Previous Year Paper

SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on:29 January 2021) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

155 questions180 minutes
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Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (45 questions)

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same order and all are facing towards the center. All the persons are married and there is an equal number of husbands and wives in the group. They are of different ages viz. 36, 51, 48, 33, 41, and 28 but not necessarily in the same order. The age of the husband is greater than the age of the wife. No couple sits together and no two even/odd aged persons are sitting together.

B, an even-aged person is sitting second to the left of a person whose age is 48. Only two persons sit between A, the female person and the person whose age is 41. D is married to F, who is the oldest person. C, whose age lies between 30 and 40 is sitting second to the right of A’s husband. The youngest person sits to the immediate right of the oldest person. A is not the youngest person.

Question 1

What is the sum of the ages of A’s husband and F’s wife?

  1. AOption (a)

    77

  2. BOption (b)

    80

  3. COption (c)

    91

  4. DOption (d)

    89

  5. EOption (e)

    84

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

89

Why this answer is correct

There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table.

All the persons are married and there is an equal number of husbands and wives in the group.

They are of different ages viz. 36, 51, 48, 33, 41, and 28 but not necessarily in the same order.

1. The youngest person sits to the immediate right of the oldest person.

The age of the youngest person is 28 and the age of the oldest person is 51. 

  1. D is married to F, who is the oldest person.

(The age of husband is greater than the age of wife)

So, F is the husband of D.

  1. Only two persons sit between A, the female person and the person whose age is 41.
  2. A is not the youngest person.

(No two even/odd aged persons are sitting together)

  1. B, an even-aged person is sitting second to the left of a person whose age is 48.

The following are the possibilities we get,

  1. C, whose age lies between 30 and 40 is sitting second to the right of A’s husband.

The possible age of C is 33 or 36.

As no two even/odd aged persons are sitting together. So, the age of C is 33.

Filling the missing data,

In case I:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

In case II:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

No couple sits together is violated. So, Case II is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

Couples
Husband (Age)Wife (Age)
F (51)D (48)
C (33)B (28)
E (41)A (36)

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, the sum of the ages of A’s husband and F’s wife is 89.

Question 2

Who among the following is the wife of C?

  1. AOption (a)

    E

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    D

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table.

All the persons are married and there is an equal number of husbands and wives in the group.

They are of different ages viz. 36, 51, 48, 33, 41, and 28 but not necessarily in the same order.

1. The youngest person sits to the immediate right of the oldest person.

The age of the youngest person is 28 and the age of the oldest person is 51. 

  1. D is married to F, who is the oldest person.

(The age of husband is greater than the age of wife)

So, F is the husband of D.

  1. Only two persons sit between A, the female person and the person whose age is 41.
  2. A is not the youngest person.

(No two even/odd aged persons are sitting together)

  1. B, an even-aged person is sitting second to the left of a person whose age is 48.

The following are the possibilities we get,

  1. C, whose age lies between 30 and 40 is sitting second to the right of A’s husband.

The possible age of C is 33 or 36.

As no two even/odd aged persons are sitting together. So, the age of C is 33.

Filling the missing data,

In case I:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

In case II:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

No couple sits together is violated. So, Case II is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

Couples
Husband (Age)Wife (Age)
F (51)D (48)
C (33)B (28)
E (41)A (36)

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, B is the wife of C.

Question 3

What is the position C with respect to his/her spouse?

  1. AOption (a)

    Second to the left

  2. BOption (b)

    Exactly opposite

  3. COption (c)

    Immediate right

  4. DOption (d)

    Second to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    Fourth to left

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Exactly opposite

Why this answer is correct

There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table.

All the persons are married and there is an equal number of husbands and wives in the group.

They are of different ages viz. 36, 51, 48, 33, 41, and 28 but not necessarily in the same order.

1. The youngest person sits to the immediate right of the oldest person.

The age of the youngest person is 28 and the age of the oldest person is 51. 

  1. D is married to F, who is the oldest person.

(The age of husband is greater than the age of wife)

So, F is the husband of D.

  1. Only two persons sit between A, the female person and the person whose age is 41.
  2. A is not the youngest person.

(No two even/odd aged persons are sitting together)

  1. B, an even-aged person is sitting second to the left of a person whose age is 48.

The following are the possibilities we get,

  1. C, whose age lies between 30 and 40 is sitting second to the right of A’s husband.

The possible age of C is 33 or 36.

As no two even/odd aged persons are sitting together. So, the age of C is 33.

Filling the missing data,

In case I:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

In case II:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

No couple sits together is violated. So, Case II is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

Couples
Husband (Age)Wife (Age)
F (51)D (48)
C (33)B (28)
E (41)A (36)

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, C is sitting exactly opposite with respect to his/her spouse.

Question 4

How many persons are sitting between F and the person aged 28, if we start counting from F in clockwise direction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    One

  5. EOption (e)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Four

Why this answer is correct

There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table.

All the persons are married and there is an equal number of husbands and wives in the group.

They are of different ages viz. 36, 51, 48, 33, 41, and 28 but not necessarily in the same order.

1. The youngest person sits to the immediate right of the oldest person.

The age of the youngest person is 28 and the age of the oldest person is 51. 

  1. D is married to F, who is the oldest person.

(The age of husband is greater than the age of wife)

So, F is the husband of D.

  1. Only two persons sit between A, the female person and the person whose age is 41.
  2. A is not the youngest person.

(No two even/odd aged persons are sitting together)

  1. B, an even-aged person is sitting second to the left of a person whose age is 48.

The following are the possibilities we get,

  1. C, whose age lies between 30 and 40 is sitting second to the right of A’s husband.

The possible age of C is 33 or 36.

As no two even/odd aged persons are sitting together. So, the age of C is 33.

Filling the missing data,

In case I:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

In case II:

As D is married to F, A’s husband will be E and is sitting opposite A.

No couple sits together is violated. So, Case II is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

Couples
Husband (Age)Wife (Age)
F (51)D (48)
C (33)B (28)
E (41)A (36)

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, four persons are sitting between F and the person aged 28.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow:

The coding language used to indicate the positions of points is as follows:

P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q

P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q

P 16% Q means P is 13 m south to the point Q

P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q

The positions of some points are:

A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33L,N28@M,O15 L, N 28@ M, O 15 N, K 17@ O.

Question 5

If Y is to the south of D and west of O then which of the following is nearest to Y?

  1. AOption (a)

    M

  2. BOption (b)

    N

  3. COption (c)

    B

  4. DOption (d)

    O

  5. EOption (e)

    K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

N

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q

P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q

P 13% Q means P is 10 m south to the point Q

P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q

A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33L,N28@M,O15 L, N 28@ M, O 15 N, K 17@ O.

By observing the given data, we concluded that in the case of @ and %, we have to subtract 3 from the given position. While in case of $ and & we have to add 5 in the given position.

Now by decoding the given statement according to the given conditions:

A 15& B: A is 20 m west to point B.

B 27% C: B is 24 m south to point C.

C 17& D: C is 22 m west to point D.

L 18% A: L is 15 m south to point A.

M 33$ L: M is 38 m east to point L.

N 28@ M: N is 25 m north to point M.

O 15$ N: O is 20 m east to point N.

K 17@ O: K is 14 m north to point O.

The following diagram is the 

As Y is in the south with respect to D and in the west with respect to O, Y will be at the following position:

Now, we can see that Y would be closest to N.

Hence, N  is the correct answer.

Question 6

Which of the following is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    C 24@ B 

  2. BOption (b)

    B 10 & A

  3. COption (c)

    M 28$ N

  4. DOption (d)

    D 11& K

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

D 11& K

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q

P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q

P 13% Q means P is 10 m south to the point Q

P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q

A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33L,N28@M,O15 L, N 28@ M, O 15 N, K 17@ O.

By observing the given data, we concluded that in the case of @ and %, we have to subtract 3 from the given position. While in case of $ and & we have to add 5 in the given position.

Now by decoding the given statement according to the given conditions:

A 15& B: A is 20 m west to point B.

B 27% C: B is 24 m south to point C.

C 17& D: C is 22 m west to point D.

L 18% A: L is 15 m south to point A.

M 33$ L: M is 38 m east to point L.

N 28@ M: N is 25 m north to point M.

O 15$ N: O is 20 m east to point N.

K 17@ O: K is 14 m north to point O.

The following diagram is the 

Option 4)  D 11& K

D 11& K → D is 16 m west to the K.

As we can see in the diagram that D is 16 m west to the point K.

Hence, D 11& K is the correct answer.

Question 7

Which of the following expression is false?

  1. AOption (a)

    C 33& K

  2. BOption (b)

    N 15& O

  3. COption (c)

    O 17% K

  4. DOption (d)

    A 18@ L

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q

P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q

P 13% Q means P is 10 m south to the point Q

P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q

A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33L,N28@M,O15 L, N 28@ M, O 15 N, K 17@ O.

By observing the given data, we concluded that in the case of @ and %, we have to subtract 3 from the given position. While in case of $ and & we have to add 5 in the given position.

Now by decoding the given statement according to the given conditions:

A 15& B: A is 20 m west to point B.

B 27% C: B is 24 m south to point C.

C 17& D: C is 22 m west to point D.

L 18% A: L is 15 m south to point A.

M 33$ L: M is 38 m east to point L.

N 28@ M: N is 25 m north to point M.

O 15$ N: O is 20 m east to point N.

K 17@ O: K is 14 m north to point O.

The following diagram is the 

  1. C 33& K: C is 38 m west to the point K  True

  2. N 15& O: N is 20 m west to the point O.  True

  3. O 17% K: O is 14 m south to point K.   True

4) A 18@ L: A is 15 m north to the point L. True

Hence, none of these is the answer.

Question 8

If a point Z such that Z 15& C is situated, what will be the relationship between Z and A?

  1. AOption (a)

    A 21% Z

  2. BOption (b)

    Z 21@ A

  3. COption (c)

    Z 27@ A

  4. DOption (d)

    A 27% Z

  5. EOption (e)

    Both 3) and 4)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Both 3) and 4)

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q

P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q

P 13% Q means P is 10 m south to the point Q

P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q

A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33L,N28@M,O15 L, N 28@ M, O 15 N, K 17@ O.

By observing the given data, we concluded that in the case of @ and %, we have to subtract 3 from the given position. While in case of $ and & we have to add 5 in the given position.

Now by decoding the given statement according to the given conditions:

A 15& B: A is 20 m west to point B.

B 27% C: B is 24 m south to point C.

C 17& D: C is 22 m west to point D.

L 18% A: L is 15 m south to point A.

M 33$ L: M is 38 m east to point L.

N 28@ M: N is 25 m north to point M.

O 15$ N: O is 20 m east to point N.

K 17@ O: K is 14 m north to point O.

The following diagram is the 

Point Z is such that, Z 15& C

By decoding it, we get, point Z is 20 m to the west of point C.

Now, we can see that Z is 24 m north to the point A or we can say that A is 24 m south to the point Z.

By decoding all the options:

1) A 21% Z: A is 18 m to the south of Z.   False

2) Z 21@ A: Z is 18 m to the north of A.   False

3) Z 27@ A: Z is 24 m to the north of A.   True

4) A 27% Z: A is 24 m to the south of Z.    True

Hence, both 3) and 4) is the correct answer.

Question 9

What is the relationship between  C and K?

  1. AOption (a)

    C 41& K

  2. BOption (b)

    C 33$ K

  3. COption (c)

    K 33$ C

  4. DOption (d)

    C 38$ K

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

K 33$ C

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q

P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q

P 13% Q means P is 10 m south to the point Q

P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q

A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33L,N28@M,O15 L, N 28@ M, O 15 N, K 17@ O.

By observing the given data, we concluded that in the case of @ and %, we have to subtract 3 from the given position. While in case of $ and & we have to add 5 in the given position.

Now by decoding the given statement according to the given conditions:

A 15& B: A is 20 m west to point B.

B 27% C: B is 24 m south to point C.

C 17& D: C is 22 m west to point D.

L 18% A: L is 15 m south to point A.

M 33$ L: M is 38 m east to point L.

N 28@ M: N is 25 m north to point M.

O 15$ N: O is 20 m east to point N.

K 17@ O: K is 14 m north to point O.

The following diagram is the 

As we can see in the diagram,

C is 38 m to the west of the point K, or it can be said as K is 38 m to the east to point C.

If we decode all the options, we will get:

  1. C 41& K: C is 46 m to the west of K.   False

  2. C 33$ K: C is  38 m to the east of K.   False

3) K 33$ C: K is 38 m to the east of C.    True

Hence, K 33$ C is true.

Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions given below.

Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.

All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1, 11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7. 

Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. F has an odd number of chocolates.  E is sitting opposite to J who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. J has the highest number of chocolates. H is sitting second to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row has a prime number of chocolates. E has more number of chocolates than I. B who is sitting at the left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row. A is sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates. D is sitting at the right side of C.  The number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G. Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than the number of chocolates owned by G.

Question 10

Four of the following five persons are somehow similar and thus form a group. Which of the following person does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    J

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    B

  5. EOption (e)

    I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

J

Why this answer is correct

Given: Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.

All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1, 11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7. 

1. E is sitting opposite to J who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. 2. H is sitting second to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates.

3. J has the highest number of chocolates.  4. B who is sitting at the left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row.

5. Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. 6. D is sitting at the right side of C.

7. The number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G. 8.  A is sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates.  

9. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row has a prime number of chocolates.

As we can see that the only prime number left is 7, hence the number of chocolates owned by the one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row which is C would be 7.

10. Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than the number of chocolates owned by G. 

We know that 1 + 8 = 9(perfect square)

So, F and H must have 1 and 8 chocolates.

11. F has an odd number of chocolates.

This proves that F would have 1 chocolate while H would have 8 chocolates.

Only numbers which are left now are 9 and 4 and persons whose number of chocolates are still to find out are E and I.

But as it is already given in the question that I owns even number of chocolates, hence I would have 4 while E would have 9 chocolates.

So, the final arrangement would be:

All F, A, B, I are sitting at the corners while J is not.

Hence, F is the odd one.

Question 11

How many chocolates are owned by the person who is sitting second to the left of the person who is sitting opposite of G?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    9

  5. EOption (e)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

11

Why this answer is correct

Given: Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.

All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1, 11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7. 

1. E is sitting opposite to J who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. 2. H is sitting second to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates.

3. J has the highest number of chocolates.  4. B who is sitting at the left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row.

5. Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. 6. D is sitting at the right side of C.

7. The number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G. 8.  A is sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates.  

9. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row has a prime number of chocolates.

As we can see that the only prime number left is 7, hence the number of chocolates owned by the one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row which is C would be 7.

10. Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than the number of chocolates owned by G. 

We know that 1 + 8 = 9(perfect square)

So, F and H must have 1 and 8 chocolates.

11. F has an odd number of chocolates.

This proves that F would have 1 chocolate while H would have 8 chocolates.

Only numbers which are left now are 9 and 4 and persons whose number of chocolates are still to find out are E and I.

But as it is already given in the question that I owns even number of chocolates, hence I would have 4 while E would have 9 chocolates.

So, the final arrangement would be:

The person who is sitting second to the left of the person who is sitting opposite to G is B.

Hence, B has 11 number of chocolates.

Question 12

Who is sitting second to the right of H?

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    I

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    J

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

J

Why this answer is correct

Given: Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.

All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1, 11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7. 

1. E is sitting opposite to J who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. 2. H is sitting second to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates.

3. J has the highest number of chocolates.  4. B who is sitting at the left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row.

5. Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. 6. D is sitting at the right side of C.

7. The number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G. 8.  A is sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates.  

9. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row has a prime number of chocolates.

As we can see that the only prime number left is 7, hence the number of chocolates owned by the one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row which is C would be 7.

10. Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than the number of chocolates owned by G. 

We know that 1 + 8 = 9(perfect square)

So, F and H must have 1 and 8 chocolates.

11. F has an odd number of chocolates.

This proves that F would have 1 chocolate while H would have 8 chocolates.

Only numbers which are left now are 9 and 4 and persons whose number of chocolates are still to find out are E and I.

But as it is already given in the question that I owns even number of chocolates, hence I would have 4 while E would have 9 chocolates.

So, the final arrangement would be:

Hence, J is sitting second to the right of H.

Question 13

How many chocolates does G have?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    10

  5. EOption (e)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given: Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.

All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1, 11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7. 

1. E is sitting opposite to J who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. 2. H is sitting second to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates.

3. J has the highest number of chocolates.  4. B who is sitting at the left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row.

5. Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. 6. D is sitting at the right side of C.

7. The number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G. 8.  A is sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates.  

9. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row has a prime number of chocolates.

As we can see that the only prime number left is 7, hence the number of chocolates owned by the one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row which is C would be 7.

10. Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than the number of chocolates owned by G. 

We know that 1 + 8 = 9(perfect square)

So, F and H must have 1 and 8 chocolates.

11. F has an odd number of chocolates.

This proves that F would have 1 chocolate while H would have 8 chocolates.

Only numbers which are left now are 9 and 4 and persons whose number of chocolates are still to find out are E and I.

But as it is already given in the question that I owns even number of chocolates, hence I would have 4 while E would have 9 chocolates.

So, the final arrangement would be:

Hence, G has 10 chocolates.

Question 14

What is the position of F with respect to J?

  1. AOption (a)

    Third to the left 

  2. BOption (b)

    Third to the right

  3. COption (c)

    second to the left

  4. DOption (d)

    Second to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Third to the left 

Why this answer is correct

Given: Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.

All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1, 11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7. 

1. E is sitting opposite to J who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. 2. H is sitting second to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates.

3. J has the highest number of chocolates.  4. B who is sitting at the left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row.

5. Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. 6. D is sitting at the right side of C.

7. The number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G. 8.  A is sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates.  

9. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row has a prime number of chocolates.

As we can see that the only prime number left is 7, hence the number of chocolates owned by the one who is sitting third to the left end of the first row which is C would be 7.

10. Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than the number of chocolates owned by G. 

We know that 1 + 8 = 9 (perfect square)

So, F and H must have 1 and 8 chocolates.

11. F has an odd number of chocolates.

This proves that F would have 1 chocolate while H would have 8 chocolates.

Only numbers which are left now are 9 and 4 and persons whose number of chocolates are still to find out are E and I.

But as it is already given in the question that I owns even number of chocolates, hence I would have 4 while E would have 9 chocolates.

So, the final arrangement would be:

Hence, F is sitting third to the left of J.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Input: Sums 98 76 Own Act 118 Mode 88 Card 112

Step I: 76 Act 88 Card 98 Mode 112 Own 118 Sums

Step II: 38 Bct 44 Dard 49 Node 56 Pwn 59 Tums

Step III: 24 Bdt 16 Dbrd 36 Npde 30 Pxn 45 Tvms

Step IV: 6 Bdu 7 Dbsd 9 Npee 3 Pxo 9 Tvns

Step V: 36 Bdu 49 Dbse 81 Npef 9 Pxo 81 Tvnt

Step V is the last step.

As per rules followed in the given steps, find an appropriate step for given Input.

Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106

Question 15

Which is the Penultimate step?

  1. AOption (a)

    27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

  2. BOption (b)

    78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn

  3. COption (c)

    9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

  4. DOption (d)

    81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

  5. EOption (e)

    39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

Why this answer is correct

In the given Input;

Logic:

Step I: Numbers are arranged in ascending order and words are arranged in English Alphabetical order alternatively.

Step II: Half of the numbers and +1 in the first letter of each word.

Step III: Multiplication of resultant number within the digit and +1 in the second letter of each word.

Step IV: Digital Sum of resultant number and +1 in the third letter of each word.

Step V: Square of resultant number and +1 in the fourth letter(if any) of the word.

Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106

Step I: 78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn

Step II: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

Step III: 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

Step IV: 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

Step V: 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

Step V is the last step.

Penultimate Step means second last step.

The Penultimate step is 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn.

Question 16

Which of the following elements lies exactly between 92 and 126 in Step I?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maps

  2. BOption (b)

    Ice

  3. COption (c)

    106

  4. DOption (d)

    114

  5. EOption (e)

    Sip

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maps

Why this answer is correct

In the given Input;

Logic:

Step I: Numbers are arranged in ascending order and words are arranged in English Alphabetical order alternatively.

Step II: Half of the numbers and +1 in the first letter of each word.

Step III: Multiplication of resultant number within the digit and +1 in the second letter of each word.

Step IV: Digital Sum of resultant number and +1 in the third letter of each word.

Step V: Square of resultant number and +1 in the fourth letter(if any) of the word.

Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106

Step I: 78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn

Step II: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

Step III: 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

Step IV: 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

Step V: 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

Step V is the last step.

Maps is the correct answer.

Question 17

Which is the following step?

Step: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

  1. AOption (a)

    Step I

  2. BOption (b)

    Step III

  3. COption (c)

    Step IV

  4. DOption (d)

    Step V

  5. EOption (e)

    Step II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Step II

Why this answer is correct

In the given Input;

Logic:

Step I: Numbers are arranged in ascending order and words are arranged in English Alphabetical order alternatively.

Step II: Half of the numbers and +1 in the first letter of each word.

Step III: Multiplication of resultant number within the digit and +1 in the second letter of each word.

Step IV: Digital Sum of resultant number and +1 in the third letter of each word.

Step V: Square of resultant number and +1 in the fourth letter(if any) of the word.

Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106

Step I: 78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn

Step II: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

Step III: 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

Step IV: 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

Step V: 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

Step V is the last step.

39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn is Step II.

Question 18

What is the 4th element from right end in Step III?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    35

  3. COption (c)

    Nbps

  4. DOption (d)

    57

  5. EOption (e)

    Jde

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

35

Why this answer is correct

In the given Input;

Logic:

Step I: Numbers are arranged in ascending order and words are arranged in English Alphabetical order alternatively.

Step II: Half of the numbers and +1 in the first letter of each word.

Step III: Multiplication of resultant number within the digit and +1 in the second letter of each word.

Step IV: Digital Sum of resultant number and +1 in the third letter of each word.

Step V: Square of resultant number and +1 in the fourth letter(if any) of the word.

Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106

Step I: 78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn

Step II: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

Step III: 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

Step IV: 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

Step V: 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

Step V is the last step.

 35 is the 4**th** element from the right end in Step III.

Question 19

Which of the following is the fifth step for input?

  1. AOption (a)

    9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

  2. BOption (b)

    9 Dpef 6 Jdf 6 Nbqt 8 Tjq 9 Zbxo

  3. COption (c)

    39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

  4. DOption (d)

    81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

  5. EOption (e)

    27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

Why this answer is correct

In the given Input;

Logic:

Step I: Numbers are arranged in ascending order and words are arranged in English Alphabetical order alternatively.

Step II: Half of the numbers and +1 in the first letter of each word.

Step III: Multiplication of resultant number within the digit and +1 in the second letter of each word.

Step IV: Digital Sum of resultant number and +1 in the third letter of each word.

Step V: Square of resultant number and +1 in the fourth letter(if any) of the word.

Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106

Step I: 78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn

Step II: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn

Step III: 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn

Step IV: 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn

Step V: 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo

Step V is the last step.

Step V is 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There is a matrix of 4*4. The rows are represented as %, $, # and @ from the first to the fourth in the same order and the columns are represented as 1 to 4 from the first to the fourth in the same order.

Following operations are to be performed in the given order to obtain the whole matrix.

  1. One diagonal of matrix is IBPS and the other diagonal is 2019 in the same order. Both have their first element in the first Column and 4th column respectively.
  2. The immediate neighbor of any alphabet in the same row is the alphabetical position of that number.
  3. The remaining places are to be filled by taking the difference between the two numbers surrounding that place in the same row.

In the obtained matrix, the value of the sum of all digits in the second column would be less than that of the third column.

The compiler of a PC will respond to the input by calculating the value of the string as per the following conditions.

  1. If there are equal number of even and odd numbers in the string, then value of the string will be the absolute difference between all the even numbers and all the odd numbers.
  2. If there are equal number of alphabets and numbers in the string, then the value of string will be the absolute difference between the alphabetical position of all the alphabets and all the numbers.
  3. If there is only one even number in the string, then the value of string will be the addition of all the numbers in that string.
  4. If there is a vowel in the string, then value of the string will be the alphabetical position of that vowel.
  5. If none of the above mentioned conditions follow, then the value of the string will be obtained by subtracting the lowest number from the highest number in that string.

Note:

  1. The value of an input is obtained by adding the values of all the strings and then the digits in that value is added up to the point where it becomes a single digit number and then it is taken as an input.
  2. If only a single string is given, then the digits in that value is added upto the point where it becomes a single digit number and then it is taken as input.
  3. If the value of an input is a prime number, then the program will be executed.

If the value of an input is an even number, then program will not be executed.

If the value of an input is both even and prime number, then program will be executed but it will show an error.

If the value of an input is other than the above mentioned values, then PC will hang.

Let us assume a matrix:

1234
%12C4
$J678
#910T12
@O141516

 

AA = $3 @2 %1 #2, BB = @1 $3 %2

$3 denotes value in second row and column 3 which will be equal to 7.

Therefore AA = 7 14 1 10

So, this is satisfying condition 1. Hence the sum = (14 + 10) – (7 + 1) = 16

BB = O 7 2

So, this is satisfying condition 4. Thus, frequency = alphabetical position of O = 15

The values of AA and BB are added, and the final frequency is 16 + 15 = 31 which is a two digit number, So again adding them 3 + 1 = 4, which is a non-prime even number so the program will not be executed.

Consider the following four strings for all questions:

AA = $2 #1 @3 #3

BB = @1 %4 @3 %3

CC = $4 @2 #4 %1

DD = %4 @2 @4 #2

Question 20

What is the value of input if only signal AA and BB is taken into account?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    1

  5. EOption (e)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8

Why this answer is correct

1234
%I972
$2B02
#151P16
@91019S

 

AA = $2 #1 @3 #3 = B 15 19 P

Since, the string has equal number of alphabet and numbers, hence it satisfies condition 2.

Final value = 34 – 18 = 16

BB = @1 %4 @3 %3 = 9 2 19 7

Since the string has one even number, hence it satisfies condition 3.

Final value = 9 + 2 + 19 + 7 = 37

The sum of AA and BB = 16 + 37 = 53 = 8 (5 + 3)

Hence, 8 is the correct answer.

Question 21

What is the correct option if only signal CC is taken into account?

  1. AOption (a)

    The program will be executed.

  2. BOption (b)

    The program will not be executed.

  3. COption (c)

    The program will be executed but it will show an error.

  4. DOption (d)

    The PC will hang..

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The PC will hang..

Why this answer is correct

1234
%I972
$2B02
#151P16
@91019S

 

CC = $4 @2 #4 %1 = 2 10 16 I

Since, the string has one vowel, hence it satisfies condition 4.

Final value = alphabetical position of I = 9

Hence, the PC will hang.

Question 22

What is the correct option if both signals AA and DD is taken as input?

  1. AOption (a)

    The program will be executed.

  2. BOption (b)

    The program will not be executed.

  3. COption (c)

    The program will be executed but it will show an error.

  4. DOption (d)

    The PC will hang.

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The program will be executed.

Why this answer is correct

1234
%I972
$2B02
#151P16
@91019S

                                           

AA = $2 #1 @3 #3 = B 15 19 P

Since, the string has equal number of alphabet and numbers, hence it satisfies condition 2.

Final value = 34 – 18 = 16

DD = %4 @2 @4 #2 = 2 10 S 1

Since the given string doesn’t follow any condition, hence the value of the input will be the difference between the highest and lowest number.

Final value = 10 – 1 = 9

Sum of AA and DD = 16 + 9 = 25 = 7 (2 + 5)

Hence, the program will be executed.

Question 23

It is given that signal BB is incorrect and the program was executed but showed an error, then what could be the correct string for it?

  1. AOption (a)

    @1 %4 @3 %3

  2. BOption (b)

    #3 @4 @2 %3

  3. COption (c)

    @1 %4 @3 $4

  4. DOption (d)

    #4 33 2 #4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of the above

Why this answer is correct

1234
%I972
$2B02
#151P16
@91019S

 

Let’s observe all the given string

A. @1 %4 @3 %3 = 9 2 19 7

Since, the given string contains only 1 even number, hence it satisfies condition 3.

Final value = 9 + 2 + 19 + 7 = 37 = 10 = 1 (1 + 0)

B. #3 @4 @2 %3 = P S 10 7

Since, the string has equal number of alphabet and numbers, hence it satisfies condition 2.

Final value = 35 – 17 = 18 = 9 (1 + 8)

C. @1 %4 @3 $4 = 9 2 19 2

Since the string has equal number of odd and even numbers, hence it satisfies condition 1.

Final value = (9 + 19) – (2 + 2) = 28 – 4 = 24 = 6 (2 + 4)

D. #4 3 3 2 #4 = 16 0 B 16

Since, the given string doesn’t follow any condition, hence the value of the input will be the difference between the highest and lowest number.

Final value = 16 – 2 = 14 = 5 (1 + 4)

Hence, none of these is the answer as the required input should have been 2 for the program to be executed with an error.

Question 24

What will be the value of string if all four signals given is taken as input?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    1

  5. EOption (e)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

8

Why this answer is correct

1234
%I972
$2B02
#151P16
@91019S

 

AA = $2 #1 @3 #3 = B 15 19 P

Since, the string has equal number of alphabet and numbers, hence it satisfies condition 2.

Final value = 34 – 18 = 16

BB = @1 %4 @3 %3 = 9 2 19 7

Since, the given string contains only 1 even number, hence it satisfies condition 3.

Final value = 9 + 2 + 19 + 7 = 37

CC = $4 @2 #4 %1 = 2 10 16 I

Since, the string has one vowel, hence it satisfies condition 4.

Final value = alphabetical position of I = 9

DD = %4 @2 @4 #2 = 2 10 S 1

Since, the given string doesn’t follow any condition, hence the value of the input will be the difference between the highest and lowest number.

Final value = 10 – 1 = 9

Now, add all the strings

16 + 37 + 9 + 9 = 71 = 8 (7 + 1)

Hence, 8 is the correct answer.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are 8 persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W live on eight floor building numbered from floor 1 to 8. The lowermost floor is numbered as 1, floor above it as 2 and so on. Each of them likes different colors - Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also has different birth year - 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001 again not necessarily in the same order. Ages are calculated on the base year of 2019.

There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives. T, who likes Yellow color lives immediately above the who likes White color. Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. There are at least five floor between S and U. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S. Birth year of Q is even number. W lives immediately above S. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. Person likes Black color lives immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White color. V lives on floor numbered four. There are two floor between V and R. R neither lives on floor numbered one and nor likes Pink color. Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and likes Violet color. The age of P is two times the age of V. The age difference of R and Q is 35 years. U is not 20 years old.W is older than R.

Question 25

Which of the following combination of Year, Color and Person is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    U - Red - 1989

  2. BOption (b)

    S - Violet - 1969

  3. COption (c)

    P - Black - 1983

  4. DOption (d)

    Q - Blue - 2001

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P - Black - 1983

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Floors : 1 to 8

Persons : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

Colors : Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White.

Years : 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001.

Therefore ages are :1954 (65), 1969 (50), 1983 (36), 1989 (30), 1995 (24), 1997 (22), 1999 (20) and 2001 (18).

1) Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and likes Violet color.

2)  The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. Imply that S was born on 1997 and lives on 1st floor, as multiple of 11 is only 22 years and therefore birth year is 1997.

3) W lives immediately above S.

  1. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. There are only Two years 1989 (30) and 1969 (50).

  2. W is older than R. Therefore age of W is 50 years and R is 20 years.

The possible arrangement is as follows.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7
6
5
4
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

6) V lives on floor numbered four.

7) There are two floor between V and R.

8) R neither lives on floor numbered one and nor likes Pink color.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7RPink198930
6
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

9) There are at least five floor between S and U.

  1. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S.

11) Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor.

12) Birth year of Q is even number.

13) There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed
7RPink198930
6Q195465
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

14)  Person likes Black color lives immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White color.

15) T, who likes Yellow color lives immediately above the who likes White color. Therefore, T must be lives on 5th floor because below there are persons who likes Black and White color.

16) The age of P is two times the age of V. Imply that age of P is 36 and year is 1983 and age of V is 18 and year is 2001. 

17) U is not 20 years old. Imply that age of U is 24 years and birth year is 1995.

The final arrangement is as follows:

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed199524
7RBlue198930
6QPink195465
5TYellow199920
4VWhite200118
3PBlack198336
2WPurple196950
1SViolet199722

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, P - Black - 1983 is the correct.

Question 26

Who lives on 5th floor?

  1. AOption (a)

    One who likes Pink color.

  2. BOption (b)

    One whose birth year is 1995

  3. COption (c)

    One whose age is 20 years

  4. DOption (d)

    One who likes Red color

  5. EOption (e)

    V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

One whose age is 20 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Floors : 1 to 8

Persons : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

Colors : Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White.

Years : 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001.

Therefore ages are :1954 (65), 1969 (50), 1983 (36), 1989 (30), 1995 (24), 1997 (22), 1999 (20) and 2001 (18).

1) Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and likes Violet color.

2)  The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. Imply that S was born on 1997 and lives on 1st floor, as multiple of 11 is only 22 years and therefore birth year is 1997.

3) W lives immediately above S.

  1. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. There are only Two years 1989 (30) and 1969 (50).

  2. W is older than R. Therefore age of W is 50 years and R is 20 years.

The possible arrangement is as follows.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7
6
5
4
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

6) V lives on floor numbered four.

7) There are two floor between V and R.

8) R neither lives on floor numbered one and nor likes Pink color.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7RPink198930
6
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

9) There are at least five floor between S and U.

  1. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S.

11) Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor.

12) Birth year of Q is even number.

13) There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed
7RPink198930
6Q195465
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

14)  Person likes Black color lives immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White color.

15) T, who likes Yellow color lives immediately above the who likes White color. Therefore, T must be lives on 5th floor because below there are persons who likes Black and White color.

16) The age of P is two times the age of V. Imply that age of P is 36 and year is 1983 and age of V is 18 and year is 2001. 

17) U is not 20 years old. Imply that age of U is 24 years and birth year is 1995.

The final arrangement is as follows:

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed199524
7RBlue198930
6QPink195465
5TYellow199920
4VWhite200118
3PBlack198336
2WPurple196950
1SViolet199722

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, one whose age is 20 years lives on 5th floor.

Question 27

What is the sum of ages of R and Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    100

  2. BOption (b)

    105

  3. COption (c)

    95

  4. DOption (d)

    89

  5. EOption (e)

    72

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

95

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Floors : 1 to 8

Persons : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

Colors : Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White.

Years : 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001.

Therefore ages are :1954 (65), 1969 (50), 1983 (36), 1989 (30), 1995 (24), 1997 (22), 1999 (20) and 2001 (18).

1) Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and likes Violet color.

2)  The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. Imply that S was born on 1997 and lives on 1st floor, as multiple of 11 is only 22 years and therefore birth year is 1997.

3) W lives immediately above S.

  1. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. There are only Two years 1989 (30) and 1969 (50).

  2. W is older than R. Therefore age of W is 50 years and R is 20 years.

The possible arrangement is as follows.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7
6
5
4
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

6) V lives on floor numbered four.

7) There are two floor between V and R.

8) R neither lives on floor numbered one and nor likes Pink color.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7RPink198930
6
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

9) There are at least five floor between S and U.

  1. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S.

11) Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor.

12) Birth year of Q is even number.

13) There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed
7RPink198930
6Q195465
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

14)  Person likes Black color lives immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White color.

15) T, who likes Yellow color lives immediately above the who likes White color. Therefore, T must be lives on 5th floor because below there are persons who likes Black and White color.

16) The age of P is two times the age of V. Imply that age of P is 36 and year is 1983 and age of V is 18 and year is 2001. 

17) U is not 20 years old. Imply that age of U is 24 years and birth year is 1995.

The final arrangement is as follows:

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed199524
7RBlue198930
6QPink195465
5TYellow199920
4VWhite200118
3PBlack198336
2WPurple196950
1SViolet199722

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Sum of the age of R and Q is = 30 + 65 = 95

Hence, sum of the age of R and Q is 95 years.

Question 28

Whose birth year is 1983?

  1. AOption (a)

    One who likes Red color.

  2. BOption (b)

    One who likes Black color.

  3. COption (c)

    One who lives on 7th floor 

  4. DOption (d)

    One who lives on top most floor

  5. EOption (e)

    One who likes Purple color.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One who likes Black color.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Floors : 1 to 8

Persons : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

Colors : Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White.

Years : 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001.

Therefore ages are :1954 (65), 1969 (50), 1983 (36), 1989 (30), 1995 (24), 1997 (22), 1999 (20) and 2001 (18).

1) Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and likes Violet color.

2)  The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. Imply that S was born on 1997 and lives on 1st floor, as multiple of 11 is only 22 years and therefore birth year is 1997.

3) W lives immediately above S.

  1. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. There are only Two years 1989 (30) and 1969 (50).

  2. W is older than R. Therefore age of W is 50 years and R is 20 years.

The possible arrangement is as follows.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7
6
5
4
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

6) V lives on floor numbered four.

7) There are two floor between V and R.

8) R neither lives on floor numbered one and nor likes Pink color.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7RPink198930
6
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

9) There are at least five floor between S and U.

  1. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S.

11) Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor.

12) Birth year of Q is even number.

13) There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed
7RPink198930
6Q195465
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

14)  Person likes Black color lives immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White color.

15) T, who likes Yellow color lives immediately above the who likes White color. Therefore, T must be lives on 5th floor because below there are persons who likes Black and White color.

16) The age of P is two times the age of V. Imply that age of P is 36 and year is 1983 and age of V is 18 and year is 2001. 

17) U is not 20 years old. Imply that age of U is 24 years and birth year is 1995.

The final arrangement is as follows:

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed199524
7RBlue198930
6QPink195465
5TYellow199920
4VWhite200118
3PBlack198336
2WPurple196950
1SViolet199722

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hence, 1983 is the birth year of the person who likes Black color.

Question 29

Four of the following five are alike in certain way hence form a group. Find the one which does not belongs to the group? 

  1. AOption (a)

    U

  2. BOption (b)

    One who likes Blue color.

  3. COption (c)

    The person who lives between R and T

  4. DOption (d)

    V

  5. EOption (e)

    S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The person who lives between R and T

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Floors : 1 to 8

Persons : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

Colors : Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White.

Years : 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001.

Therefore ages are :1954 (65), 1969 (50), 1983 (36), 1989 (30), 1995 (24), 1997 (22), 1999 (20) and 2001 (18).

1) Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and likes Violet color.

2)  The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. Imply that S was born on 1997 and lives on 1st floor, as multiple of 11 is only 22 years and therefore birth year is 1997.

3) W lives immediately above S.

  1. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. There are only Two years 1989 (30) and 1969 (50).

  2. W is older than R. Therefore age of W is 50 years and R is 20 years.

The possible arrangement is as follows.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7
6
5
4
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

6) V lives on floor numbered four.

7) There are two floor between V and R.

8) R neither lives on floor numbered one and nor likes Pink color.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8
7RPink198930
6
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

9) There are at least five floor between S and U.

  1. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S.

11) Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor.

12) Birth year of Q is even number.

13) There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives.

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed
7RPink198930
6Q195465
5
4V
3
2W196950
1SViolet199722

14)  Person likes Black color lives immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White color.

15) T, who likes Yellow color lives immediately above the who likes White color. Therefore, T must be lives on 5th floor because below there are persons who likes Black and White color.

16) The age of P is two times the age of V. Imply that age of P is 36 and year is 1983 and age of V is 18 and year is 2001. 

17) U is not 20 years old. Imply that age of U is 24 years and birth year is 1995.

The final arrangement is as follows:

FloorPersonsColorYearAge
8URed199524
7RBlue198930
6QPink195465
5TYellow199920
4VWhite200118
3PBlack198336
2WPurple196950
1SViolet199722

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

U, V, S and the one who likes blue color born in the year which is the odd number, and also their age is an even number.

Now the one who lives between R and T is Q, Q born in the year which is the even number year, and his age is also 65, which is an odd number. 

Hence this is odd one out, Correct option is 3.

Question 30

If it is possible to make only one seven letter meaningful English word with the 1st, 4th, 5th, and 7th letter of the word PRIORITY and 3rd, 5th, and 6th letter of the word SECTOR, which of the following will be the first letter from left of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made give ‘Y’ as the answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    P

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    Y

  4. DOption (d)

    O

  5. EOption (e)

    X

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P

Why this answer is correct

Given words: PRIORITY and SECTOR

1st, 4th, 5th and 7th letter from the first word is: P, O, R, T 

3rd, 5th, and 6th letter from the second word is: C, O, R

Combining and jumbling first and second word we get: PROCTOR

Hence, the first letter will, be P.

Question 31

Direction: In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement: The management of XYZ Ltd has been at the receiving end of constant complaints from its employees about the HR department. The management is concerned that poor HR management will likely spread to impact all levels of the company causing issues such as employee conflict, poor team building, personality conflicts among many others.

Which of the following statements is/are a viable course of action to tackle the problem?

I. Replacing the HR personnel with an HR management software.

II. Develop an effective training program for HR which includes guidance on the company's interdepartmental communications improvement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Either I or II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

While many of their routine tasks such as document management, time & attendance records, payroll, and the like can be completed faster using HR management software, this does not imply a reduction in responsibility for HR. Instead, other strategic areas such as engaging with employees, spearheading change management as new digital systems are introduced, and finding the brightest talent to help organizations win in the digital economy require human interaction as technology is incapable of strategy, empathy, creativity, and on-spot improvising, which are all essential traits for any HR practitioner.

Therefore, action I does not follow.

Open communication between departments is essential for a company’s continued growth. A training program for HR that outlines and emphasizes the need to build employee morale, satisfaction, and engagement will help to lessen the chances of misunderstandings and potentially reduces grievances. A strong training component will not only equip HR to communicate effectively with the employees and other organizational leaders, but it will also help them understand the appropriate communication protocols.

Therefore, action II is a viable course of action.

Hence, only II follows is the correct answer.

Question 32

Directions

In the question below is a passage followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. Considering the information given in the passage to be true, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Passage: Reports suggest that the majority of the destitute widows, deserted women, and physically challenged men and women in the villages of Gujarat and Rajasthan are facing unemployment issues. It has been observed that they have good handicraft and sewing skills.

Courses of Action:

I: The Government should make all the people rich and stable.

II: The Government should provide free housing to all.

III: The Government should introduce such schemes which will provide a free supply of sewing machines to the needy with a view to increase the self-employment potential.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and III follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    All of them follow.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of them follow. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only III follows.

Why this answer is correct

The passage above mentions about the problems which the destitute widows, deserted women, and physically challenged men and women are facing in the villages of Gujarat and Rajasthan.

From the above information, we can determine that the next course of action will be helping those poor people who have skills but don’t have a job.

Hence Option III follows.

Option I is not a correct course of action as it is practically not possible for the Government to make everyone rich and stable.

Hence, Option I does not follow.

Option II does not follow as the issue pointed out in the statement is not the lack of shelter

Hence, Option II does not follow.

Question 33

Directions

The critical reasoning question is based on a short passage, an argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Passage: A diversified brick and mortar company recently hired a web designer and created an interesting online clothing catalogue to take its Clothing business online. As a result, the company had a huge uptick in the volume of sales in the Clothing segment. The spurt was caused due to increased orders from digitally literate clients. Now, the company is planning to take another of its business segment, namely Electronic goods, online.

Which of the following assumptions hold?

  1. AOption (a)

    Other Electronic Goods companies doesn't have online presence.

  2. BOption (b)

    Digitally literate clients will be interested in Electronic Goods.

  3. COption (c)

    The same web designer can be used for designing Electronic goods catalogue too.

  4. DOption (d)

    Other companies do not have quality web designers.

  5. EOption (e)

    The company can wind up its brick and mortar business.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Digitally literate clients will be interested in Electronic Goods.

