SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 10 April 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Indonesia.

In News

• On January 6, 2025, Brazil, as the BRICS chair for 2025, announced that Indonesia has joined BRICS as its 10^th full member.
• Indonesia, the world's fourth-most populous nation, joins BRICS to enhance its role in global economic and political cooperation.
• Brazil's presidency theme for 2025 is “Enhancing Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance.”

Key Points

• Indonesia officially became the 10^th full member of BRICS on January 6, 2025.
• Brazil, the BRICS chair for 2025, made the announcement.
• Indonesia’s inclusion aligns with BRICS' objective of strengthening cooperation among developing nations.
• BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) is expanding to include more emerging economies.

Additional Information

• BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa)
• Founded in 2009 as BRIC; South Africa joined in 2010.
• Represents major emerging economies.
• Focuses on economic cooperation, trade, and polit

The correct answer is Faiz Ahmed Kidwai.

In News

• On January 3, 2025, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) appointed Faiz Ahmed Kidwai, a 1996-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer from the Madhya Pradesh (MP) cadre, as the Director General (DG) of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).

Key Points

• Faiz Ahmed Kidwai has been appointed as the Director General (DG) of DGCA under the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).
• He is a 1996-batch IAS officer from the Madhya Pradesh cadre.
• He succeeded Vikram Dev Dutt, a 1993-batch IAS officer, who was appointed as the Secretary in the Ministry of Coal (MoC) in October 2024.
• Since Vikram Dev Dutt’s appointment, Dinesh Chand Sharma, Joint DG of DGCA, held the additional charge of DG.
• The appointment is part of a senior-level bureaucratic reshuffle by the Government of India.

Additional Information

• Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
• The regulatory body for civil aviation in India under the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).
• Responsible for air safety, aviation regulations, and licensing of pilots and aircraft maintenance personnel.
• Faiz Ahmed Kidwai
• A 1996-batch IAS officer from the Madhya Pradesh cadre.
• Appointed as the Director General of DGCA effective from January 3, 2025.
• Vikram Dev Dutt
• Former DG of DGCA, now serving as the Secretary in the Ministry of Coal (MoC) since October 2024.
• Dinesh Chand Sharma
• Held the additional charge of DG of DGCA after Vikram Dev Dutt’s appointment in the Ministry of Coal.
• Served as the Joint DG of DGCA prior to Faiz Ahmed Kidwai’s appointment.
• Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
• Responsible for the appointment of key bureaucratic positions in the Government of India.
• Chaired by the Prime Minister of India with key ministers as members.

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 .

In News

• India became the world’s 7^th largest coffee-producing country in FY24, with exports reaching USD 1.29 billion.
• Italy, Belgium, and Russia were revealed as top buyers of Indian coffee in January 2025.

Key Points

• India’s coffee production is concentrated in the ecologically rich Western and Eastern Ghats.
• Karnataka is the leading coffee-producing state, contributing 2,48,020 Metric Tonnes (MT) in 2022-23, followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• Indian coffee is renowned globally, boosting its demand in international markets.

Additional Information

• Coffee Production Highlights
• India achieved significant growth in coffee exports, rising from USD 719.42 million in FY21 to USD 1.29 billion in FY24.
• The Western and Eastern Ghats offer ideal conditions for growing high-quality coffee.
• Major Importers of Indian Coffee
• Italy, Belgium, and Russia are key consumers of Indian coffee.
• Leading Coffee-Producing States
• Karnataka ranks first, followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu in terms of production in 2022-23.

The correct answer is Saljhandi, Nepal.

In News

• The 18^th edition of the Battalion Level Joint Military Exercise ‘Surya Kiran’ commenced in Saljhandi, Nepal.
• The exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 31^st December 2024 to 13^th January 2025.
• ‘Surya Kiran’ aims to strengthen India-Nepal defence cooperation and enhance the professional skills of Indian Army (IA) and Nepal Army (NA) personnel.

Key Points

• The 18^th edition of the India-Nepal military exercise ‘Surya Kiran’ is being held in Saljhandi, Nepal.
• The exercise runs from 31^st December 2024 to 13^th January 2025.
• ‘Surya Kiran’ is a bilateral exercise focused on counter-insurgency, disaster relief, and humanitarian assistance.
• The previous (17^th) edition was held in Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, India, from 24^th November to 7^th December 2023.

Additional Information

• India-Nepal Military Exercise ‘Surya Kiran’
• Held annually in India and Nepal on a rotational basis.
• Focuses on counter-terrorism operations, disaster relief, and joint military training.
• Nepal Army (NA)
• Founded in - 1762
• Headquarters - Kathmandu, Nepal
• Commander-in-Chief - General Prabhu Ram Sharma
• Indian Army (IA)
• Founded in - 1895
• Headquarters - New Delhi, India
• Chief of Army Staff (COAS) - Upendra Dwivedi

The correct answer is Pushpak Bhattacharya.

In News

• In December 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted an 8-member committee to create a framework for the ethical and responsible use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in the financial sector.

Key Points

• The committee is officially named the Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of AI (FREE-AI).
• It consists of 8 members, including experts from academia and industry.
• The committee is chaired by Pushpak Bhattacharya, a professor from the Department of Computer Science and Engineering at IIT Bombay, Mumbai.
• The initiative reflects RBI’s focus on governance, transparency, and ethical concerns in the use of AI technologies in the financial ecosystem.

Additional Information

• Artificial Intelligence in Finance
• AI is used for fraud detection, risk assessment, algorithmic trading, and customer service.
• Raises concerns around data privacy, algorithmic bias, and accountability.
• Pushpak Bhattacharya
• Professor at IIT Bombay’s Department of Computer Science and Engineering
• Expert in Natural Language Processing and Artificial Intelligence
• RBI’s Role in AI Governance
• Focuses on building a secure, transparent, and ethical AI framework in finance
• Encourages regulated entities to adopt AI responsibly
• FREE-AI Framework
• Aims to define principles and policies for AI adoption in financial services
• Will address fairness, privacy, security, and explainability of AI systems

The correct answer is 18 to 70 years.

In News

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi is set to launch LIC's Bima Sakhi Yojana and lay the foundation stone of Maharana Pratap Horticultural University in Haryana.

Key Points

• The Bima Sakhi Yojana targets women aged 18 to 70 years who have passed Class X.
• The program aims to provide financial literacy and insurance awareness training.
• Participants will receive a stipend during a three-year training period.
• Trained participants can work as LIC agents and may qualify for Development Officer roles.

Additional Information

• Bima Sakhi Yojana: An initiative by LIC aimed at empowering women through skill development and employment opportunities.
• Eligibility: Women aged 18 to 70 years with a minimum education of Class X are eligible for this program.
• Horticultural University: Maharana Pratap Horticultural University will focus on crop diversification and advanced research in horticulture.
• LIC: India’s largest life insurer, actively promoting community empowerment and financial inclusion through such initiatives.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• On January 2, 2025, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) announced the recipients of the National Sports Awards 2024.
• The awards will be conferred on 47 sportspersons, coaches, entities, and universities under 6 categories on 17^th January 2025 by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi.
• The selection committee was headed by Justice (Retd.) V Ramasubramanian of the Supreme Court, along with eminent sports persons, sports journalists, and sports administrators.

Key Points

• The National Sports Awards 2024 will recognize outstanding achievements in sports and will be presented on 17^th January 2025.
• The awards will be conferred by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, not the Prime Minister as incorrectly mentioned in statement 2.
• The selection committee was chaired by Justice (Retd.) V Ramasubramanian of the Supreme Court of India.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 Recipients
• Gukesh D - Chess
• Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey
• Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics
• Manu Bhaker - Shooting
• National Sports Awards Categories
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
• Arjuna Award
• Dronacharya Award
• Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy
• Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar
• Role of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS)
• Responsible for promoting sports development and excellence across India.
• Organizes the National Sports Awards annually to recognize outstanding achievements in sports.
• Significance of the National Sports Awards
• Encourages sportsmanship and motivates athletes to achieve excellence.
• Recognizes contributions from coaches, sportspersons, and institutions.

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

In News

• On January 27, 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced liquidity measures to inject Rs 1.5 lakh crore into the banking system.
• This move addresses liquidity deficit due to dollar selling operations aimed at stabilizing the Indian Rupee.

Key Points

• RBI will purchase Government Securities (G-secs) through Open Market Operations (OMO) worth Rs 60,000 crore.
• The purchases will occur in three tranches of Rs 20,000 crore each.
• A 56-day Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction of Rs 50,000 crore is scheduled on February 7, 2025.
• The total liquidity infusion aims to address shortfall and maintain banking sector stability.

Additional Information

• Open Market Operations (OMO)
• Refers to the RBI buying/selling government securities to control liquidity
• Purchases inject liquidity; sales absorb it
• Variable Rate Repo (VRR)
• A tool used to manage short-term liquidity in the banking system
• Allows banks to borrow funds at variable interest rates
• Liquidity Management
• Essential to ensure sufficient funds in the banking system
• Helps control inflation, interest rates, and support credit flow

The correct answer is Ministry of Defence.

In News

• On January 1, 2025, the Ministry of Defence (MoD) declared 2025 as the "Year of Reforms" with the objective of transforming the tri-services into a technologically advanced, combat-ready force capable of multi-domain integrated operations.

Key Points

• The decision was unanimously taken during a meeting chaired by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, reviewing various schemes, projects, and reforms.
• The MoD has set a target to achieve defence exports worth Rs 50,000 crore by 2029, significantly higher than the Rs 21,000 crore achieved in the Financial Year 2023-24.
• The reforms aim to establish integrated theatre commands to enhance tri-service synergy and operational efficiency.
• Focus areas include modernization of the armed forces, streamlining procurement processes, and developing capabilities in cyber and space domains.

