SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 12 April 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Japan.

In News

• Indian Navy’s guided missile destroyer INS Mumbai participated in the 5th edition of the multinational naval exercise LA PEROUSE hosted by France in January 2025.

Key Points

• The exercise was conducted from January 16 to 24, 2025, in the strategic maritime straits of Malacca, Sunda, and Lombok linking the Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean.
• It was led by the French Carrier Strike Group, centered around the aircraft carrier Charles De Gaulle.
• Navy forces from nine Indo-Pacific nations participated: India, Australia, Canada, USA, France, Indonesia, Malaysia, United Kingdom, and Singapore.
• Japan was not among the participating countries of the La Perouse 25 exercise in 2025.
• The exercise emphasized maritime cooperation, interoperability, anti-illicit activities operations, and protection of key trade routes.
• The IORIS (Indian Ocean Regional Information Sharing) system was used for coordination and communication among participating navies.
• INS Mumbai's participation highlights India's commitment to regional maritime security and collaboration under its SAGAR vision.

Additional Information

• La Perouse exercises are biennial multinational naval drills organized by France focusing on Indo-Pacific maritime security.
• The exercise area includes key maritime chokepoints vital to global shipping and regional stability.
• Participants train in multidomain warfare tactics, maritime interdiction, and search and rescue operations.
• India's SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) initiative promotes cooperative maritime security in the Indo-Pacific.
• The first La Perouse exercise was held in 2019, with subsequent editions biannually to enhance naval interoperability.

The correct answer is 7.93%.

In News

• India submitted its 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) to the UNFCCC on December 30, 2024, with the GHG inventory for the year 2020.

Key Points

• India’s total GHG emissions, excluding Land Use, Land-Use Change, and Forestry (LULUCF), were 2,959 million tonnes of CO2 equivalent (CO2e) in 2020.
• Including LULUCF, India’s net emissions were 2,437 million tonnes of CO2e, showing the significant carbon sink effect of forests and land.
• The report states a 7.93% reduction in total GHG emissions in 2020 compared to 2019.
• The energy sector contributed the most to emissions at 75.66%, followed by agriculture (13.72%), industrial processes product use (8.06%), and waste (2.56%).
• India’s forest and tree cover sequestered approximately 522 million tonnes of CO2 in 2020, equivalent to reducing 22% of total emissions.
• Between 2005 and 2020, India reduced its emission intensity of GDP by 36%.
• Installed capacity of renewable power increased significantly to 203.22 GW by October 2024, supporting India’s sustainable energy transition.

Additional Information

• The BUR-4 report updates the Third National Communication and is part of India’s ongoing reporting to the UNFCCC under its climate commitments.
• India emphasizes equity and common but differentiated responsibilities in global climate action frameworks.
• India’s climate strategy balances economic growth with sustainability through national policies and international cooperation.
• The forestry sector acts as a net carbon sink, helping offset GHG emissions from other sectors.
• India’s renewable energy expansion includes solar, wind, and large hydropower projects aiming for net-zero emissions by 2070.

The correct answer is Diaspora’s Contribution to a Viksit Bharat.

In News

• PM Narendra Modi inaugurated the 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, on January 9, 2025.

Key Points

• The 18th PBD Convention was held in collaboration with the Government of Odisha from January 8 to 10, 2025.
• The theme of the event was “Diaspora’s Contribution to a Viksit Bharat,” emphasizing the Indian diaspora's role in national progress.
• The event featured participation from delegates across over 75 countries, highlighting India's wide diaspora network.
• PM Modi flagged off the Pravasi Bharatiya Express, a special tourist train organised for Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) under the Pravasi Teerth Darshan Yojana.
• The Convention included exhibitions on diaspora contributions to technology, culture, and Odisha’s economic growth.
• The President of Trinidad and Tobago virtually addressed the convention underlining the importance of diaspora ties.
• Youth-focused sessions and business forums were also part of the event to foster engagement and opportunities.

Additional Information

• Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated biennially to connect the Indian diaspora with their cultural roots and homeland.
• The convention was first instituted in 2003 to recognize and strengthen the engagement of overseas Indians.
• The Pravasi Bharatiya Express provides curated tourism experiences to PIOs across prominent religious and cultural sites in India.
• Odisha, as the host, showcased its cultural heritage and economic progress during the convention.
• The event aligns with India’s broader ‘Purvodaya’ and ‘Act East’ policy initiatives to foster regional economic integration.

The correct answer is India.

In News

• The Indian women’s team won the final of the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup 2025, defeating Nepal at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Indian women’s Kho Kho team beat Nepal 78-40 to clinch the championship title in the inaugural World Cup.
• The team, captained by Priyanka Ingle, remained undefeated throughout the tournament, winning all group and knockout matches.
• The finals featured both Indian men’s and women’s teams facing counterparts from Nepal, securing victories in both divisions and a clean sweep for India.
• Organised by the Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI) and International Kho Kho Federation (IKKF), the event was supported by the Indian Olympic Association.
• The tournament featured 19 women’s teams competing in group and knockout stages, reflecting Kho Kho’s growing international reach.
• The second edition of the World Cup is scheduled to be held in Birmingham, England, in 2026-27.
• India’s men’s team also remained unbeaten and won the World Cup title.

Additional Information

• Kho Kho is a traditional Indian tag game with deep roots, originally believed to be played on chariots in Maharashtra.
• The modern version with formalized rules emerged in 1914 in Pune’s Deccan Gymkhana Club.
• Kho Kho’s global popularity expanded from 6 countries in 2020 to 55 countries in 2025, with IKKF aiming for Olympic inclusion by 2036.
• A Kho Kho team consists of 9 active players and 3 substitutes, alternating between chasing, defending, and tagging opponents.
• The Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI) was established in 1955 and is headquartered in New Delhi. Sudhansu Mittal serves as the current president.

The correct answer is Shot Put.

In News

• Former Indian athlete and Asian Games gold medalist Bahadur Singh Sagoo was appointed as the President of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) in January 2025.

Key Points

• The appointment was made during the Annual General Assembly Meeting of the AFI held in Chandigarh, Punjab.
• Bahadur Singh Sagoo succeeds Adille Sumariwalla, who served as AFI President for three consecutive terms from 2012 to 2024.
• Stanely Jones from Telangana was appointed as the new Treasurer, while former middle-distance runner Jyotirmoyee Sikdar became the Joint Secretary.
• Bahadur Singh is a one-time Asian Games gold medalist and a two-time national champion in the shot put event.
• He won the gold medal at the 2002 Busan Asian Games with a throw of 19.03 meters.
• He represented India at the 2000 and 2004 Olympic Games and recorded his career-best throw of 20.40 meters in Kyiv, Ukraine in 2004.
• He was honored with the Padma Shri in 2006 for his contributions to Indian athletics.

Additional Information

• The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) was established in 1946 and is headquartered in New Delhi.
• AFI is the governing body for athletics in India, responsible for organizing track and field competitions nationwide.
• It is affiliated with World Athletics and the Asian Athletics Association.
• The primary responsibilities of AFI include athlete training, selection for international events, and conducting national championships.
• Adille Sumariwalla served as President of AFI before Bahadur Singh Sagoo and is also a member of the World Athletics Council.

The correct answer is Old & Used Vehicles

In News

• The 55th GST Council meeting, chaired by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, was held on December 21, 2024, at Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The GST Council decided to increase the GST rate from 12% to 18% on the sale of all old and used vehicles, including Electric Vehicles (EVs), except for specified large-engine vehicles already attracting 18% GST.
• This applies to old petrol vehicles with engine capacities of 1200 cc or more and lengths exceeding 4000 mm, and diesel vehicles with 1500 cc or higher capacity and lengths over 4000 mm, including SUVs.
• The new rate applies only to registered persons dealing in such vehicles.
• GST will be levied only on the margin value, i.e., the difference between the purchase price and selling price, not on the total transaction value.
• The exemption continues for unregistered individual sellers of used vehicles.
• The Council’s clarification aims to standardise taxation and resolve disputes in used vehicle sales, enhancing compliance and fairness.
• The meeting also made changes in GST rates for several goods such as fortified rice kernel (reduced to 5%) and exempted gene therapy from GST entirely.

Additional Information

• The GST Council is a constitutional body chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes State Finance Ministers.
• The Council’s primary function is to make key recommendations on GST laws, tax rates, and administration.
• The 55th Council meeting also reduced GST on Fortified Rice Kernel to 5% and exempted gene therapy from GST.
• It clarified that no GST is payable on penal charges imposed by banks or NBFCs for loan defaults.
• The Council meets periodically to review fiscal trends and ensure consistent tax governance across India.

The correct answer is 14 digits.

In News

• The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission completed three years of implementation on September 27, 2024.

Key Points

• ABDM was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on September 27, 2021.
• It aims to revolutionize India’s digital health ecosystem by improving healthcare accessibility, efficiency, and transparency.
• Each individual is assigned a unique Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Account Identifier (ABHA ID) under ABDM.
• The ABHA number is a 14-digit unique identifier that securely identifies people in the digital healthcare ecosystem.
• ABDM also features a comprehensive Health Professionals Registry and Health Facility Registries to connect stakeholders digitally.
• It ensures data privacy and security adhering to the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
• Key components include Health Information Exchange & Consent Manager, Unified Health Interface, and National Health Claim Exchange to enable seamless healthcare delivery and insurance claim processing.

Additional Information

• The National Health Authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the implementing agency of ABDM.
• The ABHA ID helps citizens securely access and manage their health records electronically.
• The Unified Health Interface facilitates discovery and delivery of health services digitally across India.
• ABDM supports interoperability across modern and traditional medicine systems.
• The scheme aims to promote transparency in healthcare pricing and accountability for service delivery.

The correct answer is Kanniyakumari, Tamil Nadu.

In News

• On December 30, 2024, Tamil Nadu Chief Minister Muthuvel Karunanidhi Stalin inaugurated India’s first bowstring arch glass bridge at Kanniyakumari, connecting the Thiruvalluvar Statue and Vivekananda Rock Memorial.

Key Points

• The bridge was inaugurated as part of the Silver Jubilee (25th year) celebration of the installation of the Thiruvalluvar Statue.
• Chief Minister M.K. Stalin officially declared that the Thiruvalluvar Statue will henceforth be known as the “Statue of Wisdom.”
• The glass bridge measures 77 meters in length and 10 meters in width, employing advanced corrosion-resistant technology to withstand intense sea winds.
• Constructed at a cost of Rs. 37 crore, the bridge eliminates the need for ferry rides currently operated by Poompuhar Shipping Corporation between the two landmarks.
• The project aims to boost tourism in Kanniyakumari, one of India’s most visited coastal destinations for its sunrise and sunset views.
• It is expected to become a landmark attraction, enhancing accessibility and safety for tourists.

Additional Information

• The Thiruvalluvar Statue stands 133 feet tall, representing the 133 chapters of the ancient Tamil text Thirukkural.
• The statue was unveiled on January 1, 2000, by former Chief Minister M. Karunanidhi.
• It was designed by architect and sculptor V. Ganapati Sthapati and weighs around 7,000 tonnes.
• Saint-poet Thiruvalluvar authored 1,330 couplets known as Thirukkural about 2,000 years ago.
• The Vivekananda Rock Memorial, adjacent to the bridge, commemorates Swami Vivekananda’s meditation and enlightenment at Kanniyakumari.

The correct answer is Soreng.

In News

• Union Minister Rajiv Ranjan Singh launched India’s first organic fisheries cluster in Soreng district of Sikkim during the Northeast Region States Meet 2025 held on January 6, 2025, in Guwahati, Assam.

Key Points

• The organic fisheries cluster promotes ecological fish farming, avoiding antibiotics, chemicals, and pesticides to produce organic fish.
• It aims to supply organic fish to eco-conscious markets globally, supporting sustainable aquaculture practices.
• The initiative is part of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), focusing on boosting incomes of fish farmers and enhancing fish production.
• The Department of Fisheries under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying organized the Northeast Region States Meet 2025 in Guwahati.
• The event also included certificate distribution to beneficiaries and launching of key projects worth Rs. 50 crore in the Northeast region under PMMSY.
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) plays a key role by providing financial and technical support to the organic cluster development.
• The project emphasizes low environmental pollution approaches to aquaculture for long-term sustainability.

Additional Information

• About Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
• It was launched in September 2020 to double the income of fish farmers and promote sustainable fisheries and aquaculture development.
• The scheme runs from 2020-21 to 2024-25 with an investment of Rs 20,050 crore under Central Sector (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) components.
• PMMSY targets increased fisheries production, infrastructure enhancement, and market development across India.
• The scheme plays a crucial role in ensuring food security and jobs in fisheries and allied sectors.

The correct answer is Five.

In News

• KredX, India’s largest supply chain finance platform, received RBI approval to operate as a TReDS platform under the brand name DTX in January 2025.

Key Points

• KredX became the fifth RBI-licensed TReDS platform, joining Receivables Exchange of India (RXIL), M1 Exchange, Invoice Mart, and C2FO Factoring Solutions.
• TReDS platforms help MSMEs access credit by discounting receivables, improving liquidity and timely payments.
• To set up a TReDS platform, a company must have a minimum paid-up equity capital of Rs 25 crore.
• Businesses with a turnover of Rs 250 crore or more must register on these platforms to sell their invoices and get early payments.
• The TReDS system enables invoice uploading, buyer approval, competitive bidding by financiers, and advance payments to sellers.
• TReDS transaction volumes are expected to rise from USD 30 billion in early 2025 to USD 50 billion by 2026.

Additional Information

• The Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) operates under RBI regulation and governed by the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• Launched in 2018, TReDS addresses payment delays by corporates and government entities to MSMEs.
• The process involves MSMEs uploading invoices, which buyers approve before financiers bid to provide discounted payments.
• RBI’s regulation of TReDS ensures transparency, security, and efficiency in invoice financing.
• KredX’s DTX platform is the latest addition, enhancing MSME credit access and supply chain finance in India.

The correct answer is Four years.

In News

• Non-official directors on the RBI’s central board, including the 10 government-nominated directors and 4 directors representing four local boards, have a tenure of four years.

