Previous Year Paper

SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 20 July 2019) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

155 questions180 minutes
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Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (45 questions)

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges itself following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement.

Input: 575345 182561 251567 889481 913456 342366 

Step I: 545375 161582 267551 881489 956413 366342

Step II: 161582 267551 366342 545375 881849 956413 

Step III: 115268 155726 332466 355574 194888 135946

Step IV: 91526 75572 93246 75557 99488 73594

Step V: 73594 75557 75572 91526 93246 99488

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement for the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Question 1

What will be the sum of the digits of the extreme left number in Step 1?

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    17

  5. EOption (e)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The second and third digits of each number are interchanged with the fifth and sixth digits respectively.

Step II: The numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step III: In each number, the odd digits are arranged in ascending order followed by the arrangement of even digits in ascending order.

Step IV: The first and last digits are added and their sum is placed as the first digit. This operation is performed with every 6-digit input number.

Step V: The 5-digit numbers obtained in step IV are arranged in ascending order.

 

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Step I: 261214 145130 321433 720615 351412 156423

Step II: 145130 156423 261214 321433 351412 720615

Step III: 113504 135246 112246 133324 113524 157026

Step IV: 51350 73524 71224 53332 51352 75702

Step V: 51350 51352 53332 71224 73524 75702

 

Step V is the final arrangement.

Step I: 261214 145130 321433 720615 351412 156423

The extreme left number in step I is 261214.

Sum of the digits = 2 + 6 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 4 = 16.

Hence, the required sum is 16.

Question 2

Which is the 4th number from the left in step 2?

  1. AOption (a)

    321433

  2. BOption (b)

    145131

  3. COption (c)

    156423

  4. DOption (d)

    351412

  5. EOption (e)

    72161

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

321433

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The second and third digits of each number are interchanged with the fifth and sixth digits respectively.

Step II: The numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step III: In each number, the odd digits are arranged in ascending order followed by the arrangement of even digits in ascending order.

Step IV: The first and last digits are added and their sum is placed as the first digit. This operation is performed with every 6-digit input number.

Step V: The 5-digit numbers obtained in step IV are arranged in ascending order.

 

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Step I: 261214 145130 321433 720615 351412 156423

Step II: 145130 156423 261214 321433 351412 720615

Step III: 113504 135246 112246 133324 113524 157026

Step IV: 51350 73524 71224 53332 51352 75702

Step V: 51350 51352 53332 71224 73524 75702

 

Step V is the final arrangement.

Hence, the fourth number from the left in step II is 321433.

Question 3

How many even numbers are there in Step 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Six

  5. EOption (e)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Six

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The second and third digits of each number are interchanged with the fifth and sixth digits respectively.

Step II: The numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step III: In each number, the odd digits are arranged in ascending order followed by the arrangement of even digits in ascending order.

Step IV: The first and last digits are added and their sum is placed as the first digit. This operation is performed with every 6-digit input number.

Step V: The 5-digit numbers obtained in step IV are arranged in ascending order.

 

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Step I: 261214 145130 321433 720615 351412 156423

Step II: 145130 156423 261214 321433 351412 720615

Step III: 113504 135246 112246 133324 113524 157026

Step IV: 51350 73524 71224 53332 51352 75702

Step V: 51350 51352 53332 71224 73524 75702

 

Step V is the final arrangement.

Clearly, every number in step III is an even number.

Hence, there are six even numbers in step III.

Question 4

What will be the difference between the first and the fourth numbers from the left in step 4?

  1. AOption (a)

    1782

  2. BOption (b)

    1382

  3. COption (c)

    1582

  4. DOption (d)

    1982

  5. EOption (e)

    1482

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1982

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The second and third digits of each number are interchanged with the fifth and sixth digits respectively.

Step II: The numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step III: In each number, the odd digits are arranged in ascending order followed by the arrangement of even digits in ascending order.

Step IV: The first and last digits are added and their sum is placed as the first digit. This operation is performed with every 6-digit input number.

Step V: The 5-digit numbers obtained in step IV are arranged in ascending order.

 

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Step I: 261214 145130 321433 720615 351412 156423

Step II: 145130 156423 261214 321433 351412 720615

Step III: 113504 135246 112246 133324 113524 157026

Step IV: 51350 73524 71224 53332 51352 75702

Step V: 51350 51352 53332 71224 73524 75702

 

Step V is the final arrangement.

The first number from the left in step IV is 51350.

The fourth number from the left in step IV is 53332.

Their difference = 53332 - 51350 = 1982.

Hence, 1982 is the required answer.

Question 5

How many numbers have repeated digits in Step IV?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

  5. EOption (e)

    Five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Five

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The second and third digits of each number are interchanged with the fifth and sixth digits respectively.

Step II: The numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step III: In each number, the odd digits are arranged in ascending order followed by the arrangement of even digits in ascending order.

Step IV: The first and last digits are added and their sum is placed as the first digit. This operation is performed with every 6-digit input number.

Step V: The 5-digit numbers obtained in step IV are arranged in ascending order.

 

Input: 214261 130145 333421 715620 312451 123456

Step I: 261214 145130 321433 720615 351412 156423

Step II: 145130 156423 261214 321433 351412 720615

Step III: 113504 135246 112246 133324 113524 157026

Step IV: 51350 73524 71224 53332 51352 75702

Step V: 51350 51352 53332 71224 73524 75702

 

Step V is the final arrangement.

Numbers having repeated digits in step IV:

Step IV: 51350 73524 71224 53332 51352 75702

Hence, there are five numbers with repeated digits in step IV.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question based on it.

If A # B: B is 5 m to the right of A.

If A $ B: B is 5 m to the south of A.

If A @ B: B is 5 m to the left of A.

If A % B: B is 5 m to the north of A.

Assume that the first person is facing towards north.

Question 6

If J @ K % M % L # W, How far is W with respect to J?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 m

  2. BOption (b)

    20 m

  3. COption (c)

    10 m

  4. DOption (d)

    15 m

  5. EOption (e)

    25 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 m

Why this answer is correct

The diagram for the given direction problem is as follows:

Hence, W is 10 m far with respect to J.

Question 7

If M % N @ O $ P, in which direction is P with respect to M?

  1. AOption (a)

    West

  2. BOption (b)

    South

  3. COption (c)

    East

  4. DOption (d)

    South-west

  5. EOption (e)

    North

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

West

Why this answer is correct

The diagram for the given direction problem is as follows:

<sub> </sub>

Hence, P is in west direction with respect to M.

Question 8

If U % V # W # R % S, then which of the following is definitely true?

  1. AOption (a)

    R # V

  2. BOption (b)

    U @ V

  3. COption (c)

    V $ U

  4. DOption (d)

    W $ S

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

V $ U

Why this answer is correct

The diagram for the given direction problem is as follows:

Hence, V $ U is the true statement.

In a certain code language,

“beach material said entire” is coded as “7V& 9O@ 5W@ 3S@”,

“schools was proper system” is coded as “1H& 7N& 7I@ 5H@”,

“they could accept request” is coded as “5B& 3W@ 7G@ 5G&”,

“pink house looks nice” is coded as “5V@ 3V& 3H@ 5P&”.

Question 9

What is the code for “independent” in this code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    9W@

  2. BOption (b)

    10W@

  3. COption (c)

    12G@

  4. DOption (d)

    9G@

  5. EOption (e)

    9G&

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9G@

Why this answer is correct

  1. 1st element is number that represents

Number of letters in a word – 2 (if odd no. of letters in the word).

Number of letters in a word + 1 (if even no. of letters in the word).

  1. 2nd element is the letter which is at the same position from the end of the English alphabet series as that of the last letter in the word and is written in its capital form.

  2. 3rd element is symbol that represents

@ → if even no. of vowels in the word.

& → if odd no. of vowels in the word.

Ex:

9O@ for “material”

No. of letters in material is 8.

9 → 8 + 1

Last letter in material is “l”.

“l” is 12th letter from the starting of alphabet.

The 12th letter from end of the alphabet is “O”.

Four vowels (a, e, i, a) are present in material.

@ → even number of vowels.

 

3S@ for “beach”

No. of letters in beach is 5.

3 → 5 – 2

Last letter in beach is “h”.

“h” is 8th letter from the starting.

The 8th letter from the end is “S”.

Two vowels (a, e) are present in beach.

@ → even number of vowels. 

Following the same logic “independent” can be written as:

No. of letters in independent is 11.

9 → 11 – 2

Last letter in independent is “t”.

“t” is 20th element from the starting.

20th element from the end is “G”.

Four vowels (i, e, e, e) are present in independent.

@ → even number of vowels.

Hence, independent can be coded as “9G@”.

Question 10

“7I@” may be the code for which of the following word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Films​

  2. BOption (b)

    Forest

  3. COption (c)

    Flower

  4. DOption (d)

    Simple

  5. EOption (e)

    Prepare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Flower

Why this answer is correct

  1. 1st element is number that represents

Number of letters in a word – 2 (if odd no. of letters in the word).

Number of letters in a word + 1 (if even no. of letters in the word).

  1. 2nd element is the letter which is at the same position from the end of the English alphabet series as that of the last letter in the word and is written in its capital form.

  2. 3rd element is symbol that represents

@ → if even no. of vowels in the word.

& → if odd no. of vowels in the word.

Ex:

9O@ for “material”

No. of letters in material is 8.

9 → 8 + 1

Last letter in material is “l”.

“l” is 12th letter from the starting of alphabet.

The 12th letter from end of the alphabet is “O”.

Four vowels (a, e, i, a) are present in material.

@ → even number of vowels.

 

3S@ for “beach”

No. of letters in beach is 5.

3 → 5 – 2

Last letter in beach is “h”.

“h” is 8th letter from the starting.

The 8th letter from the end is “S”.

Two vowels (a, e) are present in beach.

@ → even number of vowels.

“7I@” is code for flower.

Number of letters in flower is 6.

7 → 6 + 1

Last letter in flower is “r”.

“r” is 18th letter from the starting.

18th letter from the end is “I”.

Two vowels (o, e) are present in flower.

@ → even no. of vowels.

Hence, “7I@” is code for flower.

Question 11

What is the code for “she is innocent girl”?

  1. AOption (a)

    1U&, 9G&, 3H&, 5O@

  2. BOption (b)

    1V&, 5O@, 3H&, 9G&

  3. COption (c)

    1V&, 5O&, 9G&, 3H&

  4. DOption (d)

    1U@, 9G@, 3H&, 5O@

  5. EOption (e)

    1V@, 5O&, 9G&, 3H&

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1V&, 5O&, 9G&, 3H&

Why this answer is correct

  1. 1st element is number that represents

Number of letters in a word – 2 (if odd no. of letters in the word).

Number of letters in a word + 1 (if even no. of letters in the word).

  1. 2nd element is the letter which is at the same position from the end of the English alphabet series as that of the last letter in the word and is written in its capital form.

  2. 3rd element is symbol that represents

@ → if even no. of vowels in the word.

& → if odd no. of vowels in the word.

Ex:

9O@ for “material”

No. of letters in material is 8.

9 → 8 + 1

Last letter in material is “l”.

“l” is 12th letter from the starting of alphabet.

The 12th letter from end of the alphabet is “O”.

Four vowels (a, e, i, a) are present in material.

@ → even number of vowels.

 

3S@ for “beach”

No. of letters in beach is 5.

3 → 5 – 2

Last letter in beach is “h”.

“h” is 8th letter from the starting.

The 8th letter from the end is “S”.

Two vowels (a, e) are present in beach.

@ → even number of vowels.

In similar way,

she → 1V&

is → 3H&

innocent → 9G&

girl → 5O&

Hence, code for “she is innocent girl” is “1V&, 5O&, 9G&, 3H&”.

Question 12

What will be the code for “job is important for all”?

  1. AOption (a)

    1O&, 1Y&, 7G&, 3I&, 1I&

  2. BOption (b)

    1O&, 3Y&, 7G&, 3H&, 2I&

  3. COption (c)

    2O&, 1Y&, 9G&, 3H&, 1I&

  4. DOption (d)

    1O&, 1Y&, 7G&, 3H&, 1I&

  5. EOption (e)

    1O@, 1Y&, 7G&, 3H@, 1I&

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1O&, 1Y&, 7G&, 3H&, 1I&

Why this answer is correct

  1. 1st element is number that represents

Number of letters in a word – 2 (if odd no. of letters in the word).

Number of letters in a word + 1 (if even no. of letters in the word).

  1. 2nd element is the letter which is at the same position from the end of the English alphabet series as that of the last letter in the word and is written in its capital form.

  2. 3rd element is symbol that represents

@ → if even no. of vowels in the word.

& → if odd no. of vowels in the word.

Ex:

9O@ for “material”

No. of letters in material is 8.

9 → 8 + 1

Last letter in material is “l”.

“l” is 12th letter from the starting of alphabet.

The 12th letter from end of the alphabet is “O”.

Four vowels (a, e, i, a) are present in material.

@ → even number of vowels.

 

3S@ for “beach”

No. of letters in beach is 5.

3 → 5 – 2

Last letter in beach is “h”.

“h” is 8th letter from the starting.

The 8th letter from the end is “S”.

Two vowels (a, e) are present in beach.

@ → even number of vowels.

In similar way,

job → 1Y&

is → 3H&

important → 7G&

for → 1I&

all → 1O&

Hence, code for “job is important for all” is 1O&, 1Y&, 7G&, 3H&, 1I&”.

Question 13

What will be the code for “fluctuations” in this code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    11H&

  2. BOption (b)

    13I@

  3. COption (c)

    13I&

  4. DOption (d)

    13H&

  5. EOption (e)

    11H@

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

13H&

Why this answer is correct

  1. 1st element is number that represents

Number of letters in a word – 2 (if odd no. of letters in the word).

Number of letters in a word + 1 (if even no. of letters in the word).

  1. 2nd element is the letter which is at the same position from the end of the English alphabet series as that of the last letter in the word and is written in its capital form.

  2. 3rd element is symbol that represents

@ → if even no. of vowels in the word.

& → if odd no. of vowels in the word.

Ex:

9O@ for “material”

No. of letters in material is 8.

9 → 8 + 1

Last letter in material is “l”.

“l” is 12th letter from the starting of alphabet.

The 12th letter from end of the alphabet is “O”.

Four vowels (a, e, i, a) are present in material.

@ → even number of vowels.

3S@ for “beach”

No. of letters in beach is 5.

3 → 5 – 2

Last letter in beach is “h”.

“h” is 8th letter from the starting.

The 8th letter from the end is “S”.

Two vowels (a, e) are present in beach.

@ → even number of vowels.

No. of letters in fluctuations is 12.

13 → 12 + 1

Last letter in fluctuations is “s”.

“s” is 19th letter from the starting.

19th letter from the end is “H”.

Five vowels (u, u, a, i, o) are present in fluctuations.

& → odd number of vowels.

Hence, code for “fluctuations” is “13H&”.

Question 14

Directions

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

During an ongoing conversation between the creative artist and the Manager of an interior decoration firm,

The creative artist said " The content of the Company XYZ is not good hence no more tender should be given to the company.

The Manager replied " there is a rivalry between company XYZ and ABC due to which there are such rumours against company XYZ in the market.  

What could be the viewpoint of the manager while replying to the Creative artist?

  1. AOption (a)

    The manager thinks that the creative artist is a fresher and doesn't know about the Tender process

  2. BOption (b)

    The manager has previously worked with Company XYZ and thus knows about the quality of their content.

  3. COption (c)

    The manager has reasons to believe that company ABC is spreading rumours about company XYZ.

  4. DOption (d)

    The content of company XYZ is better than company ABC

  5. EOption (e)

    The manager does not trust the Creative artist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The manager has reasons to believe that company ABC is spreading rumours about company XYZ.

Why this answer is correct

There is no information given on the work experience of the creative artist or that of the manager, therefore, options 1 and 2 do not follow. 

Being the manager of a company, he possibly has some knowledge about the relation between the two companies (XYZ and ABC) working in the industry and hence the response. Therefore, option 3 follows.

There is no reason to comment on the rivalry between the companies XYZ and ABC, the manager could instead talk about the quality of the content of XYZ and hence option 4 does not follow.

The manager's reply nowhere indicates a lack of trust in the artist and hence option 5 does not follow.

Question 15

Homeowners aged 40 to 50 are more likely to purchase ice cream and are more likely to purchase it in larger amounts than members of any other demographic group. The popular belief that teenagers eat more ice-cream than adults must, therefore, be false.

The argument is flawed because the author -

  1. AOption (a)

    fails to distinguish between purchasing and consuming.

  2. BOption (b)

    does not supply information about homeowners in age groups other than 40 to 50.

  3. COption (c)

    depends on popular belief rather than on documented research findings.

  4. DOption (d)

    does not specify the precise amount of ice cream purchased by any demographic group.

  5. EOption (e)

    discusses ice cream rather than more nutritious and healthful foods.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

fails to distinguish between purchasing and consuming.

Why this answer is correct

The argument states that homeowners are more likely to purchase ice-cream and in larger amounts. It also states that the common belief that teenagers eat more ice-cream than adults must be false, as a result. This is flawed as the study makes no distinction between purchasing and consuming. The demographic age group could be purchasing more ice cream but that does not necessarily imply that they are eating more of it – they could be purchasing it for their children, who could also be teenagers. Thus option 1 is correct.

Question 16

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Question: Most people like to wake up every morning to a hot cup of tea and a newspaper. Newspaper gives people a fair idea of the happenings in the world and prepares them for their daily discussion about it with friends, fellow commuters and colleagues.  Readership of newspapers has taken a beating nowadays.

Which of the following ways would best help increase it in today’s day and age?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase the number of advertisements in the paper.

  2. BOption (b)

    Give out free copies initially and then get people to subscribe to the paper.

  3. COption (c)

    Add a number of leisure related like cartoons, puzzles and jokes.

  4. DOption (d)

    Improve news coverage and make it succinct, crisp, factual and riveting.

  5. EOption (e)

    Avoid silly news articles.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Improve news coverage and make it succinct, crisp, factual and riveting.

Why this answer is correct

Improving news coverage and making it succinct, crisp, factual and riveting can encourage people to start reading newspapers again.

Question 17

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

In the year of 1945, two atomic bombs were dropped on Japan cities Hiroshima and Nagasaki which killed hundreds of thousands of people and their effects are still being felt today. It burnt around 70 percent of all buildings and caused an estimated 140,000 deaths by the end of 1945. It increased cancer rates and chronic disease among survivors. Some people who entered the cities after the bombing to provide assistance also died from the radiation.

Given below are some options, select the one which is definitely not a long term effect to humans caused by this incident.

  1. AOption (a)

    Leukaemia among survivors increased after the bombing.

  2. BOption (b)

    Survivors began suffering from thyroid, breast, lung and other cancers at higher rates.

  3. COption (c)

    Due to this the ground temperature reached up to 4000 degree Celsius.

  4. DOption (d)

    Children exposed to radiation in their mother's womb are likely to have intellectual disabilities and impaired growth.

  5. EOption (e)

    Pregnant women exposed to such radiations would experience miscarriage or even death of their infants.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Due to this the ground temperature reached up to 4000 degree Celsius.

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the correct option as it does not talk about the long term effects caused due to the bomb blast whereas the other 4 options do. Option 3 tells us that due to this bombing the ground temperature had reached to a high level but it does not talk or give information on how it had affected the humans so it becomes irrelevant.

Other options could be the possible effects of this bombing on humans such as Leukaemia, an increase of cancer rates among survivors, miscarriage and such.

Question 18

Directions

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Statements: A research shows that 80% of the youth today prefer socializing on the internet over personal interaction. The prominent reason behind this precedence was the lack of emotional involvement required when it came to socializing via internet.

Which of the following assertions best infer the above statements?

  1. AOption (a)

    The youth today only interacts through online networking media.

  2. BOption (b)

    Socializing on the internet does not require emotional involvement.

  3. COption (c)

    It is more comfortable for the youth today to interact with less emotional attachment.

  4. DOption (d)

    The youth today prefer online socializing because it does not involve personal interaction.