Additional Information

• Integrated Theatre Commands
• These are unified commands combining resources of the Army, Navy, and Air Force to enhance jointness and operational effectiveness.
• The establishment of such commands is a key component of the ongoing military reforms.
• Defence Export Targets
• India's defence exports have seen a significant rise, reaching Rs 21,000 crore in FY 2023-24.
• The MoD aims to further increase exports to Rs 50,000 crore by 2029, promoting self-reliance and positioning India as a global defence exporter.
• Modernization Initiatives
• Emphasis on adopting advanced technologies such as artificial intelligence, machine learning, hypersonics, and robotics.
• Streamlining defence acquisition procedures to ensure timely procurement of state-of-the-art equipment.
• Focus on Cyber and Space Domains
• Recognizing the evolving nature of warfare, the reforms include developing robust capabilities in cyber and space operations.
• Establishing dedicated agencies and frameworks to address threats and challenges in these domains.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• West Bengal has a rich history in football and has been a dominant force in the Santosh Trophy, India's premier state-level football competition.
• The state has produced numerous talented footballers who have represented both the state and the country at various levels.
• West Bengal's football culture is deeply rooted, with significant contributions from renowned clubs like Mohun Bagan, East Bengal, and Mohammedan Sporting.
• The state has multiple stadiums and training facilities that support the growth and development of football talent.
• Winning the Santosh Trophy in 2025 further solidifies West Bengal's status as a powerhouse in Indian football.

Additional Information

• Kerala
• Kerala is another state with a strong football culture and has won the Santosh Trophy multiple times in the past.
• Known for its passionate football fans and well-established football clubs.
• Tamil Nadu
• While not as dominant as West Bengal or Kerala, Tamil Nadu has been steadily improving its football infrastructure and player development.
• Hosts various state-level football leagues and tournaments to nurture local talent.
• Punjab
• Punjab has a rich football history and has also won the Santosh Trophy several times.
• Known for producing physically strong and technically skilled players.
• Goa
• Goa is famous for its football fervor and has a vibrant football scene with clubs like FC Goa participating in the Indian Super League (ISL).
• Has a well-developed grassroots football program to identify and nurture young talent.

The correct answer is Kerala and Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Kerala and Uttarakhand achieved scores higher than 80 in eight Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) in 2025.
• SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015 for the year 2030, aiming to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all.
• Kerala has consistently performed well in various social indicators such as health, education, and gender equality, contributing to its high SDG scores.
• Uttarakhand has made significant strides in achieving targets related to clean water and sanitation, affordable and clean energy, and climate action, leading to its strong performance in the SDG index.
• The achievement reflects the effective implementation of state policies and programs targeted at sustainable development in both states.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Located in southern India.
• Known for its rich cultural heritage and strong emphasis on education and healthcare.
• Gujarat
• Located on the western coast of India.
• Famous for its economic growth and industrialization.
• Maharashtra
• India's second-most populous state and third-largest by area.
• Home to Mumbai, the financial capital of India.
• Punjab
• Located in the northern part of India.
• Known for its agricultural productivity.
• Haryana
• Located in northern India, surrounding the national capital, Delhi, on three sides.
• Known for its rapid industrialization and urbanization.

The correct answer is 16^th January 2025

In News

• Lokpal Day was celebrated annually on January 16, marking the establishment of the Lokpal of India on January 16, 2014.

Key Points

• The first Lokpal Day celebration was observed on January 16, 2025, at the Zorawar Auditorium, Manekshaw Centre, Delhi Cantt, New Delhi.
• Hon’ble Chief Justice of India Shri Justice Sanjiv Khanna presided as the Chief Guest.
• Shri Justice A. M. Khanwilkar, the second Chairperson of Lokpal, and six other members currently constitute the Lokpal.

Additional Information

• Lokpal
• Establishment: The Lokpal was established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 to investigate and address corruption allegations against public officials.
• Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of the Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament, officers of Group A, B, C, D, and Central Government officials.
• Structure:
• The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of 8 members.
• Out of the 8 members, 4 judicial members and 4 non-judicial members are appointed.
• The members are appointed by the President based on recommendations from a selection committee.
• Selection Committee: The selection committee comprises:
• Prime Minister
• Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
• Chief Justice of India or a nominated judge
• A distinguished jurist.
• Tenure: The tenure of the Lokpal Chairperson and members is 5 years or until they reach the age of 70 years, whichever comes first

The correct answer is BAANKNET.

In News

• Nagaraju Maddirala, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services (DFS), launched the revamped e-auction portal ‘Bank Asset Auction Network (BAANKNET)’ on January 3, 2025, in New Delhi.

Key Points

• The e-auction portal is named Bank Asset Auction Network (BAANKNET), launched to streamline property auctions for Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
• The portal was officially launched on January 3, 2025, in New Delhi.
• It serves as a one-stop destination for buyers and investors, enabling them to explore assets and participate in property e-auctions easily.
• Training sessions were conducted for PSB executives and Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) recovery officers to ensure effective use of the portal.

Additional Information

• Department of Financial Services (DFS)
• Part of the Ministry of Finance (MoF), Government of India.
• Responsible for policies related to banking, insurance, and financial institutions.
• Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT)
• Established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
• Handles cases related to recovery of debts exceeding a specified limit for banks and financial institutions.
• Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
• Banks where the majority stake is held by the Government of India.
• Examples include State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank (PNB), etc.
• Property E-Auction Portals
• Digital platforms facilitating the auction of immovable properties for loan recovery.
• Enhance transparency, efficiency, and accessibility for potential buyers.

The correct answer is ₹5 crore.

Key Points

• The state of Odisha has emerged as a prominent supporter of various sports in India, including Kho Kho.
• Odisha has a track record of backing sports events financially, aiming to promote and develop the sports culture within the state and nationwide.
• For the Kho Kho league, the sponsorship amount provided by Odisha was Rs. 5 crore annually and Rs. 15 crore in total.
• This financial support is part of Odisha's broader strategy to nurture talent and provide better infrastructure for sports.
• The backing of the Kho Kho league reflects the state's commitment to promoting indigenous sports and giving them a platform for national recognition.

Additional Information

• Odisha's Sports Initiatives:
• Odisha has been at the forefront of sports development in India, hosting several national and international events.
• The state has developed world-class facilities, like the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar.
• Kho Kho League:
• The Kho Kho League is part of efforts to popularize traditional Indian sports.
• The league aims to provide a professional platform for athletes to showcase their skills.
• Sponsorship Impact:
• Sponsorships help in providing necessary financial support for organizing events and training athletes.
• It also aids in enhancing the visibility and popularity of lesser-known sports.

The correct answer is Overnight**.**

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the Secured Overnight Rupee Rate (SORR) as a new benchmark.
• SORR is derived from secured money market transactions, including basket repo and triparty repo (TREP).
• Its primary aim is to either replace or complement the Mumbai Interbank Outright Rate (MIBOR).
• The benchmark improves transparency in the interest rate derivatives market by using actual trade data instead of poll-based rates.
• This initiative aligns with international standards like the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR).

The correct answer is The Brutalist.

Key Points

• The Golden Globe Awards are presented annually by the Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA).
• The Golden Globe Award for Best Drama Film is one of the most prestigious awards in the film industry.
• Winning this award often signifies high critical acclaim and can influence other major awards, such as the Oscars.
• The Brutalist is a film that has been recognized for its outstanding storytelling, direction, and performances, contributing to its win.
• The film's win at the Golden Globes highlights its impact and significance in contemporary cinema.

Additional Information

• The Revenant
• The Revenant is a 2015 American epic survival drama film directed by Alejandro González Iñárritu.
• The film stars Leonardo DiCaprio and Tom Hardy and was praised for its cinematography and DiCaprio's performance.
• 1917
• 1917 is a 2019 British war film directed and produced by Sam Mendes.
• The movie is known for its unique filming style, simulating a continuous single take.
• Dune
• Dune is a 2021 American epic science fiction film directed by Denis Villeneuve.
• The film is an adaptation of the 1965 novel of the same name by Frank Herbert.
• The Godfather
• The Godfather is a 1972 American crime film directed by Francis Ford Coppola.
• Widely regarded as one of the greatest films of all time, it stars Marlon Brando and Al Pacino.

The correct answer is ₹300 crore.

In News

• RBI maintained the ₹300 crore Net Owned Fund requirement for Infrastructure Finance Companies (IFCs) in its January 2025 guidelines.

Key Points

• Infrastructure Finance Companies must maintain minimum Net Owned Funds of ₹300 crore.
• This requirement has been in effect since RBI's 2021-22 regulatory framework for NBFCs.
• NOF includes paid-up equity capital, free reserves, and other disclosed reserves.
• IFCs must also maintain a Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15%.

Additional Information

• About IFCs
• Special category of NBFCs financing infrastructure projects
• Minimum 75% of total assets must be in infrastructure loans
• Examples: REC Limited, PFC, IREDA
• Other NBFC Categories
• NBFC-Investment & Credit: ₹10 crore NOF
• NBFC-Microfinance: ₹5 crore NOF
• Systemically Important NBFCs: ₹10 crore NOF
• Regulatory Framework
• Governed by RBI's Master Direction - DNBR.PD.008/03.10.119/2016-17
• Revised periodically to align with economic requirements

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India.
• It is part of the Satpura Range, which is known for its rich biodiversity and unique geological formations.
• The reserve was established in 1999 and covers an area of approximately 4,980 square kilometers.
• Pachmarhi is the only hill station in Madhya Pradesh and is often referred to as the "Queen of the Satpura Range."
• The region is home to several endangered species and diverse flora and fauna, making it an important area for conservation and ecotourism.