Key Points

• The RBI central board is constituted as per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and nominated directors serve four-year terms.
• The Governor and Deputy Governors hold office for terms fixed by the Central Government, typically up to five years.
• Two government officials are also members of the board during the pleasure of the government.
• The four local boards represent Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi, each with directors appointed for a four-year term.
• The term provides continuity in policy-making, enabling stable governance and oversight in RBI operations.
• Board members include experts from diverse fields, enhancing RBI’s functioning and decision-making with broad perspectives.
• The four-year tenure aligns with the Government’s mechanism for appointments, maintaining governance continuity.

Additional Information

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), established on April 1, 1935, operates under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• HQ - Mumbai
• Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
• The Central Board of Directors is the highest decision-making body within the RBI.
• The board consists of the Governor, up to four Deputy Governors, 10 government-nominated non-official directors, two government officials, and four local board directors.
• The RBI’s governance structure balances political oversight with expertise from various economic, financial, and banking sectors.
• The Governor of RBI currently serves up to a five-year term, subject to government appointment.

The correct answer is Navi Mumbai, Indore, Surat.

In News

• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched the 9th edition of Swachh Survekshan in January 2025, introducing a Million Plus Cities category with Navi Mumbai, Indore, and Surat as the top cities.

Key Points

• The 9th edition of Swachh Survekshan introduced city classification based on population into 5 categories: Very Small, Small, Medium, Big, and Million Plus cities.
• The Million Plus Cities category comprises urban local bodies with populations exceeding 10 lakhs.
• Navi Mumbai, Indore, and Surat were recognized as top performers in the Million Plus Cities segment under the new Super Swachh League.
• The assessment includes parameters such as visible cleanliness, waste segregation, solid waste management, access to sanitation, and citizen feedback.
• The new toolkit has 10 indicator buckets to simplify understanding and implementation for urban local bodies.
• Swachh Survekshan promotes citizen participation, uses third-party validation, and inspires cities to enhance sanitation and environmental hygiene.
• The 9th edition’s field assessment phase started on February 15, 2025, to conclude by March end.

Additional Information

• Swachh Survekshan is the world’s largest urban cleanliness survey, launched in 2016 under the Swachh Bharat Mission.
• Super Swachh League (SSL) is a special category recognizing consistent top performers across multiple years.
• Swachh Survekshan 2025 emphasized “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle (3R)” principles as part of its annual theme.
• The survey encourages integration of swachhata values within schools to foster hygiene awareness from a young age.
• Urban local bodies use Swachh Survekshan results to drive sustainable city missions and improve quality of life.

The correct answer is 10.

In News

• The United Nations Security Council consists of 10 non-permanent members serving two-year terms alongside 5 permanent members.

Key Points

• There are 10 non-permanent members of the UNSC elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms.
• These members include countries such as Pakistan, Denmark, Greece, Panama, Somalia, Algeria, Guyana, South Korea, Sierra Leone, and Slovenia for the 2024-2026 or 2025 terms.
• Non-permanent members are allocated seats based on regional groups to ensure geographical representation.
• Five non-permanent members are elected each year, with terms staggered to maintain continuity.
• The UNSC has 15 members in total—5 permanent and 10 non-permanent.
• Permanent members include China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• The 10 non-permanent members participate fully in the council's deliberations but do not have veto power.

Additional Information

• Non-permanent members are elected by a two-thirds majority in the UN General Assembly.
• Seats are distributed among five regional groups: African, Asia-Pacific, Latin American and Caribbean, Western European and Others, and Eastern European groups.
• Members cannot be immediately re-elected after their two-year term ends.
• The Security Council is primarily responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
• Non-permanent members have important roles in peacekeeping missions and international conflict resolution discussions.

The correct answer is IIM Bangalore.

In News

• NITI Aayog launched the NITI GearShift Challenge in collaboration with IIM Bangalore, Smart Freight Centre India, CALSTART/Drive to Zero, and WRI India, as part of the e-FAST India initiative.

Key Points

• The challenge focuses on addressing financial, technical, and operational challenges to accelerate the adoption of zero-emission trucks (ZETs) in India’s freight sector.
• It invites students, transport service practitioners, academics, and researchers to develop innovative business models via a two-round hackathon.
• The first round involves submitting initial business models addressing specific operational, financial, or technical barriers.
• Shortlisted teams advance to the second round to present detailed models with implementation roadmaps, mentored by industry leaders.
• The challenge aims to advance sustainable freight transport and reduce India’s freight sector carbon emissions, which contribute nearly 40% of road transport CO2.
• The initiative is a part of NITI Aayog’s broader e-FAST India programme to accelerate clean logistics technology adoption.
• Collaboration includes prominent partners like IIM Bangalore, Smart Freight Centre India, CALSTART/Drive to Zero, and WRI India, combining academic, industry, and policy expertise.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog is India’s premier policy think tank established in 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• IIM Bangalore is one of India’s leading management institutes located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• Smart Freight Centre India works on sustainable freight solutions to improve logistics emissions and efficiency.
• CALSTART/Drive to Zero is a global initiative accelerating zero-emission medium- and heavy-duty vehicles.
• WRI India focuses on sustainable development and environmental research to support policy and business innovation.

The correct answer is IIT Madras.

In News

• In January 2025, IIT Madras partnered with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare to launch Project VISTAAR to enhance the agricultural extension system through digitalization.

Key Points

• Project VISTAAR aims to provide farmers and stakeholders access to high-quality advisory services related to crop production, marketing, value addition, supply chain management, and government schemes.
• The initiative integrates information about over 12,000 agriculture and allied sector start-ups into the VISTAAR platform via a collaboration between MoA&FW and IIT Madras.
• The Centre for Research on Start-ups and Risk Financing at IIT Madras, alongside incubated startup YNOS Venture Engine, developed the extensive startup database.
• The digitalized agricultural extension system seeks to bridge information gaps and ensure wide adoption of innovative farming technologies.
• The project promotes sustainable and climate-resilient agriculture through start-up driven innovations accessible to farmers across India.
• Farmers will gain easier access to government schemes and market intelligence to improve productivity and livelihoods.
• The partnership represents a major step towards empowering Indian agriculture with digital tools and innovative solutions.

Additional Information

• IIT Madras is a premier engineering institution located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, established in 1959.
• Project VISTAAR stands for Virtually Integrated System to Access Agricultural Resources.
• This project is part of India’s broader push towards digital agriculture and farmer empowerment.
• Digital agriculture extension improves access to timely, accurate, and contextual advisories for small and marginal farmers.
• The platform’s integration with startup innovation offers scalable and tailor-made solutions for diverse agricultural challenges.

The correct answer is Jalvahak Scheme.

In News

• Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal launched the ‘Jalvahak’ scheme from Kolkata, West Bengal, to boost cargo movement through India’s inland waterways under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways.

Key Points

• The ‘Jalvahak’ scheme focuses on developing inland waterways as a sustainable, efficient, and economical transport mode for cargo movement.
• The launch event took place at GR Jetty, Kolkata, where cargo vessels MV Aai, MV Homi Bhaba, and MV Trishul, along with barges Ajay and Dikhu, were flagged off.
• The initiative introduces fixed scheduled services of cargo ships operating between Haldia (West Bengal) and NW-1 (Ganga River) and NW-2 (Brahmaputra River).
• The scheme covers three major national waterways—NW-1 (Ganga), NW-2 (Brahmaputra), and NW-16 (Barak River).
• It uses the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol Route for cargo movements between Kolkata and Pandu (Guwahati), facilitating regional trade.
• With an investment of Rs 95.4 crore by 2027, the scheme targets a modal shift of 800 million tonne-kilometres in cargo movement.
• The Jalvahak scheme will initially remain valid for three years and aims to help achieve India’s goal of 200 million tonne cargo transport through waterways by 2030.

Additional Information

• Implementing Agencies
• Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
• Inland & Coastal Shipping Limited (ICSL), subsidiary of Shipping Corporation of India Limited (SCIL)
• National Waterways Covered
• NW-1 – Ganga River (Haldia to Varanasi)
• NW-2 – Brahmaputra River (Dhubri to Sadiya)
• NW-16 – Barak River (Lakhipur to Bhanga)
• The scheme aims to demonstrate the readiness of India’s inland waterways for large-scale cargo handling.
• Inland water transport offers fuel efficiency, reduced carbon emissions, and cost savings compared to road and rail transport.
• This initiative aligns with India’s PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan for multimodal logistics network integration.

The correct answer is INS Surat, INS Nilgiri, INS Vaghsheer.

In News

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi commissioned three frontline naval vessels—INS Surat, INS Nilgiri, and INS Vaghsheer—on Indian Army Day 2025 at the Naval Dockyard in Mumbai.

Key Points

• INS Surat is the fourth and final destroyer of the Visakhapatnam-class (Project 15B), featuring 75% indigenous content and advanced guided missile capabilities.
• INS Nilgiri is the lead stealth frigate of Project 17A, equipped with advanced survivability features and modern weapon systems.
• INS Vaghsheer is the sixth and last submarine of the P75 Scorpene-class (Kalvari-class), built with French collaboration and equipped with cutting-edge stealth and weapon technologies.
• This event marked the first simultaneous commissioning of a destroyer, frigate, and submarine in the Indian Navy’s history.
• The vessels were built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai, supporting India’s ‘Make in India’ initiative in defense manufacturing.
• The commissioning strengthens India’s maritime security capabilities and naval dominance in the Indian Ocean Region.
• The ships feature advanced missile systems such as BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles, Medium Range Surface-to-Air Missiles (MRSAM), torpedoes, and anti-submarine warfare capabilities.

Additional Information

• The Visakhapatnam-class destroyers are among the most advanced warships in the Indian Navy with stealth features and potent weaponry.
• Project 17A frigates represent cutting-edge Indian naval ship design focusing on stealth and survivability.
• The P75 Scorpene-class submarines are diesel-electric attack submarines with air-independent propulsion systems.
• Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited is India’s premier shipyard specializing in warship and submarine construction.
• The commissioning ceremony took place on Indian Army Day, highlighting inter-service synergy and national defense priorities.

The correct answer is BHASKAR – Rising Sun Portal.

In News

• Union Minister Piyush Goyal launched the ‘Bharat Startup Knowledge Access Registry (BHASKAR – Rising Sun)’ Portal in New Delhi, developed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, to support India’s expanding startup ecosystem.

Key Points

• The BHASKAR Portal serves as a one-stop digital platform designed for data exchange, dissemination, and communication among startup ecosystem participants.
• It was launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its flagship programme ‘Startup India.’
• The platform aims to establish the world’s largest digital registry connecting all stakeholders within India’s startup landscape.
• Each stakeholder, including startups, incubators, investors, and policymakers, will receive a unique BHASKAR ID to enable personalized digital interactions.
• The portal encourages innovation, collaboration, and inclusiveness, particularly supporting startups from tier 2 and tier 3 cities.
• BHASKAR focuses on strengthening India's role as a global startup hub by fostering transparency, traceability, and connectivity across the entrepreneurship ecosystem.

Additional Information

• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) oversees policy formulation for industrial development and investment facilitation in India.
• The ‘Startup India’ initiative was launched in 2016 to promote entrepreneurship and innovation across multiple sectors.
• India is home to over 1.25 lakh DPIIT-recognized startups, making it the world’s third-largest startup ecosystem.
• The BHASKAR Portal enhances accessibility and resource-sharing within the ecosystem, promoting sustainable innovation.
• Under Piyush Goyal’s leadership, DPIIT continues to focus on global collaborations and ease of doing business for startups in India.

The correct answer is 22.

In News

• The Government of India launched Bhashini under the National Language Translation Mission in July 2022 to promote digital inclusion by enabling language accessibility.

Key Points

• Bhashini focuses on breaking linguistic barriers by providing multilingual communication support on digital platforms.
• The initiative aims to enable easy access to government services and online content in multiple Indian languages.
• It covers 22 Indian languages, aligning with the languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• Bhashini facilitates translation, transcription, and transliteration services to improve digital communication.
• The platform supports digital content creators, public service providers, and businesses to reach diverse linguistic populations.
• This mission complements other initiatives aimed at enhancing digital literacy and inclusion across India.

Additional Information

• Bhashini is executed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• The National Language Translation Mission is a part of India’s digital empowerment strategy.
• The platform aims to reduce digital divide caused by language barriers in a linguistically diverse country.
• India recognizes 22 official languages under its Constitution’s Eighth Schedule.
• Bhashini facilitates government accessibility, education, and economic participation for non-English-speaking citizens.

The correct answer is 10.

In News

• The Republic of Belarus officially became the 10th permanent member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) during the 24th SCO Council of Heads of State Summit held in Astana, Kazakhstan, on 4th July 2024.

Key Points

• Belarus joined the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) as its 10th full member state during the 24th SCO Council of Heads of State (SCO-CHS) Summit in July 2024.
• This summit was hosted by Kazakhstan in Astana under the theme “Strengthening Multilateral Dialogue – Striving for Sustainable Peace and Development.”
• Belarus had previously joined the SCO as a dialogue partner in 2010 and later became an observer state in 2015.
• Following the SCO meeting held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, in 2022, a document was signed launching Belarus’ accession process as a full member.
• With this addition, the SCO now includes ten permanent members: China, Russia, India, Iran, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and Belarus.
• Following the 2024 summit, the chairmanship rotated from Kazakhstan to China for the 2024–25 term, with Qingdao named as the SCO’s tourism and cultural capital.

Additional Information

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was established on 15 June 2001 by six founding members: Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and Russia.
• The 23rd SCO Summit was hosted by India in July 2023 in a virtual format, during which Iran became the 9th permanent member of the SCO.
• Kazakhstan hosted the SCO-CHS Summit for the fourth time in 2024, having previously hosted it in 2005, 2011, and 2017.
• The SCO focuses on regional cooperation in political stability, economic development, counter-terrorism, and cultural exchange.
• With Belarus’ inclusion, the SCO now represents approximately 40% of the world’s population and nearly 30% of global GDP.

The correct answer is Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA).

