alike must navigate these trends thoughtfully to foster a resilient and dynamic workforce capable of thriving in a post-pandemic world. As we move forward, the ability to adapt to these evolving trends will determine the success and stability of the job market in the coming years.

161

According to the passage, which working arrangement has become a standard for many white-collar jobs in the US after the COVID-19 pandemic?

  1. ((a))

    Part-time work

  2. ((b))

    Flexible hours

  3. ((c))

    Work-From-Home (WFH) policies

  4. ((d))

    On-site work

  5. ((e))

    Seasonal work

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Work-From-Home (WFH) policies

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage states that remote work has become a standard arrangement for many white-collar jobs in the US and highlights the widespread adoption of Work-From-Home (WFH) policies.
  • WFH allows employees to perform their duties from virtually any location, which aligns with the remote work trend post-pandemic.
  • As a result, Work-From-Home (WFH) policies are identified as the standard working arrangement for these positions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Supporting Information: "Remote work, once a rare perk, has become a standard arrangement for many white-collar jobs. In the US, this has led to an unparalleled embrace of Work-From-Home (WFH) policies, allowing employees to perform their duties from virtually any location."

 

Additional Information

  • WFH policies are explicitly mentioned as becoming standard for many white-collar jobs, emphasizing their importance post-pandemic.
  • Flexible hours might be prevalent, but the passage specifically highlights the widespread adoption of WFH policies.
  • On-site work contradicts the remote work trend discussed in the passage.
  • Part-time work and seasonal work are not indicated as significant post-pandemic changes in the passage.
162

The passage states that the 'sandwich generation' faces dual responsibilities. Which of the following best describes these responsibilities?

  1. ((a))

    Managing multiple jobs

  2. ((b))

    Caring for ageing parents and their own children

  3. ((c))

    Studying while working

  4. ((d))

    Relocating frequently

  5. ((e))

    Pursuing higher education

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Caring for ageing parents and their own children

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The passage mentions the 'sandwich generation' as individuals who are simultaneously caring for their ageing parents and their own children.
  • These dual responsibilities require flexible working arrangements to balance professional and personal obligations.
  • The term 'sandwich generation' specifically refers to those who are caught between caring for the older and younger generations in their family.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Supporting Information: "Additionally, the survey highlighted the increasing family care responsibilities shouldered by many workers, particularly those in the 'sandwich generation'—individuals who are simultaneously caring for their ageing parents and their own children."

 

Additional Information

  • Managing multiple jobs, studying while working, relocating frequently, and pursuing higher education are not related to the context of the 'sandwich generation' as described in the passage.
  • The passage clearly identifies caregiving duties for both ageing parents and young children as the dual responsibilities that define the 'sandwich generation'.
163

Which factor has NOT been cited by the passage as a challenge of moving towards virtual working environments?

  1. ((a))

    Maintaining corporate culture

  2. ((b))

    Employee engagement

  3. ((c))

    Virtual working environment

  4. ((d))

    Productivity concerns

  5. ((e))

    Training employees for digital tools

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Training employees for digital tools

The correct answer is 'Option 5'.

 

Key Points

  • Maintaining corporate culture
  • The passage explicitly states that maintaining corporate culture is one of the challenges associated with the shift towards virtual working environments.
  • Employee engagement
  • The passage directly mentions employee engagement as a key challenge faced by organisations adopting remote and hybrid work models.
  • Virtual working environment
  • This is the context in which the challenges arise, not a challenge itself. The passage discusses moving towards virtual working environments but does not present it as a challenge.
  • Productivity concerns
  • The passage explicitly identifies productivity as one of the concerns associated with virtual working environments.
  • Training employees for digital tools
  • This factor is not mentioned anywhere in the passage as a challenge related to the transition towards virtual working environments.
  • Hence, it is the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 5 (Training employees for digital tools).

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because maintaining corporate culture is explicitly cited as a challenge of virtual working environments.
  • Option 2: Incorrect because employee engagement is directly mentioned as a challenge in the passage.
  • Option 3: Incorrect because "virtual working environment" refers to the setting being discussed, not to a challenge mentioned in the passage.
  • Option 4: Incorrect because productivity concerns are specifically highlighted as a challenge of remote and hybrid work.
164

According to the passage, which of the given statements is correct?

A) Flexible working arrangements help retain and attract talent.

B) Remote work has highlighted challenges related to productivity.

C) The retail industry has seen a major job surge post-pandemic.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Only C

  4. ((d))

    A and B

  5. ((e))

    B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and B

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Flexible working arrangements help retain and attract talent.
  • This statement is correct as the passage mentions that companies accommodating workers' needs with flexible working arrangements are more likely to retain and attract talent.
  • Statement B: Remote work has highlighted challenges related to productivity.
  • This statement is correct as the passage discusses how the move towards virtual work environments has highlighted challenges related to maintaining productivity, among other factors.
  • Statement C: The retail industry has seen a major job surge post-pandemic.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage mentions job surges in healthcare, technology, and logistics, but does not mention the retail industry specifically seeing a major job surge post-pandemic.
  • Hence, the statements A and B are identified as correct in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘A and B’.