Additional Information

• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra is known for its diverse landscapes, including the Western Ghats, which are a biodiversity hotspot.
• Major cities include Mumbai, Pune, and Nagpur.
• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh is one of the largest states in India and is known for its cultural heritage and historical sites, such as the Taj Mahal.
• It is located in the northern part of India.
• Karnataka
• Karnataka is known for its software industry, with Bangalore being the tech hub of India.
• The state also has several national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, including Bandipur and Nagarhole.
• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan is known for its deserts, palaces, and forts, with Jaipur being the capital city.
• The state is famous for its rich cultural heritage and festivals.

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

• The United States officially exited the World Health Organization (WHO) in January 2025.
• This decision was part of a broader policy shift under the then-current administration, reflecting concerns over the WHO's handling of global health crises.
• US contributions to the WHO accounted for approximately 15% of its total budget, making the exit a significant financial blow to the organization.
• This move was met with both domestic and international criticism, with many experts warning of the negative impact on global health initiatives.

Additional Information

• China
• China is a major global player and a member of the WHO, contributing significantly to global health initiatives.
• Russia
• Russia has been involved in various WHO programs, particularly in combating infectious diseases.
• India
• India is one of the largest contributors to WHO's workforce, particularly in polio eradication and vaccination programs.
• Brazil
• Brazil plays a crucial role in WHO's initiatives in the Americas, especially in disease control and health promotion.

The correct answer is ₹1.5 lakh crore.

In News

• Budget 2025-26 doubled the credit guarantee cover for MSEs to ₹10 crore, expected to generate ₹1.5 lakh crore additional credit.

Key Points

• Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme limit doubled from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.
• Expected to benefit over 5 lakh MSE units across India.
• Aims to address the credit gap in the MSME sector.
• Part of government's focus on 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' in Budget 2025-26.

Additional Information

• About CGTMSE
• Launched: 2000 by GoI and SIDBI
• Covers loans up to ₹2 crore without collateral
• Default coverage: 75-85% of loan amount
• MSME Sector Significance
• Contributes 30% to India's GDP
• Employs over 11 crore people
• Accounts for 48% of exports
• Other Budget 2025-26 MSME Measures
• ₹20,000 crore corpus for tech upgradation
• Extension of non-tax benefits for 3 more years

The correct answer is Collaboration for the Intelligent Age.

In News

• The 55^th World Economic Forum (WEF) Annual Meeting began in Davos with the theme “Collaboration for the Intelligent Age.”

Key Points

• Crystal Awards were presented to David Beckham, Diane von Furstenberg, and Riken Yamamoto for contributions to social, environmental, and creative progress.
• 3,000 global leaders from public and private sectors are participating in the five-day event.
• Key discussions focus on geopolitical, geo-economic, and technological challenges and opportunities.
• Indian delegation, led by Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, highlights economic policies, digital transformation, and state investment opportunities.

Additional Information

• Crystal Awards
• Recognize individuals for advancing impactful causes such as community regeneration, gender equality, and children’s rights.
• Indian Delegation Highlights
• Focus on Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s economic policies and India’s digital architecture.
• State leaders like Devendra Fadnavis and N. Chandrababu Naidu promote state-specific investment opportunities.
• World Economic Forum (WEF)
• Founded in 1971, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• Serves as a platform for global leaders to discuss pressing issues and promote public-private collaboration.

The correct answer is Rs. 4,000 crore.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet has approved the construction of a third launch pad (TLP) at ISRO's space center in Sriharikota, with an investment of Rs 3,984 crore.
• The new launch pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, will be used for ISRO’s Next Generation Launch Vehicles and serve as a backup for the second launch pad.
• Expected to be operational in four years, the TLP will also boost the capacity for future Indian human spaceflight missions.
• Designed for flexibility, the launch pad will support the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) and ISRO's medium-lift vehicle, Launch Vehicle Mark-3.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) : The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is an international organization working to ensure food safety and fair practices in the global food trade.

Key points about the CAC:

Joint Effort:

• Established in 1963 by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations and the World Health Organization (WHO).

Mission:

• Protects consumer health by setting international food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice.
• Ensures fair practices in the food trade by promoting harmonization of food standards.
• Facilitates international trade in food by providing a common platform for countries to agree on food safety and quality requirements.

Membership:

• Open to all member nations and associate members of FAO and WHO. Currently, there are 189 members, including 188 countries and the European Union.

Structure:

• Governed by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) which meets annually.
• Supported by subsidiary bodies like General Subject Committees, Commodity Committees, Task Forces, and the Executive Committee.

Work Process:

• Develops food standards based on scientific risk assessment and consensus among member countries.
• Standards cover a wide range of food products, including contaminants, additives, labeling, hygiene, and residues.

Impact:

• Codex standards are recognized by the World Trade Organization (WTO) as the benchmark for food safety and quality in international trade.
• Play a vital role in protecting consumers from unsafe food and promoting a level playing field for food producers and exporters.

The correct answer is Both (2) and (3).

In News

• Sagarmala Programme has completed 10 years since its implementation in March 2015.

Key Points

• The Sagarmala Programme was launched in 2015 with a focus on modernizing India's ports, not airports.
• There has been a 700% increase in inland waterway cargo movement, easing road and rail congestion.
• The Sagarmala Programme is indeed aligned with India's Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 to become a global maritime leader.

Additional Information

• Sagarmala Programme
• Launched in March 2015 with a focus on enhancing maritime infrastructure and reducing logistics costs.
• Helps improve coastal shipping, inland waterways, and port modernization for industrial growth.
• Inland Waterways and Coastal Shipping
• Inland waterway cargo movement has surged by 700%, easing congestion on road and rail networks.
• Coastal shipping has increased by 118% in the past decade.
• Vision 2047
• Sagarmala Programme is a key component of India's Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.
• Aligns with India’s goal to become a global leader in maritime trade and industry.

The Government of India appointed the National Income Committee after independence in August 1949 with Prof. PC. Mahalanobis as its Chairman and Prof. D.R. Gadgil and Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao as its two members. The committee was set up  to compile national income. The first report of this committee was prepared in 1951.

The correct answer is IMF and the World Bank.

In News

• The IMF and World Bank jointly conduct Financial Sector Assessment Programs (FSAPs) to evaluate countries' financial stability.

Key Points

• FSAP was established in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis to strengthen financial system supervision.
• IMF focuses on macroeconomic risks and financial stability assessments.
• World Bank evaluates financial development and inclusion aspects.
• India's last FSAP was conducted in 2021-22.

Additional Information

• FSAP Components
• Risk assessment and stress testing
• Regulatory framework evaluation
• Financial infrastructure review
• Assessment Frequency
• Mandatory for systemically important financial sectors every 5 years
• Voluntary for other countries
• Recent FSAPs
• United States: 2020
• China: 2023
• Euro Area: 2023

The correct answer is Yael van der Wouden.

In News

• Dutch author Yael van der Wouden won the 2024 Booker Prize for her debut novel 'The Safekeep'.

Key Points

• Yael van der Wouden became the first Dutch author to win the prestigious Booker Prize.
• 'The Safekeep' is a historical fiction set in post-war Netherlands.
• The novel explores themes of memory, trauma, and queer identity.
• Wouden received the £50,000 prize at a ceremony in London on November 19, 2024.

Additional Information

• About the Booker Prize
• Established: 1969
• Awarded for: Best original novel written in English
• Recent Indian winners: Arundhati Roy (1997), Geetanjali Shree (2022)
• Yael van der Wouden
• Nationality: Dutch
• Background: Creative writing professor at University of Amsterdam
• Previous works: Short story collections
• 2024 Booker Shortlist
• Included authors from UK, US, Canada and Ireland
• Judges praised 'The Safekeep' for its "emotional precision and historical resonance"

The correct answer is European Space Agency (ESA).

In News

• ISRO and European Space Agency (ESA) signed a landmark agreement in December 2024 for collaboration in astronaut training and space research.

Key Points

• The agreement was signed during ESA Director General's visit to ISRO headquarters in Bengaluru.
• Collaboration focuses on Gaganyaan astronaut training and joint space science missions.
• ESA will provide access to its training facilities in Cologne, Germany.
• Partnership includes technology sharing for human spaceflight programs.

Additional Information

• ESA-ISRO Collaboration Areas
• Astronaut training for Gaganyaan mission
• Space medicine research
• Planetary exploration missions
• About European Space Agency
• Founded: 1975
• Member states: 22 European countries
• Headquarters: Paris, France
• ISRO's Gaganyaan Mission
• India's first human spaceflight program
• Target launch: 2025
• Crew size: 3 astronauts

The correct answer is Lausanne, Switzerland.

In News

• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) headquarters in Lausanne, Switzerland celebrated International Olympic Day on June 23, 2024.

Key Points

• The IOC has been headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland since 1915.
• The headquarters is called the "Olympic House" located on the shores of Lake Geneva.
• Lausanne was designated as the "Olympic Capital" in 1994.
• The modern Olympic House was inaugurated in 2019 as a state-of-the-art sustainable building.