In News

• Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) collaborated with APSHCL and APSEEDCO to launch three transformative programmes aimed at strengthening energy efficiency, sustainability, and livelihoods in Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The collaboration between EESL, APSHCL, and APSEEDCO was launched in Vijayawada in the presence of CM N. Chandrababu Naidu and Union Power Minister Manohar Lal.
• EESL, a joint venture of National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC), Power Finance Corporation (PFC), Rural Electrification Corporation (REC), and Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID), to support the implementation of energy efficiency projects.
• The first programme, URJAVEER, aims to train 1 lakh individuals as “Urjaveers” who will promote energy-efficient products through EESLmart.in and community outreach.
• The second programme introduces energy-efficient appliances to low-income PMAY households, including 6 lakh LED bulbs, 3 lakh LED battens, and 3 lakh BLDC fans.
• The third, the National Efficiency Cooking Programme (NECP), promotes electric cooking solutions like EESL induction cooktops distributed through Anganwadi Centers.
• These initiatives aim to combine environmental sustainability with economic empowerment, contributing to India’s broader energy conservation goals.
• EESL, under the Ministry of Power, is recognized for pioneering large-scale efficiency programs such as UJALA and the Street Lighting National Programme (SLNP).
• It was set up to implement the Energy Service Company (ESCO) model for cost-effective and measurable energy savings in India.

Additional Information

• Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)
• Established - 2009
• HQ - New Delhi
• Parent Ministry - Ministry of Power, Government of India
• Joint Venture of - NTPC, PFC, REC, POWERGRID
• Major Programmes of EESL
• UJALA (Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All)
• Street Lighting National Programme (SLNP)
• Building Energy Efficiency Programme (BEEP)
• NECP (National Efficiency Cooking Programme)
• IREDA, though a power sector PSU, is not a joint venture partner in EESL.
• EESL plays a central role in India’s pledge to reduce energy intensity by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.
• Partnerships like these strengthen state-level implementation of clean energy and efficiency goals.

The correct answer is Night Watch by Jayne Anne Phillips.

In News

• In the 2024 Pulitzer Prize announcements, the Fiction category winner was Night Watch, authored by Jayne Anne Phillips.

Key Points

• Night Watch is the work cited as the Fiction category winner in 2024.
• The Pulitzer Prizes are administered by Columbia University and established by Joseph Pulitzer.
• Winners in 2024 include categories across Journalism, Drama, Music, and Books with 24 total categories.
• In Books, Drama and Music, winners receive cash prizes and certificates, with Public Service in Journalism receiving a gold medal.
• Jayne Anne Phillips’s Night Watch contributes to American literary fiction recognized by the Pulitzer Board.
• The 2024 awards reflect a diverse set of voices across genres in American letters.

Additional Information

• The Pulitzer Prize was first awarded in 1917 and is the highest national honor in journalism, literature, and music in the USA.
• Categories span Journalism (15), Letters/Drama/Music (8), and Special Citations (1).
• Winners in Books, Drama and Music receive cash prizes and certificates; Fiction is among these literary categories.
• Night Watch explores themes typical of contemporary American fiction and was recognized for its narrative craft.
• Books, Drama and Music winners are announced annually in December, while Pulitzer Prizes in Journalism are announced in May.

The correct answer is Digital Inclusion in Logistics

In News

• Union Minister Piyush Goyal released the 6th edition of the ‘Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) Report 2024’ in New Delhi, highlighting progress in logistics efficiency and policy reforms.

Key Points

• The LEADS 2024 report evaluates logistics performance across Indian states and union territories by using a comprehensive set of performance indicators.
• It was released by Piyush Goyal, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, in the presence of Jitin Prasada, MoS, and Amardeep Singh, Secretary, DPIIT.
• Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu were recognized as top achievers among coastal states.
• The report’s assessment framework is built around four key pillars: Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and Sustainable Logistics (introduced newly).
• A new report by NCAER on India’s logistics cost framework was also unveiled to analyze domestic and EXIM cargo data.
• Piyush Goyal proposed the LEAD approach — Longevity, Efficiency, Effectiveness, Accessibility, Accountability, and Digitalization to improve logistics development.
• Additionally, a PM Gati Shakti course by Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya was launched through iGOT Karmayogi and UGC-SWAYAM platforms for infrastructure planning studies.

Additional Information

• About LEADS Report
• Initiated - 2018
• Conducted annually by - DPIIT under the National Logistics Policy 2022
• Purpose - To support states in improving infrastructure and service delivery in logistics.
• The aim is to align with the World Bank’s Logistics Performance Index framework while integrating national-level indicators.
• The Sustainable Logistics pillar marks a shift toward environmentally responsible transport development in India.
• LEADS serves as a key input for India’s logistics efficiency roadmap under PM Gati Shakti.
• Digital Inclusion is not a separate assessment pillar in the LEADS 2024 report but forms part of broader process modernization efforts.

The correct answer is Rs 2,481 crore.

In News

• The Union Cabinet approved the launch of the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) as a standalone Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare with a total outlay of Rs 2,481 crore.

Key Points

• The NMNF aims to promote Natural Farming (NF) techniques that produce chemical-free, nutritious food while reducing dependence on external inputs like fertilizers and pesticides.
• The scheme will be implemented across 15,000 clusters in Gram Panchayats nationwide within two years, targeting 1 crore farmers and covering 7.5 lakh hectares of land.
• The total outlay for the scheme is Rs 2,481 crore, with Rs 1,584 crore contributed by the Centre and Rs 897 crore by state governments, valid up to the 15th Finance Commission cycle (2025–26).
• The initiative includes setting up 10,000 Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs) to ensure widespread access to organic and natural farming inputs.
• Approximately 2,000 Natural Farming Model Demonstration Farms will be established at Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs), Agricultural Universities (AUs), and farmer fields.
• Around 18.75 lakh trained farmers will produce bio-inputs such as Jeevamrit and Beejamrit, while 3,000 Krishi Sakhis/CRPs will raise awareness and assist local farmers.
• Real-time monitoring will be conducted through an online geo-tagging portal to ensure transparency and effective implementation.

Additional Information

• Natural Farming enhances soil fertility, conserves water resources, and builds climate resilience against floods, droughts, and waterlogging.
• The scheme will integrate with existing government programmes to support livestock development, marketing, and local value chain formation.
• A simple certification and branding system will help farmers market their natural produce effectively.
• Undergraduate, postgraduate, and diploma-level courses in Natural Farming will be introduced under the Rural Agricultural Work Experience (RAWE) programme.
• Bio-input centres will create rural employment opportunities while reducing chemical dependency in agriculture.

The correct answer is 2019.

In News

• The United Nations’ World Braille Day is observed annually on January 4, marking the birth anniversary of Louis Braille. The first World Braille Day was celebrated in 2019.

Key Points

• World Braille Day is observed on January 4 worldwide to emphasize the importance of Braille as a communication tool for blind and visually impaired individuals.
• The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) officially established World Braille Day on December 17, 2018, through resolution A/RES/73/161.
• The first World Braille Day was observed on January 4, 2019, and 2025 marks its 7th observance since inception.
• The day commemorates the legacy of Louis Braille, who invented the Braille system in 1824 at the age of 15.
• The 2025 celebration also coincided with his 216th birth anniversary.
• The observance aims to promote access to written communication, education, and opportunities for visually impaired communities worldwide.

Additional Information

• Louis Braille was born on January 4, 1809, in Coupvray, France. A childhood accident caused him to lose his eyesight by age 5.
• At age 12, he learned about “night writing,” a 12-dot code created by French Army officer Charles Barbier, which inspired his system.
• Braille’s first book, “Method of Writing Words, Music, and Plain Songs by Means of Dots,” was published in 1829 for use by the blind.
• He passed away at the age of 43 on January 6, 1852, but his invention transformed global communication for visually impaired individuals.
• Braille uses a 6-dot matrix arranged in a 3x2 format, representing letters, numbers, and symbols read through touch.

The correct answer is National e-Governance Division (NeGD).

In News

• DigiLocker, under the Digital India program, is developed and managed by the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) to provide a secure digital document storage and sharing platform for Indian citizens.

Key Points

• DigiLocker is a key initiative of the Government of India’s Digital India program launched to empower citizens with digital document management.
• The platform enables storage, access, and sharing of government-issued documents and certificates in a digital locker linked to the Aadhaar identity.
• It is developed and maintained by the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), an autonomous arm under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) also provides technical and policy support to various e-governance projects across India.
• DigiLocker enhances citizen convenience by eliminating the need for physical document submission during various services.
• The initiative promotes paperless governance, improves transparency, and facilitates secure data exchange among departments.
• DigiLocker complies with security standards and includes features like digital signatures and secure access.

Additional Information

• National e-Governance Division (NeGD) operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), India.
• DigiLocker leverages Aadhaar-based authentication to provide secure access to documents.
• The platform supports digital sharing of documents with government and private agencies, reducing fraud risk.
• NeGD also oversees other e-governance initiatives like the Common Services Centres (CSC) and e-District projects.
• DigiLocker was launched in 2015 and has since expanded to include over hundreds of government departments and private service providers.

The correct answer is Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).

In News

• On January 6, 2025, FIU-IND signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) to strengthen cooperation in AML and CFT within the insurance sector.

Key Points

• The MoU facilitates timely sharing of intelligence and information on suspicious financial activities between FIU-IND and IRDAI.
• Clear reporting procedures for suspicious transactions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, are established for insurance sector entities.
• Both organizations will conduct training programs to enhance the skills of personnel in regulated insurance entities on AML/CFT risks and detection.
• Risk assessments will be regularly conducted to identify vulnerabilities and strengthen compliance within the insurance sector.
• The agreement mandates the appointment of a nodal officer and an alternate nodal officer by each party to coordinate activities effectively.
• FIU-IND functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, and collects intelligence on offenses under PMLA.
• IRDAI is a statutory body supervising and developing the insurance sector, formed under the IRDA Act, 1999.

Additional Information

• FIU-IND serves as the central national agency for receiving, processing, and analyzing suspicious transaction reports (STRs).
• The PMLA, 2002, is the key legislation to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing in India.
• IRDAI regulates insurance companies, intermediaries, and protects policyholder interests.
• The MoU aims to improve transparency and effectiveness of AML/CFT mechanisms in insurance.
• Collaborations like this strengthen India’s compliance with global anti-money laundering standards.
• IRDAI
• Established in - 1999
• HQ - Hyderabad

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.

In News

• The hallmarking scheme in India under BIS Rules, 2018, mandates compensation if gold jewellery does not meet declared purity standards.

Key Points

• Statement 1 – Correct: BIS Rules, 2018 under Section 49 requires the seller to pay a compensation amounting to twice the value of the difference in purity calculated on the weight of the gold article sold.
• **Statement 2 – Incorrect:**The buyer is entitled to reimbursement for any testing charges incurred for purity verification, as part of the compensation.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The detailed compensation mechanism is explicitly provided under sub-rule (1) of Rule 49 of BIS Rules, 2018, to safeguard consumers from adulteration risks.
• Hallmarking protects consumers by ensuring legal standards of fineness are maintained by manufacturers of gold and silver jewellery.
• The seller’s liability extends to compensating buyers promptly if purity falls short of declared standards, maintaining trust in the industry.
• The inclusion of testing charges reimbursement incentivizes consumers to verify purity without financial hesitation.
• Hallmark certification by BIS is an assurance of authenticity and compliance with Indian purity norms for precious metals.

Additional Information

• Hallmarking Scheme initiated by BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) certifies purity standards of gold and silver jewellery in India.
• The scheme originally started with gold and later extended to silver to curb adulteration and protect consumer rights.
• Section 49 of BIS Rules, 2018 consolidates the compensation framework for buyers in case of purity shortfall.
• Consumers are encouraged to check for hallmark certification before purchasing to ensure product authenticity.
• The scheme promotes transparency and ensures accountability by legal enforcement of purity standards and compensation.

The correct answer is Madhyanchal Gramin Bank.

In News

• Madhyanchal Gramin Bank was formed by merging Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank, Rewa-Sidhi Gramin Bank, and Sharda Gramin Bank under the Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976, with its head office in Sagar, Madhya Pradesh, sponsored by State Bank of India.

Key Points

• Madhyanchal Gramin Bank is a Regional Rural Bank operating in 13 districts of Madhya Pradesh with headquarters in Sagar.
• The bank was established by merging three RRBs—Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank, Rewa-Sidhi Gramin Bank, and Sharda Gramin Bank—under the Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976.
• Sponsor Bank of Madhyanchal Gramin Bank is State Bank of India, which holds 35% share of the bank’s capital.
• The Government of India holds 50% share while the Government of Madhya Pradesh holds 15% share in the bank.
• Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank itself was formed by merging three SBI-sponsored banks: Damoh-Panna-Sagar RRB, Shivpuri-Guna RRB, and Bundelkhand Gramin Bank in 2006.
• Recent consolidation initiatives by the Department of Financial Services (DFS) under the ‘One State-One RRB’ policy have further integrated RRBs to improve efficiency.
• The mergers reduced the total number of RRBs nationwide from 43 to 28 and aim for better financial inclusion and rural credit delivery.

Additional Information

• The Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976 supports establishment and regulation of RRBs to provide banking services in rural areas.
• The ‘One State-One RRB’ policy aims to strengthen regional rural banks by consolidating multiple banks within states.
• State Bank of India is the sponsor bank of Madhyanchal Gramin Bank, providing managerial and financial support.
• The jurisdiction of Madhyanchal Gramin Bank covers districts including Damoh, Sagar, Shivpuri, Guna, and others within Madhya Pradesh.
• The capital structure of RRBs involves contributions from the central government, sponsor bank, and state government.

The correct answer is 2019.

In News

• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was launched in 2019 to provide every rural household Functional Household Tap Connections and ensure 55 litres per capita per day of safe drinking water.

Key Points

• JJM was launched with the goal of providing tap water to all rural households by 2024, recently extended to 2028 due to implementation challenges.
• The mission focuses on quality infrastructure, sustainable operation, and community-led management through “Jan Bhagidari” (people’s participation).
• Village Water & Sanitation Committees (VWSCs), also known as Pani Samitis, play a crucial role ensuring 50% women participation.
• JJM is implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti’s Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and subsumed the earlier National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP).
• The funding pattern varies: 90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern states, 100% central funding for Union Territories, and 50:50 cost-sharing for other states.
• By 2025, 80% of rural households had gained piped water access, with several states and UTs achieving 100% coverage.
• Challenges include infrastructure gaps, cost overruns, underutilization of funds, and delays due to external disruptions such as COVID-19 and global material price hikes.