165

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "profound" in the context of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    superficial

  2. ((b))

    negligible

  3. ((c))

    deep

  4. ((d))

    modest

  5. ((e))

    slight

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

deep

The correct answer is: deep.

Key Points

  • The word "profound" means very great or intense; penetrating deeply into subjects. (गहरा और तीव्र)
  • Example: The book had a profound impact on his understanding of history.
  • "Deep" refers to extending far down from the top or surface; intense or extreme in degree or quality. (गहरा)
  • Example: The philosopher's ideas were deep and thought-provoking.

Therefore, the correct answer is: deep.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Superficial (सतही): Existing or occurring at or on the surface.
  • Example: Her superficial reading of the text missed the deeper meaning.
  • Negligible (उपेक्षणीय): So small or unimportant as to be not worth considering.
  • Example: The cost was negligible compared to the benefits.
  • Modest (विनम्र): Unassuming or moderate in the estimation of one’s abilities or achievements.
  • Example: She had modest expectations about the job offer.
  • Slight (हल्का): Small in degree; inconsiderable.
  • Example: There was a slight delay in the meeting schedule.
166

Which of the following words best matches the meaning of "virtual" as used in the context of virtual working environments in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    real

  2. ((b))

    digital

  3. ((c))

    physical

  4. ((d))

    fake

  5. ((e))

    tangible

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

digital

The correct answer is: digital.

Key Points

  • The word "virtual" in the context of the passage refers to environments that are created, accessed, or experienced through digital means, rather than in a physical space. (आभासी)
  • Example: Virtual meetings have become common in remote work setups.
  • "Digital" refers to anything that involves or relates to the use of computer technology, especially the internet. (डिजिटल)
  • Example: The company shifted to digital platforms for most of its operations.

Therefore, the correct answer is: digital.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Real (वास्तविक): Actually existing as a thing or occurring in fact; not imagined or supposed.
  • Example: The real challenge was to find a balance between work and personal life.
  • Physical (भौतिक): Relating to the body as opposed to the mind; tangible or concrete.
  • Example: Physical meetings were replaced by virtual meetings due to the pandemic.
  • Fake (नकली): Not genuine; counterfeit or deceptive.
  • Example: She realized the watch was fake when it stopped working after a week.
  • Tangible (स्पर्शनीय): Perceptible by touch; clear and definite; real.
  • Example: The benefits of the new policy were tangible and immediate.
167

The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.Choose the set of words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

She _____ herself in her studies so that she could ______ victorious

  1. ((a))

    Immersed, emerge

  2. ((b))

    Emerged, immersed

  3. ((c))

    Impressed, immerse

  4. ((d))

    Immersed, impress

  5. ((e))

    Emerged, impressed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Immersed, emerge

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Immersed" means to involve oneself deeply in a particular activity or interest; to fully absorb or engage. (डूबा हुआ/गहन रूप से शामिल)
  • Example: She immersed herself in learning new languages to prepare for her trip abroad.
  • The word "Emerge" means to come out into view or become visible, often after being concealed or hidden. (उभरना)
  • Example: After years of struggle, he emerged victorious in the competition.
  • Hence, the combination of "immersed" and "emerge" best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2: Emerged, Immersed (उभरा हुआ, डूबा हुआ): This combination does not fit the sentence context as immersing oneself leads to emerging victorious, not vice versa.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: She emerged herself in her studies so that she could immersed victorious.
  • Option 3: Impressed, Immerse (प्रभावित, डूबा): "Impressed" does not convey the idea of deeply involving oneself in studies.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: She impressed herself in her studies so that she could immerse victorious.
  • Option 4: Immersed, Impress (डूबा हुआ, प्रभावित करना): "Impress" does not fit the meaning of emerging victorious.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: She immersed herself in her studies so that she could impress victorious.
  • Option 5: Emerged, Impressed (उभरा हुआ, प्रभावित): This combination does not fit the sentence as it does not convey the intended meaning of deeply engaging and emerging victorious.
  • Example: Incorrect usage: She emerged herself in her studies so that she could impressed victorious.
168

The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The monk chose to spend his ____________ breath reciting the mantras in the ______ of the monastery.