  5. EOption (e)

    Today’s youth lack the ability to socialize face-to-face, therefore prefer interacting online.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is more comfortable for the youth today to interact with less emotional attachment.

Why this answer is correct

Answer: 3. It is more comfortable for the youth today to interact with less emotional attachment.

Solution: The given statements suggest 80% of youth today prefers online socializing, therefore option 1 is incorrect. The youth prefers online networking because they think it requires less emotional involvement; hence option 2 cannot be correct. Option 4 can also be eliminated because the statements clearly mention the reason behind youth preferring online interaction is based on emotional attachment and not about personal interaction. Option 5 is not mentioned in the statements. The crux of the statements suggest that the youth today prefers socializing online because it does not require much emotional involvement. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Question 19

Directions

In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: In spite of the bad quality of food, employees have not complained.

Assumptions:

I. Generally employees complain.

II. Complaints improve quality.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only assumption I is implicit.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only assumption II is implicit.

  3. COption (c)

    Either assumption I or II is implicit.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

  5. EOption (e)

    Both the assumptions I and II are implicit.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only assumption I is implicit.

Why this answer is correct

Effect of complaints cannot be assumed as nothing is given about time frames or consequences in the statement. So assumption II is not implicit. The words ‘in spite of…employees have not complained’ tells us that this contrary to norm. Thus generally people must complain. Hence assumption I is implicit.

Question 20

In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: The odd-even traffic system to fight increased air pollution has received mixed response from people.

Assumptions:

I. Air pollution has decreased due to odd-even system.

II. Every citizen has welcomed the odd-even system.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only assumption I is implicit.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only assumption II is implicit.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both assumptions I and II are implicit

  5. EOption (e)

    Either I or II is implicit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

Why this answer is correct

Information is insufficient to assume the performance of the odd even traffic system from the given statement. Thus this assumption does not hold.

On the other hand, since it has already been mentioned that it has received mixed response it means that some have welcomed it while others haven't.

Thus neither assumptions hold.

Question 21

In the following question, a statement has been given which is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II, III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up, or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information provided. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the given /suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Select your answer from amongst the given alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4), (5).

Statement: Every year thousands of able students, both in rural as well as in urban areas cannot get admission in colleges despite passing the last certificate examination of their schools.

Courses of Action:

I. More colleges should be established in rural as well as in urban areas.

II. The number of schools in rural as well as in urban areas should be decreased.

III. A good number of schools should conduct vocational courses. So that the students could start preparing to get employed after completing the school education.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II and III follow

  3. COption (c)

    All follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and III follow

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only I and III follow

Why this answer is correct

For students to get admission in there should be a sufficient number of colleges.

A decrease in the number of schools will not solve the problem.

Vocational courses need to be conducted by the schools for the students who can prepare to get employed after completing school education.

Hence, only conclusions I and III follow.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

There are eight people living in 3 states - Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi. The people having blood relation reside in the same state. The states are West Bengal, Orissa, Assam. At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same states. These eight people like different languages - Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French.

Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family. Nikeeta likes Hindi. The sister of Rashi likes Chinese. The sibling of Nikeeta likes English. Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa. Rashi does not like Spanish and Bengali. The Arabic language is liked by a female. Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French. The family members of Vishnu neither like Marathi nor Arabic. Zahida likes neither Spanish nor Marathi. Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam. Zahida is a friend of Hiteshri, whose sister does not like Marathi. The family members of Hiteshri does not like Bengali. Zahida's father like Spanish.

Question 22

Who is the sister of Hiteshri?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rashi

  2. BOption (b)

    Zahida

  3. COption (c)

    Satya

  4. DOption (d)

    Nikeeta

  5. EOption (e)

    Mridul

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rashi

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi

States: West Bengal, Orissa, Assam

Languages: Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French

People having a blood relation reside in the same state.

At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same state.

  1. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family.

2) Nikeeta likes Hindi.

3) The sibling of Nikeeta likes English.

Therefore, the sibling must be Nikeeta's brother.

4) Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa.

5) Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French.

Therefore, Zahida is a female and cannot belong to West Bengal.

Also, Zahida and her mother belong to the same state according to the given information.

Because not more than three persons reside in the same state, Zahida and her brother must belong to Assam.

6) Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRam
HiteshriChinese
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahida
SatyaFrench
Vishnu

 

7) Zahida's father likes Spanish.

Therefore, Vishnu is Zahida's father and he likes Spanish.

8) The sister of Rashi likes Chinese.

As Nikeeta is the only female child, Rashi and her sister must belong to Orissa.

Therefore, Hiteshri is the sister of Rashi.

9) The family members of Hiteshri do not like Bengali.

Therefore, Zahida likes Bengali.

Now, the only person left is Mridul who must be the sibling of Nikeeta.

As Nikeeta is an only female child, Mridul must be her brother.

10) The Arabic language is liked by a female.

As Ram is a male, Rashi must be the female who likes Arabic.

Therefore, Ram likes Marathi.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaMridulEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRamMarathi
Sister of RashiHiteshriChinese
RashiArabic
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahidaBengali
Mother of ZahidaSatyaFrench
Father of ZahidaVishnuSpanish

 

 

 

Hence, Rashi is the sister of Hiteshri.

Question 23

Who likes Bengali?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rashi

  2. BOption (b)

    Zahida

  3. COption (c)

    Satya

  4. DOption (d)

    Nikeeta

  5. EOption (e)

    Mridul

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Zahida

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi

States: West Bengal, Orissa, Assam

Languages: Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French

People having a blood relation reside in the same state.

At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same state.

  1. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family.

2) Nikeeta likes Hindi.

3) The sibling of Nikeeta likes English.

Therefore, the sibling must be Nikeeta's brother.

4) Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa.

5) Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French.

Therefore, Zahida is a female and cannot belong to West Bengal.

Also, Zahida and her mother belong to the same state according to the given information.

Because not more than three persons reside in the same state, Zahida and her brother must belong to Assam.

6) Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRam
HiteshriChinese
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahida
SatyaFrench
Vishnu

 

7) Zahida's father likes Spanish.

Therefore, Vishnu is Zahida's father and he likes Spanish.

8) The sister of Rashi likes Chinese.

As Nikeeta is the only female child, Rashi and her sister must belong to Orissa.

Therefore, Hiteshri is the sister of Rashi.

9) The family members of Hiteshri do not like Bengali.

Therefore, Zahida likes Bengali.

Now, the only person left is Mridul who must be the sibling of Nikeeta.

As Nikeeta is an only female child, Mridul must be her brother.

10) The Arabic language is liked by a female.

As Ram is a male, Rashi must be the female who likes Arabic.

Therefore, Ram likes Marathi.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaMridulEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRamMarathi
Sister of RashiHiteshriChinese
RashiArabic
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahidaBengali
Mother of ZahidaSatyaFrench
Father of ZahidaVishnuSpanish

 

 

Hence, Zahida likes Bengali.

Question 24

In which state does Ram reside?

  1. AOption (a)

    West bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Orissa

  4. DOption (d)

    Either Assam or West Bengal

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Orissa

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi

States: West Bengal, Orissa, Assam

Languages: Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French

People having a blood relation reside in the same state.

At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same state.

  1. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family.

2) Nikeeta likes Hindi.

3) The sibling of Nikeeta likes English.

Therefore, the sibling must be Nikeeta's brother.

4) Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa.

5) Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French.

Therefore, Zahida is a female and cannot belong to West Bengal.

Also, Zahida and her mother belong to the same state according to the given information.

Because not more than three persons reside in the same state, Zahida and her brother must belong to Assam.

6) Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRam
HiteshriChinese
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahida
SatyaFrench
Vishnu

 

7) Zahida's father likes Spanish.

Therefore, Vishnu is Zahida's father and he likes Spanish.

8) The sister of Rashi likes Chinese.

As Nikeeta is the only female child, Rashi and her sister must belong to Orissa.

Therefore, Hiteshri is the sister of Rashi.

9) The family members of Hiteshri do not like Bengali.

Therefore, Zahida likes Bengali.

Now, the only person left is Mridul who must be the sibling of Nikeeta.

As Nikeeta is an only female child, Mridul must be her brother.

10) The Arabic language is liked by a female.

As Ram is a male, Rashi must be the female who likes Arabic.

Therefore, Ram likes Marathi.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaMridulEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRamMarathi
Sister of RashiHiteshriChinese
RashiArabic
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahidaBengali
Mother of ZahidaSatyaFrench
Father of ZahidaVishnuSpanish

 

 

Hence, Ram resides in Orissa.

Question 25

Who is the brother of Nikeeta?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rashi

  2. BOption (b)

    Zahida

  3. COption (c)

    Satya

  4. DOption (d)

    Nikeeta

  5. EOption (e)

    Mridul

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Mridul

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi

States: West Bengal, Orissa, Assam

Languages: Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French

People having a blood relation reside in the same state.

At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same state.

  1. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family.

2) Nikeeta likes Hindi.

3) The sibling of Nikeeta likes English.

Therefore, the sibling must be Nikeeta's brother.

4) Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa.

5) Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French.

Therefore, Zahida is a female and cannot belong to West Bengal.

Also, Zahida and her mother belong to the same state according to the given information.

Because not more than three persons reside in the same state, Zahida and her brother must belong to Assam.

6) Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRam
HiteshriChinese
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahida
SatyaFrench
Vishnu

 

7) Zahida's father likes Spanish.

Therefore, Vishnu is Zahida's father and he likes Spanish.

8) The sister of Rashi likes Chinese.

As Nikeeta is the only female child, Rashi and her sister must belong to Orissa.

Therefore, Hiteshri is the sister of Rashi.

9) The family members of Hiteshri do not like Bengali.

Therefore, Zahida likes Bengali.

Now, the only person left is Mridul who must be the sibling of Nikeeta.

As Nikeeta is an only female child, Mridul must be her brother.

10) The Arabic language is liked by a female.

As Ram is a male, Rashi must be the female who likes Arabic.

Therefore, Ram likes Marathi.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaMridulEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRamMarathi
Sister of RashiHiteshriChinese
RashiArabic
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahidaBengali
Mother of ZahidaSatyaFrench
Father of ZahidaVishnuSpanish

 

 

Hence, Mridul is the brother of Nikeeta.

Question 26

Which language does Rashi like?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arabic

  2. BOption (b)

    Hindi

  3. COption (c)

    English

  4. DOption (d)

    Bengali

  5. EOption (e)

    Spanish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Arabic

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: Mridul, Zahida, Nikeeta, Ram, Vishnu, Satya, Hiteshri and Rashi

States: West Bengal, Orissa, Assam

Languages: Chinese, Arabic, Marathi, Spanish, Bengali, English, Hindi and French

People having a blood relation reside in the same state.

At least two people reside in the same state and not more than three persons reside in the same state.

  1. Nikeeta resides in West Bengal and is the only female child in her family.

2) Nikeeta likes Hindi.

3) The sibling of Nikeeta likes English.

Therefore, the sibling must be Nikeeta's brother.

4) Ram is the brother of Hiteshri, who likes Chinese. Ram belongs to Orissa.

5) Zahida is the daughter of Satya, who likes French.

Therefore, Zahida is a female and cannot belong to West Bengal.

Also, Zahida and her mother belong to the same state according to the given information.

Because not more than three persons reside in the same state, Zahida and her brother must belong to Assam.

6) Vishnu is a married man. Vishnu belongs to Assam.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRam
HiteshriChinese
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahida
SatyaFrench
Vishnu

 

7) Zahida's father likes Spanish.

Therefore, Vishnu is Zahida's father and he likes Spanish.

8) The sister of Rashi likes Chinese.

As Nikeeta is the only female child, Rashi and her sister must belong to Orissa.

Therefore, Hiteshri is the sister of Rashi.

9) The family members of Hiteshri do not like Bengali.

Therefore, Zahida likes Bengali.

Now, the only person left is Mridul who must be the sibling of Nikeeta.

As Nikeeta is an only female child, Mridul must be her brother.

10) The Arabic language is liked by a female.

As Ram is a male, Rashi must be the female who likes Arabic.

Therefore, Ram likes Marathi.

StatesBlood RelationNamesLanguages
West BengalNikeetaHindi
Sibling of NikeetaMridulEnglish
OrissaBrother of HiteshriRamMarathi
Sister of RashiHiteshriChinese
RashiArabic
AssamDaughter of SatyaZahidaBengali
Mother of ZahidaSatyaFrench
Father of ZahidaVishnuSpanish

 

 

Hence, Rashi likes Arabic.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are 2 concentric square gates having entries on four sides on which 8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing. The persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate. Not more than 4 persons can stand on a gate. D is facing the same side as C. C is not facing A. C is one of the neighbours of D, who is not a neighbour of A. B and G are not facing each-other while C and F are looking at the same side. G is facing A, who is in the outer gate. H, who is not facing B is 2nd left of E, who is facing outside. E is not facing C. The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Question 27

Who are the neighbours of E?

  1. AOption (a)

    G and B

  2. BOption (b)

    H and B

  3. COption (c)

    D and H

  4. DOption (d)

    F and A

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

G and B

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Not more than 4 persons stand on a gate implies that 4 persons are standing on each of the gates.

Also, it is given that the persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate.

1) G is facing A who is in the outer gate.

2) H, who is not facing B is 2nd to the left of E who is facing outside.

  1. C and F are looking at the same side.

Therefore, C and F are sitting on the outer gate.

  1. C is one of the neighbours of D who is not a neighbour of A.

5) E is not facing C. D is facing the same side as C.

6) The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, G and B are the neighbours of E.

Question 28

Who is facing G?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    F

  5. EOption (e)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Not more than 4 persons stand on a gate implies that 4 persons are standing on each of the gates.

Also, it is given that the persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate.

1) G is facing A who is in the outer gate.

2) H, who is not facing B is 2nd to the left of E who is facing outside.

  1. C and F are looking at the same side.

Therefore, C and F are sitting on the outer gate.

  1. C is one of the neighbours of D who is not a neighbour of A.

5) E is not facing C. D is facing the same side as C.

6) The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, A is facing G.

Question 29

In the given options, 4 of them are similar in a way, thus forming groups. Find Which one is odd from the group?

  1. AOption (a)

    E and H

  2. BOption (b)

    E and F

  3. COption (c)

    H and C

  4. DOption (d)

    G and A

  5. EOption (e)

    B and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

E and H

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Not more than 4 persons stand on a gate implies that 4 persons are standing on each of the gates.

Also, it is given that the persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate.

1) G is facing A who is in the outer gate.

2) H, who is not facing B is 2nd to the left of E who is facing outside.

  1. C and F are looking at the same side.

Therefore, C and F are sitting on the outer gate.

  1. C is one of the neighbours of D who is not a neighbour of A.

5) E is not facing C. D is facing the same side as C.

6) The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

This is the final arrangement.

In each of the options 2, 3, 4 and 5, the persons are facing each other. But in option 1, E and H are not facing each other.

Hence, E and H is the odd pair.

Question 30

The 4 persons standing on the outer gate are?

  1. AOption (a)

    ACDF

  2. BOption (b)

    ACFE

  3. COption (c)

    ACFH

  4. DOption (d)

    BGEH

  5. EOption (e)

    GAEB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ACDF

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Not more than 4 persons stand on a gate implies that 4 persons are standing on each of the gates.

Also, it is given that the persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate.

1) G is facing A who is in the outer gate.

2) H, who is not facing B is 2nd to the left of E who is facing outside.

  1. C and F are looking at the same side.

Therefore, C and F are sitting on the outer gate.

  1. C is one of the neighbours of D who is not a neighbour of A.

5) E is not facing C. D is facing the same side as C.

6) The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

This is the final arrangement.

A, C, D and F are standing on the outer gate.

Hence, ACDF is the correct answer.

Question 31

The 4 persons standing on the inner gate are?

  1. AOption (a)

    BHGE

  2. BOption (b)

    GEFD

  3. COption (c)

    FAHB

  4. DOption (d)

    FDGA

  5. EOption (e)

    GCHB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BHGE

Why this answer is correct

8 persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H

Not more than 4 persons stand on a gate implies that 4 persons are standing on each of the gates.

Also, it is given that the persons standing on the outer gate are facing those on the inner gate.

1) G is facing A who is in the outer gate.

2) H, who is not facing B is 2nd to the left of E who is facing outside.

  1. C and F are looking at the same side.

Therefore, C and F are sitting on the outer gate.

  1. C is one of the neighbours of D who is not a neighbour of A.

5) E is not facing C. D is facing the same side as C.

6) The person facing the immediate right neighbour of E is not D.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

This is the final arrangement.

B, H, G and E are sitting on the inner gate.

Hence, BHGE is the correct answer.

Question 32

P@Q means the person is turning to his right side from point P and reaching point Q

P # Q means the person is turning to his left side from point P and reaching point Q

P@5Q means the person is turning to his right side from point P and after walking for 5 km reaches point Q

A person standing at A is looking in the North direction. 

A@5B, B@6C, C#8D

What is the direction of starting point with respect to the end point?

  1. AOption (a)

    North - West

  2. BOption (b)

    South – West

  3. COption (c)

    South

  4. DOption (d)

    North

  5. EOption (e)

    None of These

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

North - West

Why this answer is correct

Hence, the starting point is in the North-West direction with respect to the endpoint.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

7 people A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all are related to V in some way, and are facing north. J sits third from the extreme end. V’s father sits second to the right of J. Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister. As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother. Only one person sits between N and V’s mother. N is the son of C. A sits third to the right of C. C is the father of R. F sits to the immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second to the left of V.

Question 33

Who is sitting adjacent to the father of V?

  1. AOption (a)

    V

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    R

  4. DOption (d)

    F

  5. EOption (e)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V

Why this answer is correct

7 persons: A, C, F, J, N, R and V.

  1. J sits third from the extreme end.

 

  1. V's father sits second to the right of J.

3) Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister.

4) As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother.

 

5) Only one person sits between N and V’s mother.

6) N is the son of C.

 

7) A sits third to the right of C.

  1. C is the father of R.

9) F sits to the immediate right of R.

 

10) V’s wife sits second to the left of V.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated as C is a male.

Hence, V is sitting adjacent to the father of V who is N.

Question 34

Who is the wife of V?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    R

  4. DOption (d)

    F

  5. EOption (e)

    V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

7 persons: A, C, F, J, N, R and V.

  1. J sits third from the extreme end.

 

  1. V's father sits second to the right of J.

3) Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister.

4) As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother.

 

5) Only one person sits between N and V’s mother.

6) N is the son of C.

 

7) A sits third to the right of C.

  1. C is the father of R.

9) F sits to the immediate right of R.

10) V’s wife sits second to the left of V.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated as C is a male.

 

Hence, A is the wife of V.

Question 35

Who is sitting exactly between C and V’s mother?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    J

  4. DOption (d)

    V

  5. EOption (e)

    N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

F

Why this answer is correct

7 persons: A, C, F, J, N, R and V.

  1. J sits third from the extreme end.

 

  1. V's father sits second to the right of J.

3) Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister.

4) As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother.

 

5) Only one person sits between N and V’s mother.

6) N is the son of C.

 

7) A sits third to the right of C.

  1. C is the father of R.

9) F sits to the immediate right of R.

10) V’s wife sits second to the left of V.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated as C is a male.

 

Hence, F is sitting exactly between C and V's mother.

Question 36

Who is sitting at the extreme right?

  1. AOption (a)

    V’s father

  2. BOption (b)

    V’s wife

  3. COption (c)

    V’s sister

  4. DOption (d)

    R

  5. EOption (e)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V’s father

Why this answer is correct

7 persons: A, C, F, J, N, R and V.

  1. J sits third from the extreme end.

 

  1. V's father sits second to the right of J.

3) Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister.

4) As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother.

 

5) Only one person sits between N and V’s mother.

6) N is the son of C.

 

7) A sits third to the right of C.

  1. C is the father of R.

9) F sits to the immediate right of R.

10) V’s wife sits second to the left of V.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated as C is a male.

 

Hence, V's father is sitting at the extreme right end.