Why this answer is correct

  1. The company recently hired a web designer and created an interesting online clothing catalogue to take its Clothing business online.
  2. As a result, the company had a huge uptick in the volume of sales in the Clothing segment. The spurt was caused due to increased orders from digitally literate clients

The two statements combinedly mean that sales increased (attracted more digitally literate customers) after the company took the Clothing business online.

In order to relate the two concepts, the underlying assumption must be the same, i.e., by taking the Electronic goods business online, the company will attract digitally literate clientele. 

Thus, Option 2 is a valid assumption.

Option 1 is an invalid assumption because it is irrelevant to the question since the question of whether other companies had online sales did not arise with the Clothing segment. If this assumption held true, then you would have to assume the same for the clothing segment. Also, the question is not what other companies do, but what this company is doing to increase sales from digitally literate clients.

By the same logic, Option 4 is invalid too.

Option 3 is an invalid assumption because it is irrelevant to the question since the web designer is not the main topic under discussion.

Option 5 is also an invalid assumption because it is Irrelevant to the question. The problem is not whether the company is looking to wind-up its brick and mortar business but its plans to increase digital sales.

Hence, Only Assumption 2 holds.

Question 34

Direction: Read the following passage and find out the inferences stated through the passage.

Statement: Until the 19th century, loneliness referred to action like journeying to a place outside a city and had less to do with feeling. Descriptions of loneliness and abandonment were used to generate fear of nonexistence within men, to be cut off from the world, and to God’s love.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above?

  1. AOption (a)

     God loves all equally.

  2. BOption (b)

    People felt scared to be lonely and devoid of God's love.

  3. COption (c)

    Perception of people about loneliness changed in the 20th century.

  4. DOption (d)

    Feeling should be associated with the idea of loneliness.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

People felt scared to be lonely and devoid of God's love.

Why this answer is correct

Solution: Correct option 2. 

The statement talks about the notion of loneliness until the 19th century which meant seclusion from the world and being devoid of God's love and these descriptions were used to breed fear in men.

From what is supplied we only know God's love is needed but cannot deduce that God loves all equally. Therefore, inference 1 does not follow.

Since loneliness generated fear of nonexistence, people thought of it as a condition cut off from the world and God's love we can infer that people felt scared to be deprived of God's love. Therefore, inference 2 follows.

The statement talks about the 19th century and therefore no deduction about the 20th century can be made. Therefore inference 3 does not follow.

Again the statement mentions that until the 19th-century feelings were disassociated with the notion of loneliness but we do not get clarity upon what should have been done. Therefore, inference 4 does not follow.

Hence,option 2 is correct.

Question 35

Directions

In the question below, are given a statement followed by three courses of actions numbered I, II, and III. On the basis of the information given, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the following suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement:  The people who share the border of X and Y are generally involved in fights regarding the distribution of water, usage of national highways, and many more. The problem occurs when these fights hamper the other citizens as well. Due to this conflict, many a time they block the highways or destroy the national properties.

Courses of Action:

I: The local police station should immediately deploy policemen round the clock in the borders of X and Y.

II: The police need to identify the people involved in such fighting activities and put them behind bars.

III: All the transport facilities should be stopped between the two states.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither II nor III follows

  3. COption (c)

    None follows

  4. DOption (d)

    All except III

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II and III follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All except III

Why this answer is correct

From the statement, it is evident that there is a usual conflict between the residents of X and Y due to some sharing issues. But the difficulties occur when they start hampering other people and damage national properties.

The first course of action is correct as deploying policemen round the clock in the borders of X and Y will not allow the residents to create a nuisance.

Similarly, identifying the right person involved in such activities and punishing him will be a warning for others to not indulge in such activities.

Therefore, both I and II follow.

In the case of the third course of action, stopping all the transport facilities between the two states would be an extreme step taken in this regard.

Therefore, III does not follow.

Hence, 'All except III follow' is the correct answer.

Question 36

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and give answers accordingly.

Six students viz. M, N, O, P, Q, and R were given the seminar in the same week starting from Monday to Saturday, one on each day. How many of them are given seminars before O?

Statement I:  P has given the seminar before than at least three students. M gave the seminar on Tuesday.

Statement II:  Q has given the seminar before than at least one of them. O gave immediately after P.

Statement III:  O has not given the seminar on Monday.

  1. AOption (a)

     If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question

  3. COption (c)

     If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data in all the statement I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question

  5. EOption (e)

    If all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

Given data :

From statement I : P is given the seminar before than at least three students. M was given the seminar on Tuesday.

 

PersonDay
Monday
MTuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Saturday

From statement II : Q is given the seminar before than at least one of them. O was given immediately after P.

PersonDay
Monday
MTuesday
PWednesday
OThursday
Friday
Saturday

 

Thus, three-person was given seminars before O.

<br>

Hence, statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question is the correct answer.

Question 37

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give answer accordingly.

Six members of the family X, Y, Z, A, B and C are standing in a row and all are facing the north direction. Who is standing between Z and B?

Statement I :  X is standing second from the left end. Z is standing third to the left of Y who is near to B.

Statement II :  Y is not the immediate neighbour of C who does not sits any extreme end of the row.

Statement III :  B is not the neighbour of X.

  1. AOption (a)

     If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone or in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data in all the statement I, II, and III are necessary to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given data : 

From statement I :  X is standing second from the left end. Z is standing third to the left of Y who is near to B.

Case I :

Case II :

From statement II : Y is not the immediate neighbour of C who does not sits any extreme end of the row.

case II is invalid.

case I : 

The C is standing between the Z and B.

Hence, 'the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III are not sufficient to answer the question' is the correct answer.

Question 38

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give answer accordingly.

Five buildings I, J, K, L and M are standing in the straight line facing north. Which building is standing at the extreme left?

Statement I : J is standing exactly between M and K.

Statement II : J is standing to the right of M.

Statement III : L is standing exactly between I and M.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I and II together required.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement II and III together required.

  3. COption (c)

     Statement I and III together required.

  4. DOption (d)

     All statements together required to answer the question

  5. EOption (e)

     The question cannot be answered with all the statements together.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 All statements together required to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

Given data :

1) J is standing exactly between M and K.

2) J is standing to the right of M.

3) L is standing exactly between I and M.

Taking all together we get,

Thus, the building "I" is standing at the extreme left.

Hence, 'All statements together required to answer the question' is the correct answer.

Question 39

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give answer accordingly.

In a certain code language How the word “Love” is coded?

Statement I : “money love fun common” is coded as “sd fr gr da” and “ransom jump love fun” is coded as “cg nb fr gr”

Statement II : “must ransom burden common” is coded as “tj pl da cg” and “wan fun house” is coded as “qs sw gr”

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given data :

From statement I and II we get,

The code for love is "fr"

If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question is the correct answer.

Question 40

In the following question, some conclusions are given and some statements are given you have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide from which of the statements given in options which make the conclusions given in the statement definitely true.

Conclusions :

I.All Trees being Forest is a possibility.

II.All City being Forest is a possibility.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement - I: All City are Trees . No Trees is Forest . All Branch are Forest

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement - II : All City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest

  3. COption (c)

    Statement - III: Some City are Trees . No Trees is Forest . All Branch are Forest

  4. DOption (d)

    Statements – IV : No City is Forest . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest

  5. EOption (e)

    Statements – V: Some City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . No City is Forest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Statement - II : All City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest

Why this answer is correct

Given data :

Statements :

All City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest

The best possible Venn diagram is shown below - 

Conclusions :

I.All Trees being Forest is a possibility → True(There is no direct not relation between trees and forest)

II.All City being Forest is a possibility → True(There is no direct not relation between trees and forest)

Hence, 'Statement - II : All City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest' is the correct answer.

Question 41

In the following question, some conclusions are given and some statements are given you have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide from which of the statements given in options which make the conclusions given in the statement definitely true.

Conclusions :

I.some pillows are mats.

II.All wells can never be pillows.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement – I: Only a few wells are mats. All pillows are mats.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statements II : Only a few mats are wells. All mats are pillows.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement – III : Some Pillows are wells. some mats are wells.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement – IV : No pillow is mats. No well is pillow.

  5. EOption (e)

    Statement – V : All pillows are mats. All wells are pillows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Statement – I: Only a few wells are mats. All pillows are mats.

Why this answer is correct

Given data :

 Only a few wells are mats. All pillows are mats.

The best possible Venn diagram is shown below - 

Conclusions :

I.some pillows are mats → True (There is a direct relation between pillows and mats)

II.All wells can never be pillows → True(As given Only a few wells are mats so, all part of wells can never be pillows)

Hence, 'Statement – I: Only a few wells are mats. All pillows are mats' is the correct answer.

Question 42

In the following question, some conclusions are given and some statements are given you have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide from which of the statements given in options which make the conclusions given in the statement definitely true.

Conclusions :

I.No Rose is a flower.

II.Some plants are flowers.

  1. AOption (a)

     No Rose is root. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants.

  2. BOption (b)

    All Rose are roots. All roots are flower. No flower is plant.

  3. COption (c)

    All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants.

  4. DOption (d)

    All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. No flower is plant.

  5. EOption (e)

    All Rose are roots. All roots are flower. Some flowers are plants.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants.

Why this answer is correct

Given data :

All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants.

The best possible Venn diagram is shown below -

Conclusions :

I.No Rose is a flower → True( This is the definite case from the above Venn diagram)

II.Some plants are flowers → True( This is the definite case from the above Venn diagram)

Hence, 'Statements  III : All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants' is the correct answer.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

If 'L + M' means 'L is the brother of M'

If 'L × M' means 'L is the mother of M'

If 'L % M' means 'L is the husband of M'

If 'L ÷ M' means 'L is the father of M'

If 'L $ M' means 'L is the daughter of M'

Question 43

How is G related to Y according to the following statement?

G + I % T × K + Y

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Grandfather

  3. COption (c)

    Paternal Uncle

  4. DOption (d)

    Maternal Uncle

  5. EOption (e)

    Father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Paternal Uncle

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

L is
Symbol$+%×÷
MeaningDaughterBrotherhusbandMotherFather
Of M

 

Now draw family tree using following notations:

G + I % T × K + Y → G is the brother of I who is the husband of T who is the mother of K who is the brother of Y.

Clearly, G is the paternal uncle of Y.

Question 44

How is F related to H according to the given statement?

F ÷ U J J V % H

  1. AOption (a)

    Father

  2. BOption (b)

    Son

  3. COption (c)

    Nephew

  4. DOption (d)

    Son-in-law

  5. EOption (e)

    Mother-in-law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Son-in-law

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

L is
Symbol$+%×÷
MeaningDaughterBrotherhusbandMotherFather
Of M

 

Now draw family tree using following notations:

F ÷ U J J V % H → F is the father of U who is the daughter of H who is the daughter of V who is the husband of H.

Clearly, F is the son-in-law of H

Question 45

In which of the following options, N is the granddaughter of R?

  1. AOption (a)

    C + L ÷ N % Q $ R

  2. BOption (b)

    R % Q + L ÷ C % N

  3. COption (c)

    Q × N C+L C + L R

  4. DOption (d)

    C × N + R $ L ÷ Q

  5. EOption (e)

    R + L $ N ÷ C × Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Q × N C+L C + L R

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

L is
Symbol$+%×÷
MeaningDaughterBrotherhusbandMotherFather
Of M

 

Now draw family tree using following notations:

  1. C + L ÷ N % Q $ R → C is the brother of L who is the father of N who is the husband of Q who is the daughter of R. Clearly, N is a male here. Hence, N cannot be the granddaughter in this case.

  2. R % Q + L ÷ C % N → R is the husband of Q who is the brother of L who is the father of C who is the husband of N. Clearly, it is a false case as Q is the wife and the brother at the same time which is not possible.

  3. Q × N C+L C + L R → Q is the mother of N who is the daughter of C who is the brother of L who is the daughter of R.

Clearly, in this case, N is the granddaughter of R.

  1. C × N + R $ L ÷ Q → C is the mother of N who is the brother of R who is the daughter of L who is the father of Q. Clearly, in this case, N is the brother of R.

  2. R + L $ N ÷ C × Q → R is the brother of L who is the daughter of N who is the father of C who is the mother of Q. Clearly, as N is the father of C, implies, N is a male.

Hence, Q × N C+L C + L R represents that N is the granddaughter of R.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (35 questions)

Question 46

Directions

The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

A shopkeeper sold two articles P and Q to a customer. In this transaction, the shopkeeper made neither profit nor loss. Find the cost price of article Q.

I. The profit percentage on article P is 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\% . The loss percent on article Q is 2847%28\frac{4}{7}\%

II. The selling price of the article P and Q are equal.

III. The total selling price of two articles P and Q is ₹ 5000

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    III and either I or II only

  4. DOption (d)

    All the three statements

  5. EOption (e)

    Any of the three statements

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and III

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The shopkeeper made neither profit nor loss

Formula used:

Profit = Selling price – Cost price

Loss = Cost price – Selling price

Profit percentage = (Profit/Cost price) × 100

Loss percentage = (Loss/Cost price) × 100

Calculation:

Statement I:

Let CP1 be the cost price of the first article

Let SP1 be the selling price of the first article

Let CP2 be the cost price of the second article

Let SP2 be the selling price of the second article

SP1 = CP1 × (5/3)

SP2 = CP2 × (5/7)

Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Statement II:

Let SP1 be the selling price of the first article

Let SP2 be the selling price of the second article

SP1 = SP2

Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Statement III:

Let SP1 be the selling price of the first article

Let SP2 be the selling price of the second article

SP1 + SP2 = 5000

Statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question

Considering Statement III

We know that sum of the Cost price of both articles is equal to the sum of the Selling price of the articles, as no profit no loss condition.

SP1 + SP2 = 5000 = CP1 + CP2      ----(1)

Considering Statement I and Statement III

SP1 = CP1 × (5/3)  

SP2 = CP2 × (5/7)

⇒ {(5/3) × CP1} + {(5/7) × CP2} = 5000

⇒ 7CP1 + 3CP2 = 21000      ----(2)

Multiply equn (1) with 3 to equal CP2 in both equations, we get,

⇒ 3CP1 + 3CP2 = 15000      ----(3)

Subtracting equn (3) and equn (2) we get

⇒ 4CP1 = 6000

⇒ CP1 = 1500

∴ Both I and III statements are required to give the answer.

Question 47

Directions

The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

Find the length of Train B.

I. The difference between the speeds of trains A and B is 22 km/h.

II. Two trains A and B running in opposite directions and cross each other in 32 seconds.

III. The length of train A is 192 m and the ratio of the speed of the trains is 20 : 31.

  1. AOption (a)

    The data in statements I and statements II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and III is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    The data in statements I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    The data in all the statements I, II and III is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    The data in all the statements I, II and III together is necessary to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

The data in all the statements I, II and III together is necessary to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/time

Statement (I):

The difference between the speeds of trains A and B is 22 km/h.

If the speed of train A is 'x' km/h.

So, the speed of train B is (x - 22) km/h.

∴ Statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement (II):

Two trains A and B running in opposite directions and cross each other in 32 seconds.

So. total time taken to cross each other is 32 seconds.

∴ Statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement (III):

The length of train A is 192 m 

The ratio of the speed of the trains is 20 : 31.

According to question,

x/(x - 22) = 20/31

So the speed of two train calculated.

So, we get the length of second train.

∴ Statement (III) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

∴ The data in all the statements I, II and III together is necessary to answer the question.

Question 48

Directions

The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

Find the number of days for which the first man was absent more than the third man.

I) Three men worked together for 30 days to do work and all of them remained absent for few days. 

II) First man was absent for 10 days more than the second man.

III) The third man completed 1/3rd of the total work.

  1. AOption (a)

    The data in statements I and statements II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and III is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    The data in all the statements I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    The data in all the statements I, II and III together is necessary to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    The data in statements I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The data in all the statements I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

Using the unitary method.

Statement (I):

Three men worked together for 30 days to do work and all of them remained absent for few days.

One man take time to complete the work is 90 days.

In one man complete the work is 1/90 part.

Statement (I) is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement (II):

First man was absent for 10 days more than the second man. 

Let the time taken by second man is 'x' days

Then time taken by first man is (x - 10)days.

Statement (I)  and (II) is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement (II):

The third man completed 1/3rd of the total work.

It means third man complete 30 part of work.

Remaining work is 60 part 

Which is done by first and second and.

∴ Statement (I), (II) and (III) is not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 49

Directions

In the following question, two statements are numbered as I and II. On solving these statements, we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: When 5 is subtracted from one-third of one-fifth of a number, the result is 1/30 of the same number. Find the number.

Quantity II: A bag contains an equal number of ₹ 50, ₹ 100, and ₹ 200 notes. If total amount in the bag is ₹ 10500. Find the number of notes of each kind.

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Quantity I > Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Quantity I:

Given:

[(1/3) of (1/5) of a number] – 5 = (1/30) of the same number

Calculation:

Let the number be x

[(1/3) × (1/5) × x] – 5 = (1/30) × x

⇒ [(1/15) × x] – 5 = (1/30) × x

⇒ (x – 75)/15 = (1/30) × x

⇒ (x – 75) = (1/2) × x

⇒ 2x – 150 = x

⇒ x = 150

The number is 150.

Quantity II:

Given:

Denomination of notes in the bag are ₹ 50, ₹ 100 and ₹ 200

Calculation:

Let x be the number of notes in each bag

50x + 100x + 200x = 10500

⇒ 350x = 10500

⇒ x = 30

The number of notes in each bag are 30.

∴ We can deduce that Quantity I > Quantity II.

Question 50

A box contains 50 balls, in which 5 are red balls, 6 are green balls, 9 are blue balls, and the remaining are yellow balls.

Quantity I: Probability of picking 2 balls such that one is green and the other one is blue

Quantity II: Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is red

Quantity III: Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is blue

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity III > Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity II > Quantity III > Quantity I

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity III > Quantity II > Quantity I

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I = Quantity II > Quantity III

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I > Quantity III < Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Quantity III > Quantity II > Quantity I

Why this answer is correct

Quantity I:

Probability of picking 2 tiles such that one is green and the other one is blue

⇒ (6 × 9)/50C2

⇒ 54/(50 × 49/2)

⇒ 54/1225

⇒ 0.044

Quantity II:

Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is red

⇒ 1 – 45C3/50C3

⇒ 1 – (45 × 44 × 43/6)/(50 × 49 × 48/6)

⇒ 1 – (14190/19600)

⇒ 541/1960

⇒ 0.276

Quantity III:

Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is blue

⇒ 1 – 41C3/50C3

⇒ 1 – (41 × 40 × 39/6)/(50 × 49 × 48/6)

⇒ 1 – (10660/19600)

⇒ 894/1960

⇒ 0.456

Quantity III > Quantity II > Quantity I

Question 51

Directions

In the following question, two statements are numbered as I and II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: P and Q started a business. After eight months from the start of the business, P left and R joined. The amount invested by Q was twice that invested by P. The amount invested by R was thrice of that invested by P. Q got ₹ 252 as the share from the total annual profit earned. Find the profit share of R.

Quantity II: ₹ 280

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined or Quantity I = Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quantity I < Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Quantity I:

Given:

Q's share of profit = ₹ 252 

Calculation:

Let the Amount invested by P is ₹ P

and the Amount invested by Q is ₹ 2P

So, the amount invested by R is ₹ 3P

P did investment for 8 months

Q did investment for 12 months

R did investment for 4 months

Profit ratio = (P × 8) : (2 × P × 12) : (3 × P × 4)

⇒ Profit ratio = 8P : 24P : 12P

⇒ Profit ratio = 2 : 6 : 3

Q share in terms of ratio = 6

The actual share of Q = 252

Profit share of R = (252/6) × 3 = 126

Quantity II:

₹ 280

∴ Quantity I < Quantity II

Directions: Read the given Pie chart and table carefully and answer the following questions.

There are three types of classes Basic, Regular and Advance are of duration 1 hour, 2 hours and 3 hours respectively.

In the given pie chart the percentage of classes (in hours) taken by four Yoga teachers Sachin, Vishnu, Vaibhav and Aditya are given.

Total time for classes (in a month) = 450 hours

In the following table, the ratio of time spent on the different type of classes taken by a different teacher is given.

Teacher
Name
1 Hour
Class
2 Hour
Class
3 Hour
Class
Aditya542
Vaibhav275
Vishnu126
Sachin683

Question 52

What is the percentage of number of basic classes taken by Vaibhav sir to the number of regular classes taken by Sachin sir?

  1. AOption (a)

    200%

  2. BOption (b)

    75%

  3. COption (c)

    100%

  4. DOption (d)

    150%

  5. EOption (e)

    50%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

50%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Duration of basic, regular and advance classes are 1 hour, 2 hours and 3 hours respectively.

Solution:

Total class hour taken by Vaibhav sir is (28/100) × 450 = 126 hours

Hours spent on the basic class by Vaibhav sir is (2/14) × 126 = 18 Hours

Number of basic classes taken by Vaibhav sir is (18/1) = 18

Total class hour taken by Sachin sir is (34/100) × 450 = 153 hours

Hours spent on the regular class by Sachin sir is (8/17) × 153 = 72 hours

Number of regular classes taken by Sachin sir is (72/2) = 36

Percentage of the number of basic class taken by Vaibhav sir to the number of regular classes taken by Sachin sir = (18/36) × 100 = 50%

∴ Required percentage is 50%

Question 53

How many more regular classes taken by Aditya sir than the advance classes taken by Vaibhav sir?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    6

  5. EOption (e)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The duration of basic, regular and advance classes are 1 hour, 2 hours and 3 hours respectively.

Solution:

The total class hour taken by Vaibhav sir is (28/100) × 450 = 126 hours

Hours spent on the advance class by Vaibhav sir is (5/14) × 126 = 45 Hours

The number of advance classes taken by Vaibhav sir is (45/3) = 15

The total class hour taken by Aditya sir is (22/100) × 450 = 99 hours

Hours spent on the regular class by Aditya sir is (4/11) × 99 = 36 hours

Number of regular classes taken by Aditya sir is 36/2 = 18

The number of more regular classes taken by Aditya sir than the number of advance classes taken by Vaibhav sir = 18 - 15

⇒ 3

∴ 3 more regular classes taken by Aditya sir than the advance classes taken by Vaibhav sir.