Additional Information

• About IOC
• Founded: 23 June 1894 (hence Olympic Day date)
• Founder: Pierre de Coubertin
• Current President: Thomas Bach
• Olympic House Features
• LEED Platinum certified (highest sustainability standard)
• Solar panels and geothermal energy systems
• Houses the Olympic Museum
• Why Switzerland?
• Neutrality during World War I prompted the move from Paris
• Switzerland's political neutrality remains important

The correct answer is No limit.

In News

• Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman launched the NPS Vatsalya pension scheme for minors with no upper limit on contributions.

Key Points

• NPS Vatsalya scheme has no maximum contribution limit for subscribers.
• Minimum annual contribution requirement is ₹1,000.
• Scheme designed for parents/guardians to build retirement corpus for minors.
• Flexible contribution options with no upper ceiling.

Additional Information

• NPS Vatsalya Features
• Available for minors aged 0-18 years
• Account converts to regular NPS when minor turns 18
• Multiple investment options and pension fund managers
• Tax Benefits
• Contributions eligible for tax deduction under Section 80C
• Subject to overall ₹1.5 lakh limit of Section 80C
• Withdrawal Rules
• 60% corpus withdrawal allowed at maturity (age 60)
• 40% must be used to purchase annuity

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Odisha.

In News

• Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Odisha became the first states to achieve 100% district coverage in the Kharif Digital Crop Survey.

Key Points

• These four states successfully implemented the digital survey across all their districts during the Kharif season.
• The Digital Crop Survey is part of the government's agricultural digitization initiative.
• Uttar Pradesh covered all 75 districts, the highest among these states.
• The survey helps in real-time monitoring of crop patterns and yield estimation.

Additional Information

• Digital Crop Survey Features
• Uses satellite imagery and ground truthing
• Integrated with Bhuvan and other geospatial platforms
• Provides accurate crop area statistics
• Implementation Benefits
• Timely assessment of crop health
• Better planning for procurement and storage
• Reduces dependence on manual surveys
• State-wise Agricultural Significance
• Uttar Pradesh: India's largest foodgrain producer
• Madhya Pradesh: Leading soybean producer
• Gujarat: Major cotton and groundnut producer
• Odisha: Important rice growing state

The correct answer is Sachin Tendulkar.

In News

• Cricket legend Sachin Tendulkar was conferred honorary membership of the Melbourne Cricket Club (MCC) in December 2024.

Key Points

• Sachin Tendulkar became the 13^th Honorary Life Member of MCC in its 187-year history.
• The honor recognizes his exceptional contributions to cricket and sportsmanship.
• Tendulkar joins legends like Sir Don Bradman and WG Grace who received this honor.
• The ceremony took place at Lord's Cricket Ground, the home of MCC.

Additional Information

• Melbourne Cricket Club (MCC)
• Founded: 1838
• Manages the Melbourne Cricket Ground (MCG)
• One of Australia's most prestigious sporting institutions
• Sachin Tendulkar's Achievements
• Only player with 100 international centuries
• First sportsperson to receive Bharat Ratna (2014)
• ICC Hall of Fame inductee (2019)
• Previous MCC Honorary Members
• Sir Donald Bradman (1948)
• Shane Warne (2005)
• Rahul Dravid (2018)

The correct answer is 2006.

In News

• The International Astronomical Union (IAU) redefined planetary classification in 2006, reclassifying Pluto as a dwarf planet.

Key Points

• The IAU General Assembly in Prague voted on August 24, 2006 to establish new criteria for planetary status.
• Pluto failed to meet the third criterion of "clearing its orbital neighborhood".
• The decision reduced the number of solar system planets from nine to eight.
• Pluto was reclassified as the prototype of a new category of "dwarf planets".

Additional Information

• IAU Planetary Criteria
• Orbits the Sun
• Has sufficient mass for hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round shape)
• Has cleared the neighborhood around its orbit
• Current Dwarf Planets
• Pluto, Eris, Haumea, Makemake, Ceres
• All except Ceres are located in the Kuiper Belt
• New Horizons Mission
• NASA's 2015 flyby provided first close-up images of Pluto
• Revealed complex geology despite dwarf planet status

The correct matches are All of the above.

In News

• Marine Protected Areas in Peninsular India play crucial roles in coastal biodiversity conservation.

Key Points

• All given Marine Protected Areas are correctly matched with their respective states.
• Gahirmatha in Odisha is famous for Olive Ridley turtle nesting.
• Coringa in Andhra Pradesh is known for its mangrove forests and saltwater crocodiles.
• Fudam Marine in Daman and Diu protects coral reefs and marine biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary
• Location: Kendrapara district, Odisha
• Key species: Olive Ridley turtles
• Area: 1,435 sq km
• Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary
• Location: East Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh
• Key feature: Second largest mangrove forest in India
• Dr Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
• Location: Chorao Island, Goa
• Named after: The "Birdman of India"
• Key species: Migratory birds
• Khijadia Bird Sanctuary
• Location: Jamnagar district, Gujarat
• Type: Freshwater wetland
• Ramsar site designation: 2022

The correct answer is $776 billion.

In News

• India's export outlook for FY 2023-24 was projected at $776 billion as per the Economic Survey.

Key Points

• Total export projection includes both merchandise and services exports.
• Merchandise exports estimated at $450 billion for FY 2023-24.
• Services exports projected at $326 billion for the same period.
• The outlook reflects India's growing integration in global value chains.

Additional Information

• Export Composition
• Top merchandise exports: Petroleum products, gems & jewelry, engineering goods
• Leading services exports: IT services, business services, travel
• Growth Drivers
• Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes
• Free Trade Agreements with key partners
• Global demand recovery post-pandemic
• Economic Survey Insights
• Highlighted export sector resilience amid global challenges
• Emphasized need for export diversification

The correct answer is ₹8,314 crore.

In News

• The Government of India approved ₹8,314 crore budget for WDC-PMKSY 2.0 (2021-2026) to promote watershed development across the country.

Key Points

• Total budget allocation of ₹8,314 crore for the five-year period (2021-2026).
• Scheme implemented by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development.
• Aims to develop 49.5 lakh hectares of rainfed/degraded land through watershed projects.
• Focuses on water conservation, soil moisture improvement, and groundwater recharge.

Additional Information

• PMKSY 2.0 Components
• Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP)
• Har Khet Ko Pani (HKKP)
• Per Drop More Crop (PDMC)
• Watershed Development (WDC)
• Implementation Strategy
• Cluster-based approach covering multiple villages
• Convergence with MGNREGS for water conservation works
• Expected Outcomes
• Increase in water availability for agriculture
• Improvement in crop productivity
• Reduction in soil erosion

The correct answer is ₹12,698.

In News

• NABARD's NAFIS report revealed the average monthly income of rural households as ₹12,698 for FY 2022-23.

Key Points

• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) released its second All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) for 2021-22.
• Survey covered 40,327 rural households across 28 states and 8 UTs.
• Average monthly income showed significant variation across states and occupations.
• Income levels were highest for households engaged in non-farm business activities.

Additional Information

• Income Distribution
• Agricultural households: ₹10,816 per month
• Non-agricultural households: ₹15,115 per month
• State-wise Variations
• Highest: Kerala (₹19,921)
• Lowest: Odisha (₹7,731)
• NAFIS Survey Details
• First survey conducted in 2016-17
• Provides comprehensive rural financial inclusion data

The correct answer is 21.38 LMT.

In News

• India's wheat production is estimated to increase by 21.38 LMT (Lakh Metric Tonnes) in 2024-25 compared to 2023-24, as per the Ministry of Agriculture's second advance estimates.

Key Points

• Total wheat production for 2024-25 is projected at 114.36 LMT compared to 92.98 LMT in 2023-24.
• This marks a significant 23% year-on-year increase in wheat output.
• The increase is attributed to favorable weather conditions and expanded cultivation area.
• Major contributing states include Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Punjab.

Additional Information

• Agricultural Production Trends
• Record wheat production achieved in 2020-21: 109.59 LMT
• 2023-24 saw production dip due to unseasonal rains
• Government Measures
• Increased MSP for wheat to ₹2,275 per quintal
• Expanded irrigation coverage under PMKSY
• Global Context
• India remains second-largest wheat producer after China
• Production increase may lead to export policy review

The correct answer is ₹500 crore.

In News

• The Department of Financial Services (DFS) approved ₹500 crore capital infusion for IFCI Limited in January 2025.

Key Points

• The ₹500 crore capital infusion was sanctioned for FY 2024-25 to strengthen IFCI's financial position.
• This infusion aims to enhance IFCI's lending capacity and support infrastructure financing.
• The funds were released in January 2025 as part of the government's development financial institution (DFI) support.
• IFCI will utilize these funds to meet regulatory capital requirements and expand operations.

Additional Information

• About IFCI Limited
• Established: 1948 (India's first DFI)
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Primary Role: Infrastructure and industrial project financing
• Recent Capital Infusions
• FY 2023-24: ₹200 crore infusion
• FY 2022-23: ₹300 crore infusion
• Government Support
• Ownership: 56.42% stake held by government entities
• Classification: Systemically Important Non-Deposit taking NBFC

The correct answer is Launch of India's first Organic Fisheries Cluster in Sikkim.

In News

• The Union Minister Shri Rajiv Ranjan Singh launched India’s first Organic Fisheries Cluster in Sikkim during the North East Region Meet 2025.

Key Points

• The Organic Fisheries Cluster is located in Soreng District of Sikkim.
• This initiative is part of the government’s effort to develop sustainable organic fisheries and aquaculture in Sikkim.
• The launch was accompanied by the laying of foundation stones for projects worth Rs. 50 crores aimed at improving the fisheries sector in the Northeast region.
• The Organic Fisheries Cluster will focus on the sustainable growth of the fisheries sector and generate employment opportunities in the region.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
• Launched in 2020 for the development of the fisheries sector in India
• Focuses on modernizing infrastructure and creating sustainable livelihoods

The correct answer is ₹500 crore.