Additional Information

• JJM aims to ensure 55 litres per capita per day of potable water supply to every rural household.
• Implementation challenges necessitated extension of the target year from 2024 to 2028.
• “Jan Bhagidari” engages local communities to foster ownership and operational sustainability.
• Technological tools such as IoT monitoring and GIS mapping are used for progress tracking and transparency.
• The mission prioritizes women’s leadership in water governance for inclusive community development.

The correct answer is Ramanathan Subramanian.

In News

• The RBI has decided to float a new interest rate benchmark—Secured Overnight Rupee Rate (SORR)—based on secured money market transactions, replacing the Mumbai Interbank Outright Rate (MIBOR).

Key Points

• SORR will be based on secured money market transactions, including market repo and tri-party repo (TREPS), covering 98% of overnight money market transactions.
• It is designed to be a more robust and representative benchmark of the overnight market funding rate compared to the call money market.
• The new benchmark is being developed with the support of Financial Benchmarks India Limited (FBIL).
• The committee on Mumbai Interbank Outright Rate (MIBOR) benchmark recommended the change to SORR.
• Ramanathan Subramanian, Executive Director of RBI, headed the committee reviewing the interest rate benchmarks.
• The committee observed that benchmarks based on collateralized transactions like repos are less vulnerable and better suited for interest rate derivatives and hedging purposes.
• SORR is expected to replace MIBOR, which has been in use since 1998.

Additional Information

• The call money market involves unsecured lending between banks, whereas secured money markets involve transactions backed by collateral.
• Market repo and tri-party repo (TREPS) are the major components of secured money markets in India.
• Financial Benchmarks India Limited (FBIL) is responsible for administering financial benchmarks in the country.
• MIBOR has served as a key reference rate for various financial instruments including interest rate swaps.
• Transitioning to SORR aligns India’s benchmarks with global best practices for robustness and transparency.
• RBI
• Established in - 1935
• HQ - Mumbai
• Governor - Sanjay Malhotra

The correct answer is 20.85%.

In News

• SIDBI, set up under an Act of Indian Parliament in 1990, is the principal financial institution for promotion, financing, and development of the MSME sector with Indian government holding 20.85% stake.

Key Points

• SIDBI was established on April 2, 1990, under the Small Industries Development Bank of India Act, 1989 to promote and finance MSMEs in India.
• The Indian government holds a 20.85% equity stake in SIDBI, making it a significant shareholder.
• Other major stakeholders include State Bank of India (SBI) with 15.65%, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) with 13.33%, and NABARD with 9.36% shares.
• SIDBI not only finances MSMEs but also coordinates functions of institutions engaged in similar activities toward MSME development.
• SIDBI plays a key role in strengthening the MSME ecosystem through refinance, direct finance, and promotional support.
• The bank also facilitates policy advocacy, market development, and capacity building for MSMEs.
• The diversified shareholding ensures a wide base of institutional support and stakeholder engagement in SIDBI’s operations.

Additional Information

• SIDBI functions under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• The MSME sector contributes significantly to India’s GDP and employment generation, supported by SIDBI’s initiatives.
• SIDBI’s activities include credit delivery, unsecured loans, venture capital, and microfinance support.
• It also promotes technological upgradation and exports from MSMEs.
• The bank is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India.

The correct answer is Mumbai, 48th.

In News

• Mumbai is the only Indian city featured in the Global Power City Index (GPCI) 2024, ranking 48th among the 48 major global cities evaluated by the Mori Memorial Foundation.

Key Points

• Global Power City Index (GPCI) evaluates cities worldwide on their comprehensive power to attract people, capital, and businesses using six urban functions.
• The six urban functions assessed include Economy, Research and Development, Cultural Interaction, Livability, Environment, and Accessibility.
• The index expanded its evaluation in 2024 from 30 to 48 cities, reflecting growing global urban diversity.
• London maintained its top position, followed by New York, Tokyo, Paris, and Singapore in the top five rankings.
• Dubai is the only Middle Eastern city in the top 10, securing the 8th rank for the second consecutive year.
• Mumbai, as the sole representative from India, ranked last (48th) in the 2024 GPCI list.
• The GPCI serves to guide city-level planning, policy-making, and investment decisions through detailed analysis of urban strengths and challenges.

Additional Information

• The highest possible total score on the GPCI is 2,600 points, derived from 26 indicator groups consisting of 70 indicators.
• The index reflects city magnetism, measuring the ability to attract global talent and investment across diverse sectors.
• Mumbai’s ranking reflects challenges and opportunities in enhancing its global competitiveness and livability.
• The GPCI is published annually by the Mori Memorial Foundation's Institute for Urban Strategies based in Japan.
• Urban planners and policymakers use the index results to benchmark progress and identify areas for improvement.

The correct answer is Md. Golam Sarwar.

In News

• Md. Golam Sarwar from Bangladesh is the current Secretary-General of SAARC, with Nepal holding the SAARC Chairmanship in 2025.

Key Points

• SAARC was established in 1985, bringing together eight South Asian countries to promote regional cooperation and development.
• The Secretariat of SAARC is located in Kathmandu, Nepal, established in 1987.
• Md. Golam Sarwar took charge as the Secretary-General, representing Bangladesh as of 2025.
• The SAARC Chairmanship rotates among member states; Nepal currently holds this position in 2025.
• SAARC Charter outlines objectives, structure, and financial arrangements of the organization.
• The association covers 3% of world land area, 21% of world population, and accounts for approximately 5.21% of the global economy.
• SAARC conducts summits typically every two years, with the most recent in Kathmandu, 2014, and important specialized bodies such as the SAARC Development Fund (SDF) and South Asian University.

Additional Information

• SAARC member countries include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• The organization works on economic, social, cultural, technical, and scientific cooperation.
• Specialized agencies under SAARC, such as SARCO and SARSO, focus on dispute resolution and standards respectively.
• The association faces challenges including political tensions, impacting summit regularity and cooperation.
• The Secretary-General is appointed for a three-year term by the member states.

The correct answer is Kochi, Kerala.

In News

• The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), established in 1972, has its headquarters at Kochi, Kerala, and is tasked with promoting and developing India's marine products export industry.

Key Points

• MPEDA was formed by merging the Marine Products Export Promotion Council with a statutory authority under the MPEDA Act, 1972.
• The authority's headquarters is located in Kochi, Kerala, and operates numerous regional offices across India, including Veraval, Mumbai, and Visakhapatnam.
• MPEDA works to promote, regulate, and develop marine product exports, including off-shore fishing, processing standards, and quality control.
• It also facilitates registration of fishing vessels, processing plants, and exporters, along with collecting industry statistics.
• MPEDA manages multiple laboratories for quality control, including five full-fledged laboratories across different states.
• The organization plays a vital role in conservation, sustainable fishing, and export market development for marine products.
• Its functions are governed under the MPEDA Act, enacted in 1972, with operational rules made by the Central Government.

Additional Information

• MPEDA promotes the export of marine products, contributes to employment generation, and supports sustainable fishing practices.
• It works closely with various government departments, industry stakeholders, and international agencies.
• Its activities include training, standard setting, market promotion, and inspection for quality assurance.
• The authority’s regional offices enable outreach and support to exporters at various ports and coastal states.
• MPEDA also facilitates the registration of vessels and processing plants as part of its regulatory functions.

The correct answer is Rs 6,839 crore.

In News

• The Union Cabinet approved the second phase of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP-II) with a total budget allocation of Rs 6,839 crore for FY25 to FY29 to develop strategic villages along all International Land Borders.

Key Points

• VVP-II targets the comprehensive development of villages along International Land Borders in 17 states and union territories, excluding the northern border covered under VVP-I.
• The programme will receive 100% funding from the Government of India as it is a Central Sector Scheme.
• Implementation includes infrastructure development, value chain formation through cooperatives and SHGs, education facilities, and livelihood creation.
• All-weather road connectivity in these villages will be provided under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana IV (PMGSY-IV) managed by the Ministry of Rural Development.
• A High-Powered Committee led by Cabinet Secretary T. V. Somanathan will oversee guideline relaxations for effective implementation in border areas.
• The program emphasizes saturation of individual and household welfare schemes and connectivity in themes like roads, telecom, TV, and electrification through convergence.
• VVP-II promotes local culture and vibrancy via awareness camps, fairs, festivals, and national day celebrations.

Additional Information

• The first phase of VVP focused on villages along the northern border regions including Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, and Ladakh.
• VVP-II expands the developmental focus to border villages in states like Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir, and West Bengal among others.
• The scheme aligns with GoI’s vision of Viksit Bharat@2047 emphasizing safe, secured and vibrant land borders.
• Technology resources such as Prime Minister Gati Shakti-National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP) databases will be utilized to enhance implementation efficiency.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry responsible for the Vibrant Villages Programme.

The correct answer is Section 80C.

In News

• Most Small Savings Schemes managed by the Government of India, including NSC, SCSS, SSY, and PPF, offer tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Key Points

• Small Savings Schemes (SSCs) encourage regular savings among citizens by providing safe investment instruments managed by the Government of India.
• SSCs fall into three broad categories: savings deposits, social security schemes, and monthly income plans.
• Interest rates for SSCs are notified quarterly by the Government of India based on recommendations from expert committees, including the Shyamala Gopinath Committee in 2023.
• The Shyamala Gopinath Committee recommended that SSC interest rates be set between 25 to 100 basis points above yields on corresponding government bonds.
• Tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961, apply to several post office savings schemes such as the National Savings Certificate (NSC), Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS), Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), and Public Provident Fund (PPF).
• Section 80C allows individuals to claim deductions up to certain limits on investments made in these eligible savings schemes.
• The Ministry of Finance’s Department of Economic Affairs releases monthly economic reviews highlighting growth projections and fiscal measures impacting these schemes.

Additional Information

• The Income Tax Act, 1961, specifies various sections under Chapter VI-A to encourage savings and investments by providing tax deductions.
• Section 80C is the most widely used tax-saving provision with a deduction limit of Rs 1.5 lakh per year.
• National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a fixed income investment scheme with a 5-year or 10-year tenure.
• Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) is designed for individuals aged 60 and above to promote retirement savings.
• Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a savings scheme aimed at the girl child to support education and marriage expenses.
• Public Provident Fund (PPF) is a long-term savings scheme with tax-exempt interest and maturity proceeds.

The correct answer is World Resources Institute (WRI).

In News

• The “Global Forest Watch” monitoring project, which revealed key findings about India’s tree cover loss and gain and net carbon sink, is an initiative developed by the World Resources Institute (WRI) in partnership with Google and USAID.

Key Points

• Global Forest Watch (GFW) uses satellite technology and data analytics to monitor global forest cover changes in near real-time.
• The data shows India lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover from 2001 to 2023, a 6% decrease, with significant tree cover loss in northeastern states.
• India gained 1.88 million hectares of tree cover, contributing 1.4% to the global total gain.
• Forests in India act as a net carbon sink, removing 141 million tons of CO2 annually while emitting 51 million tons due to forest loss.
• Tree cover loss from fires and other drivers has been significant, with Odisha losing the most area annually due to fires.
• GFW is a joint initiative launched in 2014, involving WRI, Google, USAID, and other partners, focusing on forest conservation and sustainable management.
• The initiative supports policymakers, researchers, and environmentalists by providing transparent and accessible forest data.

Additional Information

• World Resources Institute (WRI) is a global research organization focusing on environment, economic development, and sustainability.
• GFW leverages open data, remote sensing, and cloud computing to provide up-to-date forest monitoring globally.
• USAID supports international development projects including environmental conservation and climate resilience.
• GFW data aids in tracking deforestation, forest degradation, and helps enforce policies for forest protection.
• The initiative emphasizes collaboration among governments, NGOs, and local communities for sustainable forest management.

The correct answer is Jack Dorsey.

In News

• Bluesky was originally launched in 2019 as an internal research project within Twitter by then Twitter CEO, Jack Dorsey, aimed at giving users more control over their social media content.

Key Points

• Bluesky is a microblogging platform that allows users to post short-form messages supporting text and images, similar in functionality and design to Twitter.
• The platform's concept began in 2019 as a Twitter internal project under the leadership of Jack Dorsey, who wanted to create an open social protocol for public conversation.
• The logos for Twitter (a bird) and Bluesky (a butterfly) share similarities, reflecting the project's origin within Twitter.
• Although Bluesky became an independent company in 2021, it remained financially dependent on Twitter until late 2022.
• Jay Graber took over as CEO in August 2021 and continues to lead Bluesky as an independent entity.
• Board members include Jeremie Miller (inventor of Jabber/XMPP), Mike Masnick, and Kinjal Shah, while Jack Dorsey left the board in May 2024.
• The Bluesky project reflects ongoing efforts to innovate social media with decentralization and user control at its core.

Additional Information

• Jack Dorsey is co-founder and former CEO of Twitter, known for initiating several innovation projects at the company.
• Bluesky’s mission focuses on building an open, decentralized social media protocol to foster free and fair public discourse.
• Jay Graber, a software engineer, led the project after becoming CEO and continues to develop the platform as an independent entity.
• Bluesky utilizes features like curated feeds, topic selection, and easy sharing to enhance user experience.
• The platform aims to provide an alternative social media environment emphasizing control, privacy, and decentralized governance.

The correct answer is Rs. 5,00,000.

In News

• LIC’s Saral Jeevan Bima Plan provides financial protection with a minimum Basic Sum Assured of Rs. 5,00,000, offering flexible premium payment options and policy terms.

Key Points

• The plan is a Non-Linked, Non-Par, Individual, Pure Risk Life Insurance product protecting the insured’s family against death during the policy term.
• The minimum Basic Sum Assured available under the plan is Rs. 5,00,000 and the maximum is Rs. 25,00,000, in multiples of Rs. 50,000.
• Policyholders can choose from Single Premium, Regular Premium, or Limited Premium Payment options with respective premium paying terms.
• For Limited Premium Payment, the premium paying term options are 5 years or 10 years.
• Policy terms range from 5 to 40 years, with entry age limits from 18 to 65 years and maximum maturity age of 70 years.
• Premium payment terms vary based on the premium option: Regular premium equals policy term, limited premium is either 5 or 10 years, and single premium is payable as a lump sum.
• The plan offers benefit of High Sum Assured Rebate and can be purchased online or offline through licensed agents and brokers.