Question 37

Who is sitting second to the left of A?

  1. AOption (a)

    R

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    J

  5. EOption (e)

    N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

R

Why this answer is correct

7 persons: A, C, F, J, N, R and V.

  1. J sits third from the extreme end.

 

  1. V's father sits second to the right of J.

3) Only 3 people are sitting between V’s father and V’s sister.

4) As many people sit to the left of V’s sister as to the right of V’s mother.

 

5) Only one person sits between N and V’s mother.

6) N is the son of C.

 

7) A sits third to the right of C.

  1. C is the father of R.

9) F sits to the immediate right of R.

10) V’s wife sits second to the left of V.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated as C is a male.

 

Hence, R is sitting second to the left of A.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follows:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting around a circular table facing the center such that the seats are in the form of a clock ranging from 1 to 12 O’Clock. Seat 1 is 1 O clock, seat 2 is 2’ O’Clock and so on. R is to the immediate left of U, who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat. There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat. T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q. Q is to the right of R. There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R. V is sitting to the immediate right of P. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P.

Question 38

Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?

  1. AOption (a)

    T

  2. BOption (b)

    P

  3. COption (c)

    Q

  4. DOption (d)

    R

  5. EOption (e)

    U

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

U

Why this answer is correct

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V facing the centre of the table.

There are 12 seats because the seating arrangement is in the form of a clock.

1) R is to the immediate left of U who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat.

2) There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat.

3) T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q.

4) Q is to the right of R.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

5) There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R.

  1. V is sitting to the immediate right of P.

  2. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P.

Therefore, S is sitting at the seat which corresponds to P.

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, U is sitting to the immediate right of R.

Question 39

How much is the hour-difference between T and U?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    5 hours

  3. COption (c)

    6 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    8 hours

  5. EOption (e)

    2 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4 hours

Why this answer is correct

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V facing the centre of the table.

There are 12 seats because the seating arrangement is in the form of a clock.

1) R is to the immediate left of U who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat.

2) There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat.

3) T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q.

4) Q is to the right of R.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

5) There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R.

  1. V is sitting to the immediate right of P.

  2. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P.

Therefore, S is sitting at the seat which corresponds to P.

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, the hour-difference between T and U is 4 hours.

Question 40

What is the seat number of S?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    7

  5. EOption (e)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

8

Why this answer is correct

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V facing the centre of the table.

There are 12 seats because the seating arrangement is in the form of a clock.

1) R is to the immediate left of U who is sitting at 5 O’ clock seat.

2) There is a three hours' difference between R and T’s seat.

3) T is sitting diagonally opposite to Q.

4) Q is to the right of R.

Therefore, case 2 gets eliminated.

5) There is a 6 hours gap between the seats of P and R.

  1. V is sitting to the immediate right of P.

  2. S is sitting on the seat which is 4 hours less than P.

Therefore, S is sitting at the seat which corresponds to P.

This is the final arrangement.

The seat of S corresponds to 8 o' clock.

Hence, 8 is the correct answer.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question asked below.

There are three stack of boxes viz  Stack 1, Stack 2 and Stack 3 height of each stack is 300 cm and number of boxes in each stack is same. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2. G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept. Height of G is 36 cm.

O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F’s height is an even number and more than G. F is not immediately above C. Height of F is less than 40 cm.  Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. As many boxes below F as below D. Only three boxes are kept between B and E. E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept.  Number of boxes above G is same as below G. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top. More than one box is kept between X and Z. Height of Z is 63 cm. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W. U is one of the boxes. Height of U is same as height of W. N is not placed at the top.

Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. N height 16 more than D’s height. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A.

Question 41

What is the sum of height of the box which is immediate above M and the box which is immediate below W?

  1. AOption (a)

    89 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    126 cm

  3. COption (c)

    99 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    116 cm

  5. EOption (e)

    147 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

126 cm

Why this answer is correct

  1. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2.

  2. Only three boxes are kept between B and E.  E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3.

  3. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept.  G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept.

  4. Height of G is 36 cm.

  5. O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. (We can conclude only 5 box are there in each stack)

  6. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B
A
G36
O
EC

 

  1. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F is not immediately above C. (This conclude F is either in stack 1 or stack 3 and either one or no box is kept below F)

8)  As many boxes below F as below D.

By statement 7) and 8) we can conclude only one box is placed below D and F. In stack 3 O is placed so we place F in stack 1)

  1. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top.
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJ
A
MG36
FDO
EC

 

  1. More than one box is kept between X and Z.

  2. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W.

  3. N is not placed at the top.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJU
WAX
NMG36
FDO
ECZ

 

  1. Height of Z is 63 cm. 

  2. F’s height is an even number and more than G. Height of F is less than 40 cm. (Height of F is 38 cm)

  3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

  4. Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. (C – G =25

We know height of G so C – 36 = 25 → C = 61)

  1. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. (F + C = 113 so F + 61 = 113)
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50JU
WAX
NMG36
F38DO
E52C61Z63

 

  1. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm.  ( J + C =153 so J + 61 =153)

  2. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E.

  3. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. ( D + A = 110 , D – A =8)

  4. N height 16 more than D’s height.

  5. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U
WA51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O
E52C61Z63

 

Note : For height of W =  300 – 215 = 85 cm

  1. Height of U is same as height of W

Finally, Height of O = 300 – 238 = 62 cm

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U85
W85A51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O62
E52C61Z63

Sum of height of the box which is immediate above M and the box which is immediate below W

= 51 + 75  = 126 cm

Hence, ‘126’ is the required sum.

Question 42

Which among the following box is kept immediately below box U?

  1. AOption (a)

    N

  2. BOption (b)

    Z

  3. COption (c)

    X

  4. DOption (d)

    M

  5. EOption (e)

    G

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

X

Why this answer is correct

  1. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2.

  2. Only three boxes are kept between B and E.  E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3.

  3. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept.  G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept.

  4. Height of G is 36 cm.

  5. O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. (We can conclude only 5 box are there in each stack)

  6. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B
A
G36
O
EC

 

  1. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F is not immediately above C. (This conclude F is either in stack 1 or stack 3 and either one or no box is kept below F)

8)  As many boxes below F as below D.

By statement 7) and 8) we can conclude only one box is placed below D and F. In stack 3 O is placed so we place F in stack 1)

  1. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top.
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJ
A
MG36
FDO
EC

 

  1. More than one box is kept between X and Z.

  2. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W.

  3. N is not placed at the top.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJU
WAX
NMG36
FDO
ECZ

 

  1. Height of Z is 63 cm. 

  2. F’s height is an even number and more than G. Height of F is less than 40 cm. (Height of F is 38 cm)

  3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

  4. Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. (C – G =25

We know height of G so C – 36 = 25 → C = 61)

  1. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. (F + C = 113 so F + 61 = 113)
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50JU
WAX
NMG36
F38DO
E52C61Z63

 

  1. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm.  ( J + C =153 so J + 61 =153)

  2. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E.

  3. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. ( D + A = 110 , D – A =8)

  4. N height 16 more than D’s height.

  5. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U
WA51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O
E52C61Z63

 

Note : For height of W =  300 – 215 = 85 cm

  1. Height of U is same as height of W

Finally, Height of O = 300 – 238 = 62 cm

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U85
W85A51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O62
E52C61Z63

Hence, X is kept immediately below U.

Question 43

Which of the following box is kept at the top of the stacks?

  1. AOption (a)

    J

  2. BOption (b)

    X

  3. COption (c)

    U

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1) and 2)

  5. EOption (e)

    Both 1) and 3)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Both 1) and 3)

Why this answer is correct

  1. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2.

  2. Only three boxes are kept between B and E.  E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3.

  3. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept.  G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept.

  4. Height of G is 36 cm.

  5. O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. (We can conclude only 5 box are there in each stack)

  6. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B
A
G36
O
EC

 

  1. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F is not immediately above C. (This conclude F is either in stack 1 or stack 3 and either one or no box is kept below F)

8)  As many boxes below F as below D.

By statement 7) and 8) we can conclude only one box is placed below D and F. In stack 3 O is placed so we place F in stack 1)

  1. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top.
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJ
A
MG36
FDO
EC

 

  1. More than one box is kept between X and Z.

  2. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W.

  3. N is not placed at the top.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJU
WAX
NMG36
FDO
ECZ

 

  1. Height of Z is 63 cm. 

  2. F’s height is an even number and more than G. Height of F is less than 40 cm. (Height of F is 38 cm)

  3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

  4. Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. (C – G =25

We know height of G so C – 36 = 25 → C = 61)

  1. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. (F + C = 113 so F + 61 = 113)
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50JU
WAX
NMG36
F38DO
E52C61Z63

 

  1. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm.  ( J + C =153 so J + 61 =153)

  2. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E.

  3. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. ( D + A = 110 , D – A =8)

  4. N height 16 more than D’s height.

  5. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U
WA51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O
E52C61Z63

 

Note : For height of W =  300 – 215 = 85 cm

  1. Height of U is same as height of W

Finally, Height of O = 300 – 238 = 62 cm

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U85
W85A51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O62
E52C61Z63

J and U are kept at the top of the stack.

Hence, both 1) and 3) are kept at the top of the stacks.

Question 44

What is the sum of height of all the boxes which are placed in the middle of each stack?

  1. AOption (a)

    148 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    159 cm

  3. COption (c)

    227 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    190 cm

  5. EOption (e)

    170 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

148 cm

Why this answer is correct

  1. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2.

  2. Only three boxes are kept between B and E.  E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3.

  3. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept.  G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept.

  4. Height of G is 36 cm.

  5. O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. (We can conclude only 5 box are there in each stack)

  6. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B
A
G36
O
EC

 

  1. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F is not immediately above C. (This conclude F is either in stack 1 or stack 3 and either one or no box is kept below F)

8)  As many boxes below F as below D.

By statement 7) and 8) we can conclude only one box is placed below D and F. In stack 3 O is placed so we place F in stack 1)

  1. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top.
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJ
A
MG36
FDO
EC

 

  1. More than one box is kept between X and Z.

  2. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W.

  3. N is not placed at the top.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJU
WAX
NMG36
FDO
ECZ

 

  1. Height of Z is 63 cm. 

  2. F’s height is an even number and more than G. Height of F is less than 40 cm. (Height of F is 38 cm)

  3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

  4. Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. (C – G =25

We know height of G so C – 36 = 25 → C = 61)

  1. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. (F + C = 113 so F + 61 = 113)
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50JU
WAX
NMG36
F38DO
E52C61Z63

 

  1. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm.  ( J + C =153 so J + 61 =153)

  2. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E.

  3. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. ( D + A = 110 , D – A =8)

  4. N height 16 more than D’s height.

  5. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U
WA51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O
E52C61Z63

 

Note : For height of W =  300 – 215 = 85 cm

  1. Height of U is same as height of W

Finally, Height of O = 300 – 238 = 62 cm

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U85
W85A51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O62
E52C61Z63

Boxes which are at the middle N = 75 cm , M = 37 cm, G = 36 cm

Sum = 75 + 37 + 36 = 148 cm

Hence, sum of height of all the boxes which are placed in the middle of each stack is 148 cm

Question 45

Which of the following is not true regarding arrangement?

  1. AOption (a)

    J – 92 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    Z - 63 cm

  3. COption (c)

    W - 85 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    E – 54 cm

  5. EOption (e)

    O – 62 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E – 54 cm

Why this answer is correct

  1. Two boxes are placed between A and C. C is kept at the bottom of Stack 2.

  2. Only three boxes are kept between B and E.  E is kept at the bottom but not at the Stack 3.

  3. G is not kept in the same stack in which B kept.  G is not kept in the same stack in which A kept.

  4. Height of G is 36 cm.

  5. O is immediately below G and only one box is kept below O. Number of boxes above G is same as below G. (We can conclude only 5 box are there in each stack)

  6. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B
A
G36
O
EC

 

  1. Less than two boxes are kept below F. F is not immediately above C. (This conclude F is either in stack 1 or stack 3 and either one or no box is kept below F)

8)  As many boxes below F as below D.

By statement 7) and 8) we can conclude only one box is placed below D and F. In stack 3 O is placed so we place F in stack 1)

  1. Only one box is kept between J and M. M is not at the top.
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJ
A
MG36
FDO
EC

 

  1. More than one box is kept between X and Z.

  2. Number of boxes above X is same as number of boxes above W.

  3. N is not placed at the top.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
BJU
WAX
NMG36
FDO
ECZ

 

  1. Height of Z is 63 cm. 

  2. F’s height is an even number and more than G. Height of F is less than 40 cm. (Height of F is 38 cm)

  3. Height of box at the top of the Stack 1 is 50.

  4. Difference between the height of box C and G is 25 cm. Height of box C is greater than G. (C – G =25

We know height of G so C – 36 = 25 → C = 61)

  1. Sum of box immediately below F and immediately below D is 113 cm. (F + C = 113 so F + 61 = 113)
Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50JU
WAX
NMG36
F38DO
E52C61Z63

 

  1. Sum of top and bottom box of stack 2 is 153 cm.  ( J + C =153 so J + 61 =153)

  2. Height of M is 15 cm less than height of E.

  3. Difference of A and D is 8 cm. Height of D is more than that of A. ( D + A = 110 , D – A =8)

  4. N height 16 more than D’s height.

  5. Height of X is 3 cm more than height of A.

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U
WA51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O
E52C61Z63

 

Note : For height of W =  300 – 215 = 85 cm

  1. Height of U is same as height of W

Finally, Height of O = 300 – 238 = 62 cm

Stack 1HeightStack 2HeightStack 3Height
B50J92U85
W85A51X54
N75M37G36
F38D59O62
E52C61Z63

All are correct except E -54 cm

Hence, E -54 cm does not belong to that group.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (35 questions)

Direction: The area of the cities increased in compound manner in different years.

Total Population = Population = Population Density × Area

Gender Equality ratio (GER) =Female;PopulationMale;Population= \frac{{Female;Population}}{{Male;Population}}

Question 46

Area of City A increased by 25% each year since 2001 and the area was 100 sq. km. in 2001, and the GER in 2001 was 3 : 1. If the GER in 2002 was 0.67 which decreased by 25% in 2003, then find the number of Males in City A in 2003.

  1. AOption (a)

    25600

  2. BOption (b)

    31250

  3. COption (c)

    15625

  4. DOption (d)

    28400

  5. EOption (e)

    32360

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

31250

Why this answer is correct

GER in 2002 = 0.67 = 2/3 

GER in 2003 = 0.67 × 75/100 = 0.5

​=Female;PopulationMale;Population= \frac{{Female;Population}}{{Male;Population}}​= 5/10 = 1 : 2

AAreaPopulation DensityTotal PopulationM : F
200110010010,0001 : 3 2500 : 7500
200212520025,0003 : 2 15000 : 10000
2003156.25300468752 : 1 31250 : 15625

Question 47

Area of City B increased by 20% each year, and area in 2003 was 172.8 sq. km. Find the ratio of Males in City B in 2002 to the Females in City B in 2001, if the GER of City B in 2002 was 1.5 and that in 2001 was inverse of that in 2002

  1. AOption (a)

    1 : 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 : 1

  3. COption (c)

    3 : 1

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 : 1

Why this answer is correct

Let Area of city B in 2001 and 2002 are x and y respectively.

⇒ 120/100y = 172.8

⇒ y = 144

⇒ 120/100x = 144

⇒ x = 120

Population of city B in 2001 = 120 × 50 = 6000

Population of city B in 2002 = 144 × 125 = 18000

GER of city B in 2001 =Female;PopulationMale;Population= \frac{{Female;Population}}{{Male;Population}} = 1/1.5 = 2/3

Number of female of city B in 2001 = 2400

GER of city B in 2002 =Female;PopulationMale;Population= \frac{{Female;Population}}{{Male;Population}} = 1.5 = 3/2

Number of male of city B in 2002 = 7200

Desired Ratio = 7200/2400 = 3 : 1

Question 48

Total Population of City C in 2001 was 8250 and area of City C expanded by 10% each year. Then was the ratio of GER of City C in 2002 to GER of City C in 2003 if the Male Population in 2002 was 4356 and that in 2003 was 7986.

  1. AOption (a)

    7 : 6

  2. BOption (b)

    6 : 7

  3. COption (c)

    7 : 9

  4. DOption (d)

    9 : 7

  5. EOption (e)

    5 : 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7 : 6

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Population of city C in 2001 = 8250

Area of city C increased by 10% each year.

Male population of city C in 2002 = 4356

Male population of city C in 2003 = 7986

Calculation:

Area of city C in 2001 = 8250/75 = 110

Area of city C in 2002 = 110/100 × 110  = 121

Population of city C in 2002 = 121 × 120 = 14520

Female population of city C in 2002 = 14520 - 4356 = 10164

Area of city C in 2003 = 110/100 × 121 = 133.1

Population of city C in 2003 = 133.1 × 180 = 23958

Female population of city C in 2003 = 23958 - 7986 = 15972

GER of city C in 2002 ​​= female population/male population = 10164/4356​

GER of city C in 2003 ​​= female population/male population = 15972/7986​

Desired ratio = [(10164/4356​)]/[(15972/7986​)]

⇒ 7 : 6

Question 49

GER of City D in 2001 was 0.4 and the number of Female was 2514. Then find the rate at which the area of City D expanded.

  1. AOption (a)

    8%

  2. BOption (b)

    12%

  3. COption (c)

    16%

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined

  5. EOption (e)

    24%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cannot be determined

Why this answer is correct

Male population = female population/GER

⇒ Male population = 2514/0.4 = 6285

⇒ Total population = 6285 + 2514 = 8799

Population density of city D in 2001 = 110

⇒ Area of city D in 2001 = Population/Population Density = 8799/110

= 79.99 ≈ 80 square unit

Since it is not given in the question that in which year's comparison we have to find the rate at which the area of city D expanded so we can not determine the answer.

Question 50

Find the ratio of sum of average population density of City A and City B to the sum of Average Population density of City C and City D.

  1. AOption (a)

    217 : 243

  2. BOption (b)

    195 : 187

  3. COption (c)

    250 : 339

  4. DOption (d)

    243 : 217

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

195 : 187

Why this answer is correct

Sum of population density of city A for all years = 100 + 200 + 300 = 600

Average of population density of city A for all years = 600/3

Sum of population density of city B for all years = 50 + 125 + 200 = 375

Average of population density of city B for all years = 375/3

Sum of Average of population density of city A and B = 600/3 + 375/3

= 975/3

Sum of population density of city C for all years = 75 + 120 + 180 = 375

Average of population density of city C for all years = 375/3

Sum of population density of city D for all years = 110 + 200 + 250 = 560

Average of population density of city D for all years = 560/3

Sum of Average of population density of city C and D = 375/3 + 560/3

= 935/3

Desired ratio = (975/3)/(935/3) = 195/187

Direction: There are three boxes P, Q and R which consists of Red, Blue and Green colour balls. Total number of blue balls in all three boxes together is 9 and total number of balls in all the boxes together is 32.

In Box P: The probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 and the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls.

In Box Q: Total number of balls is 10 and the ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3. Also the sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls.

In Box R: Total number of balls is 10 and the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue.

Question 51

Find the ratio of sum of Red balls in boxes P & R and the sum of Green balls in Boxes Q and R.

  1. AOption (a)

    9 : 8

  2. BOption (b)

    7 : 9

  3. COption (c)

    8 : 5

  4. DOption (d)

    3 : 2

  5. EOption (e)

    2 : 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7 : 9

Why this answer is correct

Let Number of Red balls be R, Blue balls be B, Green balls be G and Total balls be T

Box P:

Total number of balls = 32 – 10 – 10 = 12

Since the probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 = 3/12

⇒ Number of blue balls = 3

Since the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls

⇒ R = B + 2 = 5

⇒ G = 12 – 3 – 5 = 4

Box Q:

Total number of balls = 10

Ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3.