Confusion Points

Before calculation of the number of classes, we need to divide the hours taught by each teacher by the duration of the class. 

For Basic Class, we divide by 1

For Regular Class, we divide by 2

For Advance Class, we divide by 3

Question 54

What is the ratio of time spend by Sachin sir and Vishnu sir together in basic level classes to that of the regular level class through the month?

  1. AOption (a)

    13 : 19

  2. BOption (b)

    23 : 33

  3. COption (c)

    31 : 36

  4. DOption (d)

    31 : 44

  5. EOption (e)

    39 : 44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

31 : 44

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Duration of basic, regular and advance classes are 1 hour, 2 hours and 3 hours respectively.

Solution:

Overall time spend by Sachin sir is (34/100) × 450 = 153 hours

Time spent on the basic level classes by Sachin sir = (6/17) × 153 = 54 hours

Time spent on the regular level classes by Sachin sir = (8/17) × 153 = 72 hours

Overall time spent by Vishnu sir is (16/100) × 4500 = 72 hours

Time spent on the basic level classes by Vishnu sir = (1/9) × 72 = 8 hours

Time spent on the regular level classes by Vishnu sir = (2/9) × 16 hours

Time spent by Sachin sir and Vishnu sir in basic level class together is (54 + 8) = 62 hours

Time spent by Sachin sir and Vishnu sir in regular level class together is (72 + 16) = 88 hours

The required ratio is 62 : 88

⇒ 31 : 44

∴ The required ratio of time spend by Sachin sir and Vishnu sir together in basic level classes to that of the regular level class through the month is 31 : 44.

Question 55

Find the ratio of the number of basic class of Vaibhav sir to the number of advance classes taken by Vishnu sir in the given period of time.

  1. AOption (a)

    8 : 9

  2. BOption (b)

    3 : 4

  3. COption (c)

    9 : 8

  4. DOption (d)

    5 : 6

  5. EOption (e)

    9 : 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9 : 8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total number of class hour = 450 hours

Calculation:

The total class was taken by Vaibhav sir (28/100) × 450 = 126 hour

The ratio of 1 hour, 2 hours and 3 hours class taken by Vaibhav sir is 2 : 7 : 5

Time spend on the basic class by Vaibhav sir is (2/14) × 126 = 18

Number of basic classes taken by Vaibhav sir is 18/1 = 18

The total class was taken by Vishnu sir (16/100) × 450 = 72 hours

The ratio of 1 hour, 2 hours and 3 hours class taken by Vishnu sir is 1 : 2 : 6

Time spend on the advance class by Vishnu sir is (6/9) × 72 = 48 hours

Number of the advance class by Vishnu sir is 48/3 = 16 

The ratio of the number of the basic class of Vaibhav sir to the number of advance classes taken by Vishnu sir is 18 : 16 = 9 : 8

∴ The ratio of the number of the basic class of Vaibhav sir to the number of advance classes taken by Vishnu sir is 9 : 8

Confusion Points

Before calculation of the number of classes, we need to divide the hours taught by each teacher by the duration of the class. 

For Basic Class, we divide by 1

For Regular Class, we divide by 2

For Advance Class, we divide by 3

Direction: Go through the passage and line graph given below and answer the question based on it.

The line graph given below shows the number of orders placed (in thousands) and orders delivered (in thousands) during the week i.e from Monday to Saturday. The number of orders delivered was returned by some of the customers due to various reasons on the next day of the order delivered. 

The percentage of orders returned is mentioned in the table below. 

The returned ordered percentage represents the percentage of orders returned from the order delivered on the previous day. i.e the number of orders returned on Tuesday were returned from the order delivered on Monday and so on. Assuming that no orders were delivered and returned on Sunday. Items delivered on Saturday will return on Monday. 

DaysReturned
Monday15%
Tuesday20%
Wednesday27%
Thursday13%
Friday21%
Saturday16%

Question 56

The order placed and delivered on Wednesday is what approximate percentage of the order placed and returned on Friday.

  1. AOption (a)

    230%

  2. BOption (b)

    209%

  3. COption (c)

    186%

  4. DOption (d)

    309%

  5. EOption (e)

    150%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

186%

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part value/Original value) × 100

Calculation: 

DaysOrders placed (in thousands)Orders Delivered (in thousands)% of orders returnedOrders Returned (in thousands)
Monday57514920%29.8
Tuesday37522527%60.75
Wednesday40022313%28.99
Thursday75028321%59.43
Friday27514716%23.52
Saturday32518815%28.2

Orders placed and delivered on Wednesday

⇒ 400 + 223 = 623

Orders placed and returned on Friday

⇒ 275 + 59.43

⇒ 334.43

Percentage

⇒ (623/334.43) × 100

⇒ 186.70% ≈ 186%

∴ The approximate percentage is 186%.

Question 57

In how many days orders delivered during the week is less than the average of orders delivered during the week.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    6

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

3

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Average = Sum of values/number of values

Calculation:

DaysOrders placed (in thousands)Orders Delivered (in thousands)% of orders returnedOrders Returned (in thousands)
Monday57514920%29.8
Tuesday37522527%60.75
Wednesday40022313%28.99
Thursday75028321%59.43
Friday27514716%23.52
Saturday32518815%28.2

Average of orders delivered on all days

⇒ (149 + 225 + 223 + 283 + 147 + 188)/6

⇒ 202.5

By comparing the data given in the table

The order delivered on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday are more than the Average of orders delivered.

⇒ 3

∴ 3

Question 58

What is the ratio of orders that were delivered but not returned on Monday to the ratio of orders that were delivered but not returned on Thursday.

  1. AOption (a)

    23455 ∶ 18000

  2. BOption (b)

    22357 ∶ 11920

  3. COption (c)

    11920 : 22357

  4. DOption (d)

    22357 ∶ 18000

  5. EOption (e)

    18000 ∶ 23455

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11920 : 22357

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Orders delivered on Monday = 149

Order delivered on Thursday = 283

Order returned percentage from Monday Orders delivered = 20%

Order returned percentage from Thursday Orders delivered = 21%

Calculation:

DaysOrders placed (in thousands)Orders Delivered (in thousands)% of orders returnedOrders Returned (in thousands)
Monday57514920%29.8
Tuesday37522527%60.75
Wednesday40022313%28.99
Thursday75028321%59.43
Friday27514716%23.52
Saturday32518815%28.2

Orders delivered and not returned on Monday

⇒ 149 - 29.8

⇒ 119.2

All data is in thousands

⇒ 119.2 × 1000 = 119200

Orders delivered and not returned on Thursday

⇒ 283 - 59.43

⇒ 223.57

All data is in thousands

⇒ 223.57 × 1000 = 223570

Ratio = 119200 : 223570

⇒ 11920 : 22357

∴ 11920 : 22357

Question 59

What is the ratio of difference of order placed and order returned on Tuesday to the difference of order placed and order returned on Friday.

  1. AOption (a)

    25148 ∶ 32450

  2. BOption (b)

    32450 ∶ 26735

  3. COption (c)

    34520 ∶ 25148

  4. DOption (d)

    34520 ∶ 21557

  5. EOption (e)

    26735 ∶ 32450

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

34520 ∶ 21557

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

DaysOrders placed (in thousands)Orders Delivered (in thousands)% of orders returnedOrders Returned (in thousands)
Monday57514920%29.8
Tuesday37522527%60.75
Wednesday40022313%28.99
Thursday75028321%59.43
Friday27514716%23.52
Saturday32518815%28.2

The difference in the order placed and returned on Tuesday = (375 - 29.8) thousand = 345200

The difference in the order placed and returned on Friday = (275 - 59.43) thousand = 215570

Required ratio = 345200 ∶ 215570

∴ 34520 ∶ 21557

Question 60

Find the average number of items returned on Tuesday and Wednesday.

  1. AOption (a)

    42860

  2. BOption (b)

    44870

  3. COption (c)

    45275

  4. DOption (d)

    52300

  5. EOption (e)

    48360

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

45275

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

DaysOrders placed (in thousands)Orders Delivered (in thousands)% of orders returnedOrders Returned (in thousands)
Monday57514920%29.8
Tuesday37522527%60.75
Wednesday40022313%28.99
Thursday75028321%59.43
Friday27514716%23.52
Saturday32518815%28.2

Total items returned on Tuesday and Wednesday = (60.75 + 28.99) thousand = 89740

Average of items returned on Tuesday and Wednesday = 89740/2 = 44870

∴ 44870

Question 61

From the following options which day has the highest number of returned items.

  1. AOption (a)

    Monday

  2. BOption (b)

    Tuesday

  3. COption (c)

    Wednesday

  4. DOption (d)

    Thursday

  5. EOption (e)

    Friday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wednesday

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

DaysOrders placed (in thousands)Orders Delivered (in thousands)% of orders returnedOrders Returned (in thousands)
Monday57514920%29.8
Tuesday37522527%60.75
Wednesday40022313%28.99
Thursday75028321%59.43
Friday27514716%23.52
Saturday32518815%28.2

Number of orders returned on Wednesday > Friday > Tuesday > Thursday > Monday > Saturday

∴ From the options given maximum number of orders were returned on Wednesday

Read the following lines and answer the questions that follow: -

There are a total of 5 different writers – A, B, C, D and E. They write their books and distribute them among their friends. It is also known that none of these friends are mutual with respect to each other. Also the following information is available:

(i) A has a total of 7 friends. Each of his friends has 4 friends.

(ii) B has a total of 5 friends. Each of his friends has 3 friends.

(iii) C has total of 4 friends. Each of his friends has 5 friends.

(iv) D has total of 6 friends. Each of his friends has 2 friends.

(v) E has total of 3 friends. Each of his friends has 5 friends.

Question 62

If E has written 300 books. These books are distributed equally among his respective friends by him. Each of his friend further distributes equal amount of books to his/her friend. Also it is known that among his friends, 1 is male and the remaining are females. Now, if the male friend of E can distribute a maximum of 60 books to his female friends, find the maximum possible number of female friends of the male friend of E.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total number of books written by E = 300

Number of friends of E = 3

Number of male friends of E = 1

Number of friends of each of the friends of E = 5

Calculation:

Number of book distributed to each friend of E = 300/3 = 100

Hence, Number of book received by the only male friend of E =  100

Also, it is given that,

Male friend of E can equally distribute a maximum of 60 books to his female friends.

So, the maximum possible number of female friends of E = total number of male friends of E

Hence,  the maximum possible number of female friends of the male friend of E = 5

∴  The maximum possible number of female friends of the male friend of E is 5

Mistake Points Common Wrong Logic

  1. Question asked a maximum female friend of the male friend of E.

Not the maximum female friend of E. Hence, the answer should be 3

 

  1. 300/3 = 100 then 100/5 is equal to 20.

Now the maximum number of books that can be given to a female friend is 60,

So 60/20 which is equal to 3

Both the above logic are wrong.

it has been mentioned in the question that there are certain number of friends for a particular friend of A, B, C, D and E each. Hence in the solution; we divide the total number of friends of a person by the maximum of number of friends that person has to obtain the required answer.

Question 63

If E has written 300 books. These books are distributed equally among his respective friends by him. Each of his friend further distributes equal amount of books to his/her friend. Also it is known that among his friends, 1 is male and the remaining are females. In how many ways female friends of E can distribute 1 book to their friends more than that by the male friends?

  1. AOption (a)

    100

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    130

  4. DOption (d)

    115

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120

Why this answer is correct

Number of ways 1 female can distribute the books her 5 friends = 5!

So, Number of ways 2 females can distribute the books their friends = 2 × 5!

Number of ways male can distribute 1 book to his 5 friends = 5!

Difference between number of ways = (2 × 5!) - 5!

⇒ 5!

⇒ 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1

⇒ 120 ways

∴ In 120 ways female friends of E can distribute 1 book to their friends more than that by the male friends.

Question 64

If C has written 400 books, and D has written 600 books. These books are distributed equally among their respective friends by both of them. The friends of C do not distribute these books to their respective friends but the friends of D distributed the books they received among their respective friends. What will be the average of the number of books received by each of the friends of C and those received by each of the friend of the friends of D?

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    80

  3. COption (c)

    65

  4. DOption (d)

    100

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

75

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of books written by C = 400

Number of books written by D = 600

Number of friends of C = 4

Number of friends of D = 6

Number of friends of each friend of C = 5

Number of friends of each friend of D = 2

Calculation:

Number of books received by each friend of C = 400/4 = 100

Number of books received by each friend of D = 600/6 = 100

When each friend of D distributes the book equally to their respective friends, 

Number of books received by each friend of the friends of D = 100/2 = 50

So, the required average = (100 + 50)/2 = 75

∴ The average of the number of books received by each of the friends of C and those received by each of the friend of the friends of D is 75

Question 65

If A has written 700 books, and B has written 450 books. These books are distributed equally among their respective friends by both of them. Then their friends also distributed the books they received among their respective friends. By how much percentage the number of books received by the friends of the friends of B more than those received by the friends of the friends of A?

  1. AOption (a)

    10%

  2. BOption (b)

    15%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of books written by A = 700

Number of books written by B = 450

Number of friends of A = 7

Number of friends of B = 5

Number of friends of each friend of A = 4

Number of friends of each friend of B = 3

Calculation:

Number of books received by each friend of A = 700/7 = 100

Number of books received by each friend of the friend of A = 100/4 = 25

Number of books received by each friend of B = 450/5 = 90

Number of books received by each friend of the friend of B = 90/3 = 30

Hence, the required percentage = [(30 – 25)/25] × 100 = 20%

∴ The number of books received by the friends of the friends of B is more than those received by the friends of the friends of A by 20%

Question 66

In how many ways the friends of A exchange their 1 book with each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    28

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

28

Why this answer is correct

Number of friends of A = 7

Number of friends of each of the friends of A = 4

So, the required number of ways = 7 × 4 = 28

∴ The number of ways in which the friends of A exchange their 1 book with each other is 28

Directions: Read the given table carefully and answer the following questions.

Given table shows the Quantity of milk distributed by milkman and the quantity of milk and water added and the quantity left after adding water and milk. Some values are missing here.

A milkman have 'X' litre of milk and water mixture in the ratio 5 ∶ 1. He gives milk to three persons Amit, Gareema and Madhu.

PersonsQuantity given to Client (in L)Quantity of milk added (in L)Quantity of water added (in L)Quantity left after adding water and milk (in L)
Amit120800560
Gareemay6010M
Madhu2003rrz

 

Data calculated from solving one part can be used in the calculation of the other part.

Question 67

If the cost of 1 litre mixture is Rs.45, a discount of 6.66% is given to Amit and a discount of 11.11% is given to Madhu, then money given by Amit is what percentage less then the money given by Madhu

  1. AOption (a)

    35%

  2. BOption (b)

    37%

  3. COption (c)

    63%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

  5. EOption (e)

    45%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

37%

Why this answer is correct

Discount of 6.66% is given to Amit

∴ Money given by Amit for 1 litre of milk = 45 × (14/15) = Rs.42

Total money given by Amit = 120 × 42 = Rs.5040

Discount of 11.11% is given to Madhu

∴ Money given by Madhu for 1 litre of milk = 45 × (8/9) = Rs.40

Total money given by Madhu = 200 × 40 = Rs.8000

∴ Required percentage = {(8000 – 5040)/8000} × 100 = 37%

∴ The money given by Amit is 37% less than that of Madhu

Question 68

If milkman after giving milk to another person Mahesh and adding milk and water in the ratio 7 ∶ 6, left with 470 liters of mixture. The quantity of milk added is 10 litres more than the water. What quantity of mixture did he give to Mahesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    50 litre

  2. BOption (b)

    100 litre

  3. COption (c)

    30 litre 

  4. DOption (d)

    45 litre

  5. EOption (e)

    110 litre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

50 litre

Why this answer is correct

Milkman have milk after giving milk to Madhu (z) = 390 

Ratio of milk and water added to the mixture = 7 ∶ 6

Quantity of milk added is 10 litres more than the water added

∴ 7x – 6x = 10

⇒ x = 10

∴ Quantity of milk added = 7 × 10 = 70 litre

Quantity of water added = 6 × 10 = 60 litre

Let, Quantity of milk given to Mahesh = y

So,

⇒ 390 - y + 70 + 60 = 470

⇒ Quantity of milk given to Mahesh = 50 litres

Question 69

If value of r is equal to 50, then the quantity of water added is what percentage of quantity of milk added?

  1. AOption (a)

    34.67%

  2. BOption (b)

    5.89%

  3. COption (c)

    20.69%

  4. DOption (d)

    58.75%

  5. EOption (e)

    12%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20.69%

Why this answer is correct

Quantity of milk added by the milkman = 80 + 60 + 3 × 50 = 290 litres

Quantity of water added by the milkman = 0 + 10 + 50 = 60 litres

∴ Required percentage = (60/290) × 100 = 20.69%

∴ The quantity of water added is 20.69% of quantity of milk added by the milkman

Question 70

If value of z is 65% value of X, then find value of r.

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    45

  5. EOption (e)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25

Why this answer is correct

The ratio of milk and water in the mixture = 5 ∶ 1

⇒ Let the quantity of milk and water be 5x and x respectively

∴ Initial concentration with the milkman (X) = 5x + x = 6x

Now, 120 litre of mixture is given to Amit and 80 litre of pure milk is added such that mixture left with milkman is 560 liter

⇒ 6x – 120 + 80 = 560

⇒ 6x = 600 

⇒ x = 100

∴ Initial concentration with the milkman (X) = 6 × 100 = 600 litres

As quantity of mixture initially he had is 600 litres i.e. X = 600 

∴ z = (65/100) × 600 = 390

200 litre of mixture is given to Madhu and quantity of milk and water added to the remaining mixture is 3r and r respectively

when 200 l is given to Madhu, the milk left with milkman is 290, then water and milk will be added to match with the final mixture.

∴ 490 – 200 + 3 r + r = 390

⇒ 290 + 4r = 390

⇒ 4r = 100

⇒ r = 25

∴ Value of r is 25

Question 71

If y is equal to 25% of the mixture of milk and water left with the milkman and ratio of milk and water in M is 9 ∶ 1. What is the quantity of Milk in the mixture M?

  1. AOption (a)

    450 litre

  2. BOption (b)

    441 litre

  3. COption (c)

    360 litre

  4. DOption (d)

    720 litre

  5. EOption (e)

    423 litre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

441 litre

Why this answer is correct

The ratio of milk and water in the mixture = 5 ∶ 1

⇒ Let the quantity of milk and water be 5x and x respectively

∴ Initial concentration with the milkman (X) = 5x + x = 6x

Now, 120 litre of mixture is given to Amit and 80 litre of pure milk is added such that mixture left with milkman is 560 litre

According to question 

⇒ y = (25/100) × 560 = 140 

∴ Quantity of milk given to Gareema = 140 litres

Remaining Mixture = 560 - 140 = 420 litres

Now, 60 litres of milk and 10 lire water is added t make mixture M

∴ M = 420 + 60 + 10 = 490

Ratio of milk and water in M = 9 ∶ 1

∴ Quantity of Milk in mixture M = (9/10) × 490 = 441 litres

Question 72

Find the value of 'X'.

  1. AOption (a)

    1200

  2. BOption (b)

    720

  3. COption (c)

    600

  4. DOption (d)

    360

  5. EOption (e)

    300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

600

Why this answer is correct

The ratio of milk and water in the mixture = 5 ∶ 1

⇒ Let the quantity of milk and water be 5x and x respectively

∴ Initial concentration with the milkman (X) = 5x + x = 6x

Now, 120 litre of mixture is given to Amit and 80 litre of pure milk is added such that mixture left with ilkman is 560 litre

⇒ 6x – 120 + 80 = 560

⇒ 6x = 600 

⇒ x = 100

∴ Initial concentration with the milkman (X) = 6 × 100 = 600 litres

Directions: In a football tournament. There are four football teams Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi, and Kolkata each will play against each other Two times.

  1. One match will be in-home and another match will be away.
  2. Each team will get 2 game points when they hit a goal and they will lose 1 game point when they concede a goal.
  3. A team will get 5 points in winning a game. To qualify for finals a team should get above 10 points.

Note:

(i) Team Chennai won 3 matches Mumbai won 5 matches and Delhi and Kolkata have won the remaining matches equally.

(ii) Two match between Kolkata and Delhi is drawn due to the equal number of goals.

Question 73

The average of Table points of Mumbai and Chennai is how much percentage of Chennai table points?

  1. AOption (a)

    100/3%

  2. BOption (b)

    200/3%

  3. COption (c)

    50/3%

  4. DOption (d)

    400/3%

  5. EOption (e)

    250/3%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

400/3%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mumbai won = 5 matches

Chennai won = 3 matches

Winning game point = 5 point

Formula used:

Average = sum of observation/total number of observation 

Calculation:

Table points of chennai = 3 × 5 = 15 points

Table points of Mumbai = 5 × 5 = 25 points 

Average of chennai and Mumbai = (15 + 25)/2 = 20 points

percentage of average = (20/15) × 100 = (400/3)%

∴ The average of Table points of Mumbai and Chennai is (400/3)% of  Chennai table points

Question 74

Find the ratio of the winning percentage of Mumbai and Delhi to the losing percentage of Chennai and Kolkata.