Additional Information

• Saral Jeevan Bima is designed for straightforward financial protection without investment or savings components.
• It complements other insurance products such as annuities and Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs).
• The plan is suitable for individuals seeking affordable pure life insurance cover with flexible tenure and premium options.
• LIC is India’s largest insurance company and offers various individual and group insurance products.
• Non-Linked Non-Par plans do not participate in profits and have fixed benefits as per policy terms.
• LIC
• Established in - 1956
• HQ - Mumbai

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.

In News

• ICRISAT developed solar-powered water hyacinth harvesters costing less than ₹2 lakh to provide an affordable solution for weed management in rural areas.

Key Points

• Statement 1 – Correct: ICRISAT’s solar-powered water hyacinth harvesting machines are designed to address the rapid growth of aquatic weeds that cause ecological and economic damage.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Water hyacinth adversely affects water quality by blocking sunlight, reducing oxygen, and disrupting biodiversity, not aiding ecosystem health.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is founded through a Memorandum of Agreement between the Government of India and CGIAR (Consortium of International Agricultural Research Centers)
• Founded in 1972 through an agreement between the Government of India and CGIAR, ICRISAT operates mainly in Africa and Asia.
• Headquartered at Patancheru near Hyderabad, it collaborates with various national and international agricultural institutions.
• In addition to developing weed control methods, ICRISAT has digital tools like the Plantix app to diagnose crop issues.
• Controlling aquatic weeds involves multiple methods, including mechanical harvesting, biological, chemical, and manual approaches.

Additional Information

• Water hyacinth is an invasive aquatic plant known for its fast growth, which hampers aquatic ecosystems by reducing biodiversity and increasing water treatment costs.
• ICRISAT works to develop sustainable solutions for water management and crop resilience in dryland regions.
• The agency partners with several research institutions, including the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
• Addressing aquatic weeds like water hyacinth is crucial for ecological health, water accessibility, and economic stability in rural areas.

The correct answer is 15%.

In News

• The Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) under the Ministry of Small Scale Industries (SSI) offers a 15% upfront capital subsidy on the institutional finance availed by SSI units to support technology upgradation.

Key Points

• CLCSS provides financial support for technology modernization in SSI units, including khadi, tiny, village, and coir sectors.
• The scheme offers an upfront 15% capital subsidy on the value of institutional finance availed for adopting well-established modern technologies.
• Eligible sectors under this scheme include biotech, pharmaceuticals, leather, food processing, cosmetics, steel furniture, and ready-made garments among others.
• SIDBI and NABARD serve as the nodal agencies for scheme implementation, supported by nine public sector banks including SBI, Canara Bank, and Bank of Baroda.
• The scheme helps SSI units enhance production efficiency, product quality, and competitiveness in domestic and international markets.
• Financial assistance under CLCSS reduces the financial burden on units investing in advanced technology adoption.
• The scheme aims to enable SSI enterprises to upgrade their production infrastructure and technologies to meet evolving market demands.

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Small Scale Industries (SSI) promotes MSME sector development and modernization through schemes like CLCSS.
• Technological upgradation improves productivity, quality, and market acceptance for SSI products.
• Nodal banks and government agencies facilitate credit linkages and subsidy disbursement under the scheme.
• CLCSS encourages adoption of energy-efficient and environment-friendly technologies.
• Successful implementation contributes to employment generation and sustainable industrial growth.

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

• Major global stock market indexes represent the performance of countries’ equity markets, with India represented by NIFTY 50, the US by NASDAQ, Japan by Nikkei 225, the UK by FTSE 100, and Germany by DAX.

Key Points

• NIFTY 50 is the flagship stock market index in India representing the National Stock Exchange’s top 50 companies based on market capitalization.
• NASDAQ Composite Index is a prominent US stock index consisting primarily of technology and growth-oriented companies.
• Nikkei 225 is a price-weighted stock market index for the Tokyo Stock Exchange in Japan.
• FTSE 100 comprises the 100 largest companies listed on the London Stock Exchange and represents the UK equity market’s performance.
• DAX is the German stock market index covering 40 major companies trading on the Frankfurt Stock Exchange.
• These indexes serve as barometers for their respective economies and are widely followed by investors globally.
• The indexes represent different sectors and play a critical role in global investment and financial markets.

Additional Information

• NIFTY 50 was launched in 1996 and has become a benchmark for Indian stock market performance.
• NASDAQ was founded in 1971 and includes many tech giants such as Apple, Microsoft, and Amazon.
• Nikkei 225 is widely used to assess the economic health of Japan and reflects market sentiment there.
• FTSE 100 is managed by the FTSE Group, a subsidiary of the London Stock Exchange.
• DAX is considered one of Europe’s most important indices and includes multinational corporations.

The correct answer is 16 digits.

In News

• The Udyam Registration Number (URN) is a 16-digit unique registration number assigned to MSMEs upon registration under the MSME Act, 2006, facilitating access to various government support and schemes.

Key Points

• The URN is generated when an MSME completes registration via the official government portal under the MSME Development Act, 2006.
• The 16-digit URN is a unique digital identification that helps MSMEs avail benefits under various government schemes, loans, and support programs.
• It replaces older registration methods, making processes more transparent, efficient, and accessible to MSMEs nationwide.
• MSMEs with URN can access government subsidies, collateral-free loans, and various other benefits aimed at fostering growth and competitiveness.
• The URN is issued by the Ministry of MSME (MoMSME) and is mandatory for MSMEs seeking government support or participating in formal financial schemes.
• The scheme aims to streamline MSME registration, enhance data accuracy, and promote ease of doing business for small and medium enterprises across India.

Additional Information

• The MSME Scheme promotes digital registration and microenterprise development under the Make in India initiative.
• Having a URN is essential for MSMEs to benefit from government schemes like collateral-free loans, capital subsidies, and export support programs.
• The portal for MSME registration is accessible online, simplifying the process for entrepreneurs and micro-enterprise owners.
• URD plays a pivotal role in data collection, monitoring, and policy formulation for MSME sector growth in India.
• MSME registration under URN also supports tracking and boosting exports, employment, and industrial decentralization.

The correct answer is Environmental sustainability.

In News

• India improved its Logistics Performance Index (LPI) rank to 38th in 2023, up from 44th in 2018, evaluated across six parameters excluding environmental sustainability.

Key Points

• LPI 2023 assesses logistics performance of 139 countries based on six parameters: Customs, Infrastructure, International shipments ease, Logistics competence and quality, Tracking and tracing, and Timeliness.
• India shares the 38th rank with countries like Lithuania, Portugal, Saudi Arabia, and Türkiye.
• The government’s initiatives such as PM Gati Shakti and National Logistics Policy aim to improve multimodal connectivity and logistics efficiency.
• India’s improvements in infrastructure, international shipments, and timeliness contributed significantly to its LPI ranking.
• Customs and border management processes impact the ease and speed of trade logistics evaluated by the LPI.
• Tracking and tracing technology and logistics services quality are important for supply chain reliability.
• Environmental sustainability is not a parameter in the current World Bank LPI assessment.

Additional Information

• The LPI is a biennial report developed by the World Bank to benchmark logistics performance worldwide.
• India’s rise in ranking reflects investments in trade infrastructure, digitalization, and policy reforms.
• Logistics performance is crucial for economic growth, trade competitiveness, and attracting investments.
• PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan and National Logistics Policy are key government initiatives supporting infrastructure and efficiency improvements.

The correct answer is Election Commission of Bhutan.

In News

• The Election Commission of India handed over the chairmanship of the Forum of the Election Management Bodies of South Asia (FEMBoSA) to the Election Commission of Bhutan for the term 2021-22 during the 11th Annual meeting of FEMBoSA.

Key Points

• FEMBoSA was established at the 3rd Conference of Heads of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) of SAARC countries in 2012.
• SAARC comprises eight member states: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• The 11th Annual FEMBoSA meeting was hosted by the Election Commission of Bhutan at Thimphu.
• During this meeting, the chairmanship tenure was extended from one year to two years due to the pandemic situation, adopting the Thimphu Resolution.
• The theme of the meeting was ‘Use of Technology in Elections,’ focusing on making elections more participative, accessible, and transparent, especially considering COVID-19 measures.
• FEMBoSA aims to enhance cooperation among the SAARC election management bodies on areas of common interest.
• The logo of FEMBoSA, with golden pearls, symbolizes values of transparency, impartiality, democracy, and cooperation.

Additional Information

• FEMBoSA serves as a regional forum representing a large democratic population across South Asia.
• The forum facilitates sharing of best practices, capacity building, and mutual support among SAARC election bodies.
• Election Commissions coordinate through FEMBoSA to uphold election standards and transparency in the region.
• Technology has become a key area of focus to improve electoral processes and voter engagement.
• FEMBoSA’s initiatives complement broader SAARC goals of regional cooperation and democracy strengthening.

The correct answer is China.

In News

• China is the largest importer of Indian spices, having imported spices worth US$192.40 million during the financial year 2024-25 (up to June 2024).

Key Points

• India produced 11.14 million tonnes of spices in 2022-23, reflecting steady growth and its dominant role in the global spice market.
• India grows approximately 75 of the 109 ISO-recognized spices varieties, with key spices including chilli, cumin, turmeric, ginger, and coriander.
• Major spice-producing Indian states include Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and others.
• India exports spices to over 200 destinations, with China, USA, Bangladesh, UAE, Malaysia, UK, Thailand, Saudi Arabia, and Germany accounting for over 60% of export earnings.
• China leads as the largest importer for Indian spices valued at US$192.40 million followed by the USA with US$156.32 million, and Bangladesh with US$90.75 million.
• Chilli is India’s top export spice by value, contributing 31% of total spice exports.
• India’s spice industry faces challenges from global competition and quality concerns but continues to innovate and expand with government support.

Additional Information

• India’s spice exports were valued at nearly USD 4.4 billion in the financial year 2023-24.
• Spices infrastructure includes crop-specific Spices Parks facilitating processing, packaging, and quality enhancement.
• The Spices Board of India promotes spice production, standardization, and global marketing.
• India’s diverse agro-climatic zones enable cultivation of a wide range of spices.
• International customers are increasingly drawn to Indian spices for quality, variety, and medicinal benefits.

The correct answer is 66.4 million metric tonnes, with HDC handling 49.54 MMT.

In News

• In FY24, Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata achieved a record cargo handling of 66.4 million metric tonnes, with Haldia Dock Complex setting a record at 49.54 MMT.

Key Points

• SMP Kolkata comprises two main dock systems: Kolkata Dock System (KDS) and Haldia Dock Complex (HDC).
• In FY24, the port handled a total of 66.4 million metric tonnes of cargo, up 1.11% from the previous record.
• HDC handled 49.54 million metric tonnes, setting a new record for cargo processed.
• KDS managed 16.856 million metric tonnes during the same period.
• Financially, SMP Kolkata showed a net surplus of US$ 60.2 million (Rs. 501.73 crore), registering a 65% growth over the previous year.
• The port is focusing on enhancing capacity through Public-Private Partnership projects, with investments worth US$ 57.6 million already awarded.
• Major projects completed in FY24 include drainage network development and energy-efficient infrastructure implementations.

Additional Information

• The port has shown consistent growth and operational efficiency in handling container and bulk cargoes.
• SMP Kolkata supports trade for eastern and northeastern India, including landlocked neighbors like Nepal and Bhutan.
• Strategic focus on sustainability and modern technology is enhancing the port’s competitiveness.
• Public-Private Partnerships are prioritized to expedite infrastructural developments and capacity expansions.
• Leadership at SMP Kolkata credits collective efforts of port employees, stakeholders, and supporting agencies for the port’s success.

The correct answer is ₹500 crore.

In News

• Unlisted public companies with a minimum paid-up capital of ₹500 crore fall under the regulatory purview of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA).

Key Points

• NFRA was formed in 2018 under Section 132(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, to regulate and improve the quality of auditing and financial reporting in India.
• In addition to listed companies, unlisted public companies with paid-up capital of ₹500 crore or more, turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or loans, deposits, and debentures of ₹500 crore or more come under NFRA.
• The authority has powers to investigate professional misconduct of auditors and ensure compliance with accounting and auditing standards.
• NFRA functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and is headquartered in New Delhi.
• This enhances accountability and transparency in corporate financial governance for large companies.
• NFRA’s jurisdiction also extends to banking companies, insurance companies, power companies, and certain subsidiaries of Indian companies abroad.

Additional Information

• NFRA helps bridge audit oversight gaps left by self-regulatory bodies like the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI).
• The authority can impose penalties, issue directions, and debar auditors for professional misconduct.
• By upholding high standards, NFRA promotes investor confidence and strengthens corporate financial discipline.
• Compliance with international standards such as IFRS and ISA is encouraged under NFRA supervision.
• The chairperson of NFRA is appointed by the Central Government and has a fixed tenure or age limit.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Rural Development.

In News

• MKSP is implemented by the Department of Rural Development under the Ministry of Rural Development, focusing on empowering rural women farmers by increasing their participation and productivity in agriculture.

Key Points

• MKSP enhances women’s productive participation in agriculture by providing access to inputs, government schemes, and capacity building.
• It works to create sustainable agriculture-based livelihoods and improves food and nutrition security at household and community levels.
• Women constitute a significant portion of the agricultural workforce but face barriers in accessing extension services, credit, and subsidies, which MKSP aims to reduce.
• The program encourages the formation of women self-help groups (SHGs) and promotes managerial skills for biodiversity and resource management.
• MKSP operates through state rural livelihoods missions and collaborates with NGOs and other stakeholders.
• The mission supports diverse rural activities including crop production, allied agriculture, value addition, and market linkages.

Additional Information

• Women represent about 48% of the agricultural workforce in India, many from marginalized communities.
• MKSP contributes to poverty alleviation and women’s empowerment by addressing gender-specific constraints in agriculture.
• The scheme integrates with larger rural development and livelihood programs to maximize impact.
• Capacity building under MKSP includes training on sustainable farming, financial literacy, and entrepreneurship.
• MKSP has positively impacted income generation and social status of many rural women beneficiaries.

The correct answer is 'Simultaneous, undoing'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses "Deconstruction," which is a philosophical concept by Jacques Derrida, and it refers to a dual process.
• The correct words are "Simultaneous" and "undoing", which capture the essence of deconstruction as a process involving simultaneous affirmation and negation.
• Other options like "Structural, creation" or "Equivocation, contradiction" do not fit the context of the philosophical framework of deconstruction.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Deconstruction is always a double movement of simultaneous affirmation and undoing.