Suppose the number of Blue and red balls is 2x & 3x

Sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls

⇒ 2x + (10 – 5x) = 4 + 3x

⇒ 6x = 6

⇒ x = 1

⇒ R = 3, B = 2 and G = 10 – 3 – 2 = 5

Box R:

Total number of balls = 10

Since total number of blue balls in all the boxes is 9

⇒ Number of blue balls in box R = 9 – 3 – 2 = 4

Since the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue

⇒ B/10 – R/10 = 1/5

⇒ B – R = 2

Hence, R = 2

⇒ G = 10 – 4 – 2 = 4

BoxRed BallsBlue BallsGreen BallsTotal Balls
P53412
Q32510
R24410
Total1091332

 

⇒ Number of red balls in Boxes P and R = 5 + 2 = 7

⇒ Number of green balls in boxes Q and R = 5 + 4 = 9

∴ Required ratio = 7 : 9

Question 52

What is the probability of getting either a blue or a green ball from box R.

  1. AOption (a)

    3/5

  2. BOption (b)

    2/5

  3. COption (c)

    4/5

  4. DOption (d)

    7/10

  5. EOption (e)

    1/2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4/5

Why this answer is correct

Let Number of Red balls be R, Blue balls be B, Green balls be G and Total balls be T

Box P:

Total number of balls = 32 – 10 – 10 = 12

Since the probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 = 3/12

⇒ Number of blue balls = 3

Since the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls

⇒ R = B + 2 = 5

⇒ G = 12 – 3 – 5 = 4

Box Q:

Total number of balls = 10

Ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3.

Suppose the number of Blue and red balls is 2x & 3x

Sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls

⇒ 2x + (10 – 5x) = 4 + 3x

⇒ 6x = 6

⇒ x = 1

⇒ R = 3, B = 2 and G = 10 – 3 – 2 = 5

Box R:

Total number of balls = 10

Since total number of blue balls in all the boxes is 9

⇒ Number of blue balls in box R = 9 – 3 – 2 = 4

Since the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue

⇒ B/10 – R/10 = 1/5

⇒ B – R = 2

Hence, R = 2

⇒ G = 10 – 4 – 2 = 4

BoxRed BallsBlue BallsGreen BallsTotal Balls
P53412
Q32510
R24410
Total1091332

 

Total number of balls in box R = 10

Number of blue and green balls in box R is 4 and 4 respectively

∴ Probability of getting either a blue or a green ball from box R = (4 + 4) /10 = 8/10 = 4/5

Question 53

One ball each is drawn from each box. Find the probability that all are of red colour.

  1. AOption (a)

    1/40

  2. BOption (b)

    1/24

  3. COption (c)

    3/50

  4. DOption (d)

    4/15

  5. EOption (e)

    1/30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1/40

Why this answer is correct

Let Number of Red balls be R, Blue balls be B, Green balls be G and Total balls be T

Box P:

Total number of balls = 32 – 10 – 10 = 12

Since the probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 = 3/12

⇒ Number of blue balls = 3

Since the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls

⇒ R = B + 2 = 5

⇒ G = 12 – 3 – 5 = 4

Box Q:

Total number of balls = 10

Ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3.

Suppose the number of Blue and red balls is 2x & 3x

Sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls

⇒ 2x + (10 – 5x) = 4 + 3x

⇒ 6x = 6

⇒ x = 1

⇒ R = 3, B = 2 and G = 10 – 3 – 2 = 5

Box R:

Total number of balls = 10

Since total number of blue balls in all the boxes is 9

⇒ Number of blue balls in box R = 9 – 3 – 2 = 4

Since the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue

⇒ B/10 – R/10 = 1/5

⇒ B – R = 2

Hence, R = 2

⇒ G = 10 – 4 – 2 = 4

BoxRed BallsBlue BallsGreen BallsTotal Balls
P53412
Q32510
R24410
Total1091332

 

Probability of drawing red ball from box P = 5/12

Probability of drawing red ball from box Q = 3/10

Probability of drawing red ball from box R = 2/10 = 1/5

∴ Probability of getting all the 3 balls red = 5/12 × 3/10 × 1/5 = 1/40

Question 54

What is the difference of probability of drawing a green ball from box Q and the probability of drawing a blue ball from box R?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.2

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5

  3. COption (c)

    0.4

  4. DOption (d)

    0.1

  5. EOption (e)

    0.3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.1

Why this answer is correct

Let Number of Red balls be R, Blue balls be B, Green balls be G and Total balls be T

Box P:

Total number of balls = 32 – 10 – 10 = 12

Since the probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 = 3/12

⇒ Number of blue balls = 3

Since the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls

⇒ R = B + 2 = 5

⇒ G = 12 – 3 – 5 = 4

Box Q:

Total number of balls = 10

Ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3.

Suppose the number of Blue and red balls is 2x & 3x

Sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls

⇒ 2x + (10 – 5x) = 4 + 3x

⇒ 6x = 6

⇒ x = 1

⇒ R = 3, B = 2 and G = 10 – 3 – 2 = 5

Box R:

Total number of balls = 10

Since total number of blue balls in all the boxes is 9

⇒ Number of blue balls in box R = 9 – 3 – 2 = 4

Since the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue

⇒ B/10 – R/10 = 1/5

⇒ B – R = 2

Hence, R = 2

⇒ G = 10 – 4 – 2 = 4

BoxRed BallsBlue BallsGreen BallsTotal Balls
P53412
Q32510
R24410
Total1091332

 

Probability of drawing a green ball from box Q = 5/10 = ½ = 0.5

Probability of drawing a blue ball from box R = 4/10 = 2/5 = 0.4

∴ Required difference = 0.5 – 0.4 = 0.1

Question 55

If ‘x’ red balls are shifted from each of the boxes P and R to box Q then probability of drawing a red ball from box Q increases by 7/60. Find the value of x.

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1

Why this answer is correct

Let Number of Red balls be R, Blue balls be B, Green balls be G and Total balls be T

Box P:

Total number of balls = 32 – 10 – 10 = 12

Since the probability of choosing a Blue ball is 1/4 = 3/12

⇒ Number of blue balls = 3

Since the number of red balls is 2 more than the number of blue balls

⇒ R = B + 2 = 5

⇒ G = 12 – 3 – 5 = 4

Box Q:

Total number of balls = 10

Ratio of probability of getting a Blue and a Red ball is 2 : 3.

Suppose the number of Blue and red balls is 2x & 3x

Sum of Blue and Green balls is 4 more than the number of red balls

⇒ 2x + (10 – 5x) = 4 + 3x

⇒ 6x = 6

⇒ x = 1

⇒ R = 3, B = 2 and G = 10 – 3 – 2 = 5

Box R:

Total number of balls = 10

Since total number of blue balls in all the boxes is 9

⇒ Number of blue balls in box R = 9 – 3 – 2 = 4

Since the probability of getting a red is 1/5 less than the probability of getting a blue

⇒ B/10 – R/10 = 1/5

⇒ B – R = 2

Hence, R = 2

⇒ G = 10 – 4 – 2 = 4

BoxRed BallsBlue BallsGreen BallsTotal Balls
P53412
Q32510
R24410
Total1091332

 

Probability of drawing a red ball from box Q = 3/10

Since the probability increases by 7/60

⇒ Increased probability = 3/10 + 7/60 = 25/60 = 5/12

⇒ Number of increased red balls in box Q = 5 – 3 = 2

∴ x = 2/2 = 1

Directions: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below:

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years and the per cent of defaulters amongst them each year.

Number of people taking fresh loans from different banks over the years 

                                                                   Number 

Bank
YearPQRST
20042736126345254672824630164
20053208127456324612943535128
20062536128637326522956532144
20072365429045325612831436152
20083612530467254952376435463
20093546531963276492435633214
20103413531974282832655531264

Approximate percentage of defaulters amongst them each year

                                                              PERCENTAGE

Bank
YearPQRST
2004129151319
2005248172023
20062213162125
20071811182219
20081210132318
20091120112221
2010921122123

Question 56

Approximately how many people taking a loan from Bank S in the year 2006 were defaulters?

  1. AOption (a)

    6490

  2. BOption (b)

    6210

  3. COption (c)

    5020

  4. DOption (d)

    6550

  5. EOption (e)

    5580

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6210

Why this answer is correct

Total number of people who took loan from Bank S in the year 2006 = 29565

Percentage of defaulters in the year 2006 for Bank S = 21%

∴ Total number of defaulters of Bank S = 21% of 29565 = 6208 ≈ 6210

∴ Total number of defaulters of bank S = 6210

Question 57

Approximately what was the difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005?

  1. AOption (a)

    175

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    190

  4. DOption (d)

    205

  5. EOption (e)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

175

Why this answer is correct

Total number of people who took loan from Bank Q in the year 2004 = 26345

Total number of people who took loan from Bank Q in the year 2005 = 27456

Percentage of defaulters in the year 2004 for bank Q = 9 %

∴ Total number of defaulters for bank Q in the year 2004 = 9 % of 26345 = (26345/100) × 9 = 2371

Percentage of defaulters in the year 2005 for Bank Q = 8 %

∴ Total number of defaulters for Bank Q in the year 2005 = 8 % of 27456 = (27456/100) × 8 = 2196

∴ Difference between the number of defaulters of Bank Q in the year 2004 and 2005 = 2371 – 2196 = 175

Question 58

In which of the following years was the number of defaulters of Bank R the maximum among the given years?

  1. AOption (a)

    2005

  2. BOption (b)

    2006

  3. COption (c)

    2007

  4. DOption (d)

    2010

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2007

Why this answer is correct

Total number of defaulters in a year for a particular bank = % of defaulters in that year for that bank × total number of people who took loan from that bank in that year.

For Bank R,

YEAR% of defaultersNo. of people who took loanTotal number of defaulters
200415254673820
200517324615518
200616326525224
200718325615861
200813254953314
200911276493041
201012282833394

∴ From the above table we can see, in the year 2007 total number of defaulters is the highest.

Question 59

In which of the following years was the difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P from the previous year the highest?

  1. AOption (a)

    2008

  2. BOption (b)

    2006

  3. COption (c)

    2007

  4. DOption (d)

    2005

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2008

Why this answer is correct

Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2005 from the previous year

= 32081 - 27361 = 4720

Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2006 from the previous year

= 32081 - 25361 = 6720

Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2007 from the previous year

= 25361 - 23654 = 1707

Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2008 from the previous year

= 36125 - 23654 = 12471

Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2009 from the previous year

= 36125 - 35465 = 660

Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2010 from the previous year

= 35465 - 34135 = 1330

∴Difference in number of people taking loan from Bank P in the year 2008 from the previous year is the highest.

Question 60

Approximately what was the total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together?

  1. AOption (a)

    14110

  2. BOption (b)

    13620

  3. COption (c)

    13250

  4. DOption (d)

    14670

  5. EOption (e)

    15330

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

13250

Why this answer is correct

Total number of people who took loan from Bank T in the year 2007 = 36152

Percentage of defaulters of Bank T in the year 2007 = 19 %

∴ Total number of defaulters in the year 2007 of Bank T = 19 % of 36152 = (36152/100) × 19 = 6869

Total number of people who took loan from Bank T in the year 2008 = 35463

Percentage of defaulters of Bank T in the year 2008 = 18 %

∴ Total number of defaulters in the year 2008 of Bank T = 18 % of 35463 = (35463/100) × 18 = 6383

Total number of defaulters of Bank T in the years 2007 and 2008 together = 6869 + 6383 = 13252 ≈ 13250

Question 61

The ratio of the current ages of A and B is 3 : 4, while that of C and D is 3 : 5. If the difference between the ages of A and B is ___ years, then the ratio of the ages of A and B ___ years ago is equal to the current age ratio of C and D.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 4, 6

B. 6, 9

C. 12, 18

D. 16, 20

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B & D

  3. COption (c)

    A, C & D

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C & D

  5. EOption (e)

    All four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B & C

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let current ages of A and B be 3x and 4x. Difference = x. Ratio of C and D = 3 : 5.

Condition: (3x − k) / (4x − k) = 3 / 5, where x = Blank 1 and k = Blank 2.

Simplifying the ratio condition: 5(3x − k) = 3(4x − k) ⇒ 15x − 5k = 12x − 3k ⇒ 3x = 2k.

Check options for 3 × Blank 1 = 2 × Blank 2: (A) 3×4=12, 2×6=12 (Yes); (B) 3×6=18, 2×9=18 (Yes); (C) 3×12=36, 2×18=36 (Yes); (D) 3×16=48, 2×20=40 (No).

∴ The correct answer is A, B & C.

Alternate Method

Given: Current Age Ratio A : B = 3 : 4 | Current Age Ratio C : D = 3 : 5.

⇒ Let A = 3x and B = 4x. Difference = 4x − 3x = x. So, x = Blank 1.

⇒ According to the question: (3x − k) / (4x − k) = 3 / 5, where k = Blank 2.

⇒ 5(3x − k) = 3(4x − k) ⇒ 15x − 5k = 12x − 3k ⇒ 3x = 2k.

⇒ For Option A: x = 4, k = 6 → 3(4) = 12 and 2(6) = 12 (Matches).

⇒ For Option B: x = 6, k = 9 → 3(6) = 18 and 2(9) = 18 (Matches).

⇒ For Option C: x = 12, k = 18 → 3(12) = 36 and 2(18) = 36 (Matches).

⇒ For Option D: x = 16, k = 20 → 3(16) = 48 and 2(20) = 40 (Does not match).

∴ The correct answer is A, B & C.

Additional Information

Ratio and Age Constant Difference

The difference between the ages of two individuals remains constant regardless of the number of years passed or added.

Proportionality in Ratios

If a : b = c : d, then ad = bc. This cross-multiplication property is essential for solving linear equations involving ratios.

Ages Before 'n' Years

If current age is X, then age 'n' years ago was (X − n) and age after 'n' years will be (X + n).

Question 62

A dealer bought a product for Rs. 6000, marked its price 55% above the cost price and sold it at successive discounts of 20% + ___%. The shopkeeper who bought the product marked its price 50% above the cost price and sold it at a discount of 25%, thereby earning a profit of Rs. ___.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 10, 837

B. 15, 790.5

C. 20, 748

D. 25, 697.5

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B & D

  3. COption (c)

    A, C & D

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C & D

  5. EOption (e)

    All four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B & D

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For the first dealer, Cost Price (CP1) = 6000. Marked Price (MP1) = 6000 × 1.55 = 9300.

Selling Price (SP1) = 9300 × 0.8 × (100 − x)% which becomes CP2 for the second shopkeeper.

Profit of second shopkeeper = CP2 × [1.5 × 0.75 − 1] = CP2 × 0.125.

Testing Option A: If x = 10, SP1 = 9300 × 0.8 × 0.9 = 6696. Profit = 6696 × 0.125 = 837. (Matches)

Testing Option B: If x = 15, SP1 = 9300 × 0.8 × 0.85 = 6324. Profit = 6324 × 0.125 = 790.5. (Matches)

∴ The correct answer is A, B & D.

Alternate Method

Given → CP1 = 6000, markup = 55%, d1 = 20%, d2 = x%. Shopkeeper markup = 50%, d = 25%. Formulas: SP = MP × (100 − D)% | CP2 = SP1 | Profit = CP × [(1 + Markup%) × (1 − Discount%) − 1]

⇒ Step 1: Calculate CP2 based on blanks. If x = 20 (Option C), SP1 = 9300 × 0.8 × 0.8 = 5952. ⇒ Step 2: Calculate shopkeeper profit. Profit = CP2 × [(1 + 0.5) × (1 − 0.25) − 1] = CP2 × [1.125 − 1] = CP2 × 0.125. ⇒ Step 3: For x = 20, Profit = 5952 × 0.125 = 744. (Option C blank is 748, so C is wrong). ⇒ Step 4: For x = 25 (Option D), SP1 = 9300 × 0.8 × 0.75 = 5580. Profit = 5580 × 0.125 = 697.5. (Matches)

∴ The correct answer is A, B & D.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts a% and b% are given, the single equivalent discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Markup and Discount relation

Profit% = Markup% − Discount% − (Markup × Discount)/100.

Question 63

Three mixtures A, B and C are made by mixing milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2, 5 : 1 and 7 : 3 respectively. On mixing ___ litres of mixture A, 30 litres of mixture B and ___ litres of mixture C, a mixture of ratio 5 : 2 can be obtained.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 40, 30

B. 30, 10

C. 25, 50

D. 20, 40

  1. AOption (a)

    A & B

  2. BOption (b)

    B & C

  3. COption (c)

    C & D

  4. DOption (d)

    A & C

  5. EOption (e)

    B & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B & C

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Equate Total Milk and Total Water for given volumes using the ratio 5 : 2.

Mixture B is fixed at 30 litres: Milk = 25, Water = 5. Let volumes of A and C be x and y.

Check Option B (30, 10): Milk = (18+25+7) = 50, Water = (12+5+3) = 20. Ratio 50:20 = 5:2. (Satisfied)

Check Option C (25, 50): Milk = (15+25+35) = 75, Water = (10+5+15) = 30. Ratio 75:30 = 5:2. (Satisfied)

∴ The correct answer is B & C.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of Milk:Water in A = 3:2, B = 5:1, C = 7:3. Resultant Ratio = 5:2. Volume of B = 30 litres.

Formula Used: Total Milk / Total Water = Final Ratio

⇒ Milk in 30L of B = (5/6) × 30 = 25 L; Water in B = 5 L.

⇒ Let Volume of A = x and C = y.

⇒ Total Milk = (3/5)x + 25 + (7/10)y

⇒ Total Water = (2/5)x + 5 + (3/10)y

⇒ [(6x + 250 + 7y)/10] / [(4x + 50 + 3y)/10] = 5/2

⇒ 2 × (6x + 7y + 250) = 5 × (4x + 3y + 50)

⇒ 12x + 14y + 500 = 20x + 15y + 250 ⇒ 8x + y = 250

⇒ Case B: x = 30, y = 10 → 8(30) + 10 = 240 + 10 = 250 (True)

⇒ Case C: x = 25, y = 50 → 8(25) + 50 = 200 + 50 = 250 (True)

∴ The correct answer is B & C.

Additional Information

Alligation for Three Mixtures

While alligation is simple for two mixtures, for three or more, we use the weighted average of components or set up a linear equation for one component (e.g., milk concentration).

Ratio of Mixtures

In a mixture of Milk and Water in ratio a:b, the fraction of milk is a/(a+b) and water is b/(a+b).

Question 64

A man started his journey at 8:00 AM by covering 186 km by bus at a speed of 45 km/hr. After that, he travelled 256 km by train at a speed of 96 km/hr. and covered his remaining journey by taxi at a speed of 40 km/hr. Hence, he completed his journey of ___ km at ___ PM.

Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 490, 4:00

B. 500, 4:15

C. 530, 5:00

D. 554, 5:15

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B & D

  3. COption (c)

    A, C & D

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C & D

  5. EOption (e)

    All four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B & C

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Time = Distance ÷ Speed.

Bus time = 186/45 = 4 hours 8 mins. Train time = 256/96 = 2 hours 40 mins.

Total time spent = 6 hours 48 mins. Remaining time = (End time − 8:00 AM) − 6 hours 48 mins.

Taxi distance = Remaining time × 40 km/hr. Total distance = 186 + 256 + Taxi distance.

Checking options: A gives 490 km at 4:00 PM; B gives 500 km at 4:15 PM; C gives 530 km at 5:00 PM.

∴ The correct answer is A, B & C.

Alternate Method

Given: Bus (186 km at 45 km/hr), Train (256 km at 96 km/hr), Taxi speed = 40 km/hr, Start time = 8:00 AM.

Formula Used: Time = Distance ÷ Speed; Total Distance = Dbus + Dtrain + Dtaxi.

⇒ Bus Time = 186 ÷ 45 = 4.133 hours = 4 hours 8 minutes.

⇒ Train Time = 256 ÷ 96 = 2.666 hours = 2 hours 40 minutes.

⇒ Sub-total Time = 4 hours 8 mins + 2 hours 40 mins = 6 hours 48 minutes.

⇒ Sub-total Distance = 186 + 256 = 442 km.