In News

• The Department of Financial Services (DFS) approved ₹500 crore capital infusion for IFCI Limited in January 2025.

Key Points

• The ₹500 crore capital infusion was sanctioned for FY 2024-25 to strengthen IFCI's financial position.
• This infusion aims to enhance IFCI's lending capacity and support infrastructure financing.
• The funds were released in January 2025 as part of the government's development financial institution (DFI) support.
• IFCI will utilize these funds to meet regulatory capital requirements and expand operations.

Additional Information

• About IFCI Limited
• Established: 1948 (India's first DFI)
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Primary Role: Infrastructure and industrial project financing
• Recent Capital Infusions
• FY 2023-24: ₹200 crore infusion
• FY 2022-23: ₹300 crore infusion
• Government Support
• Ownership: 56.42% stake held by government entities
• Classification: Systemically Important Non-Deposit taking NBFC

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

• The contributions of the Drafting Committee members were commemorated during National Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) on November 26, 2024.

Key Points

• All three mentioned individuals - Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, Gopalaswami Ayyangar, and K.M. Munshi - were members of the Drafting Committee.
• The Drafting Committee was formed on August 29, 1947, with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its Chairman.
• The committee had seven members who were responsible for preparing the draft of the Constitution.
• They worked for nearly three years to draft the world's longest written constitution.

Additional Information

• Complete Drafting Committee Members
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
• Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
• N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
• K.M. Munshi
• Syed Mohammad Saadullah
• B.L. Mitter (later replaced by N. Madhava Rao)
• D.P. Khaitan (later replaced by T.T. Krishnamachari)
• Key Contributions
• Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar: Expert in constitutional law
• Gopalaswami Ayyangar: Drafted provisions about states and judiciary
• K.M. Munshi: Worked on fundamental rights and language provisions
• Constitution Facts
• Adopted: November 26, 1949
• Came into effect: January 26, 1950
• Original copies: Handwritten in Hindi and English

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

In News

• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve, located in Madhya Pradesh, is one of India's significant biodiversity hotspots.

Key Points

• Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is situated in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh.
• It was designated as a Biosphere Reserve in 1999 by UNESCO.
• The reserve covers an area of 4,926 square kilometers.
• It includes three wildlife conservation units: Bori Sanctuary, Pachmarhi Sanctuary, and Satpura National Park.

Additional Information

• Flora and Fauna
• Rich biodiversity with over 50 mammal species and 254 bird species
• Home to endangered species like the Giant Squirrel and Flying Squirrel
• Contains rare medicinal plants and teak forests
• UNESCO Recognition
• Part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves
• Recognized for its unique ecosystem of forests and grasslands
• Tourism Significance
• Pachmarhi hill station is located within the reserve
• Known for its scenic beauty and ancient caves

The correct answer is Karnataka.

In News

• Kasuti embroidery from Karnataka received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for its unique traditional craftsmanship.

Key Points

• Kasuti embroidery originates from Karnataka and is traditionally practiced by women in the region.
• This intricate hand embroidery received the GI tag in 2008, recognizing its unique cultural heritage.
• The embroidery is characterized by its complex geometric patterns and is done without using knots.
• Kasuti work is traditionally done on Ilkal sarees, the other GI-tagged product from Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Kasuti Embroidery Features
• Four distinct styles: Gavanti, Murgi, Negi and Menthe
• Uses cotton thread on dark background fabric
• Traditionally takes 3-4 weeks to complete one saree
• Other GI Tags from Karnataka
• Mysore Silk
• Channapatna Toys
• Coorg Orange
• Dharwad Pedha
• Geographical Indication (GI) Tag
• Legal recognition for products originating from specific geographical locations
• Valid for 10 years, renewable
• Administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trademarks

The correct answer is PhonePe.

In News

• PhonePe continues to dominate India's UPI ecosystem with the highest transaction volume as of December 2024.

Key Points

• PhonePe processed over 4.9 billion UPI transactions in November 2024, maintaining its market leadership.
• The platform commands approximately 48.3% market share in UPI transactions as per latest NPCI data.
• PhonePe achieved this position through aggressive merchant onboarding and user-friendly features.
• The Walmart-owned company crossed 500 million registered users milestone in 2024.

Additional Information

• UPI Market Share (December 2024)
• PhonePe: 48.3%
• Google Pay: 34.7%
• Paytm: 12.5%
• Others: 4.5%
• PhonePe's Growth
• Founded: December 2015
• Parent Company: Walmart (acquired in 2018)
• Key Features: Instant money transfer, bill payments, investments
• UPI Ecosystem
• Launched: April 2016 by NPCI
• Monthly Volume: ~10 billion transactions (December 2024)
• Total Value: ₹18.2 lakh crore processed in November 2024

The correct answer is IIT Madras.

In News

• IIT Madras launched Asia's largest shallow wave basin research facility in January 2025 to study waves and currents for coastal engineering projects.

Key Points

• IIT Madras inaugurated the largest shallow wave basin facility in Asia in January 2025.
• The facility is designed to simulate and study complex wave and current patterns.
• It will support research for Indian ports, waterways, and coastal infrastructure development.
• The wave basin is part of IIT Madras' National Technology Centre for Ports, Waterways and Coasts (NTCPWC).

Additional Information

• National Technology Centre for Ports, Waterways and Coasts (NTCPWC)
• Established at IIT Madras with support from the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
• Aims to develop indigenous technologies for maritime infrastructure.
• Focus areas: Port engineering, coastal protection, and inland waterways.
• Shallow Wave Basin Facility
• Dimensions: 60m x 40m x 2.5m (one of the largest in the world).
• Capabilities: Can simulate tsunamis, storm surges, and regular wave patterns.
• Applications: Testing port designs, coastal protection structures, and offshore platforms.

The correct answer is Rs. 2250 per quintal.

In News

• The government has set the new reserve price of rice under the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) at Rs. 2250 per quintal for 2024-25.

Key Points

• The new reserve price of Rs. 2250 per quintal for rice under OMSS was announced for the fiscal year 2024-25.
• This price is applicable for the sale of rice to states and other bulk buyers under the OMSS.
• The OMSS aims to stabilize market prices and ensure food security by releasing food grains from buffer stocks.
• The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the nodal agency responsible for implementing the OMSS.

Additional Information

• Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS)
• Objective: To moderate market prices and offload excess food grains.
• Grains sold: Rice and wheat from FCI's buffer stock.
• Target buyers: States, bulk consumers, and private traders.
• Food Corporation of India (FCI)
• Role: Procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains.
• Established: 1965 under the Food Corporations Act.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.

The correct answer is England – 2022.

In News

• India won the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024 by defeating South Africa by 7 runs.

Key Points

• England won the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup in 2022 by defeating Pakistan in the final.
• The 2022 final was held at the Melbourne Cricket Ground (MCG), Australia.
• England scored 161/5, restricting Pakistan to 137/8, winning by 5 wickets.
• This was England’s second T20 World Cup title (first in 2010).

Additional Information

• ICC T20 World Cup 2024
• Winner: India (defeated South Africa by 7 runs).
• Final Venue: Kensington Oval, Barbados.
• Player of the Match: Virat Kohli (76 runs).
• Past Winners
• 2021: Australia (defeated New Zealand).
• 2016: West Indies (defeated England).
• 2009: Pakistan (defeated Sri Lanka).

The correct answer is Sooraj R. Barjatya.

In News

• Sooraj R. Barjatya wins Golden Lotus Award at 70^th National Film Awards.

Key Points

• Sooraj R. Barjatya received the Golden Lotus Award (Best Director).
• Awarded for his family drama "Uunchai" (2022).
• 70^th National Film Awards honored films released in 2022.
• Presented by President Droupadi Murmu in October 2024.

Additional Information

• About Sooraj R. Barjatya
• Known for family-centric films
• Famous works: Maine Pyar Kiya, Hum Aapke Hain Koun..!
• Rajshri Productions legacy
• Other Major Winners
• Best Feature Film: "Aattam" (Malayalam)
• Best Actor: Allu Arjun (Pushpa: The Rise)
• Best Actress: Alia Bhatt (Gangubai Kathiawadi)
• National Film Awards
• India's most prestigious film honors
• Established: 1954
• Golden Lotus (Swarna Kamal) is highest award

The correct answer is Botswana.

In News

• World's second largest diamond (2,492 carats) discovered in Botswana.

Key Points

• 2,492-carat diamond found in Botswana's Karowe mine (August 2024).
• Second only to the 3,106-carat Cullinan diamond (1905).
• Discovered by Lucara Diamond Corp.
• Type IIa diamond (chemically pure with exceptional clarity).