(Note : reference for winning/losing percentage is Total number of matches played)

  1. AOption (a)

    7 : 6

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 1

  3. COption (c)

    3 : 4

  4. DOption (d)

    4 : 5

  5. EOption (e)

    2 : 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 : 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of matches Mumbai won = 5

Number of matches Chennai won = 3

Number of matches drawn = 2

Calculation:

Let us take the four teams to be A, B, C, D

Matches played at home = A-B, B-C, C-D, D-A, A-C, B-D

Number of matches played in home = 6 

Total number of matches played = 12

Total matches won by Mumbai and Chennai = 5 + 3 = 8 matches 

Number of matches drawn = 2 

Total matches won by Kolkata and Delhi = 12 - ( 8 + 2) = 2 matches

Kolkata and Delhi have won an equal number of matches = 2/2 = 1

Number of  match won by Mumbai and Delhi = 5 + 1 = 6 matches

winning percentage of Mumbai and Delhi = (6/12) × 100 = 50%      ----(i)

Total matches played in tournament by A = 6 matches 

each team plays 6 matches in the tournament 

Chennai loss =  Total matches - won  = 6 - 3 ⇒  3 matches 

Kolkata loss = Total matches - (won + drawn) = 6 - 3 = 3 matches 

Number of matches lost by Chennai and Kolkata  = 3 + 3 = 6 matches 

Losing percentage of Chennai and Kolkata = (6/12) × 100 = 50%      ----(ii)

From (i) and (ii)

The ratio of win and loss = 50 : 50 = 1 : 1

The ratio of the winning percentage of Mumbai and Delhi to the losing percentage of Chennai and Kolkata is 1 : 1

Question 75

What is the sum of table points of Kolkata and Delhi and sum of the matches were won by them both?

  1. AOption (a)

    10 points, 2 matches

  2. BOption (b)

    15 points , 3 matches

  3. COption (c)

    20 points, 4 matches

  4. DOption (d)

    25 points ,5 matches

  5. EOption (e)

    15 points, 4 matches

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10 points, 2 matches

Why this answer is correct

Given :

Number of matches drawn between Kolkata and Delhi = 2 matches

Delhi and Kolkata have won matches equally 

Calculation:

Let us take the four teams to be A, B, C, D

Matches played at home = A-B, B-C, C-D, D-A, A-C, B-D

Number of matches played in home = 6 

Total number of matches played = 12 

Total matches won by Mumbai and Chennai = 5 + 3 = 8 

Number of matches drawn = 2 

Total matches won by Kolkata and Delhi = 12 - ( 8 + 2) = 2

Sum of the matches won by them both = 2

the sum of table points of Kolkata and Delhi  = 5 × 2 = 10 points

∴ The sum of table points of Kolkata and Delhi  is 10 points and the sum of the matches were won by them both is 2 matches

Question 76

In a match, Chennai has scored 2 goals more than Delhi. The game point of Chennai is 7 and Delhi is 1. What is the average of the two team goals?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 

  3. COption (c)

    3 

  4. DOption (d)

    4 

  5. EOption (e)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Game point of Chennai = 7 points

game point of Delhi = 1 point

The difference in goal between Delhi and Chennai = 2 goals 

Game points for hitting a goal = 2 points

Game points for conceding a goal = - 1 point

Formula Used:

average = sum of observations/number of observations

Calculation:

Goals scored by Delhi = x 

Goals scored by chennai = x + 2  

Game points scored by Delhi = 2x - [(x + 2) × 1] = 1  

2x - [(x + 2) × 1] = 1

x - 2 = 1

x = 3 goals 

Goals scored by chennai = 3 + 2 = 5 goals 

The average of goals  = (3 + 5)/2 = 4 goals 

The average of the two team goals is 4

Question 77

In a match, Mumbai won Delhi by the difference of 6 points and Delhi got 2 points to find the ratio of goals scored by Mumbai and Delhi.

  1. AOption (a)

    3 : 2

  2. BOption (b)

    9 : 4

  3. COption (c)

    8: 3

  4. DOption (d)

    4 : 5

  5. EOption (e)

    1 : 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3 : 2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mumbai and Delhi game points difference = 6 points 

Delhi game points = 2 points

Game points for hitting a goal = 2 points 

Game points for conceding a goal = -1 point

Calculation:

Let the number of goals by Delhi and Mumbai  be x and y  

Mumbai game points =  2 + 6 = 8 points 

Difference between the game points = 6 points 

Mumbai Game points = 2y - x = 8       ----(i)

Delhi game points = 2x - y = 2       ----(ii)

multiplying equation (i) by 2

4y - 2x = 16      ----(iii)

adding with equation (ii) and (iii)

(4y - 2x) + (2x - y) = 16 + 2

3y = 18 

y = 6 

then substitute y value in equation (i)

x = 4

the ratio of goals = 6 : 4 = 3 : 2

∴ The ratio of goals scored by Mumbai and Delhi is 3 : 2

Question 78

What is the total number of matches played in the tournament? and how many matches were played by each team?

  1. AOption (a)

    14 & 7

  2. BOption (b)

    18 & 9

  3. COption (c)

    8 & 4

  4. DOption (d)

    12 & 6

  5. EOption (e)

    13 & 7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12 & 6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total number of teams = 4 

Number of times each team play against each other = 2 times 

Calculation:

Let us take the four teams to be A, B, C, D

Matches played at home = A-B, B-C, C-D, D-A, A-C, B-D      ----(i)

Total matches at home  = 6 matches 

Total matches at away = 6 matches 

Total number of matches played in tournament = 12 matches 

From (i)

Matches played by A in-home = 3 matches 

Matches played by A in away  = 3 matches 

Total matches played in tournament by A = 6 matches 

similarly, 6 matches will be played by each team

 ∴ The total number of matches played in the tournament is 12 matches and 6 matches were played by each team

Question 79

Directions

In the given series A, B, C, D are positive integers that are given in terms of x, y, and z which are also positive integers

Number series:   

?, A, B, C, D

Set - 1 :

x2 – 10x + 21 = 0(smaller root)

y2 – 33y + 266 = 0(greater root)    

z = 9x – 1

Set - 2 :

A = (x + 1)2 + y      

B = (x + 2)2 + z   

C = (x + 6)2 + 2  

D = (x + 9)2 + 3 

What will come in place of '?' in the given number series:-

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    29

  4. DOption (d)

    35

  5. EOption (e)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

27

Why this answer is correct

Set - 1 : Solving independently for x, y and z.

x2 – 10x + 21 = 0

⇒ x2 – 3x – 7x + 21 = 0

⇒ x(x – 3) – 7(x – 3) = 0

⇒ (x – 3) (x – 7) = 0

⇒ x = 3,7

∴ Taking x = 3 ( smaller root)

y2 – 33y + 266 = 0

⇒ y2 – 19y – 14y + 266 = 0

⇒ y(y – 19) – 14(y – 19) = 0 

⇒ (y – 19) (y – 14) = 0

⇒ y = 14, 19

∴ y = 19 (greater value)

z = 9x – 1

⇒ z = 9 × 3 – 1

⇒ z = 27 – 1

⇒ z = 26 

∴ z = 26

Set - 2 : Solving independently for A, B, C and D.

A = (x + 1)2 + y   

⇒ A = (3 + 1)2 + 19

⇒ A = 35

B = (x + 2)2 + z 

⇒ B = (3 + 2)2 + 26

⇒ B = 25 + 26

⇒ B = 51

 C = (x + 6)2 + 2  

⇒ C = (3 + 6)2 + 2

⇒ C = 81 + 2

⇒ C = 83

D = (x + 9)2 + 3 

⇒ D = (3 + 9)2 + 3

⇒ D = 144 + 3

⇒ D = 147

∴ The above series can be written as

?, 35, 51, 83, 147

Series pattern:

35 – ? = ___

51 – 35 = 16

83 – 51 = 32

147 – 83 = 64

i.e 16 × 2 = 32, 32 × 2 = 64

∴ 16/2 = 8

∵ 35 – ? = 8

? = 35 – 8

∴​ ? = 27

Question 80

Directions

In the given series a, b, c, d are positive integers that are given in terms of x, y, and any one of them.

20, a, b, c, d, 65

Set - 1.

x = HCF (2, 7)

y = z

z2 – 8z + 12 = 0 (smaller root)

Set - 2.

(a – 20) = x2 + y2

b = (x + 1)2 + y + a + 1

c = (x + 2)2 + y + b – 2

d = (x + 1)2 + y + c + 2

Find the value of "c" in given number series.

  1. AOption (a)

    41

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    51

  5. EOption (e)

    38

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

41

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Set -1 : Solving independently for x, y and z.

x = HCF(2, 7) 

Factors of 2 = 1, 2

Factors of 7 = 1,7

∵ The highest common factor is 1

∴ x = 1

z2 – 8z + 12 = 0

⇒ z2 – 6z – 2z + 12 = 0

⇒ z(z – 6) – 2(z – 6) = 0

⇒ (z – 6) (z – 2) = 0

⇒ z = 6, 2 

Taking z = 2 (smaller root) (∵ y = z)

∴ z = 2

∴ y = 2

Set -2 : Solving independently for a, b and c.

(a – 20) = x2 + y2

⇒ a – 20 = 12 + 22 

⇒ a = 25

b = (x + 1)2 + y + a + 1

⇒ b = (1 + 1)2 + 2 + 25 + 1

⇒ b = 32

c = (x + 2)2 + y + b – 2

⇒ c = (1 + 2)2 + 2 + 32 – 2

⇒ c = 41

∴ The value of c is 41

General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness (40 questions)

Question 81

In QIP, I stands for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Investment

  2. BOption (b)

    Integrated

  3. COption (c)

    Introduction

  4. DOption (d)

    Institutional

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Institutional

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Institutional.

Key Points

  • Qualified institutional placement (QIP) is simply the means whereby a listed company can issue equity shares, fully and partly convertible debentures, or any securities other than warrants which are convertible to equity shares to a Qualified Institutional Buyer (QIB).
  • A qualified institutional placement (QIP) is, at its core, a way for listed companies to raise capital, without having to submit legal paperwork to market regulators. It is common in India and other southeast Asian countries. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) created the rule to avoid the dependence of companies on foreign capital resources.
  • QIPs are helpful for a couple of reasons. Their use saves time as the issuance of QIPs and the access to capital is far quicker than through an FPO. The speed is because QIPs have far fewer legal rules and regulations to follow, making them much more cost-efficient. Further, there are fewer legal fees, and there is no cost of listing overseas.

Question 82

Who among the following became the first women match official, in men's Test, taking up the role of fourth umpire in SCG test?

  1. AOption (a)

    Claire Polosak

  2. BOption (b)

    Kathy Cross

  3. COption (c)

    Sue Redfern

  4. DOption (d)

    Jacqueline Williams

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Claire Polosak

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Claire Polosak.

Key Points

  • Australia's Claire Polosak became the first female match official in men's Test match.
  • She took up the fourth umpire's role in the Sydney Test.
  • She is 32-year-old from New South Wales.
  • She earned the distinction of being the first woman on-field umpire in a men's ODI match during ICC's Division 2 league between Namibia and Oman played at the Windhoek in 2019.

Additional Information

  • Kathy Cross: The first woman on the ICC Umpire’s Panel
  • First stood in the 2000 Women’s World Cup.
  • Sue Redfern: An English cricket umpire and former player.
  • She played for the England women's team between 1995 and 1999, including at the 1997 World Cup.
  • Jacqueline Williams: Become the first woman to officiate as the third umpire in an ICC men’s tournament in 2016.

Question 83

Who among the following was the 3rd man to walk in the moon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Charles P. (Pete) Conrad

  2. BOption (b)

    Edwin Aldrin

  3. COption (c)

    Michael Collins

  4. DOption (d)

    Neil Armstrong

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Charles P. (Pete) Conrad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Charles P. (Pete) Conrad

  • Charles "Pete" Conrad, was the third man to walk on the moon.
  • Conrad died after a motorcycle accident in Ojai, California, in 1999.

Key Points

  • Neil Armstrong became the first man to walk on the moon.
  • Neil Alden Armstrong was the first person to step on the lunar surface. He took the first step to the lunar surface on 20 July 1969.
  • Buzz Aldrin became the second person to land on the moon.
  • Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin went to the lunar surface in an expedition called Apollo 11.

Additional Information 

  • On 20 July 1969 Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin landed on the moon.
  • Neil Armstrong was Commander of Apollo 11.
  • The Mission was called Apollo 11.
  • Yuri Gagarin was the first person to go to space in the world.
  • Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian to go into space.

Question 84

Who is the author of the book ‘Dreams From My Father’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Olivia Laing

  2. BOption (b)

    Navin Chawla

  3. COption (c)

    Charles Darwin

  4. DOption (d)

    Barack Obama

  5. EOption (e)

    Donald Trump

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Barack Obama

Why this answer is correct

  • Barack Obama has authored a book -‘Dreams From My Father’. This book is a diary of events which explores his early life.
  • Mr Obama was 44th President of the United States of America and 1st Afro-American to be elected as President of the USA.
  • His Presidential term was from the year 2009 to 2017. He represented the Democratic Party of the USA.
  • Wife of Mr Barack Obama, Michelle Obama has authored the following books: 1. American Grown 2.Becoming
  • Currently, Mr Joe Biden is serving as 46th President of the USA. He is a member of the Democratic Party.
AuthorBooks
Olivia Laing1. To the Rive 2. The Trip to Echo Spring 3. The Lonely City
Navin ChawlaEvery Vote Counts: The Story of India's Elections
Charles Darwin1. On the Origin of Species 2. The Formation of Vegetable Mould Through the Action of Worms
Barack Obama1. The Audacity of Hope 2. Of Thee I Sing 3. Change We Can Believe In

Question 85

In Aug 2020, who among the following has been selected as the next chairman of public sector steel major Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anil Kumar Chaudhary

  2. BOption (b)

    Soma Mondal

  3. COption (c)

    Vijoy Kumar Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Narendra Kumar Taneja

  5. EOption (e)

    Anirban Dasgupta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Soma Mondal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Soma Mondal

  • Soma Mondal has been selected by the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) as the next chairman of public sector steel major Steel Authority of India Limited.
  • She is currently Director (Commercial) of SAIL.
  • Her appointment is subject to approval from the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
  • If the ACC gives its approval, she will make history with the rare distinction of being the first-ever woman chairperson of the country's largest steel company.
  • SAIL's current chairman Anil Chaudhary took charge in September 2018 and is due to retire at the end of this year.

Question 86

Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mustard 

  2. BOption (b)

    Jowar

  3. COption (c)

    Paddy

  4. DOption (d)

    Soyabean

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mustard 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mustard.

Important Points

  • The agricultural crop year in India is from July to June.
  • The Indian cropping season is classified into two main seasons-(i) Kharif and (ii) Rabi based on the monsoon.
  • The kharif cropping season is from July – October during the south-west monsoon and the Rabi cropping season is from October-March (winter).
  • The crops grown between March and June are summer crops.
  • Pakistan and Bangladesh are two other countries that are using the term ‘kharif’ and ‘rabi’ to describe their cropping patterns.
  • The terms ‘kharif’ and ‘rabi’ originate from the Arabic language where Kharif means autumn and Rabi means spring.

Key Points 

Cropping SeasonsCrops
Kharifrice/paddy, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut, cotton, soyabean, jowar etc
Rabiwheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard  etc

Question 87

The Reserve Bank of India has revised the limit for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) from 1.20 lakh crore to ________ lakh crore.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.50

  2. BOption (b)

    1.75

  3. COption (c)

    2.00

  4. DOption (d)

    2.50

  5. EOption (e)

    1.95

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2.00

Why this answer is correct

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in consultation with the Government of India, has revised the limit for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) for the remaining part of the first half of FY21 (April 2020 to September 2020) to ₹2-lakh crore.
  • On March 31, the WMA limit for the first half of FY21(April 2020 to September 2020) was upped to ₹1.20-lakh crore against ₹75,000 crore in the year-ago period.
  • The hike in the limit comes in the wake of expectation that the Central government will step up expenditure on the social sector, including health and sanitation, following the outbreak of the pandemic.
  • The central bank provides financial accommodation to the government to tide over temporary mismatches in the cash flow of its receipts and payments as WMA.
  • This is intended to provide the government with a buffer for carrying on its vital activities and regular financial operations.
  • The Way and Means Advances scheme was introduced in 1997.

Question 88

The government is set to hire which of the following as advisers to help Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) prepare for an initial public offering (IPO)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu India Ltd.

  2. BOption (b)

    Goldman Sachs.

  3. COption (c)

    Spark Capital Ltd.

  4. DOption (d)

    Morgan Stanley

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu India Ltd.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu India Ltd. 

Key Points

  • The government is set to hire Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu India Ltd. and SBI Capital Markets Ltd for the LIC's initial public offering (IPO).
  • The advisers will help evaluate the capital structure of India’s biggest insurer as well as aid the company in reworking its financial statement.
  • Moreover, the government will soon invite bid seeking firms to value LIC..
  • Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, during her Budget 2020-21 speech, had said that the government proposed to sell a part of its holding in LIC by way of IPO.

Question 89

PM Modi laid the foundation stone of Light House projects (LHPs). It is related to ___

  1. AOption (a)

    Shipping

  2. BOption (b)

    Defence

  3. COption (c)

    Housing 

  4. DOption (d)

    IT 

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Housing 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Housing.

  • PM Modi laid the foundation stone of Light House projects (LHPs) under the Global Housing Technology Challenge across six states-
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Tripura
  • Jharkhand
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Gujarat
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • PM Modi announced the winners under Affordable Sustainable Housing Accelerators - India (ASHA-India) and gave away annual awards for excellence in implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U) Mission.
  • He also released a certification course on innovative construction technologies named NAVARITIH (New, Affordable, Validated, Research Innovation Technologies for Indian Housing).

Question 90

Satpura National Park is situated in

  1. AOption (a)

    Himachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

  • Satpura National Park is located in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh in India.
  • Its name is derived from the Satpura range.
  • Along with the adjoining Bori and Pachmarhi wildlife sanctuaries, it provides 1,427 km sq. of unique central Indian highland ecosystem.
  • It was set up in 1981.

Question 91

In Dec 2020, The Reserve Bank had has launched a new edition of the Regulatory Sandbox which of the following is the theme of the program?

  1. AOption (a)

    Retention of costumer

  2. BOption (b)

    EMI payment

  3. COption (c)

    Car Payment

  4. DOption (d)

    Digital Payment

  5. EOption (e)

    Retail Payments

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Retail Payments

Why this answer is correct

Important Points

  • The Reserve Bank had announced the opening of the first cohort under Regulatory Sandbox with "Retail Payments" as its theme with two entities- eRupaya and PaySe.
  • The Reserve Bank received applications from 32 entities of which six have been selected for the ‘Test Phase’.
  • The two entities that have started testing are Natural Support Consultancy Services, Jaipur, and Nucleus Software Exports, New Delhi.
  • A regulatory sandbox is a framework set up by a regulator that allows FinTech startups and other innovators to conduct live experiments in a controlled environment under a regulator's supervision.

Key Points

  • Natural Support Consultancy Services
  • The product ‘eRupaya’ is a set of Near-Field Communication (NFC) based Prepaid card and NFC enabled Point of Sale (PoS) device, to facilitate offline Person-to-Merchant (P2M) transactions and offline digital payments in remote locations.
  • Nucleus Software Exports
  • The offline digital cash product, 'PaySe', will help connect with rural areas for e-payments.
  • The product proposes to help in the digitization of payments in rural areas, starting with Self Help Groups (SHG), through an offline payment solution and a digitized SHG-centered ecosystem.
  • The RBI made a statement that mobile payments including feature phone-based payment services, offline payment solutions, and contactless payment would be considered under the sandbox structure.
  • The idea behind RBI's statement is to spur innovation in the digital payments space and help in offering payment services to the unserved and underserved segment of the population.

Question 92

India and ADB sign USD 231 million loan to augment electricity generation capacity in which of the following state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct solution is Assam.

Key Points

  • India and Asian Development Bank (ADB) have signed a USD 231 million loan to augment electricity generation capacity in the State of Assam through the construction of a 120 MegaWatts hydroelectric power plant that will enhance the availability of electricity for households.
  • Focuses on: Enhancing the capacity and efficiency of the energy generation and distribution systems in Assam to improve electricity service to end-users.
  • Signed Between: Additional Secretary in the Finance Ministry Dr. C. S. Mohapatra and Officer-in-Charge of ADB’s India Resident Mission Mr. Hoe Yun Jeong.
  • Purpose: The proposed hydroelectric project is a run-of-the-river project over the Kopili river, which will help increase electricity supplied from clean energy and reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 3,60,000 tonnes of carbon dioxide annually.

Additional Information

  • Asian Development Bank: ADB is committed to achieving a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty.
  • Established in 1966.
  • It is owned by 68 members.
  • Headquarter: Philippines.
  • Current President: Masatsugu Asakawa.

Question 93

Which bank has announced the launch of ‘Home Utsav’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yes Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    PNB

  3. COption (c)

    ICICI Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Axis Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    SBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ICICI Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ICICI Bank.

  • ICICI Bank has announced the launch of ‘Home Utsav’.
  • It is a virtual property exhibition that digitally showcases real estate projects by renowned developers from key cities across the country.
  • It is available for everyone, including ICICI Bank’s customers and those who are not customers.
  • It offers them enhanced convenience, as they can simply browse through these projects online.

Question 94

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a Three Year Roadmap  Project 'UTKARSH'. It is meant for what purpose?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coordination and supervision

  2. BOption (b)

    Supervision and regulation

  3. COption (c)

    Coordination and regulation

  4. DOption (d)

    Monitoring and coordination

  5. EOption (e)

    Monitoring and supervision

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Supervision and regulation

Why this answer is correct

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a Three Year Roadmap to improve supervision and regulation, among other functions of central bank.
  • This medium term strategy is named as Utkarsh 2022.
  • An internal committee to identify issues that needs to be addressed over next 3 years was formed, which was anchored by Viral Acharya, the outgoing Deputy Governor of RBI.

Question 95

In Dec 2020, which of the following banks has launched a 3-in-1 account for saving, trading & demat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ujjivan Small Finance Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Janalakshmi Small Finance Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Equitas Small Finance Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    A U Small Finance Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Suryoday Small Finance Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Equitas Small Finance Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Equitas Small Finance Bank:

  • Equitas Small Finance Bank has launched a three-in-one account which allows customers to invest in a wide variety of financial products.
  • A 3-in-1 account (savings + trading + demat) is a convenient option that helps the customers to keep all their banking and financial investments under one umbrella entity.
  • The bank will provide stockbroking and demat services through a referral arrangement with brokerage firms for trading and depository services.
  • This product allows customers a secure seamless and convenient way to invest in their choice of investment instruments including equity, FDs, govt securities and mutual fund products.
  • Equitas Small Finance Bank is the largest small finance bank in India in terms of the number of banking outlets and the second largest in terms of assets under management and total deposits.