⇒ Case A: Time 4:00 PM (8 hours later). Taxi time = 8 hrs − 6 hrs 48 mins = 1 hr 12 mins (1.2 hrs). Taxi distance = 40 × 1.2 = 48 km. Total = 442 + 48 = 490 km. (Satisfies)

⇒ Case B: Time 4:15 PM (8.25 hours later). Taxi time = 8.25 hrs − 6.8 hrs = 1.45 hrs. Taxi distance = 40 × 1.45 = 58 km. Total = 442 + 58 = 500 km. (Satisfies)

⇒ Case C: Time 5:00 PM (9 hours later). Taxi time = 9 hrs − 6.8 hrs = 2.2 hrs. Taxi distance = 40 × 2.2 = 88 km. Total = 442 + 88 = 530 km. (Satisfies)

⇒ Case D: Time 5:15 PM (9.25 hours later). Taxi time = 9.25 − 6.8 = 2.45 hrs. Taxi distance = 40 × 2.45 = 98 km. Total = 442 + 98 = 540 km ≠ 554 km. (Does not satisfy)

∴ The correct answer is A, B & C.

Additional Information

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. It is not the simple average of speeds.

Time Conversion

To convert decimal hours to minutes, multiply the decimal part by 60 (e.g., 0.8 hours = 0.8 × 60 = 48 minutes).

Relative Speed

In the same direction, relative speed is the difference; in opposite directions, it is the sum of speeds.

Question 65

The question below is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine whether the data given is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

In a live concert, the amount collected by selling the tickets was Rs. 75000. Find the cost of a ticket, if the cost of every ticket is the same.

Statement I: If the price of each ticket is increased by Rs. 50, the amount collected will be Rs. 6250 more.

Statement II: If the number of tickets is decreased by 25 (keeping the cost per ticket constant), the amount collected will be Rs. 15000 more.

Statement III: Ratio of number of tickets and the cost of a ticket is 5 : 24

  1. AOption (a)

    Any two statements are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Any of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Any of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Suppose the price of a ticket is Rs. x;

∴ Number of tickets = 75000/x

Statement I: 

(x + 50) × 75000/x = 75000 + 6250

⇒ 3750000/x = 6250

⇒ x = 600

∴ Price of a ticket = Rs. 600

Statement II: 

x × [(75000/x) - 25] = 75000 + 15000

⇒ x = 600

∴ Price of a ticket = Rs. 600

Statement III:

Ratio of number of tickets and the cost of a ticket is 5 : 24;

Suppose the number of tickets and the cost of a ticket is 5a & 24a respectively;

⇒ 120a2 = 75000

⇒ a2 = 625

⇒ a = 25

∴ Price of a ticket = Rs. 600

∴ Any of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Question 66

The question below is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine whether the data given is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

What is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the cuboid?

Statement I: The Total Surface Area of the cuboid is 550 cm2 and the ratio of the length, breadth and height of the cuboid is 2 : 3 : 1.

Statement II: The Total Surface Area of the cube is 384 cm2.

Statement III: The breadth of the cuboid is 1.5 times of the length of the cuboid and 3 times of the height of the cuboid. The difference between the height and the length of the cuboid is 5 cm.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Either statement I and II or statement II  and III are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Either statement II or III and statement I are sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    All the statements are required to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Either statement I and II or statement II  and III are sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I:

Total Surface Area of cuboid = 2 (lb + bh + hl)

Let length = 2x, breadth = 3x, height = x

∴ 550 = 2 (3x × 2x + 3x × x + x × 2x)

⇒ 275 = (6x2 + 2x2 + 3x2)

⇒ 275 = 11x2

⇒ x2 = 25

⇒ x = 5

∴ Length = 10 cm, Breadth = 15 cm, Height = 5 cm

Volume = lbh

⇒ 10 × 15 × 5 = 750 cm3

Statement II:

Total Surface Area of cube = 6s2

∴ 384 = 6s2

⇒ s2 = 64

⇒ s = 8 cm

Volume of the cube = s3

⇒ 83 = 512 cm3

Statement III:

Let height of the cuboid = x cm, length = 2x, breadth = 3x

∴ Difference of height and length = 2x - x 

⇒ 5 = x

⇒ x = 5

∴ length = 10 cm, breadth = 15 cm, height = 5 cm

Volume of the cuboid = lbh

⇒ 10 × 15 × 5 = 750 cm3

∴ Either statement I and II or statement II  and III are sufficient to answer the question.

Question 67

The question below is followed by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine whether the data given is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.

Find the total amount paid by the person to the bank.

Statement I∶ A person took the loan of Rs. 7000 from the bank at rate of 5% per annum simple interest.

Statement II∶ He wants to repay the loan in 5 years in some installments.

Statement III∶ At the end of 3 years, he paid Rs. 3000 and cleared the dues after 2 more years.

  1. AOption (a)

    All the statements are required to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Any two statements are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Either statement I or II and statement III are required to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    Statement II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I and III∶

Principal = Rs. 7000 and r = 5%;

∵ At the end of 3 years, he paid Rs. 3000 and cleared the dues after 2 more years;

Calculating the total principal for 5 years∶

P = 7000 + 7000 + 7000 + 4000 + 4000 = Rs. 29000

∴ Interest = [29000 × 5 × 1]/100 = Rs. 1450

∴ To clear the dues after 2 more years, the person must pay Rs. 5450 (4000 + 1450) to the bank.

∴ Total amount paid by the person to the bank = 3000 + 5450 = Rs. 8450

∴ Statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

Direction: A, B, C, D and E are 5 stock investors. B purchased 2000 shares of reliance capital at 400. He seems market as a bearish and sold all his shares at 390 on next day. A, C and D bought 1000, 700 and 300 of these shares in quantity on the same day respectively. Now A and C sold 500 and 350 shares respectively on the same day and E purchased them at 395.

Intraday ⇒ Buy and Sell shares on same day.

Delivery ⇒ Buy and Sell on different days.

Brokerage charges for Intraday for each transaction = 1%

Brokerage charges for Delivery for each transaction = 0.5%

Question 68

What is the approximate profit or loss percentage incurred by B?

  1. AOption (a)

    Loss of 2.25%

  2. BOption (b)

    Profit of 2.25%

  3. COption (c)

    Loss of 3.45%

  4. DOption (d)

    Profit of 3.45%

  5. EOption (e)

    Loss of 2.45%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Loss of 3.45%

Why this answer is correct

Total C.P of B = C.P of shares + Brokerage charges

Total shares purchased by B = 2000 shares

C.P of 2000 shares = 2000 × 400 = Rs. 800000

All the shares were sold on next day.

∴ Delivery brokerage charge will be applied = 0.5%

Brokerage charges = (2000 × 400) × 0.5% + (2000 × 390) × 0.5%

⇒ (2000 × 400 × 5)/1000 + (2000 × 390 × 5)/1000

⇒ 4000 + 3900 = Rs. 7900 [As brokerage charges is on sale as well as purchase]

Total C.P = Rs (800000 + 7900) = Rs. 807900

Total S.P = 2000 × 390 = Rs. 780000

Loss = C.P - S.P

⇒ 807900 - 780000 = Rs. 27900

Loss % = (Loss/C.P.) × 100

⇒ (27900/807900) × 100 = 3.45%

Question 69

If D sold half of its shares at same rate. so, at what rate he must sell the remaining share to get no profit no loss, if brokerage on selling of remaining shares is Rs. 4 per share? [All shares are sold on intraday]

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 55500

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 60855

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 56500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 57500

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 58500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 60855

Why this answer is correct

Total C.P of D = C.P of shares + Brokerage charge

Total shares purchased by D = 300 shares

C.P of 300 shares = 300 × 390 = Rs 117000

Brokerage charges = (300 × 390) × 1% + (150 × 390) × 1% + (150 × 4)

⇒ (300 × 390 × 1)/100 + (150 × 390 × 1)/100 +600

⇒ 1170 + 585 + 600 = Rs 2355

Total C.P = Rs (117000 + 2355) = Rs 119355

S.P of 150 shares = 150 × 390 = Rs 58500

S.P of another 150 shares ⇒ Rs [119355 - 58500] = Rs 60855

Question 70

If E seems market as a bullish and purchased 200 more shares at 420. He then sold all of them after one year at 500. What is the diff. in profit if he would have sold at 450.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 52337.5

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 52287.5

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 56237.5

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 52437.5

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 52237.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Rs. 52237.5

Why this answer is correct

Total shares of E = 500 + 350 + 200 = 1050 shares

C.P = (500 + 350) × 395 + (200 × 420)

⇒ 335750 + 84000 = Rs 419750

Brokerage charges when all shares are sold at 500 = (850 × 395)0.5% + (200 × 420)0.5% + (1050 × 500)0.5%

⇒ (850 × 395 × 5)/1000 + (200 × 420 × 5)/1000 + (1050 × 500 × 5)/1000

⇒ 1678.75 + 420 + 2625 = Rs 4723.75

[ Brokerage is on sale as well as purchase]

Brokerage charges when all shares are sold at 450

⇒ (850 × 95)0.5% + (200 × 420)0.5% + (1050 × 450)0.5%

⇒ (850 × 395 × 5)/1000 + (200 × 420 × 5)/1000 + (1050 × 450 × 5)/1000

⇒ 1678.75 + 420 + 2362.5 = Rs 4461.25

[Brokerage is on sale as well as purchase]

Total C.P when some shares are sold at 500 = 419750 + 4723.75 = Rs 424473.75

Total C.P when some shares are sold at 450 = 419750 + 4461.25 = Rs 424211.25

S.P when all shares are sold at 500 = 1050 × 500 = Rs 525000

S.P when all shares are sold at 450 = 1050 × 450 = Rs 472500

Profit when S.P = 500,

⇒ 525000 - 424473.75 = 100526.25

Profit when S.P = 450

⇒ 472500 - 424211.25 = 48288.75

∴ Profit difference = 100526.25 - 52237.5 = Rs 52237.5

Question 71

If A sold all his remaining shares after 1 week at Rs. 420 per share, find his overall profit or loss percentage on these shares only.

  1. AOption (a)

    5.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    3.3%

  3. COption (c)

    6.6%

  4. DOption (d)

    13.2%

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6.6%

Why this answer is correct

Total CP of remaining shares for A = 500 x 390 + (500 x 390) x 0.5% + (500 x 420) x 0.5%

Total CP of remaining shares for A = 195000 + 975 + 1050 = 197025

SP of remaining shares for A = 500 x 420 = 210000

Profit = [(210000 - 197025)/197025] x 100 = 6.58% = 6.6%

Question 72

What is the approximate difference of profit amount earned by C on his remaining shares and profit amount earned by A on his remaining shares, if both of them sold their shares after 6 months at Rs. 500 per share.

  1. AOption (a)

    16000

  2. BOption (b)

    18000

  3. COption (c)

    20000

  4. DOption (d)

    14000

  5. EOption (e)

    12000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16000

Why this answer is correct

Total CP of remaining shares of A = 500 x 390 + (500 x 390) x 0.5% + (500 x 500) x 0.5%

Total CP of remaining shares of A = 195000 + 975 + 1250 = 197225

SP of remaining shares for A = 500 x 500 = 250000

Profit Amount for A = 197225 - 250000 = 52775

Total CP of remaining shares of C = 350 x 390 + (350 x 390) x 0.5% + (350 x 500) x 0.5%

Total CP of remaining shares of C = 136500 + 682.5 + 875 = 138057.5

SP of remaining shares for C = 350 x 500 = 175000

Profit Amount for C = 138057.5 - 175000 = 36942.5

Required difference = 52775 - 36942.5 = 15832.5 = 16000 (approx.)

Direction: Information about three values have been given, you have to calculate the value of all three quantities and answer the question accordingly.

Question 73

Quantity I. 9, 10, 6, 15, -1, X

Quantity II. 10, 6, 5, 8.5, 16, Y

Quantity III. 16, 18, 14, 20, 12, Z

  1. AOption (a)

    X > Y > Z

  2. BOption (b)

    X < Y > Z

  3. COption (c)

    X < Y < Z

  4. DOption (d)

    X = Y > Z

  5. EOption (e)

    X = Y < Z

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

X < Y > Z

Why this answer is correct

Quantity I:

9 + 12 = 10

10 - 22 = 6

6 + 32 = 15

15 - 42 = 16

-1 + 52 = 24

Quantity II:

10 × 0.5 + 1 = 6

6 × 1 – 1 = 5

5 × 1.5 + 1 = 8.5

8.5 × 2 – 1 = 16

16 × 2.5 + 1 = 41

Quantity III:

16 + 2 = 18

18 - 4 = 14

14 + 6 = 20

20 – 8 = 12

12 + 10 = 22

<br>

∴ 24 < 41 > 22

Hence, X < Y > Z

Question 74

Quantity I. 2, 3, 4, 15, 56, X

Quantity II. 3, 2, 7, 16, 71, Y

Quantity III. 14, 16, 28, 64, 144, Z

  1. AOption (a)

    X > Y > Z

  2. BOption (b)

    X < Y > Z

  3. COption (c)

    X < Y < Z

  4. DOption (d)

    X = Y > Z

  5. EOption (e)

    X = Y < Z

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

X < Y > Z

Why this answer is correct

Quantity I:

2 × 1 + 1 = 3

3 × 2 - 2 = 4

4 × 3 + 3 = 15

15 × 4 - 4 = 56

56 × 5 + 5 = 285

<br>

Quantity II:

3 × 1 – 1 = 2

2 × 2 + 3 = 7

7 × 3 – 5 = 16

16 × 4 + 7 =71

71 × 5 – 9 = 346

<br>

Quantity III:

14 + 12 + 13 = 16

16 + 22 + 23 = 28

28 + 32 + 33 = 64

64 + 42 + 43 = 144

144 + 52 + 53 = 294

∴ 285 < 346 > 294

Hence, X < Y > Z

Question 75

Quantity I. 15, 12, X, 9, 21, 6

Quantity II. 24, 12, 12, Y, 36, 90

Quantity III. 3, 2, 10, Z, 17, 16

  1. AOption (a)

    X > Y > Z

  2. BOption (b)

    X < Y > Z

  3. COption (c)

    X < Y < Z

  4. DOption (d)

    X = Y > Z

  5. EOption (e)

    X = Y < Z

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X = Y > Z

Why this answer is correct

Quantity I:

15 – 3 = 12

12 + 6 = 18

18 – 9 = 9

9 + 12 = 21

21 – 15 = 6

Quantity II:

24 × 0.5 = 12

12 × 1 = 12

12 × 1.5 = 18

18 × 2 = 36

36 × 2.5 = 90

Quantity III:

3 - 13 = 2

2 + 23 = 10

10 - 13 = 9

9 + 23 = 17

17 - 13 = 16

∴ 18 = 18 > 9

Hence, X = Y > Z

Direction: The following table shows the five different projects named X, Y, Z, M and N and four persons working on it. The second table shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time.

The following table shows the number of days for which 4 individuals A, B, C and D worked on 5 different projects X, Y, Z, M and N. It also shows the part of respective project that could not be completed by individuals in time.

Some values are missing which are denoted by symbol (-). With the help of information in questions and table below answer the questions that follow.

PROJECTXYZMN
Persons
A12--104
B126-64
C48-46
D6---10

 

PROJECTPart of the project incomplete after all worked
X1/3
Y-
Z-
M1/6
N1/24

Question 76

A and B started working on Project X. They completed 1/3rd of work after which they left, and C joined the project. C can complete the whole project in 24 days. After C worked for his assigned number of days, D joined the project and worked for his assigned number of days. Find the number of days in which D can complete the whole Project X?

  1. AOption (a)

    45 days

  2. BOption (b)

    36 days

  3. COption (c)

    18 days

  4. DOption (d)

    25 days

  5. EOption (e)

    24 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36 days

Why this answer is correct

A and B complete 1/3rd, C completed 1/24 × 4 = 1/6

Completed work before D joined is 1/3 + 1/6 = 1/2, so to be completed by D = 1 – 1/2 = 1/2 of work

Now project Incomplete after D left = 1/3

So D did = 1/2 – 1/3 = 1/6 of work

He worked for 6 days, means he complete 1/6th of work in 6 days. So, he can do complete project X in 6/1 × 6 = 36 days

Question 77

A who can complete project Y in 40 days, worked for 12 days. The ratio of number of days in which B and C can complete Project Y alone is 10 : 16. D could not come to work for project Y. Find the number of days in which B and C can complete 13/15 of project Y together, given that if D who can complete work in 24 days had also joined the project for 8 days, the project would have been completed.

  1. AOption (a)

    16 days

  2. BOption (b)

    26 days

  3. COption (c)

    25 days

  4. DOption (d)

    14 days

  5. EOption (e)

    18 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16 days

Why this answer is correct

Number of days in which B and C can complete project y alone is 10x and 16x respectively.

Now if D also joined for 8 days, project would have been completed, means

12/40 + 6/10x + 8/16x + 8/24 = 1

11/10x = 11/30

x = 3

So B can complete project in 10x = 30 days, and C in 16x = 48 days.

So 13/15 work, B and C together – (1/30 + 1/48) × y = 13/15

Solve, y = 16 days

Question 78

Project Z was to be completed in 12 days. To complete project in time, all A, B, C and D decided to work in pairs in alternate days. A and C on 1st day, B and D on 2nd day, A and C on 3rd, and so on. But they could not complete project in time. What percent of project Z remain uncompleted if A, B, C and D can complete whole project Z in 24, 36, 40 and 30 days respectively?

  1. AOption (a)

    26.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    23.33%

  3. COption (c)

    33.33%

  4. DOption (d)

    45.5%

  5. EOption (e)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

23.33%

Why this answer is correct

Project is to be completed in 12 days. They all worked in pairs on alternate means all worked for 6 days each.

So,

On 1st day, work completed by A and C = 1/24 + 1/40 = 1/15

On 2nd day, work completed by B and D = 1/36 + 1/30 = 11/180

1st pair worked for 6 days, so work completed by them = 1/15 × 6 = 2/5

Similarly, by B and D = 11/180 × 6 = 11/30

So part of project uncompleted= 1 – (2/5 + 11/30) = 7/30

So Required Percent = 7/30 × 100 = 23.33%

Question 79

B and C can complete the whole project M in 12 days working together. A is 20% more efficient than C and 40% less efficient that B. How many days did D work on project M if D can complete whole project M in 36 days?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 days

  2. BOption (b)

    6 days

  3. COption (c)

    1.5 days

  4. DOption (d)

    3 days

  5. EOption (e)

    2 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

2 days

Why this answer is correct

Efficiency - A : C = 120 : 100 = 6 : 5

So days ratio = 5 : 6

Similarly, A : B = 60 : 100 = 3 : 5, So days 5 : 3

B/A = 3/5, A/C = 5/6

So ratio of days for B : A : C is 3 : 5 : 6     ...(1)

Now - B and C can complete the whole project M in 12 days working together, and ratio of no. of days in which they can complete work alone is B and C from (1) is 3 : 6 = 1 : 2

So,

1/x + 1/2x = 1/12

Solve, x = 18

So B can complete work in 18 days, C in 36 days and then A in 30 days

Now, let D worked for ‘m’ days on project M. So

1/30 × 10 + 1/18 × 6 + 1/36 × 4 + 1/36 × m = 1 – 1/6

m = 2 days

Question 80

A, E and D worked on project N. B and C alone can complete whole project N in 40 and 60 days respectively. E who is 3/2 times efficient than B and C together replaces both of them and worked for same number of days for which B and C had to work. A completed 1/6th of the work. Find in how many days all A, B, C, and D can complete the project N together.

  1. AOption (a)

    130/17 days

  2. BOption (b)

    12 days

  3. COption (c)

    10 days

  4. DOption (d)

    90/17 days

  5. EOption (e)

    140/13 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 days

Why this answer is correct

B and C together can complete work in 24 days [1/40 + 1/60]

Efficiency E : (B + C) = 3/2 : 1 = 3 : 2

So, ratio of number days = 2 : 3

3 units = 12

1 unit = 4

So E can complete whole work in 2 units = 16 days

Now E worked for (4 + 6) = 10 days – total days for which B and C worked.