  1. ((a))

    penultimate, confines

  2. ((b))

    first, inside

  3. ((c))

    final, confines

  4. ((d))

    deep, innards

  5. ((e))

    failing, shield

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

final, confines

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "final" refers to the last or concluding part of something; in this context, it describes the monk's last breath. (अंतिम)
  • Example: She gave her final performance before retiring from the stage.
  • The word "confines" means the boundaries or limits of a place, especially when referring to a physical or metaphorical enclosure. (सीमाएँ)
  • Example: He felt secure within the confines of his home.
  • Hence, the phrase "final breath" and "confines of the monastery" make the most sense in the given sentence, as it depicts the monk's last moments spent inside the boundaries of the monastery.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Penultimate (द्वितीय अंतिम): Refers to the second to last in a series or sequence.
  • Example: He tripped on the penultimate step of the staircase.
  • First (पहला): Refers to the initial or beginning stage of something.
  • Example: She was the first person to arrive at the meeting.
  • Deep (गहरा): Refers to something profound, intense, or extending far down from the surface.
  • Example: The lake is so deep that no one has ever reached its bottom.
  • Failing (कमजोर): Refers to declining in strength or health.
  • Example: His failing eyesight made it difficult for him to read without glasses.
  • Shield (ढाल): Refers to a protective barrier or something that provides defense.
  • Example: The soldiers used their shields to protect themselves from the enemy’s arrows.
169

The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The mayor of the city __________ that he would be running for the _____ of governor next year.

  1. ((a))

    decree, post

  2. ((b))

    declared, post

  3. ((c))

    declared, position

  4. ((d))

    notified, position

  5. ((e))

    confided, appointment

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

declared, post

The correct answer is: Option 2 (declared, post).

Key Points

  • The word "declared" means to make a formal or official statement about something. (घोषित किया)
  • Example: The president declared the new policy during the press conference.
  • The word "post" refers to a position or job, especially one of responsibility in an organization or government. (पद)
  • Example: He applied for the post of manager in the company.
  • In this context, the mayor officially announced ("declared") that he would be running for the "post" of governor next year.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (declared, post).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: decree, post (आदेश, पद)
  • Decree: An official order issued by a legal authority. (आदेश)
  • Example: The king issued a decree to ban hunting in the forest.
  • However, "decree" is not appropriate in this context, as it does not fit the idea of someone announcing their candidacy.
  • Option 3: declared, position (घोषित किया, स्थिति)
  • Position: A job or role in an organization or government. (स्थिति या पद)
  • Example: She was offered a position in the finance department.
  • While "declared" is correct, "position" is less commonly used to describe a political role like "governor." "Post" is more specific here.
  • Option 4: notified, position (सूचित किया, स्थिति)
  • Notified: To formally inform someone about something. (सूचित किया)
  • Example: The employee was notified about the changes in the work schedule.
  • However, "notified" does not fit here, as it implies informing someone rather than making a formal announcement.
  • Option 5: confided, appointment (भरोसा किया, नियुक्ति)
  • Confided: To share a secret or private matter with someone. (भरोसा करके बताया)
  • Example: She confided in her best friend about her plans.
  • Appointment: The act of assigning a job or role to someone. (नियुक्ति)
  • Example: His appointment as the new CEO was announced last week.
  • However, "confided" and "appointment" do not fit the context of a public announcement about running for office.
170

The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The hospital was ________ into an apartment block, but it still reeked with the ______ of death.

  1. ((a))

    transplanted, feeling

  2. ((b))

    changed, touch

  3. ((c))

    transformed, sensation

  4. ((d))

    metamorphosed, taste

  5. ((e))

    converted, smell

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

converted, smell

The correct answer is: Option 5.

Key Points

  • The word "converted" means changed into a different form, character, or function. (परिवर्तित किया हुआ)
  • Example: The old factory was converted into a museum, attracting tourists from all over the country.
  • The word "smell" refers to the sense that is used to perceive odors, or a particular odor itself. (गंध)
  • Example: The delicious smell of freshly baked bread filled the air.
  • In the context of the sentence, "The hospital was converted into an apartment block, but it still reeked with the smell of death," the word "converted" is appropriately used to indicate the transformation of the hospital into apartments, and "smell" correctly describes the lingering odor associated with death.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 5.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Transplanted (रोपित): Moved or transferred to a different place.
  • Example: The villagers transplanted the saplings to a new field for better growth.
  • Feeling (भावना): An emotional state or reaction.
  • Example: She could not express the feeling of gratitude she had for her mentor.
  • Changed (बदल गया): Made different in form or nature.
  • Example: The weather changed suddenly, bringing heavy rain and strong winds.
  • Touch (स्पर्श): The sense through which contact is perceived.
  • Example: The gentle touch of the fabric made it highly desirable.
  • Transformed (रूपांतरित): Made a marked change in form, nature, or appearance.
  • Example: The city was transformed into a bustling hub of activity after the new infrastructure was built.
  • Sensation (संवेदना): A physical feeling or perception resulting from something that happens to the body.
  • Example: The icy water caused a tingling sensation in her hands.
  • Metamorphosed (रूपांतरित): Changed completely in form or nature.
  • Example: Over the years, the small town metamorphosed into a sprawling metropolis.
  • Taste (स्वाद): The sensation of flavor perceived in the mouth and throat when consuming a substance.
  • Example: The taste of homemade food is always better than restaurant food.

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