Question 96

In July 2020, how much amount (in crore) was approved by the Union Cabinet for Agriculture Infrastructure Fund?

  1. AOption (a)

    25,000 Cr.

  2. BOption (b)

    50,000 Cr.

  3. COption (c)

    75,000 Cr.

  4. DOption (d)

    1,00,000 Cr.

  5. EOption (e)

    2,00,000 Cr.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,00,000 Cr.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1,00,000 Cr.

  • The Union Cabinet headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on July 8 approved allotment of funds worth Rs 1 lakh crore to support farmers and agriculture infrastructure.
  • The fund was approved to provide a medium to long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and financial support.
  • Under the Scheme, Rs 1 lakh crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to startups, Farmer Producers Organisations (FPOs), self-help groups (SHGs), farmers etc.
  • Loans will be disbursed in four years starting with the sanction of Rs 10,000 crore in the current year and Rs 30,000 crore each in the next three financial years.
  • All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3 per cent per annum up to a limit of Rs 2 crore.
  • This subvention will be available for a maximum period of seven years.
  • The agri infra fund will be managed and monitored through an online Management Information System (MIS) platform.
  • The duration of the scheme will be for 10 years from the financial year 2020 to FY 2029.

Question 97

Who has been appointed the PM of Ivory Coast In July 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Guillaume Soro

  2. BOption (b)

    Alain Lobognon

  3. COption (c)

    Daniel Kablan Duncan

  4. DOption (d)

    Hamed Bakayoko

  5. EOption (e)

    Patrick Achi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hamed Bakayoko

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Hamed Bakayoko.

  • Ivory Coast's defence minister, Hamed Bakayoko, has been named the PM, after acting as interim PM since the sudden death of Amadou Gon Coulibaly.
  • Considered a close associate of President Alassane Ouattara and a pillar of the regime, Bakayoko, has had the defence portfolio since 2017.
  • He has also been mayor of Abobo, one of the West African country's most populous districts, since 2018.
  • Ivory Coast:
  • Capital - Yamoussoukro.
  • Currency - West African CFA franc.
  • President - Alassane Ouattara.
  • National Sport - Football.

Question 98

Who was honoured with a Lifetime Achievement Award at the third edition of the India International Film Festival of Boston (IIFFB 2020)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Naseeruddin Shah

  2. BOption (b)

    Om Puri

  3. COption (c)

    Anupam Kher

  4. DOption (d)

    Amrish Puri

  5. EOption (e)

    Paresh Rawal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Om Puri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Om Puri.

  • Late Indian actor Om Puri was honoured with a Lifetime Achievement Award at the third edition of the India International Film Festival of Boston (IIFFB 2020).
  • The award was received by his wife Nandita Puri.
  • The three-day film festival, based in Boston USA., was held virtually from October 16 to 18.

Question 99

Palle Pragathi yojana is launched by which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Telangana

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

  5. EOption (e)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Telangana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Telangana.

  • The Telangana state government in September 2014, announced to launch an Rs. 450-crore World Bank-funded rural inclusive project that will focus on improving livelihoods in rural areas called Telangana Rural Inclusive Growth Project (TRIGP).
  • It is also called as  'Telangana Palle Pragathi Project'.
  • It will be on the lines of Society for Elimination of Rural Poverty (SERP).
  • It will cover 150 mandals in the first phase and will be expanded later to other mandals.
  • The project aims to increase incomes of 2.5 lakh farmers by 50% by improving farm productivity and providing access to the markets.

Why in news?

  • Phase II of Palle Pragathi programme launched across the State in January 2020.

Question 100

In which country did PM Narendra Modi inaugurated Mangdechhu hydroelectric power plant in August 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nepal

  2. BOption (b)

    Bangladesh

  3. COption (c)

    Sri Lanka

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhutan

  5. EOption (e)

    Japan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bhutan

Why this answer is correct

  • PM Narendra Modi inaugurated Mangdechhu hydroelectric power plant in Bhutan, touted as a Bhutan-India friendship project, is a 720MW run-of-river power plant built on the Mangdechhu River in Trongsa Dzongkhag district of central Bhutan.
  • It was developed by the Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project Authority (MHPA), which was jointly constituted by the Indian and the Bhutanese governments.
  • It is  one of the major projects under Bhutan's initiative to generate 10,000 MW hydropower by 2020 with the Indian government's support.
  • The Mangdechhu project is funded by India through a 70 per cent loan and a 30 per cent grant. It is estimated to generate 2,923 GWh of electricity.
  • Thimphu is the capital of the Kingdom of Bhutan.
  • Bhutan Prime Minister - Lotay Tshering.
  • The King of Bhutan - Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck.

Question 101

Who was appointed as the Prime Minister (PM) of Lebanon? (Jan 2020)

  1. AOption (a)

    Gebran Bassil

  2. BOption (b)

    Hassan Diab

  3. COption (c)

    Michel Aoun

  4. DOption (d)

    Saad Hariri

  5. EOption (e)

    Nawaf Salam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hassan Diab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Hassan Diab.

  • Lebanon President Micheal Naim Aoun announced the formation of new Government due to anti-government protests for the last several months.
  • The new Government (govt) will be headed by Prime Minister (PM) Hassan Diab, a 60-year-old professor at the American University of Beirut, Lebanon.
  • Formation of the new government was announced after Hezbollah party & its allies made a deal to tackle the country’s worst economic crisis in a decade.
  • The country has been hit by protests since October 2019 against the ruling party.
  • About Lebanon:
  • Capital: Beirut.
  • Currency: Lebanese Pound

Question 102

Which country ranks lower than India in Global Hunger Index 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bangladesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Myanmar

  3. COption (c)

    Pakistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Nigeria

  5. EOption (e)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nigeria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nigeria.

  • In the 2020 Global Hunger Index, India ranks 94th out of the 107 countries with sufficient data to calculate 2020 GHI scores.
  • With a score of 27.2, India has a level of hunger that is serious.
  • The neighbouring Bangladesh, Myanmar and Pakistan ranked higher than India in this year’s hunger index.
  • While Bangladesh ranked 75, Myanmar and Pakistan are in the 78th and 88th position

Question 103

In GRIHA, H stands for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Human

  2. BOption (b)

    Healthy

  3. COption (c)

    Habitat 

  4. DOption (d)

    Harmony

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Habitat 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Habitat.

Key Points

  • GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment.
  • GRIHA is a Sanskrit word meaning – 'Abode'. Human Habitats (buildings) interact with the environment in various ways.
  • GRIHA has been conceived by TERI and developed jointly with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India.
  • GRIHA is a rating tool that helps people assesses the performance of their building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’. The rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles, will seek to strike a balance between the established practices and emerging concepts, both national and international.

Question 104

Which one of the following is the largest producer of crude oil?

  1. AOption (a)

    U.S.A

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Saudi Arabia

  4. DOption (d)

    Canada

  5. EOption (e)

    China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

U.S.A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is U.S.A.

Key Points

  • The United States is the top oil-producing country in the world, with an average of 19.47 million barrels per day (b/d), which accounts for 19% of the world's production.
  • The U.S. has held the top spot for the past six years.
  • The U.S. overtook Russia in 2012 for the No. 2 spot and surpassed former leader Saudi Arabia in 2013 to become the world's top oil producer.
  • Much of the increased U.S. production is attributable to fracking in the shale formations in Texas and North Dakota. The U.S. has been a net exporter of oil (i.e., exports exceed imports) since early 2011.

Question 105

The Indian Parliament House was designed by?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alvar Aalto

  2. BOption (b)

    Michael Graves

  3. COption (c)

    Edwin Lutyens

  4. DOption (d)

    Renzo Piano

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Edwin Lutyens

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Edwin Lutyens. 

Key Points

  • The Indian Parliament House was designed by British architects Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker in 1912.
  • Its construction was completed in 1927 and the opening ceremony was performed by the then Viceroy of India Lord Irwin.
  • It is alternatively called ‘Sansad Bhawan’.

Question 106

Which company relaunched Java and Yezdi bikes in India ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hero

  2. BOption (b)

    Eicher 

  3. COption (c)

    Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Bajaj

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M) .

Key Points

  • Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M) is all set to revive iconic motorcycle brands of yesteryear — Jawa, Yezdi and BSA — through a separate company, Classic Legends Private Ltd.
  • Anand Mahindra explains the idea behind bringing back Jawa to India. Spearheaded by Classic Legends founder Anupam Thareja, and a stake from Boman Irani of Rustomjee Group, whose family originally brought the brand to India, this undertaking is Mahindra group's latest foray into the two-wheeler business.

Question 107

Ethanol blending subsidy is ___ per annum or 50% of the rate of interest charged by banks whichever is lower

  1. AOption (a)

    6%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    5%

  4. DOption (d)

    2%

  5. EOption (e)

    1%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6%

Why this answer is correct

The correct is 6%.

  • Cabinet approves scheme for increasing ethanol production in Dec 2020.
  • The govt’s move will help bear the interest of loans taken for setting up ethanol distilleries for a period of 5 years
  • The government would bear interest subvention for five years, including a one-year moratorium against the loan availed by project proponents from banks at 6% per annum or 50% of the rate of interest charged by banks whichever is lower.

Question 108

Choose the incorrect answer regarding Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Last fiscal year to apply is 2023-24

  2. BOption (b)

    The scheme provides for an assured return of 8% percent per annum payable monthly

  3. COption (c)

    Minimum Age: 60 years Maximum Age:

  4. DOption (d)

    It is operated and managed by LIC

  5. EOption (e)

    The period for this scheme is 12 year

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

The period for this scheme is 12 year

Why this answer is correct

  • LIC operates and manages Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY).
  • It is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above which is available from 4th May, 2017 to 31st March, 2020.
  • The scheme provides for an assured return of 8% percent per annum payable monthly (equivalent to 8.3% per annum) for 10 years.
  • However, the subscriber can opt for monthly/quarterly/ half-yearly or yearly payment of the pension.
  • Minimum Age: 60 years Maximum Age: No limit Policy
  • Term: 10 years

Question 109

The Living Root Bridges are a rare ecological phenomenon seen in which state of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Meghalaya

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Meghalaya

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Meghalaya.

 

Key Points

  • Living root bridges are a form of tree shaping mostly found in the southern part of Meghalaya.
  • Living root bridges (also known as Jing Kieng Jri) are the aerial bridges.
  • They are built by weaving and manipulating the roots of the Indian rubber tree.
  • The longest known example of a living root bridge is near the town of Pynursla, Meghalaya.

Question 110

According to BASEL-II guidelines the minimum %CRAR is 9%, RBI released the 22nd issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR). The capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR) of Scheduled Commercial Banks improved to how much per cent in September 2020 from 14.7 per cent in March 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    14.9

  2. BOption (b)

    15.1

  3. COption (c)

    15.4

  4. DOption (d)

    ​15.8

  5. EOption (e)

    16.3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

​15.8

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​15.8%.

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), on January 11, 2021, released the 22nd issue of the Financial Stability Report (FSR).
  • The capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR) of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) improved to 15.8 per cent in September 2020 from 14.7 per cent in March 2020.
  • Their gross non-performing asset (GNPA) ratio declined to 7.5 per cent from 8.4 per cent.

Question 111

Choose the incorrect option regarding the Payment Infrastructure Development Fund( PIDF) which was launched by RBI 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    To benefit the acquiring banks/non-banks and merchants by lowering overall acceptance infrastructure costs.

  2. BOption (b)

    To increase payments acceptance infrastructure by adding 30 lakh touch points every year – 10 lakh physical and 20 lakh digital payment acceptance devices.

  3. COption (c)

    RBI has invested 250 crore in this fund.

  4. DOption (d)

    To increase the number of acceptance devices multi-fold in the country. 

  5. EOption (e)

    POS will be established in tier 1 and tier 2 cities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

POS will be established in tier 1 and tier 2 cities

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • In Jan 2021, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the ents Infrastructure Development Fund has been operationalized to create 30 lakh new touch points every year for digital payments in Tier-3 to Tier-6 centers.
  • The fund is established to subsidize the deployment of payment acceptance infrastructure in Tier-3 to Tier-6 centers and with special attention on the north-eastern states.
  • It will be operational for a period of three years from January 01, 2021.
  • The PIDF has been allocated a corpus of Rs 345 crore. (in which the Reserve Bank will contribute Rs 250 crore and the Rs 95 crore will be contributed by the major authorized card networks in the country).
  • The target for the PIDF scheme is -
  • To increase payments acceptance infrastructure by adding 30 lakh touch points every year – 10 lakh physical and 20 lakh digital payment acceptance devices.
  • To increase the number of acceptance devices multi-fold in the country.
  • To benefit the acquiring banks/non-banks and merchants by lowering overall acceptance infrastructure costs.

​

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India is India's central bank.
  • Governor-Shaktikanta Das.
  • It commenced its operations on 1 April 1935 in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • It was nationalized on 1 January 1949.

Question 112

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has launched recurring payments for UPI. What is its name?

  1. AOption (a)

    UPI Repay

  2. BOption (b)

    UPI Prepay

  3. COption (c)

    AutoPay

  4. DOption (d)

    UPI recurring

  5. EOption (e)

    UPI pay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

AutoPay

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is correct i.e. AutoPay

  • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has launched its one-stop fintech payment solution- UPI AutoPay in a virtual event of Global Fintech Fest.
  • It is dedicated to recurring payments and can be used for multiple financial purposes such as utility payments, train tickets, etc.
  • Customers can create e-mandate through their UPI ID or QR Scan for transactions up to Rs 2000.
  • The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
  • It is headquartered in Mumbai.

Question 113

In December 2020, SBI Cards and Payment Services Ltd (SBI Card) has raised how many rupees (in crores) by issuing bonds on a private placement basis?

  1. AOption (a)

    250

  2. BOption (b)

    350

  3. COption (c)

    450

  4. DOption (d)

    550

  5. EOption (e)

    650

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

450

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹450 crore.

  • SBI Cards and Payment Services Ltd (SBI Card) has raised ₹450 crores by issuing bonds on a private placement basis.
  • The tenure of the debt instruments is five years with the date of maturity as of December 22, 2025.
  • The bonds bear a coupon rate of 6 percent per annum.
  • The bonds will be listed on the Wholesale Debt Market Segment of BSE.

Question 114

According to RBI’s National Strategy for Financial Inclusion, minimum radius in which banking facilities should be available to a person is ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    5 km

  2. BOption (b)

    50 km

  3. COption (c)

    20 km

  4. DOption (d)

    6 km

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5 km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5 km.

While targeting the delivery of financial services to so far inaccessible areas, the strategy makes the following goals:

  • Accessibility in remote areas: The first objective is to provide accessibility to formal financial services to every village within a 5 km radius/hamlet of 500 households in hilly areas by March 2020.
  • Less cash society: To create the necessary infrastructure in all Tier II to Tier VI centres to mover towards a less-cash society by March 2022.
  • Every individual should use financial services through mobile devices: Encouraging financial service providers to provide virtual modes including mobile apps so that every adult can access financial service provider through a mobile device by March 2024.

Question 115

Indian Traditional mathematics "Kotipakoti" has how many zeros?

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    42

  5. EOption (e)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21.

  • Kotipakoti’ is among the very big numbers that the ancient Indian mathematicians had visualised in the early texts.
  • It is 21 ‘zeroes’ after ‘one’.
  • In computer lingo, zettascale computing entails ‘kotipakoti’ computations that can give amazing insights by culling through gigantic volumes of data in real time.

Question 116

In which of the following banks in India, LIC has completed the acquisition of 51 percent in stake?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dena Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    IDBI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab National Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    IDFC Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Bandhan Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

IDBI Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IDBI Bank.

Key Points

  • The insurance behemoth, Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) has completed the acquisition of 51 per cent controlling stake in IDBI Bank, marking the entry of more than 60 years old state-owned insurer into the banking space.
  • In August 2018, the Union Cabinet has approved the acquisition of controlling stake by Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) as a promoter in the bank through a combination of preferential allotment and open offer of equity.

Question 117

Where is Keetham lake situated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agra

  2. BOption (b)

    Jaipur

  3. COption (c)

    Kanpur

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhopal

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Agra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Agra.

Key Points

  • The Keetham lake, also known as Sur Sarovar, in Agra of Uttar Pradesh has been added to the list of Ramsar sites.
  • More than 106 species of migratory birds rest in Sur Sarovar lake. The water of the lake is obtained from Agra Canal.
  • The canal originates from Okhla barrage on River Yamuna in Delhi.

Question 118

Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Missile Complex is situated in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hyderabad

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu 

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hyderabad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

  • M. Venkaiah Naidu, Vice President of India, visited DRDO’s Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Missile Complex in Hyderabad on 25 January 2021.
  • He inaugurated the Integrated Weapon System Design Centre in the complex.
  • The facility will enhance the capability in design and development of command and control systems for surface-to-air missile (SAM) systems and ballistic missile defence (BMD) systems.

Question 119

Defence Minister inaugurated the advanced Hypersonic Wind Tunnel (HWT) test facility at Hyderabad, making India the third country. Which are the other two countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    US and Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    China and South Korea 

  3. COption (c)

    Japan and China

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia and Japan

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

US and Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is US and Russia.

  • Defence Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the advanced Hypersonic Wind Tunnel (HWT) test facility at Hyderabad, making India the third country after the US and Russia to have such a facility.
  • The state-of-the-art HWT Test facility is "pressure vacuum-driven enclosed free jet facility having nozzle exit diameter of 1 metre and will simulate Mach No 5 to 12 (Mach represents the multiplication factor to the speed of sound)", a Defence release said.

Question 120

Which of the following governs Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Central government

  2. BOption (b)

    Reserve Bank of India

  3. COption (c)

    Small Industries Development Bank of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Industrial Finance Corporation of India

  5. EOption (e)

    Securities and Exchange Board of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reserve Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

  • With the enactment of the RBI (Amendment) Act, 1977, the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) controls the functioning of NBFCs.
  • NBFCs as a whole account for 11.2% of assets of the total financial system.
  • It is a registered company under the Companies Act, 1956.
  • Following are few important banks to remember :
  1. SIDBI  ‘Small Industries Development Bank of India’, Its Headquartered in Lucknow.
  2. EXIM ‘Export-Import Bank of India’, Its Headquartered in Mumbai.
  3. NABARD ‘National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development’, Its Headquartered in Mumbai.
  4. NHB ‘National Housing Bank’, Its Headquartered in New Delhi.
  5. IFCI ‘Industrial Finance Corporation of India’, Its Headquartered in New Delhi.
  6. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), It is established in 1992, headquartered in Mumbai.

English Language (35 questions)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

Corruption in every stage of the tropical timber trade fuels deforestation, which adversely affects forest communities, leads to biodiversity loss and jeopardises the environment. A new report by international watchdog Global Witness says that developing countries supplying timber to the European Union (EU) witness high levels of corruption. In Cambodia for instance, corruption is deep-rooted due to the existing nexus between logging companies, politicians and government officials.

According to the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL, illegal logging tops the ranking of environmental crimes with an estimated value of US 50−152billionannually.Intermsofeconomicvalue,“governmentsloseUS 50-152 billion annually. In terms of economic value, “governments lose US 10 to 15 billion annually in lost revenue” due to illegal logging, Robert Simpson, a Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert, says. He blames illegal logging for undermining sustainable forest management and reducing forests’ capacity to provide environmental services.

Illegal timber trade also gives rise to conflicts between local communities and logging companies, a campaigner at Global Witness told Down To Earth earlier. A June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal and uncontrolled logging for alleged human rights violations. Simpson adds that indigenous communities lose access rights to forests. Besides conflicts, illegal timber trade leads to biodiversity loss. Citing the example of the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), the 2015 report points out that logging is responsible for degrading the country’s rainforests. The report adds, “…it is illegal industrial logging that is acting as a major driver of forest degradation and deforestation”.

In many timber-producing countries, the government is the largest landowner and awards logging concessions and licences through public tendering processes. Such contracts concentrate power in the hands of those who award them and are highly lucrative to the companies that win them.____________________________________________. To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the issue of corruption with producer countries, re-shape policies and strengthen the enforcement of EU timber regulation. This is imperative for conserving forests, biodiversity and climate. Last year, the Food and Agriculture Organization welcomed an agreement by Indonesia and the EU to issue the world’s first Forest Law Enforcement, Governance and Trade (FLEGT) timber licence as a major achievement in the fight against illegal logging. The FLEGT license can accompany shipments of timber exported from Indonesia to EU countries to certify that the timber has been harvested, transported, processed and traded according to the Indonesian law. The is part of the EU’s FLEGT Action Plan adopted in 2003 to promote measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management, which features in the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals.

Question 121

 The FLEGT license is part of the EU’s FLEGT Action Plan to promote

  1. AOption (a)

    peace between local communities and logging companies

  2. BOption (b)

    in assisting the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL

  3. COption (c)

    to achieve Sustainable Development Goals

  4. DOption (d)

    to stop illegal timber trade from Indonesia

  5. EOption (e)

    measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the last line of the last paragraph:
  • "The is part of the EU’s FLEGT Action Plan adopted in 2003 to promote measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management, which features in the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals."
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that the FLEGT license is part of the EU’s FLEGT Action Plan to promote measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management.**
  • Therefore, 'measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information

  • Let us see the meaning of some words from the passage:
WordMeaning
Tackle (Verb)make determined efforts to deal with (a problem or difficult task)
Sustainable (Adjective)able to be maintained at a certain rate or level
Adopted (Verb)the past tense of the verb 'Adopt' which means to choose to take up, follow, or use

Question 122

Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Illegal logging is responsible for soil degradation in rain forest 

  2. BOption (b)

    Illegal timber trade gives rise to conflicts between local communities and logging companies

  3. COption (c)

    Illegal timber trade leads to biodiversity loss. 