So E completed 10/16 of work, A completed 1/6 of work. 1/24 is uncompleted work. Let n be the number of days in which D can complete whole work. So

A’s work + E’s work + D’s work = 1 – incomplete work

1/6 + 10/16 + 10/x = 1 – 1/24

Solve, x = 60 = number of days in which D can alone complete project N.

A completed 1/6th of work in 4 days, so he can complete whole project in 4 × 6 = 24 days

A = 24, B = 40, C = 60, D = 60

Total work = LCM (24, 40, 60, 60) = 120

∴ 1 day work of A = 120/24 = 5

   1 day work of B = 120/40 = 3

   1 day work of C = 120/60 = 2

   1 day work of D = 120/60 = 2

So together they can complete the work in = 120/(5 + 3 + 2 + 2) 

 ⇒ 120/12 days = 10 days

General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness (40 questions)

Question 81

Forbes has compiled a first-ever list of the World's Best Bank 2019. Which of the following banks has topped in Forbes list of Indian banks?

  1. AOption (a)

    ICICI Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    DBS Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Yes Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    ​HDFC Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    IDBI Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

​HDFC Bank

Why this answer is correct

  • Forbes has compiled a first-ever list of the World's Best Bank 2019 in terms of customer services and technological advancements.
  • The private lender, HDFC Bank, was ranked at the top of the list.
  • After HDFC Bank, another private lender ICICI Bank took the second spot, while DBS was at the third rank in Forbes list of Indian banks.

Question 82

Recently, Indian city has been included in UNESCO's World heritage list. It is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Udaipur

  2. BOption (b)

    Jaipur

  3. COption (c)

    Jaisalmer

  4. DOption (d)

    Jodhpur

  5. EOption (e)

    Bikaner

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jaipur

Why this answer is correct

  • The Walled City of Jaipur, known for its iconic architectural legacy and vibrant culture, on Saturday made its entry into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list
  • The Budj Bim Cultural Landscape in south-west Victoria has been included in UNESCO's World heritage list.
  • It is the 20th site in Australia to make it to the UNESCO's List.
  • The landscape is marked for its Aboriginal cultural importance.
  • It is considered as one of the oldest aquaculture sites in the world.
  • The site was cared for over 6,600 years and is important to the Gunditjmara People.
  • A World Heritage Site is an area which is selected by the UNESCO as having cultural, historical, scientific or other form of significance, and is legally protected by international treaties.
  • At present, there are 38 UNESCO's World heritage sites in India.

Question 83

Which among the following parameters were not included in Global Gender Gap Index Report?

  1. AOption (a)

    economic participation

  2. BOption (b)

    women participation

  3. COption (c)

    educational attainment

  4. DOption (d)

    health

  5. EOption (e)

    none of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

none of the above

Why this answer is correct

  • Global Gender Gap Index Report is published every year by the World Economic Forum.
  • India ranked 108th in the 2018’s Report.
  • It was first published in the year 2006.
  • Iceland Holds the 1st position in Global gender gap index.
  • Parameters of Global gender gap
  • **India ranked lower on all segments - economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival ranking, and political empowerment,**women’s participation
InstitutionsReports
World Bank- Ease of Doing Business - World Development Report - Ease of Living Index - Human Capital Index
International Labour Organisation- Global Wage Report - World Social Protection Report
World Trade Organisation- World Trade Outlook Indicator

Question 84

Abhijeet Gupta is related to which game?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chess

  2. BOption (b)

    Badminton

  3. COption (c)

    Basketball

  4. DOption (d)

    Hockey

  5. EOption (e)

    Billiards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chess

Why this answer is correct

  • Indian Grandmaster Abhijeet Gupta lifted the Cannes International Open trophy on 25 February 2019 for chess.
  • He won the tournament with 7.5 points over nearest rivals Nikita Maiorov of Belarus, Nasuta Grzegorz of Poland and Yuri Solodovnichecko of Ukraine.
  • He took an easy draw with Pier Luigi Basso of Italy in the ninth and final round.

Question 85

The total deposits in bank accounts opened under the Jan Dhan scheme are ________. The Modi government launched the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana in 2014.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 2 lakh crore

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 1 lakh crore

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 80 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 90 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs 70 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs 1 lakh crore

Why this answer is correct

  • The total deposits in bank accounts opened under the Jan Dhan scheme crossed Rs 1 lakh crore
  • The cumulative balance in 35.29 crore accounts under the flagship programme of the Modi government reached Rs 97,665.66 crore as on April 3, 2019.
  • The Modi government launched the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) on August 28, 2014.

Question 86

NCLAT order on Essar Steel has rewritten IBC rules. What is full form of NCLAT?

  1. AOption (a)

     National Company Legal Appellate Tribunal 

  2. BOption (b)

     National Company Law Advisory Tribunal 

  3. COption (c)

     National Company Law Appellate Tribunal 

  4. DOption (d)

     National Company Law Appellate Tarrif

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 National Company Law Appellate Tribunal 

Why this answer is correct

  • The lenders of Essar Steel have told the Supreme Court that the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) has misconstrued and misinterpreted the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) to such an extent that the statute itself has been literally rewritten.

Question 87

A Public Sector Enterprise, NSIL has been incorporated as a new commercial arm of the Department of Space to tap the benefits of the Research & Development carried out by ISRO. What does 'I' stands for in NSIL?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    Institute

  3. COption (c)

    Innovate

  4. DOption (d)

    Indigenous

  5. EOption (e)

    Index

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

India

Why this answer is correct

  • A Public Sector Enterprise, New Space India Limited (NSIL) has been incorporated as a new commercial arm of Department of Space to tap the benefits of the Research & Development carried out by ISRO.
  • It will spearhead commercialization of various space products including production of launch vehicles.
  • The Budget Estimates for Department of Space for FY 2019-20 is Rs 12,473.26 crore.

Question 88

Pinaka is a multi barrel rocket launcher produced by?

  1. AOption (a)

    DRDO

  2. BOption (b)

    ISRO

  3. COption (c)

    CSIR

  4. DOption (d)

    HAL

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DRDO

Why this answer is correct

  • Defence Research and Defence Organisation (DRDO) successfully test fired the Guided PINAKA from Pokhran ranges on 11 March 2019.
  • The weapon system is equipped with state-of-the-art guidance kit comprising of an advanced navigation and control system.
  • The indigenously developed Guided Pinaka by DRDO will significantly boost the capability of the artillery to make precision hits.

Question 89

Where will a Centre for Disability Sports be set up to ensure the effective participation of Persons with Disabilities in sports activities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kanpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Gwalior

  3. COption (c)

    Indore

  4. DOption (d)

    Lucknow

  5. EOption (e)

    Bhopal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gwalior

Why this answer is correct

  • A Centre for Disability Sports will be set up at Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It will ensure the effective participation of Persons with Disabilities in sports activities.
  • It is being developed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  • It will have an Outdoor Athletic Stadium, Indoor Sports Complex and Aquatic Centre.

Question 90

Who bagged the International Cricketer and Batsman of the Year award during the CEAT Cricket Rating (CCR) International awards 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    AB de Villiers

  2. BOption (b)

    Virat Kohli 

  3. COption (c)

    MS Dhoni

  4. DOption (d)

    Hardik Pandya

  5. EOption (e)

    Chris Gayle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Virat Kohli 

Why this answer is correct

  • Indian captain Virat Kohli bagged the International Cricketer and Batsman of the Year award during the CEAT Cricket Rating (CCR) International awards 2019.
  • Pacer Jasprit Bumrah was adjudged as International Bowler of the Year.
  • Ashutosh Aman was awarded Domestic Cricketer of the Year.
  • Mohinder Amarnath was bestowed with the 'CCR International Lifetime Achievement Award'.

Question 91

TReDS is an online electronic institutional mechanism for facilitating the financing of trade receivables of micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME) through multiple financiers.It is a joint trade venture of NSE and _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    RBI

  2. BOption (b)

    SIDBI

  3. COption (c)

    NABARD

  4. DOption (d)

    SBI

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

SIDBI

Why this answer is correct

Hindustan Aeronautics (HAL) has become the first public sector enterprise to make a transaction on the "TReDS platform". TReDS is an online electronic institutional mechanism for facilitating the financing of trade receivables of micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME) through multiple financiers. In 2017, the government mandated all major PSUs to join TReDS platform.It is a joint trade venture of NSE and SIDBI.

Question 92

Who became the 1st woman to cross the Atlantic Ocean solo in a LSA?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mitali Madhumita

  2. BOption (b)

     Priya Jhingan

  3. COption (c)

    Deepika Misra

  4. DOption (d)

    Aarohi Pandit

  5. EOption (e)

    Avani Chaturvedi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Aarohi Pandit

Why this answer is correct

Captain Aarohi Pandit, a 23-year-old pilot from Mumbai became the world’s first woman to cross the Atlantic Ocean solo in a Light Sports Aircraft (LSA).

Question 93

With which of the following countries is the 1st Model Village having 2400 houses built with Indian assistance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sri Lanka

  2. BOption (b)

    Bangladesh

  3. COption (c)

    Myanmar

  4. DOption (d)

    Japan

  5. EOption (e)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sri Lanka

Why this answer is correct

  • Ranidugama- The 1st Model Village having 2400 houses and built with Indian assistance in Sri Lanka was inaugurated.
  • This is a part of housing project meant for civil war-affected people and estate workers.
  • India has partnered with Sri Lankan Ministry of Housing and Construction and Cultural Affairs and will also provide a grant of Rs 1,200 million (USD 17.5 million) for the same.

Question 94

What is the theme for International Day of Happiness 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Happier Together

  2. BOption (b)

    Share Happiness

  3. COption (c)

    Be Happy

  4. DOption (d)

    Spread Happiness

  5. EOption (e)

    Happier Today 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Happier Together

Why this answer is correct

  • Finland has been ranked as the happiest country in the world.
  • Finland overtakes Norway as the world's happiest country for 2018.
  • World Happiness Day is celebrated every year on 20 March.
  • The theme for International Day of Happiness 2018 “Share Happiness”
  • The theme for International Day of Happiness 2019 is “Happier Together”.
  • India’s rank** on the 2019 UN World Happiness Report is **140.

Question 95

‘Wings’, a specially designed mentorship program to empower the female workforce, was launched by which company?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aviva Life Insurance

  2. BOption (b)

    Bajaj Life insurance

  3. COption (c)

    LIC

  4. DOption (d)

    ICICI Life

  5. EOption (e)

    SBI Life

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Aviva Life Insurance

Why this answer is correct

  • Aviva Life Insurance has announced the launch of ‘Wings’, a specially designed mentorship program to empower the female workforce.
  • The new initiative has been aimed to empower the women in Aviva to fulfil their professional and personal goals.
  • The program is an initiative of the SHE division of the company, which was conceptualised in 2016 by Aviva India’s Women Network, for mentoring all the women employees.

Question 96

G20 summit held at ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Osaka

  2. BOption (b)

    Hiroshima

  3. COption (c)

    Kyoto

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagoya

  5. EOption (e)

    Kobe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Osaka

Why this answer is correct

  • PM Narendra Modi reached the Japanese city of Osaka to attend the G20 Summit which will be held on 28-29 June 2019.
  • He will hold talks with his Japanese counterpart Shinzo Abe and meet US President Donald Trump on 28 June 2019.
  • He will attend nearly 30 programmes during his 57 hours stay in this visit.

Question 97

Who clinched a gold medal in the World Universiade in 100 m dash event at Napoli in Italy in July 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hima Das

  2. BOption (b)

    Swapna Barman

  3. COption (c)

    Manika Batra

  4. DOption (d)

    Dutee Chand

  5. EOption (e)

    M. R. Poovamma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dutee Chand

Why this answer is correct

  • Dutee Chand clinched a gold medal in the World Universiade in 100 m dash event at Napoli in Italy.
  • With this, she became the first Indian woman track and field athlete to win Gold.
  • She took 11.32 seconds to finish the race.
  • Dutee has now become the second Indian sprinter to win a gold in a global event after Hima Das.

Question 98

Who has been appointed as an additional director on the board of Yes Bank for two years from May 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rama Subramaniam Gandhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Urjit Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Harun Rashid Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Rakesh Mohan

  5. EOption (e)

    Y. Venugopal Reddy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rama Subramaniam Gandhi

Why this answer is correct

  • RBI has appointed former deputy governor Rama Subramaniam Gandhi as an additional director on the board of Yes Bank for two years, from 14 May 2019 to 13 May 2021.
  • The appointment has been made under sub-section (1) of Section 36 AB of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Question 99

Which state is set to launch a major water conservation scheme titled ‘Jalamrutha’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

  5. EOption (e)

    Telangana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

Karnataka is set to launch a major water conservation scheme titled ‘Jalamrutha’, which focusses on drought-proofing measures, including protection and rejuvenation of water bodies.

Question 100

With which of the following did India's BSE and the India International Exchange Limited sign an MoU to connect the investors’ community and companies and allow a capital formation platform on a larger scale?

  1. AOption (a)

    RBK Group

  2. BOption (b)

    Finam Holdings

  3. COption (c)

    Moscow Exchange

  4. DOption (d)

    Bloomberg

  5. EOption (e)

    Rosneft

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Moscow Exchange

Why this answer is correct

  • A memorandum of Understanding was signed between the Moscow Exchange and India's BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange) and the India International Exchange Limited.
  • The ultimate objective of the MoU is of connecting the investors’ community and companies in both countries and allowing a capital formation platform on a larger scale.
  • The MoU was signed in Moscow on 3 April 2019.

Question 101

ICICI has signed a MoU with Small Business FinCredit India Pvt Ltd on 4 January 2019 for jointly providing loans worth up to________ to the MSMEs?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    1 crore 

  3. COption (c)

    2 crore 

  4. DOption (d)

    3 crore 

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 crore 

Why this answer is correct

  • ICICI Bank signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Small Business FinCredit India Pvt Ltd (SBFC) on 4 January 2019.
  • Under the MoU, it will jointly provide loans worth up to Rs 1 crore to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
  • ICICI Bank will co-originate loan against property with SBFC at a mutually agreed ratio.
  • The loans of up to Rs 1 crore is for a tenure of 15 years.

Question 102

Which of the following banks will be buying a stake in BSE subsidiary INX for ₹31 crore?

  1. AOption (a)

    ICICI bank

  2. BOption (b)

    SBI

  3. COption (c)

    Canara Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    HDFC bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Axis bank 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ICICI bank

Why this answer is correct

  • ICICI Bank has entered into an agreement with the BSE to buy stake in its subsidiary INX for nearly ₹31 crore.
  • India International Exchange (INX) is a wholly owned subsidiary of the BSE and is India's first international exchange at International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in GIFT City, Gujarat.
  • GIFT city stands for Gujarat International Finance Tech City and is situated in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
  • ICICI bank MD & CEO-Sandeep Bankshi
  • ICICI bank HQ-Mumbai
  • BSE MD & CEO-Ashish Kumar Chauhan
  • First woman independent director of BSE-Jayshree Vyas

Question 103

The Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) can be traded using the RBI‘s _______

  1. AOption (a)

    e-Kuber platform

  2. BOption (b)

    NEFT

  3. COption (c)

    RTGS

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

e-Kuber platform

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e., e-Kuber platform

  • Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) are tradable certificates issued against priority sector loans of banks so as to enable banks to achieve their specified target and sub-targets for priority sector lending through the purchase of these instruments in the event of a shortfall and at the same time incentivizing the surplus banks to lend more to these sectors. It can be traded using the e-Kuber platform by the RBI.

Question 104

Apart from resident individuals, HUFs, Trusts and Charitable Institutions, the Sovereign gold scheme is eligible for whom?

  1. AOption (a)

    Religious organisations

  2. BOption (b)

    Universities

  3. COption (c)

    Financial organisations

  4. DOption (d)

    Government Organisations

  5. EOption (e)

    Schools

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Universities

Why this answer is correct

  • The Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), has decided to issue the Sovereign Gold Bonds.
  • The Bonds will be sold through Scheduled Commercial banks(except Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices, and recognised stock exchanges viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange Limited.
  • The Bonds will be restricted for sale to resident individuals, HUFs, Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions.

Question 105

Which is the best company to work for in India in 2019, according to LinkedIn?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uber

  2. BOption (b)

    TCS

  3. COption (c)

    Flipkart (Walmart)

  4. DOption (d)

    Oyo

  5. EOption (e)

    One97 Communications (Paytm)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Flipkart (Walmart)

Why this answer is correct

  • Home-grown e-commerce platform Flipkart was founded in 2007 by former Amazon employees Sachin Bansal and Binny Bansal.
  • In the past decade, it has become the country’s largest online retailer.
  • The growth prompted U.S. retail giant Walmart to purchase a controlling stake in the business in 2018.

Question 106

The government has set up a working group to revise WPI, giving roadmap to shift to PPI. This group is headed by?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr. Vinod Paul

  2. BOption (b)

    Amitabh Kant

  3. COption (c)

    Rajiv Kumar

  4. DOption (d)

    Ramesh Chand

  5. EOption (e)

    Rao Inderjit Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ramesh Chand

Why this answer is correct

  • The government has set up a working group under Niti Aayog member Ramesh Chand to revise the current series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) with base 2011-12 and devise a new **Producer Price Index (**PPI).
  • PPI measures the average change in the price a producer receives for his goods and services sold in the domestic market and exports.

Question 107

Which railway zone's strategy named as 'Plan Bee' has won the ‘Best Innovation Award’ in Indian Railways for the 2018-19 fiscal? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Western Railway

  2. BOption (b)

    Northeast Frontier Railway

  3. COption (c)

    North Central Railway

  4. DOption (d)

    East Central Railway

  5. EOption (e)

    Central Railway

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Northeast Frontier Railway

Why this answer is correct

  • Plan Bee is an amplifying system that imitates the buzz of a swarm of honey bees to keep wild elephants away from railway tracks.
  • This strategy adopted by Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) has won the ‘Best Innovation Award' in Indian Railways for the 2018-19 fiscal.
  • The prize is awarded by Indian Railways and comprises of a citation and a cash award of Rs.3 lakh.

Question 108

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched ________ on its website for facilitating RBI’s grievance redressal process.

  1. AOption (a)

    Client Management System

  2. BOption (b)

    Complaint Management System

  3. COption (c)

    Commercial Management System

  4. DOption (d)

    Corporate Management System

  5. EOption (e)

    Crucial Management System

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Complaint Management System

Why this answer is correct

  • The “Complaint Management System (CMS)” of RBI was launched by the Governor, RBI on Jun 24, 2019.
  • It is a software application to facilitate RBI’s grievance redressal processes.
  • Members of public can access the CMS portal at RBI’s website to lodge their complaints against any of the entities regulated by RBI.

Question 109

How much fund has been allocated under Budget 2019 to boost public sector banks?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 50,000 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 60,000 crore

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 70,000 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 80,000 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs 90,000 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs 70,000 crore

Why this answer is correct

  • Budget 2019 has proposed an additional push of Rs 70,000 crore to the public sector banks.
  • Finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced this move to boost credit in the ailing PSU banks.
  • The Nifty PSU Bank index went up 2.5 per cent after the announcement.

Question 110

________ will be set up in the current fiscal year as a part of the measures to deepen the bond market.

  1. AOption (a)

    Corporate Gain Enhancement Corporation

  2. BOption (b)

    Corporate Guarantee Enhancement Corporation

  3. COption (c)

    Credit Gain Enhancement Corporation

  4. DOption (d)

    Credit Guarantee Enhancement Corporation

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Credit Guarantee Enhancement Corporation

Why this answer is correct

  • A Credit Guarantee Enhancement Corporation will be set up in the current fiscal year as part of the measures to deepen the bond market.
  • The government will work with the RBI and SEBI to enable stock exchanges to allow AA-rated bonds as collateral.