Additional Information

• Structural: Related to the arrangement or organization of parts.
• Equivocation: The use of ambiguous language to conceal the truth or mislead.
• Ambiguity: The quality of being open to more than one interpretation.
• Inconsistencies: Lack of agreement or harmony.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The word "premise" refers to a previous statement or proposition from which another is inferred or follows as a conclusion.
• The word "akin" means similar or related in essence.
• The statement logically fits with the combination of "premise" and "akin" to express that the argument is not logically sound.
• The other options like "argument, profanity," "syllogism, noting," "standard, admitting," and "possibility, unlike" fail to convey the intended logical meaning.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: The premise that the fetus is a human being and killing it is akin to killing a person is not logically sound.

Additional Information

• Argument: Refers to a reason or set of reasons given in support of an idea, but does not fit logically here.
• Syllogism: A form of reasoning in which a conclusion is drawn from two premises, but doesn’t suit the context.
• Standard: Refers to a level of quality or attainment, but it does not relate to the logical soundness of the statement.
• Possibility: Refers to something that may happen or be the case, but is not relevant to the meaning of the statement.

The correct answer is 'Essence, innumerable'.

 

Key Points

• The word "Essence" means the intrinsic nature or indispensable quality of something, especially something abstract, which determines its character (सार).
• History is often viewed as the essence of innumerable biographies, meaning it is the core or foundation derived from countless individual stories.
• The other options: "Boasting," "Distinguished," "Propensity," and "Precipitate" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: History, it had been said, is the essence of innumerable biographies.

Additional Information

• Boasting (घमंड): means talking with excessive pride about oneself or achievements.
• Distinguished (प्रसिद्ध): means famous or celebrated.
• Propensity (प्रवृत्ति): means a natural tendency to behave in a certain way.
• Precipitate (अचानक): means causing something to happen suddenly or prematurely.

The correct answer is 'Option 5'.

 

Key Points

• The word "woken" means to be awakened, but "aroused" is more suitable here as it conveys being stirred or awakened suddenly.
• The word "tramp" refers to the sound of heavy footsteps or hoofs, which fits perfectly in the given context.
• Other options like "trip," "wounds," "courtesy," and "tranquil" do not fit the sentence meaningfully.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 5'.

Complete Sentence: At midnight, however, I was aroused by the tramp of horse's hoofs in the yard.

Additional Information

• Woken: means to be awakened, but doesn't fit the context as strongly as "aroused."
• Trip: means a stumble or fall, which doesn't fit the context.
• Wounds: refers to injuries, which are irrelevant in this sentence.
• Courtesy: refers to politeness, which doesn't align with the context.
• Tranquil: means calm or peaceful, which doesn't describe the situation effectively.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence emphasizes the purpose of reading, which is not to blindly believe or remark, but to weigh and consider.
• Option 4 provides the most meaningful words: "contradict" and "weigh" fit the context appropriately.
• Other options do not align properly with the intent of the statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Read not to contradict, nor to believe, but to weigh and consider.

Additional Information

• Remark: to comment or express an opinion, which is not the intended purpose of reading.
• Trust: to rely on or believe, which does not fully align with the statement's purpose.
• Evaluate: to judge or assess, but it lacks the depth required for the statement.
• Presume: to assume something without proof, which doesn't fit the context.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The word "vegetation" refers to plants or plant life in a particular area. (वनस्पति)
• The word "profusion" means an abundance or large quantity of something. (प्रचुरता)
• Together, "vegetation" and "profusion" appropriately complete the sentence describing the vast and abundant plant life in Brazil.
• The other options do not fit the context as accurately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Brazil, which is nearly as large as the whole of Europe, is covered with a vegetation of incredible profusion.

Additional Information

• Greatness, temptation: These words do not describe plant life and abundance.
• Mantle, custards: "Mantle" refers to a covering, but "custards" is unrelated to the context.
• Government, wealth: These words are unrelated to describing plant life or abundance.
• Impassive, grotesque: These words describe emotions or appearances, not vegetation or abundance.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence states that by conscience and actions of devotion and daring, the subject gained respect and recognition.
• The word "courage" fits well as it aligns with the sense of bravery and daring.
• The word "commended" means praised or recognized, which fits appropriately in the context.
• Other options do not fit the context:
• Compunction: means a feeling of guilt or moral scruple, which is irrelevant here.
• Pusillanimity: means a lack of courage, which contradicts the context.
• Strength: although positive, it does not fit the given sentence.
• Valour: means courage, but "counted" does not make sense in this context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: By conscience and courage, by deeds of devotion and daring, he soon commended himself to his fellows and his officers.

Additional Information

• Compunction: A feeling of guilt or moral scruple.
• Pusillanimity: Lack of courage or determination; timidity.
• Strength: The quality or state of being physically strong.
• Valour: Great courage in the face of danger, especially in battle.

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• The phrase which we should choose to connect the sentences is only 1.
• 'Whereby' means 'by which'. So, the phrase 'Whereby members of' would appropriately connect the sentences.
• 'Whereas' means 'in contrast with the fact'. We should not choose 'whereas' to connect these sentences as no meaningful sentence can be formed.
• 'Which' is used to indicate something which is previously mentioned in a sentence. Clearly, the phrase is incorrect.
  

The sentence after using the phrase is: Social stratification is a kind of social differentiation whereby members of the society are grouped into socioeconomic strata.

Additional Information

Strata: rank or class

Stratification: the arrangement of something into groups

Differentiation: distinction or contrast

The correct answer is option 2), i.e. Call on.

Key Points

The meaning of the phrase call on is to ask for help.

Example: They have called on the neighbours when they saw the thief.

The meaning of the other given phrases:

• Carry over: To continue after a certain point.
• Example: They have carried over the function into the evening because the chief guest could not arrive on time.
• Move over: To adjust one's position
• Example: The teacher told us to move over as we were loitering in the classroom.
• Set out: To begin a journey
• Example: We set out for the station in the morning.

 

Hence, option 2) is the answer.

The correct answer is option 3), i.e. Enter for.

Key Points

• The meaning of the phrase enter for is to join a competition.
• Example: Our school will enter for the inter school debate competition.
• The meaning of the other given phrases:
• End in: To finish in a specific way
• Example: The function ended in a drama.
• Empty out: Remove something
• Example: She emptied out the papers from the bag.
• Edge up: To come near 
• Example: He edged up in front of her mother and told her everything.
• Hence, option 3) is the answer.

The correct answer is option 1), i.e. Put away.

The meaning of the phrase put away is to save or store.

Example: She has a habit of putting away new pens.

The meaning of the other given phrases:

• Put off: Postpone / to make someone not want to do something, or to make someone not like someone or something.
• Example: The school has decided to put off the annual function this year.
• Set up: To arrange
• Example: I have set up the dinner according to my mother's instruction.
• Read over: to read something quickly from the beginning to the end, especially to find mistakes
• Example: I read over her article but could not understand it.

 

Hence, option 1) is the answer.

The correct answer is option 4), i.e. pick out.

The meaning of the phrase pick out is to choose.

Example: Pick out the book you want to buy.

The meaning of the other given options:

• Do over: To repeat
• Example: You will have to do this over as you have made so many mistakes.
• Bring up: To nurture a child
• Example: She was brought up by her uncle.
• Look into: to investigate / to try to find out about something
• Example: The police officer promised us to look into the matter.

 

Hence, option 4) is the answer.

The correct answer is option 2), i.e. Brush off.

The meaning of the phrase brush off is ignore / to refuse to consider what someone says, or to not admit that something may be true or important.

Example: He brushed off the question asked by his friend.

The meaning of the other given phrases:

• Come along: To arrive somewhere
• Example: She has promised to come along tomorrow.
• Fall back: To retreat or withdraw
• Example: They will fall back if they fail to execute the plan.
• Fly at: To attack
• Example: The thief had flown at the man and ran away.

 

Hence, option 2) is the answer.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e Only B.

Key Points

Reading the given sentence and that statements we find that:

• We can see that there is both an advantage(s/he will make more money) and a disadvantage(s/he won't get much time with the family) the speaker will face because of the promotion.
• The phrase 'cut both ways' means (of an action or process) have both good and bad effects.
• Only option B which is Have both good and bad effects and is in accordance with the meaning of the emboldened phrase 'cuts both ways'.

Hence, the correct answer is Only B which is Option 2.

The correct answer is A-H.

Key Points

Let us look at the sentences in the following way:

a. The _____ (A) in emerging markets is hardly ______ (B) as the _______ (C) of monetary policy by the U.S. Federal Reserve has ______ (D) caused the turning of the global credit cycle.

b.  While it is ______ (E) that Electric Vehicles contribute to_______ (F) urban air quality, the government policy should take into account the life-cycle ______ (G) of the product and be _______ (H) to the underlying technology.

• Turbulence: a state of confusion without any order*.* The sentence 'a' talks about the confusion that arises in emerging markets. Thus, 'turbulence' goes perfectly well with the context. Also, the use of 'agnostic' here gives an absurd meaning. Hence, (A) must be swapped.
  
• Agnostic: refers to persons not inclined toward religious belief or a particular form of religious belief*.* Since, we are talking about the governmental policy for Electric vehicles that shouldn't be inclined towards a belief of having an underlying (evident only on close inspection) technology, 'agnostic' fits perfectly well with the context. Hence, (H) must be swapped.

Additional Information

<br>

Meanings of the words given in bold are:

• Surprising: unexpected; of a nature that makes you surprise.
• Tightening: the introduction of rigorous reductions in spending
• Traditionally: as part of a long-established custom, practice, or belief; typically
• Acknowledged: recognized or made known or admitted
• Improving: To raise to a more desirable or more excellent quality or condition; make better

<br>

a. The turbulence (A) in emerging markets is hardly surprising (B) as the tightening (C) of monetary policy by the U.S. Federal Reserve has traditionally (D) caused the turning of the global credit cycle.

<br> <br>

b.  While it is acknowledged (E) that Electric Vehicles contribute to improving (F) urban air quality, the government policy should take into account the life-cycle impact (G) of the product and be agnostic (H) to the underlying technology.

The correct answer is C-G.

Key Points

Let us look at the sentences in the following way:

<br>

a. India is _______ (A) an audit report on data ________ (B) of WhatsApp Inc. to ensure ________ (C) with local rules before permitting a nationwide _______ (D) of the company’s long-delayed payments service.

<br>

b.  Handset makers are ______(E) to launch their first smartphones with ________ (F) screens but analysts warn that the technology is still too ________(G) and expensive to _______(H) consumers in large numbers for now.

• Compliance: the act of obeying an order, rule, or request*.* The sentence 'a' talks about an audit report based on WhatsApp Inc. data practices to comply with the local rules. Thus, 'compliance' goes perfectly well with the context. Hence, (C) must be swapped.
  
• Rudimentary: Being in an early stage of development or having a simple form**.** Since, we know that technology can't be based on a rule, 'compliance' will not go with the context. The sentence 'b' says that the smartphones with folding screens are still thought to be less developed and expensive. Thus, 'rudimentary' fits well with the context. Hence, (G) must be swapped.

Additional Information

<br>

Meanings of the words given in bold are:

• Reviewing: a formal assessment of something with the intention of instituting change if necessary
• Practices: the actual application or use of an idea, belief, or method, as opposed to theories relating to it
• Debut: the occasion when someone performs or presents something to the public for the first time
• Racing: in competition​
• Woo: to try to persuade someone to support you or to use your business

<br>

a. India is reviewing (A) an audit report on data practices (B) of WhatsApp Inc. to ensure compliance (C) with local rules before permitting a nationwide debut (D) of the company’s long-delayed payments service.

<br>

b. Handset makers are racing (E) to launch their first smartphones with folding (F) screens but analysts warn that the technology is still too rudimentary (G) and expensive to woo (H) consumers in large numbers for now.

The correct answer is C-H.

Key Points

Let us look at the sentences in the following way:

a. Three years since voting 52 per cent- 48 per cent to _______(A) the European Union, the United Kingdom is _______(B) towards a possible ________(C) over Brexit as most of the candidates _______(D) to succeed May are prepared to leave on October 31 without a deal.

b. The world can only ________(E) a sigh of relief Trump refused to _______(F) with a military strike despite being reportedly ________(G) on by hard- line advisors like National Security Advisor John Bolton and Secretary of State Mike Pompeo to attack in _________(H) for Iran’s US drone downing.

• Crisis: experiencing a time of great difficulty, danger, or suffering. The sentence 'a' talks about a time of great difficulty that the U.S is going to face or head towards. Thus, 'crisis' fits perfectly well with the context.
• Retaliation: the act of hurting someone or doing something harmful to someone. Since, we imply that the advisors gave the suggestion that USA should attack Iran and they have also 'incited '(to influence someone for an activity of any kind, although it often refers to violent or uncontrolled behavior) the President to do so, 'retaliation' fits perfectly well with the context.

Additional Information

Meanings of the words given in bold are:

• Leave: to go away from someone or something, for a short time or permanently
• Heading: beginning of something; to be in a leading position
• Vying: competing; contending
• Breathe: to move air into and out of the lungs
• Proceed: begin a course of action
• Egged: to urge or influence someone to do something, often something mischievous

 a. Three years since voting 52 per cent- 48 per cent to leave (A) the European Union, the United Kingdom is heading (B) towards a possible crisis (C) over Brexit as most of the candidates vying (D) to succeed May are prepared to leave on October 31 without a deal.

 b. The world can only breathe (E) a sigh of relief Trump refused to proceed (F) with a military strike despite being reportedly egged (G) on by hard- line advisors like National Security Advisor John Bolton and Secretary of State Mike Pompeo to attack in retaliation (H) for Iran’s US drone downing.

The correct answer is option 2), i.e., A-H. 

Explanation 

​Let us look at the sentences in the following way:

a. More than the _________(A) trend, this development shows that the ______  (B) of ‘hope’ that for long was (C) with Chief Minister Nitish Kumar might be (D).

b. The challenges faced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Nigerian President Muhammadu Buhari during their first terms were__________(E) similar: security against terror, monetary and fiscal ______  (F) a communal and sectarian divide, chronic unemployment, rampant corruption, rural distress and a (G) neighbourhood being the__ (H) themes.