  4. DOption (d)

    In many timber-producing countries, the government is the largest landowner 

  5. EOption (e)

    To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the issue of corruption with producer countries

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Illegal logging is responsible for soil degradation in rain forest 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Illegal logging is responsible for soil degradation in rain forest'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the first line of the third paragraph:
  • *"Illegal timber trade also gives rise to conflicts between local communities and logging companies, a campaigner at Global Witness told Down To Earth earlier. A June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal and uncontrolled logging for alleged human rights violations."*​
  • Therefore, the statement 'Illegal timber trade gives rise to conflicts between local communities and logging companies' is true.
  • Let's have a look at the third line of the third paragraph:
  • *"Besides conflicts, illegal timber trade leads to biodiversity loss."*​
  • Therefore, the statement 'Besides conflicts, illegal timber trade leads to biodiversity loss' is true.
  • Let's have a look at the first line of the last paragraph:
  • "In many timber-producing countries, the government is the largest landowner and awards logging concessions and licences through public tendering processes."
  • ​Therefore, the statement 'In many timber-producing countries, the government is the largest landowner' is true.
  • Let's have a look at the third line of the last paragraph:
  • "To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the issue of corruption with producer countries, re-shape policies and strengthen the enforcement of EU timber regulation.​"
  • ​Therefore, the statement 'To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the issue of corruption with producer countries' is true.
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that Illegal logging is not responsible for soil degradation in rain forest.
  • Therefore, 'Illegal logging is responsible for soil degradation in rain forest' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information 

  • Let's have a look at the synonyms of some words from the passage:

 

WordSynonym
RiseIncrease
LocalNative
DegradationHumiliation

Question 123

What is the logical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Illegal timber trade is responsible for Human Rights violations

  2. BOption (b)

    The FLEGT license is effective against illegal timber trade

  3. COption (c)

    Effective law enforcement is the need of the hour to stop Illegal tropical timber trade 

  4. DOption (d)

    Effective measures are needed to minimize the conflicts between local communities and logging companies

  5. EOption (e)

    Sustainable Development Goals can only be achieved by effective Law enforcement. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Effective law enforcement is the need of the hour to stop Illegal tropical timber trade 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Effective law enforcement is the need of the hour to stop Illegal tropical timber trade'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the 'Corruption in timber trade fuels deforestation, biodiversity loss.'
  • From the line given in the passage: To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the issue of corruption with producer countries, re-shape policies and strengthen the enforcement of EU timber regulation. This is imperative for conserving forests, biodiversity, and climate.
  • The passage is majorly focusing on effective law enforcement so that the illegal timber trade can be stopped.
  • The logical inference that can be drawn from the passage is Effective law enforcement is the need of the hour to stop Illegal tropical timber trade.
  • Therefore, 'Effective law enforcement is the need of the hour to stop Illegal tropical timber trade' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information 

  • The logical inference is a conclusion drawn on the basis of given facts.
  • It is also an ability of a reader or listener to read in between the lines.
  • The inference is always with respect to listener/reader and more than one inference can be drawn on the basis of a given fact.
  • Deriving inferences in reading requires you to grasp the meaning of a passage without being given all the information.
  • Using clues, the author gives information about the plot, characters, setting and time period.
  • The readers have to take the clues and draw conclusions on the basis of the information given.

Question 124

In the following sentence, correct the emboldened phrase if it is incorrect. If the phrase is correct, select ‘no improvement needed’ as your answer

In Cambodia for instance, corruption is deep-rooted due to the existing nexus among logging company, politician and government official.

  1. AOption (a)

    Within

  2. BOption (b)

    Between

  3. COption (c)

    No improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    From

  5. EOption (e)

    Inside

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Between

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Between'.

Key Points

  • There’s a common and oddly persistent belief that the preposition between should be used only when there are two or more specific number of elements, and the preposition among should be used when there are more than two elements.
  • Among is used when talking about people or things that are not distinct and are viewed as a group.
  • Example: There wasn’t much unity among the council members.
  • The preposition between can be used when there are more than two elements involved and the elements have been specified.
  • Example: He had to choose between a bicycle, a train set, a pair of sneakers, and a new backpack for his birthday present.
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'Between'.

​

Additional Information 

  • Some verbs and adjectives are followed by a certain preposition.
  • Sometimes verbs and adjectives can be followed by different prepositions, giving the phrase different meanings.
  • Some Common Verb + Preposition Combinations:
  • Example: He worries about the future.

                 I hope to contribute to the previous research.

                 He is concentrating on his work.

Question 125

Fill the blank in the following sentence with the most meaningful sentence as per the context of the passage. 

Such contracts concentrate power in the hands of those who award them and are highly lucrative to the companies that win them. _________________

  1. AOption (a)

    This leads to the prosperity, particularly in those countries that is economically well-versed, Global Witness says.

  2. BOption (b)

    This leads to the division of the society, particularly in those countries that suffer from unemployment challenges, Global Witness says.

  3. COption (c)

    This leads to corruption, particularly in those countries that suffer from deep-rooted governance and accountability challenges, Global Witness says.

  4. DOption (d)

    This leads to economic crisis, small scale industries in particular, Global Witness says.

  5. EOption (e)

    This leads to the exploitation of poor, particularly in those countries that have diversity in culture and tradition, Global Witness says.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

This leads to corruption, particularly in those countries that suffer from deep-rooted governance and accountability challenges, Global Witness says.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'This leads to corruption, particularly in those countries that suffer from deep-rooted governance and accountability challenges, Global Witness says'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the 'Corruption in timber trade fuels deforestation, biodiversity loss.'
  • 'Corruption' is an important word in this passage and out of all the options, it is present only in this sentence, This leads to corruption, particularly in those countries that suffer from deep-rooted governance and accountability challenges, Global Witness says.
  • Therefore, according to the passage**,** 'This leads to corruption, particularly in those countries that suffer from deep-rooted governance and accountability challenges, Global Witness says' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information 

  • Let's have a look at the synonyms of some words from the passage:

 

WordSynonym
GovernanceAdministration
ChallengesProvocations
AccountabilityResponsibility

Question 126

Robert Simpson is a/an, 

  1. AOption (a)

    Expert of EU regulations

  2. BOption (b)

    Global Witness report author

  3. COption (c)

    Environmentalist

  4. DOption (d)

    INTERPOL expert

  5. EOption (e)

    ​Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

​Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '​Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the second line of the second paragraph:
  • "In terms of economic value, “governments lose US $ 10 to 15 billion annually in lost revenue” due to illegal logging, Robert Simpson, a Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert, says."
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that Robert Simpson is a/an Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert.
  • Therefore, '​Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information

  • Let us see the meaning of some words from the passage:
WordMeaning
Economicrelating to economics or the economy
Annuallyonce a year; every year
Revenueincome, especially when of an organization and of a substantial nature

Question 127

 A June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal and uncontrolled logging for

  1. AOption (a)

    alleged human rights violations

  2. BOption (b)

    nexus between logging companies, politicians

  3. COption (c)

    indigenous communities losing access rights to forests

  4. DOption (d)

    conflicts between local communities and logging companies

  5. EOption (e)

    biodiversity loss

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

alleged human rights violations

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'alleged human rights violations'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the second line of the third paragraph:
  • " A June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal and uncontrolled logging for alleged human rights violations."
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that a June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal and uncontrolled logging for alleged human rights violations.
  • Therefore, 'alleged human rights violations' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information

  • Let us see the synonyms of some words from the passage:
WordSynonym
WitnessObserver
IllegalUnlawful
UncontrolledUnrestrained

Question 128

According to the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL, illegal logging tops the ranking of environmental crimes with an estimated value of ________annually.

  1. AOption (a)

    US $ 10-50 billion 

  2. BOption (b)

    US $ 50-152 billion 

  3. COption (c)

    ​US $ 50-150 billion 

  4. DOption (d)

    ​US $ 10-15 billion

  5. EOption (e)

    ​US $ 10-150 billion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

US $ 50-152 billion 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'US $ 50-152 billion'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the first few lines of the second paragraph:
  • "According to the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL, illegal logging tops the ranking of environmental crimes with an estimated value of US 50−152billionannually.Intermsofeconomicvalue,“governmentsloseUS 50-152 billion annually. In terms of economic value, “governments lose US 10 to 15 billion annually in lost revenue” due to illegal logging, Robert Simpson, a Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert, says."
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that according to the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL, illegal logging tops the ranking of environmental crimes with an estimated value of US $ 50-152 billion annually.**
  • Therefore, 'US $ 50-152 billion' is the correct answer.

​​

Additional Information

  • Let us see the meaning of some words from the passage:
WordMeaning
Illegalcontrary to or forbidden by law, especially criminal law
Loggingthe activity or business of felling trees and cutting and preparing the timber
Environmentalrelating to the natural world and the impact of human activity on its condition

Question 129

Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

We should differentiate between people who come to India seeking refuge and people driven by economic reasons such as employments, education etc. The people of India should not be used as “bargaining tools” for the petty benefits of political leaders.

  1. AOption (a)

    We should differentiate between people who come to India 

  2. BOption (b)

    economic reasons such as employments, education

  3. COption (c)

    The people of India should not be used

  4. DOption (d)

    “bargaining tools” for the petty benefits of political leaders

  5. EOption (e)

    No Error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

economic reasons such as employments, education

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The primary error in the sentence is the use of the plural noun "employments."
  • In this context, "employment" is an uncountable noun referring to the state of having a job or the field of work.
  • Uncountable nouns do not typically take a plural form when used in a general sense, especially when paired with other uncountable nouns like "education."
  • The correct phrase should be "economic reasons such as employment, education etc."
  • Thus, the error is located in the part corresponding to Option 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "We should differentiate between people who come to India seeking refuge and people driven by economic reasons such as employment, education etc. The people of India should not be used as “bargaining tools” for the petty benefits of political leaders."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "We should differentiate between people who come to India" – This part is grammatically correct; "between" is used correctly for a comparison between two groups.
  • Option 3: "The people of India should not be used" – This part is grammatically correct and uses the appropriate passive voice structure.
  • Option 4: "“bargaining tools” for the petty benefits of political leaders" – This part is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly.
  • No error – This option is incorrect because there is a clear noun-usage error in the second part of the sentence.

Question 130

Find out whether there is any error in the highlighted parts. The error, if any, will be in one part. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any. 

As a playwright, William Shakespeare is superior than any other sixteenth-century playwright. He wrote comedies, tragedies, and historical plays in England. He is famous all around the world for his significant contribution to literature.

  1. AOption (a)

    William Shakespeare is superior than

  2. BOption (b)

    He wrote comedies, tragedies, and historical plays

  3. COption (c)

    He is famous all around the world

  4. DOption (d)

    significant contribution to literature

  5. EOption (e)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

William Shakespeare is superior than

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is William Shakespeare is superior than.

 

  • The usage of "than" after "superior" is wrong "superior" is the comparative adjective which always takes "to" after it.

Additional Information

  • The comparative adjectives such as prior, junior, senior, superior, prefer, elder etc never takes "than" after them and always write "to" for comparison.
  • They are taken from Latin language and they are already in the comparative degree, we cannot make a comparative or superlative degree out of them again.

Let's see some examples:

  • He is senior to me in college.
  • My sister is elder to me by 4 years.
  • She prefers coffee to tea.

Correct sentence: *"As a playwright, William Shakespeare is superior to any other sixteenth-century playwright. He wrote comedies, tragedies, and historical plays in England. He is famous all around the world for his significant contribution to literature."***

Question 131

Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts, with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose 'No correction required' as your answer.

<br>

This was a cataclysmic trauma for the Mundarath Tharavad, (A) which overnight lost vast wealth and riches, (B) all that remained was 11th-century copper-plate inscriptions giving them title before their lands. (C)

<br>

(A) This has been a cataclysmic trauma for the Mundarath Tharavad,

(B) which lost vast wealth and riches overnight,

(C) all that remained was 11th-century copper-plate inscriptions giving them title to their lands.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option (3) i.e. 'C'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the third part of the sentence.
  • In the third part of the sentence the preposition "before" is incorrect in the context of the sentence. It should be replaced with "to" given in option C, to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The correct sentence is: "This was a cataclysmic trauma for the Mundarath Tharavad, which overnight lost vast wealth and riches, all that remained was 11th-century copper-plate inscriptions giving them title to their lands. " 

​

Additional Information

  • Usage of the preposition 'to':
  • ​Expressing motion in the direction of (a particular location)
  • Example: He was walking down to the shops.
  • Approaching or reaching (a particular condition)
  • ​Example: Her expression changed from amazement to joy.
  • ​Identifying the person or thing affected by or receiving something
  • ​Example: He is married to her cousin.

Question 132

Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts, with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose 'No correction required' as your answer.

<br>

In Palakkad, where the ruins of one of his forts still stand, (A) the memory of Tipu’s depredations against the Nairs is still as sore (B) as an old wound those never healed. (C)

<br>

(A) In Palakkad, where the ruins of one of his forts still stand,

(B) the memory of Tipu’s depredations against the Nairs is still as sored

(C) as an old wound that never healed.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'C'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the third part of the sentence.
  • In the third part of the sentence determiner "those" is incorrect as the noun (wound) following the determiner is in the singular form. Therefore, it should be replaced with "that" to make the sentence correct.
  • The correct sentence is:
  • In Palakkad, where the ruins of one of his forts still stand, the memory of Tipu’s depredations Exaagainst the Nairs is still as sore as an old wound that never healed.
<br>

​​​

Additional Information

  • Determiner: A modifying word that determines the kind of reference a noun or noun group has.
  • ​Example: These apples are good.
  • Use of "those" as a determiner:
  • ​Example: Those books were worth reading.
  • ​Use of "that" as a determiner:
  • ​Example: Drink that and go to bed.

Question 133

Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts, with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose 'No correction required' as your answer.

Except for the fact that by the time Tipu withdrew from Malabar (A) (and then was defeated by the British), the Karanavar himself had breathed his last, (B) having failed to confide the secret of the location of his treasure trove to any survivor. (C)

<br>

(A) Except for the fact that by the time Tipu withdrew from Malabar

(B) (and then was defeated by the British), the Karanavar himself had breathed his last

(C) having failed to confide the secret of the location of his treasure trove to any survivor.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No correction required

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No correction required'.

Key Points

  • There is no error in the given sentence.
  • The correct sentence is:
  • Except for the fact that by the time Tipu withdrew from Malabar (and then was defeated by the British), the Karanavar himself had breathed his last, having failed to confide the secret of the location of his treasure trove to any survivor.

​

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of some difficult words:
  • Withdrew: remove or take away (something) from a particular place or position
  • Confide: tell someone about a secret or private matter while trusting them not to repeat it to others
  • Trove: a store of valuable or delightful things

Question 134

Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts, with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose 'No correction required' as your answer.

The responsibility of making a living, (A) educating our children, and taking care of our parents is a time-consuming one (B) that inevitably distracts us a single-minded focus on professional accomplishment. (C)

<br>

(A) The responsible of making a living,

(B) of education our children, and of taking care of our parents is a time-consuming one

(C) that inevitably distracts us from a single-minded focus on professional accomplishment.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    Non correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'C'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the third part of the sentence.
  • In the third part of the sentence the preposition "from" is missing. Hence, it needs to be replaced with option C, to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
  • The correct sentence is:
  • The responsibility of making a living, educating our children, and taking care of our parents is a time-consuming one that inevitably distracts us from a single-minded focus on professional accomplishment.

​​​

Additional Information

  • Usage of the preposition "from":
  • Used for indicating the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts.
  • Used for indicating the point in time at which a particular process, event, or activity starts.
  • Used for indicating the source or provenance of someone or something.
  • Used for indicating the starting point of a specified range on a scale.
  • Used for indicating the point at which an observer is placed.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

The (A)________ and infectious disease Corona Virus also known as Covid-19 has deeply affected the global economy. This tragedy has also (B)______ up the education sector, and this fear is likely to resonate across the education sector globally. The Covid-19 pandemic (C)_______ forced many schools and colleges to remain closed temporarily. Several areas are affected worldwide and there is a fear of losing this whole ongoing semester or even more in the coming future. Various schools, colleges, and universities have discontinued in-person teaching. As per the assessment of the researchers, it is uncertain to get back to normal teaching anytime soon. As social distancing is (D)________ at this stage, this will have negative effects on learning opportunities. Educational units are (E)________ to find options to deal with this challenging situation. These circumstances make us realize that scenario planning is an urgent need for academic institutions. This is a situation that demands humanity and unity. There is an urgent need to protect and save our students, faculty, academic staff, communities, societies, and the nation as a whole.

Several arguments are associated with e-learning. Accessibility, affordability, flexibility, learning pedagogy, life-long learning, and policy are some of the arguments related to online (F)_____. It is said that the online mode of learning is easily (G)____ and can even reach rural and remote areas. It is considered to be a relatively cheaper mode of education in terms of the lower cost of transportation, accommodation, and the overall cost of institution-based learning. Flexibility is another interesting aspect of online learning; a learner can schedule or plan their time for completion of courses available online. Combining face-to-face lectures with technology gives rise to (H)_______ learning and flipped classrooms; this type of learning environment can increase the learning potential of the students. Students can learn anytime and anywhere, thereby developing new skills in the process leading to life-long learning. The government also recognizes the increasing importance of online learning in this dynamic world.

Question 135

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank A

  1. AOption (a)

    effective, ghastly

  2. BOption (b)

    deadly, pernicious

  3. COption (c)

    hefty, impregnable

  4. DOption (d)

    submissive, pliable

  5. EOption (e)

    frail, wimpy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

deadly, pernicious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'deadly, pernicious​'.

Key Points

  • For the blank A, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'fatal, lethal'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'deadly, pernicious​':
  • Deadly: causing or likely to cause death
  • Pernicious: having a very harmful or evil effect on somebody/something
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'deadly, pernicious​' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank A.

​

Important Points

  • Let us look at the meanings of other words in the options:

 


Word
Meaning
effective, ghastlyEffective: successfully producing the result that you want
Ghastly: causing great horror or fear
hefty, impregnableHefty: large and heavy
Impregnable: unable to be captured or broken into
submissive, pliableSubmissive: ready to conform to the authority or will of others; meekly obedient or passive
Pliable: easily bent; flexible
frail, wimpyFrail: weak and delicate
Wimpy: weak and cowardly or feeble

Question 136

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank B.

  1. AOption (a)

    embraced, courted

  2. BOption (b)

    shaken, swayed

  3. COption (c)

    incurred, contracted

  4. DOption (d)

    perturb, tranquilize

  5. EOption (e)

    repress, subjugate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

shaken, swayed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'shaken, swayed​'.

Key Points

  • For the blank B, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'vibrate, tremble'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'shaken, swayed​':
  • Shaken: the past tense of the verb 'Shake' which means to tremble or vibrate
  • Swayed: the past tense of the verb 'Sway' which means to move or cause to move slowly or rhythmically backwards and forwards or from side to side
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'shaken, swayed​' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank B.

​

Important Points

  • Let us look at the meanings of other words in the options:

Word
Meaning
embraced, courtedEmbraced: the past tense of the verb 'Embrace' which means to hold (someone) closely in one's arms, especially as a sign of affection
Courted: the past tense of the verb 'Court' which means to be involved with (someone) romantically, with the intention of marrying
incurred, contractedIncurred: the past tense of the verb 'Incur' which means to become subject to (something unwelcome or unpleasant) as a result of one's own behaviour or actions
Contracted: the past tense of the verb 'Contract' which means to enter into a formal and legally binding agreement
perturb, tranquilizePerturb: make (someone) anxious or unsettled
Tranquilize: have a calming or sedative effect on
repress, subjugateRepress: subdue (someone or something) by force
Subjugate: bring under domination or control, especially by conquest

Question 137

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank C.

  1. AOption (a)

    undertake, initiate

  2. BOption (b)

    Dribble, proceed

  3. COption (c)

    Quelling, subsidence

  4. DOption (d)

    Outbreak, onset

  5. EOption (e)

    cessation, termination

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Outbreak, onset

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Outbreak, onset​'.

Key Points

  • For the blank C, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'eruption, flare-up'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'Outbreak, onset​':
  • Outbreak: a sudden occurrence of something unwelcome, such as war or disease
  • Onset: the beginning of something, especially something unpleasant
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'Outbreak, onset​' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank C.

​

Important Points

  • Let us look at the meanings of other words in the options:

Word
Meaning
Undertake, initiateUndertake: commit oneself to and begin (an enterprise or responsibility); take on
Initiate: cause (a process or action) to begin
Dribble, proceedDribble: fall slowly in drops or a thin stream
Proceed: begin a course of action
Quelling, subsidenceQuelling: put an end to (a rebellion or other disorder), typically by the use of force
Subsidence: the process by which land or buildings sink to a lower level
Cessation, terminationCessation: the fact or process of ending or being brought to an end
Termination: the action of terminating something or the fact of being terminated

Question 138

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank D.

  1. AOption (a)

    Squandered, dissipated

  2. BOption (b)

    nominal, slightest

  3. COption (c)

    preeminent, predominant

  4. DOption (d)

    terminant, cessed

  5. EOption (e)

    recoiling, rebounding

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

preeminent, predominant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'preeminent, predominant'.

Key Points

  • For the blank D, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'greatest, leading'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'preeminent, predominant':
  • Preeminent: surpassing all others; very distinguished in some way
  • Predominant: present as the strongest or main element
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'preeminent, predominant' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank D.

​

Important Points

  • Let us look at the meanings of other words in the options:

Word
Meaning
Squandered, dissipatedSquandered: the past tense of the verb 'Squander' which means to waste (something, especially money or time) in a reckless and foolish manner
Dissipated: (of a person or way of life) overindulging in sensual pleasures
Nominal, slightestNominal: very small; far below the real value or cost
Slightest: small in degree; inconsiderable
Terminant, cessedTerminant: termination; ending
Cessed: the past tense of the verb 'Cess' which means to tax or assess for taxation
Recoiling, reboundingRecoiling: rebounding or spring back through force of impact or elasticity
Rebounding: bounce back through the air after hitting something hard

Question 139

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank E.