Question 111

RBI has set up a committee for development of housing finance securitisation market, headed by?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sri Rajan

  2. BOption (b)

    Harsh Vardhan

  3. COption (c)

    Suresh Nag

  4. DOption (d)

    Rahul Gupta

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Harsh Vardhan

Why this answer is correct

  • The six-member committee on the development of housing finance securitisation market, headed by Bain & Co Senior Advisor Harsh Vardhan, has been asked to assess the role of various counterparties, including the servicers, trustees, rating agencies, in the securitisation process and suggest measures required.

Question 112

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a Three Year Roadmap  Project 'UTKARSH'. It is meant for what purpose?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coordination and supervision

  2. BOption (b)

    Supervision and regulation

  3. COption (c)

    Coordination and regulation

  4. DOption (d)

    Monitoring and coordination

  5. EOption (e)

    Monitoring and supervision

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Supervision and regulation

Why this answer is correct

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a Three Year Roadmap to improve supervision and regulation, among other functions of central bank.
  • This medium term strategy is named as Utkarsh 2022.
  • An internal committee to identify issues that needs to be addressed over next 3 years was formed, which was anchored by Viral Acharya, the outgoing Deputy Governor of RBI.

Question 113

Which state has the highest rate of refilling LPG under the UJJWALA scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttarakhand

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Telangana

  5. EOption (e)

    Chhattisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Delhi

Why this answer is correct

  • The government’s flagship pro-poor scheme Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) has found maximum success in Delhi, Goa, Haryana, Uttarakhand and Puducherry. Delhi topped the list of states with maximum percentage of PMUY beneficiaries availing at least four refills.
  • Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Tripura were in the bottom of the list.

Question 114

Where was NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), officially inaugurated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hyderabad

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengaluru

  3. COption (c)

    Pune

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi

  5. EOption (e)

    Mumbai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bengaluru

Why this answer is correct

  • NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), was officially inaugurated in Bengaluru on 23 May 2019.
  • NSIL's main objective is to scale up industry participation in Indian space programmes.
  • NSIL will act as an aggregator for all space-related activities in industry and develop private entrepreneurship in space-related technologies.

Question 115

A $250 million loan to Kerala will be provided by which bank for disaster management?

  1. AOption (a)

    RBI

  2. BOption (b)

    SBI

  3. COption (c)

    World Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    ICICI Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Yes Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

World Bank

Why this answer is correct

  • World Bank would offer a loan of $250 million to the Kerala Government for the Resilient Kerala project, aimed at enhancing the state’s resilience against the impacts of natural disasters and climate change in the wake of last year’s floods.
  • The announcement was made during “Rebuild Kerala: Development partners' conclave,” a meeting of various funding agencies for rebuilding flood-ravaged Kerala.

Question 116

In IFSC, the fifth character 0 is reserved for ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Future Utilization

  2. BOption (b)

    Past Utilization

  3. COption (c)

    Present Utilization

  4. DOption (d)

    All-time Utilization

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Future Utilization

Why this answer is correct

  • IFSC stands for Indian Financial System Code. It is a 11-digit alpha-numeric code that uniquely identifies a bank branch participating in any RBI regulated funds transfer system.
  • The IFSC code helps to transfer money using RTGS, NEFT or IMPS method. The first 4 digits of the IFSC represent the bank and last 6 characters represent the branch. The 5th character is zero.

Question 117

The Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman Yojana has been launched by which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Jharkhand

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Odisha

  5. EOption (e)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

  • The government of Madhya Pradesh has launched the Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman Yojana to provide employment for youth.
  • The scheme guarantees 100 days of employment every year to urban youths from economically weaker sections (EWS).
  • The youth would get Rs 4,000 stipend per month and total Rs 13,500 for the 100 days period would be provided.

Question 118

What is the targeted Fiscal Deficit the year 2018-2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    remain as it is

  2. BOption (b)

    2%

  3. COption (c)

    3.3%

  4. DOption (d)

    3.8%

  5. EOption (e)

    3.2%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3.3%

Why this answer is correct

Fiscal Deficit as a percentage of GDP is the most important factor to judge the health of an economy and budget. The fiscal deficit target for 2018-19 has been revised to 3.3% of the gross domestic product (GDP) 

Question 119

Which state will give unemployment allowance up to Rs 3,500 to unemployed youth having graduation or equivalent degree under the Chief Minister Yuva Sambal Yojana from February 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haryana

  2. BOption (b)

    Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

  5. EOption (e)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

  • Unemployed youth having graduation or equivalent degree will be given unemployment allowance up to Rs 3,500 by the Rajasthan government.
  • They will get the benefit of the Chief Minister Yuva Sambal Yojana from February 2019.
  • To be eligible for the scheme, applicants should be natives of Rajasthan.
  • The amount will be given for two years or until they get employed.

Question 120

Which bank has signed a deal with the Commonwealth Bank of Australia for block chain technology?

  1. AOption (a)

    Asian Development Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    World Bank

  3. COption (c)

    BRICS bank

  4. DOption (d)

    RBI

  5. EOption (e)

    SBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

World Bank

Why this answer is correct

  • The World Bank and the Commonwealth Bank of Australia (CommBank) have teamed up to enable recording of secondary market bond trading using blockchain tech.

English Language (35 questions)

Question 121

The following sentences have been given in a jumbled manner. Un-jumble the sentences and answer the option which describes the order of sentences in a correct manner. 

A. India's government is in talks with foreign lenders to provide as much as $14.5 billion in credit to millions of its small firms, two officials said, in a sign, the country's banking system may not be robust enough to do the job on its own

B. India's micro, small and medium enterprise(MSME) ministry is discussing the proposal to pull in foreign banks with the country's ministry of finance, which will make a final call.

C. The push for foreign loans comes on the heels of the Indian government's announcement earlier this month that it plans to borrow about 700 billion rupees by issuing overseas sovereign bonds.

D. The government is in discussions with multiple foreign lenders, including Germany's state-owned development bank KfW Group, the World Bank and some Canadian institutions to extend lines of credit to small enterprises

E. One official said that the government plans to source up to 1 trillion Indian rupees of loans from foreign institutions because Indian banks were not in a position to provide enough capital for the small business sector, which is seen as critical to job creation.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABCED

  2. BOption (b)

    ACDEB

  3. COption (c)

    BCDEA

  4. DOption (d)

    CBADE

  5. EOption (e)

    EDCBA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ACDEB

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 2.

A is the first sentence because it introduces the subject of the paragraph - that the Indian government has decided to ask foreign lenders to help out since its banking system cannot sustain and develop the MSME industry.

C is the second sentence since it gives a context for such a decision - "Indian government's announcement earlier this month that it plans to borrow about 700 billion rupees by issuing overseas sovereign bonds".

D is the third sentence since it gives more information regarding the countries India is asking for aid from in the present scenario.

E is the fourth sentence since it provides an insider angle to the whole subject along with the fact that the country can ask up to 1 trillion Indian rupees as loan.

B is the last sentence because it talks about the MSME industry (which was the subject of discussion in the earlier sentences) taking things into their own hands.

Each question in the comprehension given below lists a number of sentences/parts of sentences which need to be un-jumbled in order to produce a paragraph. Choose the correct option corresponding to the correct order of sentences/parts of sentences.

Question 122

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. India may have to revise downwards what is considered its “potential” rate of 

B. Has argued in a paper. This paper comes as a follow-up to the one Mr. Subramanian published last month, in which he had argued that India’s GDP growth in the 2011-17 period

C. Had been overestimated by 2.5 percentage points and that the actual growth rate was about 4.5%

D. Growth from 7-8% to bring expectations more in line with reality, former Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) Arvind Subramanian

  1. AOption (a)

    BCDA

  2. BOption (b)

    BADC

  3. COption (c)

    ACDB

  4. DOption (d)

    ADBC

  5. EOption (e)

    DBCA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ADBC

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer: Option 4.

The first part/sentence is A since it introduces the subject of the sentence - a paper published by Mr. Subramanian which talks about India's potential rate of growth.

The second part is D since it connects to the first part through the economic term 'potential rate of growth'.

The third part is B since it connects the verb 'has' with Arvind Subramanian.

The fourth part is C since it completes the argument that India's GDP growth had been overestimated by 2.5% and states the growth rate to be 4.5%.

Question 123

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. The follow-up paper published earlier this month is an attempt to address those criticisms. 

B. The original paper drew a lot of criticism over its methodology and assertions. 

C. While the paper goes into some detail in addressing the statistical issues raised about the original, it also highlights certain cognitive arguments made against it and tries to show why those are unfounded

D. the key highlights of which Mr. Subramanian had presented in a lecture

  1. AOption (a)

    CBAD

  2. BOption (b)

    BDAC

  3. COption (c)

    ABDC

  4. DOption (d)

    DACB

  5. EOption (e)

    ADCB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BDAC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BDAC

Key Points

  • Sentence B introduces an independent fact - the criticism of the original paper
  • Phrase D further describes about the methodology and assertions talked about in Sentence B
  • Sentence A logically follows as it introduces a follow-up paper to the original
  • Sentence C describes what that follow-up paper is about
<br>

Thus the correct order is: The original paper drew a lot of criticism over its methodology and assertions, the key highlights of which Mr. Subramanian had presented in a lecture. The follow-up paper published earlier this month is an attempt to address those criticisms. While the paper goes into some detail in addressing the statistical issues raised about the original, it also highlights certain cognitive arguments made against it and tries to show why those are unfounded.

Question 124

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. Did in the pre-1980 Hindu rate of growth period,

B. Was how India can, right now, grow at the same rate as it

C. The first question raised, Mr. Subramanian said

D. When the economic condition was clearly much worse.

  1. AOption (a)

    CBAD

  2. BOption (b)

    BCAD

  3. COption (c)

    ABCD

  4. DOption (d)

    ACDB

  5. EOption (e)

    DBCA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CBAD

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 1.

The correct option is 1.

C is the first part because the subject of the sentence seems to start from this option.

B is the second part because it builds on the argument of Mr. Subramanian.

A. gives more historical information and D follows to give a contextual background to the whole idea.

Question 125

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. And the population growth rate was 2%, yielding a

B. Per capita growth rate of 1-1.5%. So, today’s 4.5% represents

C. More than a doubling of the old “Hindu” per capita growth rate"

D. “To begin with, today’s 4.5% translates into a per capita growth rate of about 3%,” he said. “In the pre-1980s era, the GDP growth rate was about 3-3.5%

  1. AOption (a)

    BCDA

  2. BOption (b)

    ACDB

  3. COption (c)

    DABC

  4. DOption (d)

    BADC

  5. EOption (e)

    ABCD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

DABC

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 3.

D is the first sentence since it contains "he said". That is a clue to understand that the sentence starts from this option.

A gives more information connecting it to D. Look for the pair of "GDP growth rate" and "Population growth rate".

B is the third sentence connecting it to A. B gives the answer to A's question "yielding a.."

C is the concluding part since it gives more info regarding what today's 4.5% represents.

Question 126

Re-jumble the following sentences/parts of sentences in order to give a coherent statement/paragraph.

A. Would result in compromising its “autonomy and its ability to function effectively”

B. To the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) has met with a strong opposition from the regulatory body. The capital markets regulator feels that the proposal

C. The government’s proposal to transfer surplus money with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

D. Towards the progress and development of the Indian securities market.

  1. AOption (a)

    ACBD

  2. BOption (b)

    CBAD

  3. COption (c)

    CDBA

  4. DOption (d)

    BDCA

  5. EOption (e)

    ADCB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CBAD

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 2.

C is the first sentence since it introduces the subject - "government’s proposal to transfer surplus money".

B is the second sentence since it continues giving info on who it would transfer to - "to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI)".

A is the third sentence since it talks about the impact of the proposal.

D is the fourth sentence since it concludes the idea.

Question 127

Which of the above-given sentences/parts of sentences unjumbled does not fit in the pattern of the whole argument/idea?

1.looking to Canada, Japan, and other countries

  1. with less cumbersome and more

3.a tourist resort there to earn

  1. already, Indian techies have started
  2. welcoming immigration processes
  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    1

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

3

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: Option 3.

The paragraphs above talks about the immigration process. Although sentence 3 is a bit related to the context as it talks about tourist resort, it doesn't fit in the context completely.

The correct order after rearrangement will be- 4, 1, 2, 5.

Question 128

Read the passage and based on it choose one of the given inferences that you draw from it. 

Across most parts of India (26 of 29 states and 5 of 7 Union Territories), over 200 cities/towns and over a thousand villages, areas around rivers are most productive and also some of the well-irrigated ones like in Punjab. Coastal Andhra produces 3 crops of rice coupled with coconut, fisheries, poultry, and dairy which make it perhaps the money-making land in the country.

How can the agricultural land of the Indian-subcontinent be described?​

  1. AOption (a)

    Fatuous

  2. BOption (b)

    Punctilious

  3. COption (c)

    Arbitrary

  4. DOption (d)

    Fecund

  5. EOption (e)

    Perilous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Fecund

Why this answer is correct

The following are the meanings of the given words:

Fatuous: silly and pointless.

Punctilious: showing great attention to detail.

Arbitrary: not seemed to be based on reason or plan.

Fecund: producing or capable of producing an abundance of offspring or new growth; highly fertile.

Perilous: full of danger or risk.

According to these meanings, the correct option is 4.

Question 129

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given six options. Match the words which would appear in the first and second blanks, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

I do not think we are going to build up international ___________ by approaching other nations in a spirit of __________ self-righteousness.

A. ConfidenceD. Unctuous
B. LudicrousE. Isthmus
C. EffableF. Inevitable
  1. AOption (a)

    A-D, B-D

  2. BOption (b)

    A-D

  3. COption (c)

    E-C

  4. DOption (d)

    C-F, D-C

  5. EOption (e)

    B-E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-D

Why this answer is correct

Let us know the meaning of the following words:

Ludicrous: so foolish, unreasonable, or out of place as to be amusing.

Effable: able to be described in words.

Unctuous: excessively flattering or ingratiating; oily.

Isthmus: a narrow strip of land with sea on either side, forming a link between two larger areas of land.

Inevitable: certain to happen; unavoidable.

After looking at the meaning, it is easily understood that A fills in the first blank and D fills in the second blank.

Question 130

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given six options. Match the words which would appear in the first and second blanks, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

The company is currently trying to ______ its socially ______ image.

A. EffluentD. Schmooze
B. BurnishE. Irate
C. DidacticF. Responsible
  1. AOption (a)

    B - D, D - A

  2. BOption (b)

    B - F

  3. COption (c)

    F - A

  4. DOption (d)

    E - C

  5. EOption (e)

    A - E, B - E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B - F

Why this answer is correct

Let us look at the meaning of the given words:

Effluent: liquid waste or sewage discharged into a river or the sea.

Burnish: polish (something, especially metal) by rubbing.

Didactic: intended to teach, particularly in having moral instruction as an ulterior motive.

Schmooze: talk intimately and cozily; gossip.

Irate: feeling or characterized by great anger.

Knowing the meanings of the words, it is understandable that the correct option is B-F.

Question 131

The following question consists of a sentence with two blanks. You are given six options. Match the words which would appear in the first and second blanks, making the sentence meaningfully complete.

A serpent was an _______ creature that looked thoroughly _______-not something anyone would want around his home.

A. ObsequiousD. Obscene
B. BlaseE. Repulsive
C. OleaginousF. Fulsome
  1. AOption (a)

    B-F

  2. BOption (b)

    A-E, C-E

  3. COption (c)

    B-E, C-F

  4. DOption (d)

    A-E, F-A

  5. EOption (e)

    C-E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-E, C-E

Why this answer is correct

Let us look at the meaning of the following words:

Obsequious: obedient or attentive to an excessive or servile degree.

Blase: unimpressed with or indifferent to something because one has experienced or seen it so often before.

Oleaginous: exaggeratedly and distastefully complimentary, Obsequious

Obscene: offensive or disgusting by accepted standards of morality and decency.

Repulsive: arousing intense distaste or disgust

Fulsome: complimentary or flattering to an excessive degree.

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

China's economic growth has slumped to its lowest level in nearly three decades, but the trade war with the United States isn't solely to blame. 

Gross domestic product growth dropped to 6.2% in the second quarter, the weakest since the government started publishing quarterly figures in 1992, the national statistics authority said this week.

Soon after the figures were published, President Donald Trump tweeted this:

"The United States Tariffs are having a major effect on companies wanting to leave China for non-tariffed countries. Thousands of companies are leaving. This is why China wants to make a deal with the U.S. and wishes it had not broken the original deal in the first place."

Despite a truce agreed between Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping last month, US tariffs on $250 billion worth of Chinese goods remain in place and have already hit China's manufacturing and agricultural sectors. Some American companies are also switching to suppliers in other Asian countries like Vietnam, Taiwan, South Korea, and Bangladesh.

But analysts argue that the yearlong trade war is not the biggest drag on the world's second-largest economy. The slowdown has as much to do with a debt mountain and cautious consumers.

China has been struggling for years to rein in high levels of debt, arising from a massive stimulus package launched during the 2008 financial crisis.

While the stimulus boosted economic growth, it resulted in a $40 trillion mountain of government, corporate and household debt worth more than 300% of China's GDP as of March 2019, according to a report from the Washington-based Institute of International Finance this week.

China's overall debt now accounts for about 15% of the global total, the IIF added.

The Chinese government has reacted by tightening regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending, and clamping down on unregulated lending, also known as shadow banking.

But these efforts to reduce China's reliance on debt-fueled growth have also made it more difficult for companies to obtain financing, especially private sector firms that usually find it harder to raise funds from banks than larger but less efficient state-run firms.

Question 132

What did Donald Trump refer to as the main reason behind the slump in China's economy?

  1. AOption (a)

    The United States tarfifs are having a huge impact on China's economy

  2. BOption (b)

    The Chinese export-import business has faced a lot of losses recently

  3. COption (c)

    The Chinese government's penetration into the Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) market turned out to be a problem

  4. DOption (d)

    The Chinese government has faced losses due to its army

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The United States tarfifs are having a huge impact on China's economy

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 1.

The reason is given in the passage: "The United States Tariffs are having a major effect on companies wanting to leave China for non-tariffed countries. Thousands of companies are leaving. This is why China wants to make a deal with the U.S., and wishes it had not broken the original deal in the first place."

Question 133

What have analysts argued as the main reason behind the slump in China's economy?

  1. AOption (a)

    China's economy cannot sustain foreign made products

  2. BOption (b)

    There is a debt mountain and a lot of cautious consumers

  3. COption (c)

    China is looking forward to wage a war against America

  4. DOption (d)

    China is looking to promote indigenous products

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

There is a debt mountain and a lot of cautious consumers

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 2

The reason is given in the passage: "But analysts argue that the yearlong trade war is not the biggest drag on the world's second-largest economy. The slowdown has as much to do with a debt mountain and cautious consumers."

Question 134

How has the Chinese government tackled this issue?

  1. AOption (a)

    It has threatened to go offensive with China banning most American products

  2. BOption (b)

    It will try to cut down on its costs by regulating import-export

  3. COption (c)

    It will tighten regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending and stopping unregulated lending

  4. DOption (d)

    It will clamp down on shadow banking

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It will tighten regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending and stopping unregulated lending

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 4.

The reason behind this is given in the passage: "The Chinese government has reacted by tightening regulations in the financial system, scaling back bank lending, and clamping down on unregulated lending, also known as shadow banking."

Question 135

Give the synonym of the word 'stimulus'

  1. AOption (a)

    Repugnant

  2. BOption (b)

    Obsolete

  3. COption (c)

    Fillip

  4. DOption (d)

    Ransack

  5. EOption (e)

    Troublesome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fillip

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 3.

Stimulus means a thing or event that evokes a specific functional reaction in an organ or tissue.

The correct synonym is "fillip" since it means something which acts as a stimulus or boost to an activity.

Meaning of the other words are:

Repugnant: extremely distasteful; unacceptable.

Obsolete: no longer produced or used; out of date.

Ransack: go through (a place) stealing things and causing damage.