• Anti-incumbency: Anti-incumbency is a sentiment in favour of voting out incumbent {(of an official or regime) currently holding office} politicians. 'Anti-incumbency' does not go with 'themes'. 'Anti-incumbency trend' makes perfect sense, and also fits the context of the sentence.
• Recurrent: Occurring often or repeatedly. The challenges mentioned in sentence 'b' are the recurrent themes, as in, they occur repeatedly. So, 'recurrent themes' makes perfect sense, and also fits the context of the sentence.

Therefore, we need to interchange A and H to make the sentences correct.

Additional Information

• Frontier: The extreme limit of understanding or achievement in a particular area.
• Associated: (of a person or thing) connected with something else.
• Crumbling: Breaking or falling apart into small fragments, especially as part of a process of deterioration.
• Uncannily: In a strange or mysterious way, especially one that is unsettling.
• Conundrums: Confusing and difficult problems or questions.
• Fragile: (of an object) easily broken or damaged.

a.  More than the anti-incumbency (A) trend, this development shows that the frontier (B) of ‘hope’ that for long was associated (C) with Chief Minister Nitish Kumar might be crumbling (D). 

<br>

b. The challenges faced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Nigerian President Muhammadu Buhari during their first terms were uncannily (E) similar: security against terror, monetary and fiscal conundrums (F), a communal and sectarian divide, chronic unemployment, rampant corruption, rural distress and a fragile (G) neighbourhood being the recurrent (H) themes. 

The correct answer is S.

Key Points

The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic. The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.

• Here, the second sentence talks about 'translation of something'; so the first sentence must talk about the original version of something. This is only shown by sentence S. So, S must be the first sentence.
• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence. When time-related references are made in the paragraph, close attention must be paid, as they can give clues regarding the order. Here, the first sentence mentions 1818 while the second mentions 'two years later', i.e., 1820. So, out of the remaining two time-related references, 1837, given by P must come first. P also talks about the first English translation, logically tying with the second sentence. So, P must be the third sentence.
• The fifth sentence is given. The fourth, then, must be a preamble to it. Here, no other sentence but the other time-related reference, 1919 can be appropriate, as the fifth also mentions 'since 1919'.  So, Q must be the fourth sentence.
• The sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences. Out of the remaining sentences R and T, R uses the pronoun 'these' to refer to the translations mentioned before while T uses the phrase 'in total', summing up the whole paragraph. So, R must be the sixth sentence while T is the last sentence of the paragraph.

The correct order is SPQRT or S2PQ5RT.

The correct answer is P.

Key Points

The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic. The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.

• Here, the second sentence talks about 'translation of something'; so the first sentence must talk about the original version of something. This is only shown by sentence S. So, S must be the first sentence.
• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence. When time-related references are made in the paragraph, close attention must be paid, as they can give clues regarding the order. Here, the first sentence mentions 1818 while the second mentions 'two years later', i.e., 1820. So, out of the remaining two time-related references, 1837, given by P must come first. P also talks about the first English translation, logically tying with the second sentence. So, P must be the third sentence.
• The fifth sentence is given. The fourth, then, must be a preamble to it. Here, no other sentence but the other time-related reference, 1919 can be appropriate, as the fifth also mentions 'since 1919'.  So, Q must be the fourth sentence.
• The sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences. Out of the remaining sentences R and T, R uses the pronoun 'these' to refer to the translations mentioned before while T uses the phrase 'in total', summing up the whole paragraph. So, R must be the sixth sentence while T is the last sentence of the paragraph.

The correct order is SPQRT or S2PQ5RT.

The correct answer is Q.

Key Points

The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic. The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.

• Here, the second sentence talks about 'translation of something'; so the first sentence must talk about the original version of something. This is only shown by sentence S. So, S must be the first sentence.
• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence. When time-related references are made in the paragraph, close attention must be paid, as they can give clues regarding the order. Here, the first sentence mentions 1818 while the second mentions 'two years later', i.e., 1820. So, out of the remaining two time-related references, 1837, given by P must come first. P also talks about the first English translation, logically tying with the second sentence. So, P must be the third sentence.
• The fifth sentence is given. The fourth, then, must be a preamble to it. Here, no other sentence but the other time-related reference, 1919 can be appropriate, as the fifth also mentions 'since 1919'.  So, Q must be the fourth sentence.
• The sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences. Out of the remaining sentences R and T, R uses the pronoun 'these' to refer to the translations mentioned before while T uses the phrase 'in total', summing up the whole paragraph. So, R must be the sixth sentence while T is the last sentence of the paragraph.

The correct order is SPQRT or S2PQ5RT.

The correct answer is R.

Key Points

The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic. The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.

• Here, the second sentence talks about 'translation of something'; so the first sentence must talk about the original version of something. This is only shown by sentence S. So, S must be the first sentence.
• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence. When time-related references are made in the paragraph, close attention must be paid, as they can give clues regarding the order. Here, the first sentence mentions 1818 while the second mentions 'two years later', i.e., 1820. So, out of the remaining two time-related references, 1837, given by P must come first. P also talks about the first English translation, logically tying with the second sentence. So, P must be the third sentence.
• The fifth sentence is given. The fourth, then, must be a preamble to it. Here, no other sentence but the other time-related reference, 1919 can be appropriate, as the fifth also mentions 'since 1919'.  So, Q must be the fourth sentence.
• The sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences. Out of the remaining sentences R and T, R uses the pronoun 'these' to refer to the translations mentioned before while T uses the phrase 'in total', summing up the whole paragraph. So, R must be the sixth sentence while T is the last sentence of the paragraph.

The correct order is SPQRT or S2PQ5RT.

The correct answer is T.

Key Points

The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic. The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.

• Here, the second sentence talks about 'translation of something'; so the first sentence must talk about the original version of something. This is only shown by sentence S. So, S must be the first sentence.
• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence. When time-related references are made in the paragraph, close attention must be paid, as they can give clues regarding the order. Here, the first sentence mentions 1818 while the second mentions 'two years later', i.e., 1820. So, out of the remaining two time-related references, 1837, given by P must come first. P also talks about the first English translation, logically tying with the second sentence. So, P must be the third sentence.
• The fifth sentence is given. The fourth, then, must be a preamble to it. Here, no other sentence but the other time-related reference, 1919 can be appropriate, as the fifth also mentions 'since 1919'.  So, Q must be the fourth sentence.
• The sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences. Out of the remaining sentences R and T, R uses the pronoun 'these' to refer to the translations mentioned before while T uses the phrase 'in total', summing up the whole paragraph. So, R must be the sixth sentence while T is the last sentence of the paragraph.

The correct order is SPQRT or S2PQ5RT.

The correct answer is option 2 

​

• The theme of the coherent paragraph is about the problem of adopting an incremental approach to safety. it is given in sentence 5 that Every instance of fire brings to the fore the problem of adopting an incremental approach to safety.
• In sentence 1 it is given that ' textbook case of poor attention to fire safety basics and, possibly, the absence of robust fire mitigation technologies..'
• In sentence 3 it is given that 'the unfortunate incident in the central part of a vibrant city has taken the lives of a group of first responders, including four firefighters, a police officer, and some railway staff..' that is further information of sentence 1.
• In sentence 4  it is given that  'a group of personnel lost sight of their own safety and tried to speed up to the top floor of the building in a lift.' It is similar to the theme of sentences 1 and 3.
• In sentence 5  it is given that 'Every instance of fire brings to the fore the problem of adopting an incremental approach to safety.' that is the theme of the coherent paragraph.
• Sentence 2 is talking about asset monetization which is completely different from the coherent paragraph.

Correct option: 'Observing that asset monetization is based on the principle of Value Creation for Government and investors, she said, "Our vision for Infrastructure is ultimate of, for and by our States.' 

The correct answer is option 3 

​

• The theme of the coherent paragraph is about the second phase of the vaccination drive. It is given in sentence 1 that 'the second phase of the vaccination drive, there appears to be palpable enthusiasm among senior citizens, the focus of the exercise.'
• In sentence 1 it is given that 'the second phase of the vaccination drive, there appears to be palpable enthusiasm among senior citizens, the focus of the exercise.'
• In sentence 2 it is given that 'above 60 have been vaccinated so far as have 1.04 lakh over 45 with co-morbidities.' that is further information of sentence 1.
• In sentence 4 is also the further information of second phase vaccination.
• In sentence 5 is also the further information of problems coming in registration of second phase vaccination that is the theme of the coherent paragraph.
• Sentence 3 is talking about FDI policy which is completely different from the coherent paragraph.

Correct option: 'These changes to the FDI policy implied that any foreign direct investment from Bangladesh, China, Pakistan, Nepal, Myanmar, Bhutan, and Afghanistan needed prior government approval, irrespective of the FDI cap applicable to the sector.' 

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage identifies human activities as the primary drivers of increased greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
• Among the mentioned activities, industrial processes are highlighted as a major contributor along with the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation.
• Besides industrial processes, other activities like tourism, space exploration, organic farming, and artisanal mining are not specifically mentioned.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Industrial processes, including manufacturing and chemical production, often involve the combustion of fossil fuels and the release of other harmful emissions.
• Reducing emissions from industrial processes requires the adoption of cleaner technologies and more efficient production methods.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage highlights the increase in extreme weather events as one of the most significant consequences of climate change.
• Examples of extreme weather events mentioned in the passage include hurricanes, heatwaves, and heavy rainfall.
• These events have become more frequent and severe, posing substantial risks to life, property, and economic stability.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• The passage does not emphasize a universal decrease in biodiversity, though it can be a consequence of climate change.
• There is no mention of a reduction in global precipitation levels or universal improvement in agricultural yields due to climate change.
• Improvements in wind pattern stability are not discussed in the context of significant consequences.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• A) They aim to enforce strict penalties on non-compliant countries.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage does not mention anything about enforcing strict penalties on non-compliant countries.
• B) They provide a framework for countries to collaborate on reducing emissions.
• This can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that international agreements like the Paris Agreement aim to unite countries in their efforts to limit global temperature rise and promote resilience against climate-related impacts, which implies collaboration.
• C) They are solely focused on reducing emissions from industrialized countries.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage does not state that international agreements are solely focused on reducing emissions from industrialized countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only B.

 

Additional Information

• Only A: Incorrect because A cannot be inferred from the passage.
• Only C: Incorrect because C cannot be inferred from the passage.
• Both A and B: Incorrect because A cannot be inferred from the passage.
• Both B and C: Incorrect because C cannot be inferred from the passage.

The correct answer is 'displacement'.

 

Key Points

• The word "displacement" refers to the condition of being forced to leave one's home or place. (विस्थापन)
• As sea levels rise, coastal communities may need to relocate, leading to the displacement of millions of people.
• The other options: "death," "pollution," "safety," and "prosperity" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The higher sea levels threaten coastal communities with flooding and displacement of millions of people.

Additional Information

• Death (मृत्यु): the end of life.
• Pollution (प्रदूषण): contamination of the environment.
• Safety (सुरक्षा): the condition of being protected from harm.
• Prosperity (समृद्धि): the state of being successful or thriving.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Statement A: Extreme weather events are becoming more frequent and severe.
• This statement is correct as it aligns with the passage, which states that extreme weather events such as hurricanes, heatwaves, and heavy rainfall have become more frequent and severe.
• Statement B: Climate change does not affect agricultural yields.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage explains that climate change affects agricultural yields due to changes in temperature and precipitation patterns.
• Statement C: Sea-level rise is a consequence of melting polar ice caps and glaciers.
• This statement is correct according to the passage, which states that rising temperatures have caused polar ice caps and glaciers to melt, contributing to sea-level rise.
• Hence, Statement B is identified as incorrect in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only B'

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e., Strengthened.

Key Points

• The word "intensified" refers to making something stronger, more severe, or more extreme. (तेज़ करना)
• Example: The pain in his leg intensified as he continued to walk.
• "Strengthened" means to make or become stronger or more pronounced, which is similar to intensified. (मजबूत किया)
• Example: The new policy strengthened the company's position in the market.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Strengthened.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Weakened (कमज़ोर): Reduced in strength or intensity.
• Example: The storm weakened before reaching the coast.
• Relaxed (आराम से): Made or become less tense or strict.
• Example: She felt relaxed after the long vacation.
• Worsened (बिगड़ना): Made or became worse.
• Example: The patient's condition worsened overnight.
• Lightened (हल्का किया): Made or became lighter in weight, color, or mood.
• Example: The conversation lightened the tense atmosphere.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., Risks.

Key Points

• The word "threats" refers to the possibility of danger, harm, or adverse effects. (खतरे)
• Example: The company faced many threats due to the economic crisis.
• "Risks" means the likelihood of harm or loss; something that creates a possibility of danger. (जोखिम)
• Example: Investing in the stock market carries certain risks.

In the context of the passage, "threats" and "risks" refer to potential harms or dangers related to climate change.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Risks.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Opportunities (अवसर): Favourable circumstances for achieving goals or progress.
• Example: The new job offered many opportunities for growth.
• Benefits (लाभ): Positive outcomes or advantages.
• Example: Regular exercise has many health benefits.
• Comforts (सुविधाएँ): Things that contribute to physical ease and well-being.
• Example: The hotel provided all the comforts of home.
• Assurances (आश्वासन): Statements or indications that inspire confidence or certainty.
• Example: He gave assurances that the project would be completed on time.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Metals are typically characterized by their malleability, defined as the capability to be shaped or formed by hammering or pressure.
• Other common properties of metals include ductility, good conductivity of heat and electricity, and a lustrous surface.
• The passage mentions that metals exhibit distinct physical properties such as malleability, which is not shared with nonmetals or metalloids.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: Metals, which comprise the majority of known elements, are typically characterised by their lustre, malleability, ductility, and excellent conductivity of heat and electricity.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Brittleness) is incorrect because brittleness is not a characteristic of metals; it's a trait more commonly associated with nonmetals.
• Option 2 (Poor conductivity of heat) is incorrect because metals are known for their excellent conductivity of heat.
• Option 4 (Non-reactivity) is incorrect as metals can be highly reactive, but this is not a typical defining characteristic.
• Option 5 (Non-lustrous surface) is incorrect because metals typically have a lustrous surface.