Additional Information

• Botswana's Diamond Industry
• Accounts for ~70% of Botswana's export earnings
• Karowe mine famous for large, high-quality diamonds
• World's top diamond producer by value
• Historical Large Diamonds
• Cullinan Diamond: 3,106 carats (South Africa, 1905)
• Sewelô Diamond: 1,758 carats (Botswana, 2019)
• Diamond Classification
• Type IIa: Most chemically pure (＜0.1% nitrogen)
• Often become D-color graded (highest quality)

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Option 1: Higher import taxes and increased urban demand.
• This option is incorrect as the passage does not mention higher import taxes or increased urban demand contributing to increased prices.
• Option 2: Rise in fuel prices and advertising costs.
• This option is incorrect as the passage refers to input cost surge and subsidy removal, not fuel prices or advertising costs.
• Option 3: Input cost surge and removal of subsidies.
• This option is correct as the passage clearly states that the surge in input costs and the withdrawal of government subsidies for electric two-wheelers led to increased retail prices.
• Option 4: Decline in global supply chain efficiency.
• This option is incorrect as the passage does not mention a decline in global supply chain efficiency as a factor for price increases.
• Option 5: New government regulations on e-vehicles.
• This option is incorrect as the passage mentions the removal of subsidies, not new regulations.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Option 3’.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Option 1: Workforce reduction.
• This action is mentioned in the passage as Company X reduced its workforce to contain operational expenses.
• Option 2: Merging with a competitor.
• This action is not mentioned in the passage. There is no reference to Company X merging with a competitor in response to its crisis.
• Option 3: Restructuring of the business model.
• This action is mentioned in the passage as the company faces the challenge of restructuring its business model to restore investor confidence.
• Option 4: Cutting down operational expenses.
• This action is mentioned in the passage as the company reduced its workforce to contain operational expenses.
• Option 5: Drafting a diversification plan.
• This action is mentioned in the passage where the CEO discusses drafting a diversification plan to recover lost ground.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Option 2’.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities contributed the most to Company X's success.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage indicates that the company relied too much on urban markets and did not mention Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities contributing to success.
• Statement 2: Company X's profits have grown due to increased retail pricing.
• This statement is incorrect because the passage mentions that the increase in retail pricing, due to rising input costs and the withdrawal of subsidies, has negatively affected the company’s sales and performance.
• Statement 3: The firm benefitted from discontinuing government subsidies.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage suggests that the withdrawal of government subsidies has worsened the company’s financial situation by increasing retail prices.
• Statement 4: The company failed to detect shifts in consumer behaviour.
• This statement is correct as the leadership acknowledged their failure to accurately read into changing consumer preferences and market signals, as mentioned in the passage.
• Statement 5: Its visibility improved due to new marketing strategies.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage states that the company’s visibility was limited due to its failure to cut down on marketing strategies, not improve them.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Option 4’.

The correct answer is Option 5.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Rising cost of manufacturing inputs.
• This factor is mentioned in the passage as one of the reasons for increased retail prices and declining sales.
• Statement 2: Loss of subsidies on electric vehicles.
• This factor is mentioned in the passage as contributing to higher prices, which impacted sales.
• Statement 3: Competition from low-cost alternatives.
• This factor is mentioned in the passage, as consumers are opting for affordable alternatives like traditional bicycles and low-cost motorbikes.
• Statement 4: Inability to enter new regional markets.
• This factor is mentioned in the passage as the company's overdependence on urban markets, limiting its reach.
• Statement 5: Internal mismanagement and fraud.
• This factor is not mentioned in the passage. The challenges mentioned are related to external factors like market shifts, pricing, and competition.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Option 5’.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage highlights the combination of both external economic factors and internal strategic errors as contributing to the decline of Company X.
• The company faced increased input costs and the loss of government subsidies, both external factors that impacted sales.
• Additionally, the company’s overreliance on urban markets and failure to adapt to changing consumer behaviour are key internal missteps.
• This multi-faceted approach to the company's setbacks supports the answer that both external and internal factors played a role in the crisis.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Understanding: "Company X faced a crisis due to a mix of rising external costs, withdrawal of subsidies, and strategic errors such as overdependence on urban markets and failing to adapt to consumer preferences."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The decline of Company X reveals the larger failure of India’s e-mobility policies." – This is not the main focus of the passage, which centers on Company X's internal and external challenges.
• Option 2: "Company X’s poor leadership decisions were the only cause of its financial decline." – Leadership decisions were part of the issue, but not the sole cause. The passage highlights multiple contributing factors.
• Option 4: "The electric vehicle industry is failing globally." – The passage focuses only on Company X and does not suggest a global industry failure.
• Option 5: "Government support alone determines the success of e-vehicle companies." – While subsidies played a role, the passage also stresses the importance of strategy and market adaptability.

The correct answer is Option 5.

Key Points

• Banked on: The company relied on the popularity of electric bicycles.
• This usage is correct as "banked on" means to rely on something.
• Opt for: Consumers chose more affordable alternatives.
• This usage is correct as "opt for" means to choose something.
• Cut down on: The company failed to reduce its marketing strategies.
• This usage is correct as "cut down on" means to reduce something.
• Branch out: The company expanded its production volumes.
• This usage is correct as "branch out" means to expand or diversify.
• Read into: The company failed to understand market signals.
• This usage is incorrect as "read into" typically means to interpret something with greater depth, but here it should be "understood" or "comprehended" instead of "read into."

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Option 5’.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Statement A: Company X failed to effectively diversify into rural markets.
• This statement is correct as it is mentioned in the passage that the company overrelied on urban markets and didn’t target rural areas.
• Statement B: The CEO believes the company's product line still aligns with current demand.
• This statement is incorrect because the CEO admits that the company needs to realign its products with market demands, which implies that the current product line is not in sync with consumer preferences.
• Statement C: The leadership acknowledged a lack of insight into consumer behaviour.
• This statement is correct as the leadership did acknowledge that they failed to read into changing consumer preferences.
• Hence, the statement B is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only B’.

The correct answer is 'revisit, demands'.

Key Points

• "Revisit" appropriately indicates reviewing and reconsidering the existing strategy, aligning with the context of correcting past strategic misjudgments.
• "Demands" accurately reflects the needs or expectations of the market, emphasizing consumer preferences highlighted in the passage.
• The other options—such as "ignores," "produces," "builds," and "promotes"—either contradict the logic of market alignment or fail to match the context of addressing consumer preferences.

Complete Sentence: “We must revisit our strategy and realign our products with what the market demands.”

Additional Information

• Reassess, ignores: "ignores" contradicts market responsiveness.
• Reframe, produces: "produces" does not logically connect with the sentence contextually, as markets do not produce products.
• Restructure, builds: "builds" also does not fit contextually as the market does not build products.
• Reassign, promotes: "promotes" incorrectly suggests market responsibility for promotion, which contradicts the context.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• From the given options, the combination of phrases 'A-ii, B-i, C-iii' correctly matches the challenges faced by Company X with their corresponding consequences.
• Let’s analyze the sentences:
• A) Rise in input costs and subsidy loss: The increase in input costs and the loss of subsidies have led to higher retail prices for electric bicycles; thus, the corresponding consequence is ii) Increase in final product pricing.
• B) Mounting inventory and low cash flow: The company’s financial struggles have made it imperative to restructure operations, leading to i) Urgent need to restructure operations.
• C) Overdependence on urban markets: The company’s lack of reach in rural areas due to its focus on urban markets is reflected in iii) Limited reach in rural areas.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Sentence A: The children were excited about their school trip to the science museum.
• This sentence is correct as it accurately reflects the context and uses proper grammar.
• Sentence B: She not only sings beautifully but also dances gracefully.
• This sentence is correct as the structure "not only... but also" is used properly to link two actions (singing and dancing).
• Sentence C: He is looking forward to meet his cousins after a long time.
• This sentence is incorrect because the verb "meet" should be in the gerund form "meeting" after "looking forward to."

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘A and B’.

The correct answer is 'Both A and C'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about implementing the laws to protect the privacy and financial details of people using electronic payments and also to prevent data theft. This is because there is an increase in the number of people using phone banking and electronic payments.
• Starter B gets eliminated. From the given sentence, it is clear that the move to implement laws to protect privacy is being undertaken because preventing data theft is a priority.
• Starter A is suitable as it begins with 'in the wake of' which means that because of the surge in phone banking and electronic payments, laws to protect the privacy and financial details of people using electronic payments are expected to implement.
• Starter C is suitable as it begins with 'in order to' which means 'with the aim or purpose of doing something'.
• It means that with the aim of protecting the financial details of people using electronic payments, laws to protect privacy are implemented and are aimed at preventing data theft, which comes in the wake of a surge in phone banking and electronic payments.
• Therefore, according to the given explanation, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'None'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about the Gini coefficient which is the most commonly used indicator of inequality, with a score of zero indicating complete equality and a score of one indicating that one individual has everything.
• Starter A gets eliminated as it says that Brazil is the only large nation.
• Starter C gets eliminated as it begins with the conjunction 'though' which expresses the contrast meaning between the sentences.
• Starter B is suitable as it means that the Gini coefficient is the most common measure of inequality.
• The sentence formed by starter B is 'Being the most common measure of inequality, the Gini coefficient, where a score of zero means perfect equality and a score of one means that one person gets everything, has come down from 0.59 to 0.55 in Brazil, the largest country'.
• From the given explanation, it can be understood that only B is suitable. But in no options, 'only B'  is mentioned.
• Therefore, 'none' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'attribute'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the effects of excessive workload on employee well-being.
• The correct word should indicate that excessive workload can result in burnout.
• "Attribute" does not fit well because it means to regard a situation as caused by something, which does not effectively convey the progression to burnout.
• Other options ("contribute", "lead", "result", "give") indicate causation leading up to burnout and fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: The impact of excessive workload on employee well-being is a growing concern, with stress levels reaching unprecedented heights in many industries. Studies, including a recent hate research survey, indicate that a significant portion of the workforce feels overwhelmed by the sheer volume of tasks and responsibilities. This pressure can (1) lead to burnout, a state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion characterized by cynicism and a lack of productivity.