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

As a forum, the G-20 is often watched more closely for the meetings the event affords on its sidelines than for substantive outcomes. The countries that make up the G-20 (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the world’s nominal GDP, and each has pressing issues it wishes to discuss with other members on bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral levels. Prime Minister Narendra Modi used the occasion of the G-20 summit at Osaka for as many as 20 such meetings, including nine bilaterals, eight pull-aside engagements, and of the Russia-India-China, Japan-U.S.-India and Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa groupings. The most anticipated were President Donald Trump’s meetings with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions. Both ended on a cordial note, but with no breakthrough or “big deals”. 

 

The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will sit down again, as they have on at least three occasions in the past year, to try to resolve the impasse over trade issues, and the U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues. Both come as a relief to India, given the impact of those tensions on the national and global economies. Mr. Modi raised several Indian concerns at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding. This found its way into the final declaration. India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines. The U.S. wrote in a counter to the paragraph praising the Paris accord, while trade protectionism was not mentioned in the document. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts to fight corruption, the G-20 found consensus more easily.

 

With Saudi Arabia hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, all eyes will soon turn to the agenda India plans to highlight when it holds the G-20 summit in 2022. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks being introduced, as well as technology-driven terrorism, will become even more critical for the grouping, and the government must articulate its line. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some of the inequities in its system.

Question 136

Which of the following is a synonym of “Impasse”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plebiscite

  2. BOption (b)

    Stand-off

  3. COption (c)

    Probate

  4. DOption (d)

    Protraction

  5. EOption (e)

    Cessation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stand-off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stand-off.

Key Points

Impasse means “a situation in which no progress is possible, especially because of disagreement; a deadlock.” The word that is a synonym of this is “Stand-off: a deadlock between two equally matched opponents in a dispute or conflict.”

Additional Information

The meanings of the rest of the words are:

Plebiscite: the direct vote of all the members of an electorate on an important public question such as a change in the constitution.

Probate: the official proving of a will.

Protraction: the action of prolonging something or the state of being prolonged.

Cessation: the fact or process of ending or being brought to an end.

Question 137

Which of the following is true according to the above passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    This 2019 G-20 summit is the first to be hosted by Japan.

  2. BOption (b)

    Climate change funding was a concern raised by the Indian prime minister at the G-20 meetings.

  3. COption (c)

    The 2019 G20 Summit discussed eight themes to Ensure Global Sustainable Development.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Chinese government wanted to de-list the Hong Kong protests issue from the summit’s agenda for the year.

  5. EOption (e)

    The 2018 G20 Buenos Aires summit was the thirteenth meeting of Group of Twenty (G20).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Climate change funding was a concern raised by the Indian prime minister at the G-20 meetings.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2. 

In the 2nd paragraph of the passage, it is stated that Narendra Modi raised several concerns at the G-20 meeting which included the need for cooperation in dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives, as well as climate change funding.

The rest of the statements cannot be inferred from the passage as we don’t have enough information.

Question 138

Which of the following can be validated from the 3rd paragraph?

  1. AOption (a)

    In the 2020 G-20, Saudi will address the subject of technology-driven terrorism.

  2. BOption (b)

    The G-20 is an important platform to discuss pressing issues.

  3. COption (c)

    The G-20 must not be detracted from its original purpose of promoting sustainable growth and financial stability by grandstanding by one or two members.

  4. DOption (d)

    The 2021 G-20 will not be hosted by India

  5. EOption (e)

    A number of attending countries have said that they focused on the regulation of crypto-currencies at this meeting.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The 2021 G-20 will not be hosted by India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

In the 3rd paragraph, it is mentioned that Italy will be hosting the G-20 in 2021. The 2022 G-20 will not be hosted by India. 

Options 1 and 2 are invalid as there is not enough information to deduce them from. Options 3 and 5 are invalid as they are not addressed in this passage.

Question 139

According to the above passage, why did India not attend the digital economy summit pushed Shinzo Abe?

  1. AOption (a)

    Japan refused to help finance many infrastructure projects in India, most notably the Delhi Metro system.

  2. BOption (b)

    In 2007, the Japanese Self-Defence Forces and the Indian Navy locked horns in a joint naval exercise Malabar 2007 in the Indian Ocean.

  3. COption (c)

    The Japanese Prime Minister’s plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, opposes the proposed data localization guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India.

  4. DOption (d)

    Japan's emergence as a power in the early 20th century was negatively viewed in India.

  5. EOption (e)

    Many Indian independence movement activists had escaped from British rule to Japan but they were captured and put in jail.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Japanese Prime Minister’s plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, opposes the proposed data localization guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

The above passage is about the G-20 2019 summit hosted in Osaka, Japan and all the issues that were addressed, important meetings and decisions that were taken.

In the 2nd paragraph of the passage, it is stated that “India sent a tough message by refusing to attend the digital economy summit pushed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, as his plan for “data free flow with trust”, included in the G-20 declaration, runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s proposed data localization guidelines.”

The rest of the options are canceled as they are not addressed in the passage and are incorrect.

Question 140

According to the above passage, what was the most awaited event at the 2019 G-20?

  1. AOption (a)

    The discussions between U.S. and Paris regarding issues such as ocean pollution management and gender equality.

  2. BOption (b)

    The issuing of a statement considering the Hong Kong Protests as China’s internal affairs by the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the People's Republic of China.

  3. COption (c)

    President Mauricio Macri of Argentina accepting the one-year G20 presidency during an official ceremony at the Kirchner Cultural Centre in Buenos Aires.

  4. DOption (d)

    Argentina put forth three agenda priorities for the G20 dialogue: the future of work, infrastructure for development and a sustainable food future.

  5. EOption (e)

    The meetings between Donald Trump, Xi Jinping and Narendra Modi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

The meetings between Donald Trump, Xi Jinping and Narendra Modi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

The above passage is about the G-20 2019 summit hosted in Osaka, Japan and all the issues that were addressed, important meetings and decisions that were taken.

In the 1st paragraph of the passage, it is stated that the most anticipated meetings were the ones President Donald Trump had with his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping and Mr. Modi, given the escalation in trade tensions.

Options 1 and 2 are cancelled as they are incorrect. Options 3 and 4 are not addressed in the above passage.

Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

Comparing data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern stereo satellites, scientists have shown that Himalayan glaciers have lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975, with melting occurring twice as fast after the turn of the century as average temperatures rose.

In the 1970s, at the height of the Cold War, the U.S. had deployed spy satellites that orbited the globe and took thousands of photographs, using a telescopic camera system, for reconnaissance purposes. Film recovery capsules would be ejected from the KH-9 Hexagon military satellites and parachuted back to Earth over the Pacific Ocean.

More than four decades later, scientists are using those same images to show the devastating impact of a warming earth on the Himalayan glaciers. The overlapping images, each covering 30,000 square kilometres with a ground resolution of six to nine metres, have been pieced together to form digital elevation models of the Himalayas of that era.

In an article published in the Science Advances journal on Wednesday, J.M. Maurer and co-authors analysed four decades of ice loss for 650 of the largest glaciers across a 2,000 km transect across the Himalayas.

“Our observed annual mass losses suggest that of the total ice mass present in 1975, about 87% remained in 2000 and 72% remained in 2016,” the study’s authors wrote. “We find similar mass loss rates across subregions and a doubling of the average rate of loss during 2000–2016 relative to the 1975–2000 interval,” they added.

The study goes on to assert that rising temperatures are responsible for the accelerating loss.

Question 141

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    High Mountain Asia includes all mountain ranges surrounding the Tibetan Plateau.

  2. BOption (b)

    Film recovery capsules would be ejected from the KH-9 Hexagon military satellites during the 1970s.

  3. COption (c)

    Scientists compared data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern stereo satellites to show results of

    global warming.

  4. DOption (d)

    Himalayan glaciers have lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975.

  5. EOption (e)

    J.M. Maurer and his co-authors analysed four decades of ice loss for 650 of the largest glaciers across a 2,000 km transect

    across the Himalayas.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

High Mountain Asia includes all mountain ranges surrounding the Tibetan Plateau.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Options 2, 3, 4 and 5 can be easily inferred from the above passage.

There is not enough information given in the above passage for us to infer that all mountain ranges surrounding the Tibetan

Plateau is included in the High Mountain Asia. Hence only option 1 cannot be inferred from the above passage.

Question 142

Which of the following words is the most similar in meaning to the word "reconnaissance" as given in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Investigation

  2. BOption (b)

    Etiquette

  3. COption (c)

    Propriety

  4. DOption (d)

    Consultation

  5. EOption (e)

    Armistice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Investigation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Reconnaissance means "military observation of a region to locate an enemy or ascertain strategic features." The word that is

most similar to this is "Investigation: the action of investigating something or someone; formal or systematic

examination or research."

In the above passage, it is said that in the 1970s, at the height of the Cold War, the U.S. had deployed spy satellites that orbited

the globe and took thousands of photographs of the Himalayan glaciers, for reconnaissance purposes.

The meanings of the rest of the words are:

Etiquette=> the customary code of polite behaviour in society or among members of a particular profession or group

Propriety=> conformity to conventionally accepted standards of behaviour or morals

Consultation=> the action or process of formally consulting or discussing

Armistice=> an agreement made by opposing sides in a war to stop fighting for a certain time; a truce​

Question 143

Which of the sentences below summarizes the theme of the passage?,

  1. AOption (a)

    J.M. Maurer and co-authors publish an article in the Science Advances journal.

  2. BOption (b)

    Of the total ice mass present in 1975, only about 87% remained in 2000.

  3. COption (c)

    A study shows that the Himalayan glaciers are melting twice as fast since 2000.

  4. DOption (d)

    Of the total ice mass present in 1975, 72% remained in 2016.

  5. EOption (e)

    U.S. deployed spy satellites at the height of the Cold War.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A study shows that the Himalayan glaciers are melting twice as fast since 2000.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

The above passage is about the melting of the Himalayan glaciers which is occurring twice as fast after the turn of the century

because of the rise in temperatures. Scientists compared data obtained by Cold War-era spy satellites with images from modern

stereo satellites to show that the glaciers lost more than a quarter of their ice mass since 1975.

Although the other options are correct, they are only mentioned briefly in the passage.

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions that follow.

Whirlpool has admitted that there could be up to 800,000 faulty tumble dryers in UK homes that have an increased fire risk, higher than previously thought.

Last month the government ordered a recall of 500,000 tumble dryers, four years after fire safety concerns were first raised by the US home appliance maker. The affected brands are Hotpoint, Indesit, Creda, Swan and Proline.

However, company executives appearing before MPs on the business, energy and industrial strategy (BEIS) committee on Tuesday admitted the number could be higher.

Jeff Noel, corporate vice-president of communications and public affairs at Whirlpool, said estimates of faulty dryers in UK homes ranged from 250,000 to 800,000.

He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff. The company logged 54 fires related to this issue in recent years, including three in machines that had been modified, according to Michael Farrington, another executive.

Noel said Whirlpool wanted to expand the recall campaign so that consumers have the option of a free-of-charge modification, a free replacement, or a discounted upgrade. This still has to be approved by the regulator.

MPs also heard from a customer, Jemma Spurr, whose modified Hotpoint dryer caught fire last September while she was at home with her young children, causing significant damage to her house. She told MPs that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers.

She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation.

Noel apologized to her during the hearing. He said confidentiality agreements were required by insurers during settlements but, when pressed by Rachel Reeves, chair of the BEIS committee, pledged to raise the issue with them.

Question 144

How has Jeff Noel suggested Whirlpool is going to tackle the faulty dryers?

  1. AOption (a)

    He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff.

  2. BOption (b)

    He said Whirlpool will launch a new technology which will use ultraviolet radiation to block the fire

  3. COption (c)

    He said that such incidents are commonplace accidents

  4. DOption (d)

    He said that three machines have already been modified to control fires.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff.

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 1.

The answer can be found in this line: He said Whirlpool had already modified 1.7m dryers to fix a fault that could cause fire through the buildup of fluff.

Question 145

What does Jemma Spurr have to say about this issue?

  1. AOption (a)

    She said she had received an apology from Whirlpool and a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and signed a non-disclosure agreement after receiving any compensation.

  2. BOption (b)

    She told the Prime Minister's cabinet that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers.

  3. COption (c)

    She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation.

  4. DOption (d)

    She said that the dryers were not approved by the regulator

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation.

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 3.

The answer to this question can be found in her passage: 

MPs also heard from a customer, Jemma Spurr, whose modified Hotpoint dryer caught fire last September while she was at home with her young children, causing significant damage to her house. She told MPs that the company was unresponsive when she tried to report the fire, and only managed to do so when she visited a Currys store, which sells the dryers.

She said she had neither received an apology from Whirlpool nor a forensic report on the cause of the fire, and was forced to sign a non-disclosure agreement before receiving any compensation.

Question 146

Give the meaning of the word 'fluff'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Fuzz

  2. BOption (b)

    Snooze

  3. COption (c)

    Snuff

  4. DOption (d)

    Char

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fuzz

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 1.

The meaning of the given words are:

  1. Snooze: a short, light sleep, especially during the day.
  2. Snuff: extinguish (a candle or flame). 3. Char: partially burn so as to blacken the surface.

Read the comprehension given below and answer the questions given below

Patrol Cpl. John Pritchard always knew he’d one day get involved with law enforcement. That was after he got over his initial stint of wanting to be a bus driver. After that desire faded, at the age of 5, he settled on joining the police force.

He stayed committed to those young dreams, having spent his whole life in some kind of law enforcement role — the longest being 35 years of service at the Mercer Island Police Department.

He began in 1984, at age 31. Last month, Pritchard retired at the age of 66 and the city said goodbye to one of its longest-serving employees. The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

“I really appreciated John’s approach to law enforcement,” said police Chief Ed Holmes. “Not only did he have institutional knowledge … but he had direct positive connections with citizens and business owners, many of whom reached out to attend his retirement party.”

Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens. He would speak of how things used to be. Fellow officers even called him “Pappy.”

Others at the police department agreed.

“When I first started my career at MIPD, John was always eager to teach me new things and had a unique approach to police work,” corporal Todd Roggenkamp said. “His positive attitude and good work ethic were very appreciated. I will miss how he called everybody ‘Kid’ even if they were over 50.”

During Pritchard’s career, he spent time in the military police and as a campus cop at the University of Washington. He began working narcotics at UW, but it wasn’t long before he moved on to a position at Mercer Island PD.

At the department is where he got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations.

Pritchard worked with the Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies including U.S. Customs, DEA, IRS, FBI, Secret Service and NW High-Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA).

He worked on local, regional and international investigations and received numerous awards as a result. One of Pritchard’s final cases resulted in more than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds being distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department.

Of all the investigative work, Pritchard found the most amusement from the “financial stuff,” he said. He worked to track dirty money (cash obtained unlawfully) that was hidden in insurance policies, cars, bank accounts, and investments. Sometimes organizations would ship money out of the country. After he found the money, he would take it away.

“The mental challenge was the fun part,” Pritchard said. “There’s nothing better than to find some guy selling a lot of cocaine, find his money and take it away. He can sit there and play the bigshot until we come and take all the toys he bought with that drug money — houses, cars, boats, you name it.”

Question 147

Give the synonym of 'stint'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stretch

  2. BOption (b)

    Rule

  3. COption (c)

    Caustic

  4. DOption (d)

    Fiefdom

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Stretch

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 1.

'Stint' means a person's fixed or allotted period of work.

The meaning of the other words are:

Caustic: able to burn or corrode organic tissue by chemical action.

Fiefdom: a territory or sphere of operation controlled by a particular person or group.

Hence, the correct answer is 'stretch'.

Question 148

Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    He got his start in investigative work — delving into narcotics, criminal and finance investigations.

  2. BOption (b)

    Commander Jeff Magnan said Pritchard went out of his way to mentor new officers, who he affectionately referred to as “kids,” in the ways of law enforcement and interacting with citizens.

  3. COption (c)

    Other officers called him 'Pappy'.

  4. DOption (d)

    At the age of 6 he decided to join the police force

  5. EOption (e)

    All are mentioned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

At the age of 6 he decided to join the police force

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 4.

The other options find a mention in the passage.

Question 149

What did one of his final cases result in?

  1. AOption (a)

    More than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase guns for the department.

  2. BOption (b)

    More than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department.

  3. COption (c)

    More than $500,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department.

  4. DOption (d)

    He traced it back to a gun store theft in Olympia where about 187 guns were stolen.

  5. EOption (e)

    Not mentioned in the passage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

More than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds were distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department.

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: 2.

The answer can be found in the passage: One of Pritchard’s final cases resulted in more than $400,000 in asset forfeiture funds being distributed to the MIPD. They were used to purchase tools and equipment for the department.

Question 150

What did the city do to commemorate the officer's send'off?

  1. AOption (a)

    The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

  2. BOption (b)

    The city threw him a dinner cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

  3. COption (c)

    The city threw him a lunch cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Eastside Narcotics Task Force, and local, state and federal law enforcement agencies came together to give him a medal of honor

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: Option 1.

The answer can be found in the passage: The city threw him a barbeque cookout send-off in honor of his time at Mercer.

Question 151

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

  1. The got in had occurred just before midnight.
  2. The two robbers had an alibi for the time period of the run up
  3. The would-be thieves had smashed the door lock in an attempt to turn in.
  1. AOption (a)

    Break in

  2. BOption (b)

    Broke in

  3. COption (c)

    Got in

  4. DOption (d)

    Phase through

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Break in

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Break in.

Key Points

'Break in' means forced entry into a place

Example: Someone had broken in through the bedroom window. This sentence uses the past participle form of 'break'.

Other examples:

Got in: They must have got in through the bathroom window.

Question 152

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. The top and bottom come up if you pull hard enough. 2. My whole life had get apart at the seams. 3. After the first act, the play begins to get upon at the seams

  1. AOption (a)

    Come in

  2. BOption (b)

    Come upon

  3. COption (c)

    Come apart

  4. DOption (d)

    Come down

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Come apart

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: Option 3.

Come apart means  become separated into pieces or fragments.

Example: I picked up the book and it just came apart in my hands.

Other examples:

  1. Amid all the dust and the commerce, we came upon a guy stationed at a cardboard carton desk.
  2. I came down with fever last night.
  3. Why don't you let me come in?

Question 153

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. I need to figure out how to fit the piano and the bookshelf in this room. 2. Please fill in the form with your name, address, and phone number. 3. The form must be filled out in capital letters.

  1. AOption (a)

    Fill upon

  2. BOption (b)

    Filled in

  3. COption (c)

    Figure down

  4. DOption (d)

    Figure into

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No improvement required

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: No improvement required.

The sentences are correct and do not need any improvement.

Examples:

1. Filled in is wrong.

Filled with is correct: Her eyes were filled with tears and her face felt flushed.

Question 154

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

1. I finally got back into my novel and finished it. 2. We're going to freeze out here if you don't let us get on the bus. 3. I don't know when I am going to get round to writing the thank you cards.

  1. AOption (a)

    Get around to

  2. BOption (b)

    Got around to

  3. COption (c)

    Get upon

  4. DOption (d)

    Got back onto

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No improvement required

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: Option 5.

The sentences are correct and do not need any improvement.

Examples:

1. Get around to/got around to: I got around to doing this task once I finished every other one.

Question 155

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases. If there is no improvement needed, please click on "No improvement required".

  1. The story does, however, abound upon felicities; the physical descriptions of the planet, for example, are superb. 2. While other ions abound upon cytoplasm in their millimoles, liberal estimates of free Ca concentrations run around 0.1 micromolar, maximum. 3. Examples flutter up the professions, for example, the question of auditors and joint-stock companies, or solicitors and conveyancing.
  1. AOption (a)

    Abound in

  2. BOption (b)

    Abound on

  3. COption (c)

    Abound

  4. DOption (d)

    Above all

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Abound in

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: Option 1.

The correct answer is abound in.

It means : to be filled with (something) : contain a very large amount of (something)

Examples: 

1. They live in a region that abounds in/with oil. 2. Salt springs exist in the neighbourhood, and to the south there are two small lakes, Zonar and Rincon, which abound in fish.

155 questions in the full paper