The correct answer is Option 5.

 

Key Points

• The passage specifically mentions that metalloids often serve as semiconductors in electronic devices.
• Metalloids, such as silicon and arsenic, possess properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals, making them suitable for semiconductor applications.
• The context of their use in electronic devices highlights their importance in the semiconductor industry.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 5.

 

Correct Sentence: Metalloids possess properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals and often serve as semiconductors in electronic devices.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Electrical wiring) is incorrect because copper is mentioned for electrical wiring, which is a metal, not a metalloid.
• Option 2 (Medical imaging) is incorrect because technetium, a synthetic element, is used in medical imaging, not metalloids.
• Option 3 (Pesticide production) is incorrect because fluorine, a nonmetal, is used in pesticide production, not metalloids.
• Option 4 (Lighting systems) is incorrect because noble gases, such as helium and neon, are used in lighting systems due to their inertness.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Dmitri Mendeleev is credited with developing the periodic table in 1869 as stated in the passage.
• The periodic table is a systematic arrangement of elements based on their atomic number, electron configurations, and recurring chemical properties.
• This development was a significant advancement in the field of chemistry.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The periodic table, developed by Dmitri Mendeleev in 1869, represents a systematic arrangement of elements based on their atomic number, electron configurations, and recurring chemical properties."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Discovery of synthetic elements) is incorrect because the discovery of synthetic elements is attributed to advances in scientific research and nuclear reactions, not specifically to Mendeleev.
• Option 2 (Invention of particle accelerators) is incorrect because particle accelerators were developed much later for the purpose of delving deeper into atomic and subatomic properties.
• Option 4 (Discovery of the electron) is incorrect as the electron was discovered by J.J. Thomson, not Mendeleev.
• Option 5 (Creation of spectroscopy techniques) is incorrect because spectroscopy techniques were developed over time with contributions from various scientists and are not specifically attributed to Mendeleev.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Statement A: Research has shown that elements have numerous applications in everyday life and industry.
• This statement is correct as it accurately reflects the context provided in the passage.
• Statement B: Silicon and arsenic are examples of nonmetals.
• The passage states that silicon and arsenic are metalloids, not nonmetals, so this statement is incorrect.
• Statement C: The noble gases are used in lighting and cooling systems due to their chemical reactivity.
• The passage mentions that noble gases are used in lighting and cooling systems because of their inertness, not their chemical reactivity, so this statement is also incorrect.
• Hence, Statements B and C are identified as incorrect in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘B and C'

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Statement A: Metalloids exhibit properties that are intermediate between metals and nonmetals.
• This statement is correct as it accurately describes the nature of metalloids as mentioned in the passage.
• Statement B: The periodic table is arranged based on elements' electron configurations and atomic weights.
• The passage states that the periodic table is based on atomic number, electron configurations, and recurring chemical properties, not atomic weights. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
• Statement C: Copper's high reactivity makes it valuable for electrical wiring.
• The passage mentions the exceptional conductivity of copper, not its high reactivity, as the reason for its use in electrical wiring. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
• Hence, Statement A is identified as correct in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only A'

The correct answer is 'conductivity'.

 

Key Points

• The word "conductivity" refers to the ability of a material to conduct electricity. (चालकता)
• Copper is widely used for electrical wiring due to its excellent conductivity.
• The other options: "malleability," "reactivity," "ductility," and "lustre" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: For instance, the exceptional conductivity of copper makes it invaluable for electrical wiring.

Additional Information

• Malleability (तन्यकता): refers to the ability of a material to be shaped or formed.
• Reactivity (प्रतिक्रियाशीलता): refers to the tendency of a substance to undergo chemical reactions.
• Ductility (नम्यता): refers to the ability of a material to be stretched into a wire.
• Lustre (चमक): refers to the way light interacts with the surface of a material.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e., Crucial.

Key Points

• The word "pivotal" means of crucial importance in relation to the development or success of something. (महत्वपूर्ण)
• Example: Her contributions were pivotal to the success of the project.
• "Crucial" refers to something that is extremely important and critical for the success or failure of something. (निर्णायक)
• Example: The meeting will be crucial for the future of the company.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Crucial.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Secondary (माध्यमिक): Coming after, less important than, or resulting from someone or something else that is primary.
• Example: Her role in the project was secondary to that of the team leader.
• Incidental (आकस्मिक): Occurring by chance in connection with something else, but not essential.
• Example: The discovery was incidental to his main research.
• Peripheral (परिधीय): Relating to or situated on the edge or periphery; not of central importance.
• Example: The issue is peripheral to the main discussion.
• Unimportant (महत्वहीन): Lacking significance or value; not important.
• Example: The details were unimportant in the overall context of the situation.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., Flexibility.

Key Points

• The word "malleability" refers to the quality of being able to be shaped, bent, or twisted without breaking. (नमनीयता)
• Example: The malleability of clay allows it to be moulded into various shapes.
• "Flexibility" means the ability to bend easily without breaking, which is similar to malleability. (लचीलापन)
• Example: Flexibility in a plastic material makes it ideal for many construction applications.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Flexibility.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Brittleness (भंगुरता): The tendency to break or shatter easily.
• Example: The brittleness of glass makes it prone to breaking.
• Hardness (कठोरता): The quality or condition of being hard.
• Example: The hardness of diamonds makes them suitable for cutting tools.
• Rigidity (कठोरता): The inability to be bent or be altered in shape.
• Example: Rigidity of steel beams ensures the structural integrity of buildings.
• Conductivity (चालकता): The ability to conduct heat or electricity.
• Example: Copper's conductivity makes it a preferred material for electrical wiring.

Shortcut Trick

Age difference between A and B is always (a + 4) − a = 4 years.

4 years ago, ratio was 6 : 7. Difference 1 unit = 4 years ⇒ A = 24, B = 28.

Present ages: A = 28, B = 32, C = 32 + 10 = 42.

Average of A, B, C, D is 40 ⇒ Total = 160. D = 160 − (28 + 32 + 42) = 58.

Ratio B:C, (32 − x)/(42 − x) = 3/4 ⇒ 128 − 4x = 126 − 3x ⇒ x = 2.

D 4x years ago (8 years ago) = 58 − 8 = 50 years.

∴ The correct answer is 50 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Present age A = a, B = a + 4, C = B + 10.

⇒ 4 years ago: (a − 4) / (a + 4 − 4) = 6 / 7

⇒ 7(a − 4) = 6a ⇒ 7a − 28 = 6a ⇒ a = 28.

⇒ Present Ages: A = 28, B = 32, C = 42.

⇒ Age of B and C x years ago: (32 − x) / (42 − x) = 3 / 4

⇒ 128 − 4x = 126 − 3x ⇒ x = 2.

⇒ Total present age = 40 × 4 = 160 years.

⇒ Age of D = 160 − (28 + 32 + 42) = 160 − 102 = 58 years.

⇒ Age of D 4x years (4 × 2 = 8 years) ago = 58 − 8 = 50 years.

∴ The correct answer is 50 years.

Additional Information

Ratio and Age Difference

The numerical difference between the ages of two persons remains constant at any point in time.

Average Age Concept

Total age = Average Age × Number of persons. If everyone's age increases by 'n' years, the average also increases by 'n'.

General solution:

Given:

 

Calculations:

June 2023 = 8,000 ⇒ July 2023 = 8,000 × 1.25 = 10,000

June 2022 = 6,000 ⇒ July 2022 = 6,000 × 0.80 = 4,800

Total (July 2022 + July 2023) = 4,800 + 10,000 = 14,800

Hence, the correct answer is 14,800.

General solution:

Given:

 

Calculations:

Feb 2022 revenue = 6,000 × 500 = ₹3,000,000

Apr 2022 revenue = 7,000 × 500 = ₹3,500,000

Feb 2023 revenue = 4,000 × 600 = ₹2,400,000

Apr 2023 revenue = 6,000 × 600 = ₹3,600,000

Total revenue = 3,000,000 + 3,500,000 + 2,400,000 + 3,600,000 = ₹12,500,000

Hence, the correct answer is ₹12,500,000.

General solution:

Given:

Calculations:

Total 2022 (Jan–Jun) = 4,000 + 6,000 + 5,000 + 7,000 + 8,000 + 6,000 = 36,000

Average 2022 = 36,000 / 6 = 6,000

Total 2023 (Jan–Jun) = 5,000 + 4,000 + 7,000 + 6,000 + 9,000 + 8,000 = 39,000

Average 2023 = 39,000 / 6 = 6,500

Difference = 6,500 − 6,000 = 500

Hence, the correct answer is 500.

General solution:

Given:

 

Calculations:

Jan: 2023 (5,000) > 2022 (4,000) ⇒ 2023 greater

Feb: 2022 (6,000) > 2023 (4,000) ⇒ 2022 greater

Mar: 2023 (7,000) > 2022 (5,000) ⇒ 2023 greater

Apr: 2022 (7,000) > 2023 (6,000) ⇒ 2022 greater

May: 2023 (9,000) > 2022 (8,000) ⇒ 2023 greater

Jun: 2023 (8,000) > 2022 (6,000) ⇒ 2023 greater

Counts → 2022 > 2023 : 2 months (Feb, Apr). 2023 > 2022 : 4 months (Jan, Mar, May, Jun).

Hence, the correct answer is 2, 4.

General solution:

Given:

 

Calculations:

Sum (Mar–May 2023) = 7,000 + 6,000 + 9,000 = 22,000

Sum (Mar–May 2022) = 5,000 + 7,000 + 8,000 = 20,000

Increase = 22,000 − 20,000 = 2,000

Percentage increase = (2,000 / 20,000) × 100 = 10.00%

Hence, the correct answer is 10.00%.

Shortcut Trick

Equating total work: (P + Q) × 10d = (1.5P + 0.75Q) × 8d

⇒ 10P + 10Q = 12P + 6Q ⇒ 2P = 4Q ⇒ P : Q = 2 : 1

Since P takes 20 hr, Q takes 20 × (2/1) = 40 hr. Then R takes 40 − 10 = 30 hr.

P + R time = (20 × 30) ÷ (20 + 30) = 600 ÷ 50 = 12 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 12 hr.

Alternate Method

Given: P takes 20 hr. Work done in Case 1 = (P + Q) × 10d. Case 2 = (1.5P + 0.75Q) × 8d.

⇒ 10dP + 10dQ = 12dP + 6dQ

⇒ 4dQ = 2dP ⇒ P = 2Q

⇒ Since Time ∝ 1/Efficiency, Time taken by Q = 2 × Time taken by P = 2 × 20 = 40 hr.

⇒ Time taken by R = 40 − 10 = 30 hr.

⇒ Total Work = LCM(20, 30) = 60 units.

⇒ Efficiency of P = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units/hr.

⇒ Efficiency of R = 60 ÷ 30 = 2 units/hr.

⇒ Combined Efficiency (P + R) = 3 + 2 = 5 units/hr.

⇒ Time taken by P and R together = 60 ÷ 5 = 12 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 12 hr.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If the ratio of efficiencies of two people is x : y, the ratio of time taken by them is y : x.

Combined Work Formula

If person A takes 'a' hours and person B takes 'b' hours, they together complete the work in (a × b) ÷ (a + b) hours.

Work Invariance Principle

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. When the same work is done with different efficiencies, (E₁ × T₁) = (E₂ × T₂).

I: 14x2 + 21x - 10x - 15 = 0

⇒ 7x(2x + 3) - 5(2x + 3) = 0

⇒ (2x + 3) × (7x - 5) = 0

⇒ x = -3/2, 5/7

II: 20y2 - 31y + 12 = 0

⇒ 20y2 - 15y - 16y + 12 = 0

⇒ 5y(4y - 3) - 4(4y - 3) = 0

⇒ (5y - 4) × (4y - 3) = 0

⇒ y = 4/5, 3/4

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∴ x < y

Shortcut Trick

I. x2 + 74x – 480= 0

There are three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of x2, 'b' = Value of x, 'c' = 480

'c' is negative here.   

II. y2 + 64y – 1280 = 0

There are also three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of y2, 'b' = Value of y, 'c' = 1280

'c' is also negative here.

If the value of 'c' is negative in both statements, then the answer always is "x = y or the relation between x and y can’t be established."

The basic and conventional method is given below:

Given:

I. x2 + 74x – 480= 0       

II. y2 + 64y – 1280 = 0

Calculation:

I. x2 + 74x – 480= 0       

⇒ x² + 80x – 6x – 480 = 0

⇒ x(x + 80) – 6(x + 80) = 0

⇒ (x + 80)(x – 6) = 0

⇒ x = (-80), 6    

II. y2 + 64y – 1280 = 0

⇒ y² + 80y – 16y – 1280 = 0

⇒ y(y + 80) – 16(y + 80) = 0

⇒ (y + 80)(y – 16) = 0

⇒ y = (-80), 16

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When we compared the values of X and Y in the table above, we found that there are THREE relations between X and Y i.e. >, = and <. So, a relation cannot be defined.

∴ After comparison all the values of x and y, the relation is “x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.”

Given:

I. 4x² – 17x + 15 = 0

II. 3y² + 13y - 38 = 0

Calculation:

From I,

4x² – 17x + 15 = 0

⇒ 4x² – 12x - 5x + 15 = 0

⇒ 4x(x - 3) - 5(x - 3) = 0

⇒ (x - 3)(4x - 5) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (x - 3) = 0 or  (4x - 5) = 0

⇒ x = 3 or (5/4)

From II,

3y² + 13y - 38 = 0

⇒ 3y² + 19y - 6y - 38 = 0

⇒ y(3y + 19) - 2(3y + 19) = 0

⇒ (y - 2)(3y + 19) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (y - 2) = 0 or (3y + 19) = 0

⇒ y = 2 or (-19/3)

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

 

∴ x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

I. $(625)^\frac{{1}}{{4}} x + \sqrt{{1225}} = 155$

⇒ $(5^4)^\frac{{1}}{{4}} x + 35 = 155$

⇒ 5x = 155 – 35 ⇒ 5x = 120

⇒ $x=\frac{{120}}{{5}} = 24$

II. $\sqrt{{196}} y + 13 = 279$

⇒ 14y = 279 – 13 = 266

⇒ $y = \frac{{266}}{{14}} = 19$

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

∴ Clearly x > y