Organizations are increasingly aware of the need to (2) address this issue. Some have implemented wellness programs and flexible work arrangements in an attempt to alleviate the burden on their employees. However, these measures are not always sufficient, particularly when companies fail to address the root causes of the problem. A culture of overwork, driven by unrealistic expectations and a lack of adequate staffing, can (3) nullify any positive effects of these initiatives.

The consequences of unchecked workload stress extend beyond individual employees. High levels of stress can negatively impact overall productivity, increase absenteeism, and contribute to a decline in employee morale. Moreover, it can lead to a rise in healthcare costs and legal liabilities for organizations that fail to (4) maintain a safe and healthy work environment.

Despite the overwhelming evidence, some employers continue to (5) ignore the severity of the problem. They may view employee stress as a personal issue, rather than a systemic one, and therefore, avoid taking meaningful action. This attitude can be particularly damaging in the long run, as it can erode trust and damage the employer's reputation.

Ultimately, addressing workload stress requires a multifaceted approach. It involves not only providing support to employees but also fundamentally rethinking how work is organized and managed. Companies need to move away from a culture of overwork and embrace strategies that prioritize employee well-being and sustainable productivity. Failure to do so will only (6) exacerbate the problem and its associated costs.

Additional Information

• Contribute (योगदान देना): "Contribute" means to help cause or bring about something.
• Lead (नेतृत्व करना): "Lead" means to cause a particular result or situation.
• Result (परिणामस्वरूप): "Result" means to occur or follow as the outcome of an action.
• Give (देना): "Give" means to cause or produce a particular effect.
• Attribute (गुण ग्राहक): "Attribute" means to regard something as being caused by a specific source or reason, which is less direct and therefore doesn't fit well in the context of leading to burnout.

The correct answer is 'neglect'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the need for organizations to actively manage and solve the issue of excessive workload and its impact on employee well-being.
• The correct word should convey the idea of taking action to solve or mitigate the issue.
• "Neglect" does not fit well because it means to fail to care for or give proper attention to something, which is the opposite of addressing the issue.
• Other options ("address", "tackle", "handle", "confront") indicate taking action to solve the problem and fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 5'.

Complete Passage: The impact of excessive workload on employee well-being is a growing concern, with stress levels reaching unprecedented heights in many industries. Studies, including a recent hate research survey, indicate that a significant portion of the workforce feels overwhelmed by the sheer volume of tasks and responsibilities. This pressure can (1) lead to burnout, a state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion characterized by cynicism and a lack of productivity.

Organizations are increasingly aware of the need to (2) address this issue. Some have implemented wellness programs and flexible work arrangements in an attempt to alleviate the burden on their employees. However, these measures are not always sufficient, particularly when companies fail to address the root causes of the problem. A culture of overwork, driven by unrealistic expectations and a lack of adequate staffing, can (3) nullify any positive effects of these initiatives.

The consequences of unchecked workload stress extend beyond individual employees. High levels of stress can negatively impact overall productivity, increase absenteeism, and contribute to a decline in employee morale. Moreover, it can lead to a rise in healthcare costs and legal liabilities for organizations that fail to (4) maintain a safe and healthy work environment.

Despite the overwhelming evidence, some employers continue to (5) ignore the severity of the problem. They may view employee stress as a personal issue, rather than a systemic one, and therefore, avoid taking meaningful action. This attitude can be particularly damaging in the long run, as it can erode trust and damage the employer's reputation.

Ultimately, addressing workload stress requires a multifaceted approach. It involves not only providing support to employees but also fundamentally rethinking how work is organized and managed. Companies need to move away from a culture of overwork and embrace strategies that prioritize employee well-being and sustainable productivity. Failure to do so will only (6) exacerbate the problem and its associated costs.

Additional Information

• Address (समाधान करना): "Address" means to deal with or discuss something.
• Tackle (निपटना): "Tackle" means to take action in order to deal with a difficult problem.
• Handle (सँभालना): "Handle" means to manage or deal with a situation.
• Confront (मुक़ाबला करना): "Confront" means to face up to and deal with a problem or difficult situation.
• Neglect (उपेक्षा करना): "Neglect" means to fail to care for or give proper attention to something, which is opposite to the required action of addressing the issue.

The correct answer is 'enhance'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses how a culture of overwork can have negative impacts on the efficacy of wellness programs and flexible work arrangements implemented by organizations.
• The correct word should indicate that the culture of overwork can reduce or negate the effectiveness of these positive initiatives.
• "Enhance" does not fit well because it means to improve or intensify, which is the opposite of what is required in this context.
• Other options ("diminish", "weaken", "undermine", "counteract") indicate reducing or nullifying the positive effects and fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: The impact of excessive workload on employee well-being is a growing concern, with stress levels reaching unprecedented heights in many industries. Studies, including a recent hate research survey, indicate that a significant portion of the workforce feels overwhelmed by the sheer volume of tasks and responsibilities. This pressure can (1) lead to burnout, a state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion characterized by cynicism and a lack of productivity.

Organizations are increasingly aware of the need to (2) address this issue. Some have implemented wellness programs and flexible work arrangements in an attempt to alleviate the burden on their employees. However, these measures are not always sufficient, particularly when companies fail to address the root causes of the problem. A culture of overwork, driven by unrealistic expectations and a lack of adequate staffing, can (3) undermine any positive effects of these initiatives.

The consequences of unchecked workload stress extend beyond individual employees. High levels of stress can negatively impact overall productivity, increase absenteeism, and contribute to a decline in employee morale. Moreover, it can lead to a rise in healthcare costs and legal liabilities for organizations that fail to (4) maintain a safe and healthy work environment.

Despite the overwhelming evidence, some employers continue to (5) ignore the severity of the problem. They may view employee stress as a personal issue, rather than a systemic one, and therefore, avoid taking meaningful action. This attitude can be particularly damaging in the long run, as it can erode trust and damage the employer's reputation.

Ultimately, addressing workload stress requires a multifaceted approach. It involves not only providing support to employees but also fundamentally rethinking how work is organized and managed. Companies need to move away from a culture of overwork and embrace strategies that prioritize employee well-being and sustainable productivity. Failure to do so will only (6) exacerbate the problem and its associated costs.

Additional Information

• Diminish (कम करना): "Diminish" means to make or become less, reducing the positive effects.
• Weaken (कमज़ोर करना): "Weaken" means to make or become weaker, reducing the positive effectiveness.
• Undermine (खोखला करना): "Undermine" means to damage or weaken something, reducing its effectiveness.
• Counteract (प्रतिरोध करना): "Counteract" means to act against something in order to reduce its force or neutralize it.
• Enhance (बढ़ाना): "Enhance" means to increase or improve the quality, which is the opposite of what is needed in this context.

The correct answer is 'disregard'.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes the importance of actively supporting a safe and healthy work environment.
• The correct word for blank (4) should indicate an action that contributes to maintaining, promoting, or ensuring workplace safety and health.
• "Disregard" means to ignore or pay no attention to, which is the opposite of maintaining a safe and healthy environment.
• Other options ("Maintain", "Foster", "Ensure", "Provide") all align with the context of supporting workplace safety and health.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: The impact of excessive workload on employee well-being is a growing concern, with stress levels reaching unprecedented heights in many industries. Studies, including a recent hate research survey, indicate that a significant portion of the workforce feels overwhelmed by the sheer volume of tasks and responsibilities. This pressure can (1) lead to burnout, a state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion characterized by cynicism and a lack of productivity.

Organizations are increasingly aware of the need to (2) address this issue. Some have implemented wellness programs and flexible work arrangements in an attempt to alleviate the burden on their employees. However, these measures are not always sufficient, particularly when companies fail to address the root causes of the problem. A culture of overwork, driven by unrealistic expectations and a lack of adequate staffing, can (3) undermine any positive effects of these initiatives.

The consequences of unchecked workload stress extend beyond individual employees. High levels of stress can negatively impact overall productivity, increase absenteeism, and contribute to a decline in employee morale. Moreover, it can lead to a rise in healthcare costs and legal liabilities for organizations that fail to (4) maintain a safe and healthy work environment.

Despite the overwhelming evidence, some employers continue to (5) ignore the severity of the problem. They may view employee stress as a personal issue, rather than a systemic one, and therefore, avoid taking meaningful action. This attitude can be particularly damaging in the long run, as it can erode trust and damage the employer's reputation.

Ultimately, addressing workload stress requires a multifaceted approach. It involves not only providing support to employees but also fundamentally rethinking how work is organized and managed. Companies need to move away from a culture of overwork and embrace strategies that prioritize employee well-being and sustainable productivity. Failure to do so will only (6) exacerbate the problem and its associated costs.

Additional Information

• Maintain (बनाए रखना): "Maintain" means to keep in an existing state or preserve, which fits the context.
• Foster (प्रोत्साहित करना): "Foster" means to promote or encourage, which aligns with supporting workplace safety and health.
• Ensure (सुनिश्चित करना): "Ensure" means to make certain or guarantee, which fits the context perfectly.
• Provide (प्रदान करना): "Provide" means to supply or make available, which is suitable for the context.
• Disregard (अनदेखा करना): "Disregard" means to ignore or pay no attention to, which is the opposite of maintaining a safe and healthy environment.

The correct answer is 'Acknowledge'.

Key Points

• The passage talks about employers who fail to recognize the severity of workload stress.
• The correct word for blank (5) should indicate a failure to take the issue seriously.
• "Acknowledge" means to recognize or admit the existence or seriousness of the problem, which is the opposite of what the passage describes.
• Other options ("Dismiss", "Misread", "Underestimate", "Downplay") all imply a failure to take the problem seriously, which fits the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: The impact of excessive workload on employee well-being is a growing concern, with stress levels reaching unprecedented heights in many industries. Studies, including a recent hate research survey, indicate that a significant portion of the workforce feels overwhelmed by the sheer volume of tasks and responsibilities. This pressure can (1) lead to burnout, a state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion characterized by cynicism and a lack of productivity.