  1. AOption (a)

    struggling, grappling

  2. BOption (b)

    fighting, combating

  3. COption (c)

    slackening, breaking

  4. DOption (d)

    Blooming, rising

  5. EOption (e)

    deteriorating, declining

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

struggling, grappling

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'struggling, grappling'.

Key Points

  • For the blank E, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'fighting'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'struggling, grappling':
  • Struggling: striving to achieve or attain something in the face of difficulty or resistance
  • Grappling: engage in a close fight or struggle without weapons; wrestle
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'struggling, grappling' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank E.​

Additional Information ​ 

  • Let us look at the meanings of other words in the options:

Word
Meaning
Fighting, combatingFighting: take part in a violent struggle involving the exchange of physical blows or the use of weapons
Combating: to take action to reduce or prevent (something bad or undesirable)
Slackening, breakingSlackening: make or become slack
Breaking: separate or cause to separate into pieces as a result of a blow, shock, or strain
Blooming, risingBlooming:  having blooms unfolding
Rising: going up, increasing, or sloping upward
Deteriorating, decliningDeteriorating: becoming progressively worse
Declining: becoming smaller, fewer, or less; decreasing

Question 140

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank F.

  1. AOption (a)

    studies, data

  2. BOption (b)

    pedagogy, education

  3. COption (c)

    gaming, entertainment

  4. DOption (d)

    scam, swindle

  5. EOption (e)

    transaction, negotiation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

pedagogy, education

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'pedagogy, education'.

Key Points

  • For the blank F, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'teaching'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'pedagogy, education':
  • Pedagogy: the method and practice of teaching, especially as an academic subject or theoretical concept
  • Education: the process of receiving or giving systematic instruction, especially at a school or university
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'pedagogy, education' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank F.

​​

Additional Information ​ 

  • Let us look at the meanings of other words in the options:

Word
Meaning
studies, dataStudies: the devotion of time and attention to gaining knowledge of an academic subject, especially by means of books
Data: facts and statistics collected together for reference or analysis
gaming, entertainmentGaming: the action or practice of playing gambling games
Entertainment: the action of providing or being provided with amusement or enjoyment
scam, swindleScam: a deceptive scheme or trick used to cheat someone out of something, especially money
Swindle: to get money dishonestly from someone by deceiving or cheating them
transaction, negotiationTransaction: an instance of buying or selling something
Negotiation: discussion aimed at reaching an agreement

Question 141

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank G.

  1. AOption (a)

    unapprochable, unattainable

  2. BOption (b)

    acquirable, impeachable

  3. COption (c)

    curbed, leashed

  4. DOption (d)

    navigable, traversable

  5. EOption (e)

    accessible, obtainable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

accessible, obtainable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'accessible, obtainable'.

Key Points

  • For the blank G, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'reachable'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'accessible, obtainable':
  • Accessible: able to be reached or entered
  • Obtainable: able to be obtained
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'accessible, obtainable' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank G.​

Additional Information ​ 

  • Let us look at the SYNONYMS of some words from the options:
WordSynonym
UnapproachableAloof
CurbedRestrained
NavigablePassable

Question 142

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank H.

  1. AOption (a)

    blended, integrated

  2. BOption (b)

    grooved, harmonized

  3. COption (c)

    contradicted, diverged

  4. DOption (d)

    coalesced, cohered

  5. EOption (e)

    flamboyant, ostentatious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

blended, integrated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'blended, integrated'.

Key Points

  • For the blank H, we need a word which is close in meaning to 'mixed, combined'.
  • Let us look at the meaning of the words 'blended, integrated':
  • Blended: the past tense of the verb 'Blend' which means to mix (a substance) with another substance so that they combine together
  • Integrated: the past tense of the verb 'Integrate' which means to form, coordinate, or blend into a functioning or unified whole
  • Therefore, from the meaning of the words, it can be concluded that these words are synonym of each other.
  • Hence, 'blended, integrated' is the most appropriate option to fill in blank H.​

Additional Information ​ 

  • Let us look at the SYNONYMS of some words from the options:
WordSynonym
BlendedMixed
ContradictedDenied
CoheredMatched

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

The COVID-19 crisis has hit the tourism economy hard, with unprecedented effects on jobs and businesses. Tourism was one of the first sectors to be deeply impacted by the pandemic, as measures introduced to contain the virus led to a near-complete cessation of tourism activities around the world. The sector also risks being among one of the last to recover, with the ongoing travel restrictions and the global recession. This has consequences beyond the tourism economy, with the many other sectors that support, and are supported by, tourism also significantly impacted.

The unprecedented shock to the tourism economy is being compounded by the evolving sanitary situation. While positive news on vaccines has boosted the hopes of tourism businesses and travellers alike, challenges remain. ___________________________________________________________________. This will further damage business and traveller confidence, and business survival prospects. Despite the proven resilience of the tourism economy to previous shocks, the sheer scale and combined economic and health nature of this crisis means that the road to recovery is highly uncertain. While there has been some resumption of international tourism activity, this remains very limited. Domestic tourism has restarted in many countries, but can only partially compensate for the loss of inbound tourism.

OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 80% in 2021. No meaningful recovery in international tourism flows is foreseen until well into 2021, and is likely to take some years. This is in line with recent projections by other organisations. Latest UN World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) estimates point to a 70% decline year-on-year in international tourist arrivals in the first eight months of the year, with the loss in export revenues from international tourism eight times that recorded in 2009 amid the global financial crisis. UNWTO now foresees a decline in international arrivals close to 70%, with recovery to pre-crisis levels not expected before 2023.

Domestic tourism is providing a much-needed boost to help sustain many tourism destinations and businesses and will continue to be a key driver of recovery in the short to medium term. There has been some pick up in domestic tourism activities since the middle of the year, due in part to displacement effects of international travel restrictions. However, this has been hindered as many countries face further waves of the virus, and domestic tourism is expected to end the year significantly down on pre-COVID levels. Spain and the United Kingdom, for example, are forecasting a decrease in domestic tourism by 45-50% in 2020. Also, not all destinations or businesses have benefited, due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours.

This is having very tangible economic and social consequences for many people, places and businesses, and the wider economy. Tourism generates foreign exchange, supports jobs and businesses, drives regional development and underpins local communities. Before the pandemic, the sector directly contributed 4.4% of GDP, 6.9% of employment, and 21.5% of service exports in OECD countries, on average (and 6.5% of global exports according to the World Trade Organisation3). However, these shares are much higher for several OECD countries, where tourism is a major driver of economic activities, such as France (7.4% of GDP), Greece (6.8%), Iceland (8.6%), Mexico (8.7%), Portugal (8.0%) and Spain (11.8%). The indirect impacts of tourism are also significant, exacerbating the size of the shock on national and local economies.

Question 143

According to the passage, which was the first sector to be deeply impacted?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tourism

  2. BOption (b)

    Education

  3. COption (c)

    Medical

  4. DOption (d)

    Agriculture

  5. EOption (e)

    Robotics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tourism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Tourism'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the second line of the first paragraph:
  • 'Tourism was one of the first sectors to be deeply impacted by the pandemic, as measures introduced to contain the virus led to a near-complete cessation of tourism activities around the world.'
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that according to the passage, the first sector to be deeply impacted is tourism.**
  • Therefore, 'Tourism' is the correct option here.

​

Additional Information 

  • Let us see the meaning of 'Impacted':
  • Impacted: the past tense of the verb 'Impact' which means to have a direct effect on
  • Example:
  • Slow job growth impacted the overall economic outlook.

Question 144

Fill the blank in the following sentence with the most meaningful sentence as per the context of the passage. 

While positive news on vaccines has boosted the hopes of tourism businesses and travellers alike, challenges remain. ______________________________

  1. AOption (a)

    Vaccine roll out will be done in full throttle.

  2. BOption (b)

    It will be independent of vaccine roll out and tourism is completely isolated.

  3. COption (c)

    Vaccine roll out will take some time, and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some time.

  4. DOption (d)

    Vaccine roll out will improve the current scenario and tourism sector will boom.

  5. EOption (e)

    Vaccine roll out is uncertain, and it puts the economy in danger.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vaccine roll out will take some time, and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some time.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Vaccine roll out will take some time, and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some time'.

Key Points

  • The given passage talks about the ill effects of COVID-19 on tourism.
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above passage, it can be concluded that the challenges will remain because the proper roll-out of the vaccine will take some time and the section is possibly facing some problems for start/stop cycles.
  • Therefore, 'Vaccine roll out will take some time, and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some time' is the correct option here.

​​

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the phrasal verb 'Roll out' is 'to make a new product, service, or system available for the first time'.
  • If a company rolls out a new product or service, or if the product or service rolls out, it is made available to the public. 
  • Example: A media campaign is expected to roll out early next year.

Question 145

According to the passage, OECD now estimates that international tourism will fall by around how much percent in 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    80%

  2. BOption (b)

    70%

  3. COption (c)

    60%

  4. DOption (d)

    50%

  5. EOption (e)

    40%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

80%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '80%'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the first line of the third paragraph:
  • 'OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 80% in 2021.'
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that according to the passage, OECD now estimates that international tourism will fall by around 80% in 2021.**
  • Therefore, '80%' is the correct option here.

​​

Additional Information 

  • Let us see the meaning of some words from the passage:

 

WordMeaning
Declinebecome smaller, fewer, or less; decrease
Arrivalsthe action or process of arriving
Crisisa time of intense difficulty or danger

Question 146

Before the pandemic, how much percent did the tourism sector directly contribute to the GDP?

  1. AOption (a)

    22.6

  2. BOption (b)

    4.4

  3. COption (c)

    6.9

  4. DOption (d)

    21.5

  5. EOption (e)

    4.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4.4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '4.4'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the third line of the last paragraph:
  • 'Before the pandemic, the sector directly contributed 4.4% of GDP, 6.9% of employment, and 21.5% of service exports in OECD countries, on average (and 6.5% of global exports according to the World Trade Organisation3).'
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that before the pandemic, 4.4% of GDP is contributed by the tourism sector directly.**
  • Therefore, '4.4' is the correct option here.

​​

Additional Information 

  • Let us see the meaning of some words from the passage:

 

WordMeaning
Pandemicprevalent over a whole country or the world
Exportsgoods and services that are produced in one country and sold to buyers in another
Crisisa time of intense difficulty or danger

Question 147

Which statement is grammatically incorrect in the given options?

  1. AOption (a)

    The sector also risk being among one of the last to recover.

  2. BOption (b)

    This is having very tangible economic and social consequences for many people.

  3. COption (c)

    This has been hindered as many countries face further waves of the virus.

  4. DOption (d)

    These shares are much higher for several OECD countries.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The sector also risk being among one of the last to recover.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The sector also risk being among one of the last to recover'.

Key Points

  • 'Sector' is a singular noun and it takes a singular verb.
  • If a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular.
  • If a subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.
  • In the present tense, nouns and verbs form plurals in opposite ways:  nouns ADD an s to the singular form; verbs REMOVE the s from the singular form.
  • Example: The boys go to the party.
  • The sentence 'The sector also risk being among one of the last to recover' is incorrect because the verb 'risk' is used incorrectly. 'risks' should be there in place of 'risk'.
  • Therefore, 'The sector also risk being among one of the last to recover' is the correct option here.

​​

Additional Information 

  • Basic Rule:  A singular subject (she, Bill, car) takes a singular verb (is, goes, shines), whereas a plural subject takes a plural verb.
  • Example: *The list of items is/are on the desk. (*If you know that list is the subject, then you will choose is for the verb.)
  • Rule 1. A subject will come before a phrase beginning with of and this is a key rule for understanding subjects.

           The word of is the culprit in many, perhaps most, subject-verb mistakes.

  • Example: A bouquet of yellow roses lend color and fragrance to the room. [Incorrect]

                A bouquet of yellow roses lends color and fragrance to the room. [Correct]

  • Rule 2. Two singular subjects connected by or, either/or, or neither/nor require a singular verb.
  • Example: My aunt or my uncle is arriving by train today.

Question 148

Why all destinations or businesses have not been benefited ?

  1. AOption (a)

     due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours.

  2. BOption (b)

    due to delay in vaccine roll out and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some time.

  3. COption (c)

    because there has been some pick up in domestic tourism activities since the middle of the year.

  4. DOption (d)

    because this is having very tangible economic and social consequences for many people

  5. EOption (e)

    as it drives regional development and underpins local communities.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the last line of the fourth paragraph:
  • 'Also, not all destinations or businesses have benefited, due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours.'
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that all destinations or businesses have not been benefited due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours.
  • Therefore, 'due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and behaviours' is the correct option here.

​

Additional Information 

  • Let us see the SYNONYMS of some words from the given passage:

 

WordSynonym
BenefittedGained
RestrictionsLimitations
DemandRequest

Question 149

Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    While there has been some resumption of international tourism activity, this remains very limited.

  2. BOption (b)

    Tourism was one of the first sectors to be deeply impacted by the pandemic,

  3. COption (c)

    OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 50% in 2021.

  4. DOption (d)

     UNWTO now foresees a decline in international arrivals close to 70%, with recovery to pre-crisis levels not expected before 2023.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 50% in 2021.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 50% in 2021'.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the first line of the third paragraph:
  • 'OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 80% in 2021.'
  • ​After a complete analysis of the above statement, it can be concluded that OECD now estimates that international tourism will not fall by around 50% in 2021.
  • Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
  • Therefore, 'OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 50% in 2020' is the correct option here.​

Additional Information 

  • Let us see the meaning of some words from the passage:

 

WordMeaning
Decline (Verb)become smaller, fewer, or less; decrease
Arrivals (Noun)the action or process of arriving
Estimate (Verb)roughly calculate or judge the value, number, quantity, or extent of.

Question 150

Choose the combination that forms a correct sentence.

A. It was a sunny dayi. orD. the wind was cold.
B. I'm going to write good jokesii. yetE. she would die.
C. She had to have the operationiii. andF. become a good comedian.
  1. AOption (a)

    A-iii-D

  2. BOption (b)

    B-iii-F

  3. COption (c)

    C-ii-E

  4. DOption (d)

    C-iii-F

  5. EOption (e)

    B-ii-A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B-iii-F

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'B-iii-F'.

Key Points

  • To choose the correct combination that completes the sentence, we have to go through the options one by one.
  • The combination 'A-iii-D' i.e. 'It was a sunny day and the wind was cold' is incorrect as both the sentences are contradicting each other and the conjunction 'and' is used to join two or more clauses of equal importance or rank.
  • The combination 'C-ii-E' i.e. 'She had to have the operation yet she would die' is incorrect. You can use yet to introduce a fact which is rather surprising after the previous fact you have just mentioned.
  • The combination 'C-iii-F' i.e. 'She had to have the operation and become a good comedian' is contextually incorrect because the conjunction 'and' is used to join two or more clauses of equal importance or rank.
  • The combination 'B-ii-A' i.e. 'I'm going to write good jokes yet It was a sunny day' is incorrect. You can use yet to introduce a fact which is rather surprising after the previous fact you have just mentioned.
  • The combination 'B-iii-F' i.e. 'I'm going to write good jokes and become a good comedian' is correct both the sentences are of the same rank and the conjunction 'and' is used to join two or more clauses of equal importance or rank.
  • Hence, 'B-iii-F' is the correct answer.​

Additional Information

  • Sentence connectors are used to link ideas from one sentence to the next and to give paragraphs coherence.
  • It performs different functions and are placed at the beginning of a sentence.
  • They are used to introduce, order, contrast, sequence ideas, theory, data etc. 
  • Example: Ravi and Reeta loves to play badminton.

Question 151

Choose the combination that completes the sentence.

A. We cannot understand diseasei. untilD. .as this information was received.
B. You’ll just have to waitii. as soonE. we understand the person who has the disease
C. The airstrikes were haltediii. unlessF.  they call your name
  1. AOption (a)

    A-i-E

  2. BOption (b)

    B-ii-D

  3. COption (c)

    C-iii-D

  4. DOption (d)

    A-iii-E

  5. EOption (e)

    C-ii-E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-iii-E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A-iii-E'.

Key Points

  • To choose the correct combination that completes the sentence, we have to go through the options one by one.
  • The combination 'A-iii-E' i.e. 'We cannot understand disease unless we understand the person who has the disease' is correct because these sentences are conditional sentences and Unless is used instead of if...not in conditional sentences of all types.
  • You use unless to introduce the only circumstances in which an event you are mentioning will not take place or in which a statement you are making is not true.
  • Example: You'll be sick unless you stop eating.
  • Hence, 'A-iii-E' is the correct answer.​

Additional Information 

  • Conditional sentences are statements discussing known factors or hypothetical situations and their consequences.
  • Complete conditional sentences contain a conditional clause (often referred to as the if-clause) and the consequence. 
  • Example: If a certain condition is true, then a particular result happens.

                When the water reaches 100 degrees, it boils.

Question 152

Choose the combination that completes the sentence.

A. I decided to take a nap under my deski. wheneverD. sometimes they missed their friends.
B. The Sharmas liked their new home,ii. whileE. someone walks by our house.
C. Our dog barksiii. althoughF. everyone else was in the meeting.
  1. AOption (a)

    C-iii-E

  2. BOption (b)

    B--iii-D

  3. COption (c)

    B-i-E

  4. DOption (d)

    C-i-F

  5. EOption (e)

    A-i-E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B--iii-D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'B-iii-D'.

Key Points

  • To choose the correct combination that completes the sentence, we have to go through the options one by one.
  • The combination 'B-iii-D' i.e. 'The Sharmas liked their new home although sometimes they missed their friends' is correct because both the sentences are contrasting in nature.
  • Although is used to link two contrasting ideas or show that one fact makes the other fact surprising.
  • Example: Although she is young, she is very independent.
  • Hence, 'B-iii-D' is the correct answer.​

Additional Information 

  • Although, even though, in spite of and despite are all used to link two contrasting ideas or show that one fact makes the other fact surprising.
  • They can all be used at the beginning or in the middle of the sentence. 
  • Example: Despite the rain, we enjoyed the festival.

                Although we don't agree, I think she's a brilliant speaker.

Question 153

Choose the combination that completes the sentence.

A. Our best teams can still be competitivei. lestD. they annoyed the neighbours.
B. There was additional work to be doneii. as long asE. all the troops would be ready.
C. They were afraid to complain about the noiseiii. beforeF. they put out their strongest sides.
  1. AOption (a)

    B-iii-D

  2. BOption (b)

    A-i-F

  3. COption (c)

    A-ii-F

  4. DOption (d)

    B-ii-E

  5. EOption (e)

    C-i-E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-ii-F

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A-ii-F'.

Key Points

  • To choose the correct combination that completes the sentence, we have to go through the options one by one.
  • The combination 'A-ii-F' i.e. 'Our best teams can still be competitive as long as they put out their strongest sides' is correct because we use as long as to refer to the intended duration of a plan or idea, most commonly referring to the future.
  • If you say that something is the case as long as or so long as something else is the case, you mean that it is only the case if the second thing is the case.
  • We always use the present simple to refer to the future after as long as.
  • Example: We are very happy for you to stay at our house as long as you like.
  • Hence, 'A-ii-F' is the correct answer.​

Additional Information

  • One way to think about connectors is that they connect sentences, helping the reader follow the meaning of the sentence.
  • Connectors are sometimes used to start a sentence, while at other times they can be placed in the middle position of a sentence.
  • Types:
  • Simple connectors (called conjunctions): and, but, or.
  • Complex connectors: however, therefore, although, unless, subsequently.
  • Connectors should offer additional information to the reader.
  • They can do this by emphasising contrasting meanings, adding reason or cause and showing succession.
  • Example: Either Rajeev or Rishu will win the match.

Question 154

Choose the combination that completes the sentence.

A. I told her to leave,i. forD. does he want to live in the city.
B. The grocery store was out of tomatoes,ii. soE. I was very tired
C. He doesn't want to live in the country when he grows up,iii. norF. I borrowed some from my neighbor.
  1. AOption (a)

    A-ii-E

  2. BOption (b)

    B-i-D

  3. COption (c)

    A-i-E

  4. DOption (d)

    B-iii-F

  5. EOption (e)

    C-i-D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-i-E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A-i-E'.

Key Points

  • To choose the correct combination that completes the sentence, we have to go through the options one by one.
  • The combination 'A-i-E' i.e. 'I told her to leave, for I was very tired' is correct.
  • For is used as a conjunction to indicate the reason or because of and to connect two clauses.
  • Example: I didn't talk to her, for I was very angry.
  • Hence, 'A-i-E' is the correct answer.​

Additional Information 

  • For can be used in the following ways:
  • As a preposition (followed by a noun): 
  • Example: I bought some flowers for Chloe. Wait there for a while.
  • As a conjunction (connecting two clauses):
  • Example: I told her to leave, for she was getting late.

Question 155

Choose the combination that completes the sentence.

 

A. The rest of his 'team' are simply assistants,i. lestD.he should report the matter to the king
B. They feared to spare himii. provided thatE. all very good at what they do.
C. You may keep the book a further weekiii. thoughF. no one else requires it.
  1. AOption (a)

    C-i-F

  2. BOption (b)

    A-ii-E

  3. COption (c)

    B-i-D

  4. DOption (d)

    C-iii-F

  5. EOption (e)

    A-i-F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B-i-D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'B-i-D'.

Key Points

  • To choose the correct combination that completes the sentence, we have to go through the options one by one.
  • The combination 'B-i-D' i.e. 'They feared to spare him lest he should report the matter to the king' is correct.
  • The conjunction lest is used in order to prevent something from happening or to introduce the reason for the particular emotion mentioned.
  • Example: She was afraid lest she had revealed too much.
  • Hence, 'B-i-D' is the correct answer.​

Additional Information 

  • The conjunction lest means (1) for fear that, or (2) in order to avoid.
  • It is followed by something the speaker thinks should be avoided.
  • The clause introduced by lest is usually in the subjunctive mood, but this is not required for writers who aren’t comfortable with subjunctive constructions.
  • Example: We’re going to proofread this twice lest we make errors that hurt our credibility.

                 I suppose it is unwise of me to make this confession now, lest our insurance company reads this article.

155 questions in the full paper