Organizations are increasingly aware of the need to (2) address this issue. Some have implemented wellness programs and flexible work arrangements in an attempt to alleviate the burden on their employees. However, these measures are not always sufficient, particularly when companies fail to address the root causes of the problem. A culture of overwork, driven by unrealistic expectations and a lack of adequate staffing, can (3) undermine any positive effects of these initiatives.

The consequences of unchecked workload stress extend beyond individual employees. High levels of stress can negatively impact overall productivity, increase absenteeism, and contribute to a decline in employee morale. Moreover, it can lead to a rise in healthcare costs and legal liabilities for organizations that fail to (4) maintain a safe and healthy work environment.

Despite the overwhelming evidence, some employers continue to (5) dismiss the severity of the problem. They may view employee stress as a personal issue, rather than a systemic one, and therefore, avoid taking meaningful action. This attitude can be particularly damaging in the long run, as it can erode trust and damage the employer's reputation.

Ultimately, addressing workload stress requires a multifaceted approach. It involves not only providing support to employees but also fundamentally rethinking how work is organized and managed. Companies need to move away from a culture of overwork and embrace strategies that prioritize employee well-being and sustainable productivity. Failure to do so will only (6) exacerbate the problem and its associated costs.

Additional Information

• Dismiss (खारिज करना): "Dismiss" means to disregard or treat as unimportant, which fits the context.
• Misread (गलत पढ़ना): "Misread" means to interpret wrongly, which implies not recognizing the true severity, fitting the context.
• Underestimate (कम आकलन करना): "Underestimate" means to judge something as being less important, serious, or large than it is, fitting the context.
• Downplay (कम महत्व देना): "Downplay" means to make something seem less important or serious than it is, fitting the context.
• Acknowledge (स्वीकार करना): "Acknowledge" means to recognize or admit the existence or seriousness of the problem, which is the opposite of what the passage describes.

The correct answer is 'Alleviate'.

Key Points

• The passage describes the negative effects of not addressing workload stress.
• The correct word for blank (6) should indicate making the problem worse or more severe.
• "Alleviate" means to make a problem less severe, which is the opposite of what the passage describes.
• Other options ("Worsen", "Intensify", "Exacerbate", "Aggravate") all fit the context of making the problem worse.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: The impact of excessive workload on employee well-being is a growing concern, with stress levels reaching unprecedented heights in many industries. Studies, including a recent hate research survey, indicate that a significant portion of the workforce feels overwhelmed by the sheer volume of tasks and responsibilities. This pressure can (1) lead to burnout, a state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion characterized by cynicism and a lack of productivity.

Organizations are increasingly aware of the need to (2) address this issue. Some have implemented wellness programs and flexible work arrangements in an attempt to alleviate the burden on their employees. However, these measures are not always sufficient, particularly when companies fail to address the root causes of the problem. A culture of overwork, driven by unrealistic expectations and a lack of adequate staffing, can (3) undermine any positive effects of these initiatives.

The consequences of unchecked workload stress extend beyond individual employees. High levels of stress can negatively impact overall productivity, increase absenteeism, and contribute to a decline in employee morale. Moreover, it can lead to a rise in healthcare costs and legal liabilities for organizations that fail to (4) maintain a safe and healthy work environment.

Despite the overwhelming evidence, some employers continue to (5) dismiss the severity of the problem. They may view employee stress as a personal issue, rather than a systemic one, and therefore, avoid taking meaningful action. This attitude can be particularly damaging in the long run, as it can erode trust and damage the employer's reputation.

Ultimately, addressing workload stress requires a multifaceted approach. It involves not only providing support to employees but also fundamentally rethinking how work is organized and managed. Companies need to move away from a culture of overwork and embrace strategies that prioritize employee well-being and sustainable productivity. Failure to do so will only (6) exacerbate the problem and its associated costs.

Additional Information

• Worsen (बदतर): "Worsen" means to make something worse, which fits the context.
• Intensify (तीव्र करना): "Intensify" means to make something more severe, which fits the context.
• Exacerbate (बिगाड़ देना): "Exacerbate" means to make a problem worse, which aligns with the context.
• Aggravate (बढ़ाना): "Aggravate" means to make a situation worse, which fits the context.
• Alleviate (कम करना): "Alleviate" means to make a problem less severe, which is the opposite of what the passage describes.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes a shift in hiring practices where English fluency is no longer the sole or dominant criterion for candidate selection.
• Organizations are recognizing that fluency in English does not necessarily correlate with job effectiveness or intelligence.
• There is a growing effort to accommodate linguistic diversity, especially in multilingual nations like India.
• As a result, interviews are being redesigned to focus more on communication clarity in any language and on practical skills.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Supporting Line from Passage: "English, while still considered the medium of professional communication in many sectors, is no longer the only benchmark of intelligence or potential."

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect – The passage never claims that English is being completely removed from professional communication.
• Option 2: Incorrect – It is stated that English’s dominance is being questioned, and more inclusive approaches are being adopted.
• Option 3: Incorrect – Employers now consider broader skills, not just English-speaking ability, during hiring.
• Option 5: Incorrect – Fluency in English is not portrayed as a guarantee for selection; other traits are given more weight.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage outlines several traits and skills that modern recruiters emphasize, including emotional intelligence, cultural fit, and motivation levels.
• It specifically mentions problem-solving ability as a critical criterion in evaluating candidates.
• However, at no point does the passage mention personal appearance as a factor in the hiring process.
• Modern interviews are described as inclusive and focused on adaptability, communication, and skill relevance—not on superficial traits.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

Supporting Line from Passage: "Beyond skills and language, companies are also considering personality traits, cultural fit, motivation levels, and long-term learning capacity."

Additional Information

• Option 1: Emotional intelligence – Explicitly mentioned as gaining more weight in modern hiring.
• Option 2: Cultural compatibility – Referred to in the passage as “cultural fit.”
• Option 4: Problem-solving ability – Clearly highlighted as a key skill.
• Option 5: Motivation level – Specifically mentioned among traits considered during hiring.

The correct answer is 'aligned with workplace realities'.

Key Points

• The phrase "aligned with workplace realities" emphasizes a practical approach, matching the actual demands of the modern workplace.
• The passage consistently highlights the need for interview processes that prioritize practical skills, adaptability, and inclusivity rather than rigid traditional norms.
• Other options such as "focused on traditional values", "inclined toward academic credentials", "dependent on language fluency", and "detached from organizational needs" contradict the context given in the passage.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The future of interviews appears to be more inclusive, skill-centric, and aligned with workplace realities.

Additional Information

• Focused on traditional values: emphasizes older, established norms and beliefs, which the passage argues are becoming less relevant.
• Inclined toward academic credentials: indicates prioritizing educational degrees, which the passage suggests companies are moving away from.
• Dependent on language fluency: stresses reliance on linguistic ability, contrary to the passage’s point of linguistic inclusivity.
• Detached from organizational needs: indicates a separation from company requirements, opposite to the passage’s emphasis on aligning interviews closely with contemporary organizational requirements.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Sentence A: He said that he will be late for the meeting.
• This sentence is incorrect because the tense is inconsistent. The sentence starts in the past tense ("He said") and then shifts to the future tense ("will be"). The correct form should be "He said that he would be late for the meeting." (reported speech uses the past tense).
• Sentence B: The team have decided to postpone the event.
• This sentence is incorrect because "team" is a collective noun and should take a singular verb. The correct form is "The team has decided to postpone the event."
• Sentence C: She is not only intelligent but also hardworking.
• This sentence is correct as it follows the correct structure of "not only... but also" to link two adjectives that describe the person. The sentence is grammatically and contextually sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘A and B’.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The sentence suggests that corporations have to be more and more focused on setting up higher labour quality.
• 'Rendering' means 'giving an interpretation of' and 'appeal' means 'to make a serious request'.
• 'Instituting' means 'laying the groundwork for' and 'standards' means 'a level of quality'.
• 'Generating' means 'bringing something into existence' and 'theory' means 'a well-substantiated explanation of a topic'.
• 'Range' means 'a variety of different things' and 'campaign' means 'an organized course of action to achieve a goal.'
• 'league' means 'a collection of people that combine for mutual protection or cooperation' and 'confer' means 'to grant'.
• Out of all the given options, only option 2 fits the context of the sentence and makes a meaningful sentence.
• Complete sentence:
• Corporations have to be more and more focused on instituting higher labour standards.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2, i.e., instituting, standards.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The sentence suggests that he had been permitted entry into the White House only for the daily orientation/conference.
• 'Dwell' means 'to be anxious about something' and 'entertain' means 'to provide amusement'.
• 'Granted' means 'allowed to have' and 'briefing' means 'a meeting held for giving information'.
• 'Contracted' means 'decreased in size' and 'earnest' means 'a firm belief in one's opinions'.
• 'Yielded' means 'to give up' and 'wander' means 'to move about'.
• 'Insisted' means 'demanded something forcefully' and 'knight' means 'a person of noble birth trained to arms and chivalry'.
• Out of all the given options, only option 2 fits the context of the sentence and makes a meaningful sentence.
• Complete sentence:
• He had been granted entry into the White House only for the daily briefing, later that afternoon.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2, i.e., granted, briefing.