Previous Year Paper

SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 25 Feb 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

190 questions160 minutes
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General/Financial Awareness (50 questions)

Question 1

UN released population of India report. What is the percentage of India's 15-64 age population compared to China's?

  1. AOption (a)

    72%

  2. BOption (b)

    68%

  3. COption (c)

    35%

  4. DOption (d)

    61%

  5. EOption (e)

    59%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

68%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 68%.

In News

  • UN released a population of India report.

Key Points

  • The UNFPA’s ‘The State of World Population Report, 2023’, titled ‘8 Billion Lives, Infinite Possibilities: The Case for Rights and Choices’ released India’s population is projected to be 1,428.6 billion while that of China’s 1,425.7 billion, a difference of 2.9 million.
  • The latest figures were given under the category of ‘Demographic Indicators’ in the report.
  • It was the first time that India’s population would overtake China’s since 1950 when the UN began to collect and release population data.
  • The UNFPA report states that 25% of India’s population is in the age group of 0-14, 18% in 10-19, 26% in 10-24, 68% in 15-64, and 7% above 65.
  • The corresponding figures for China are 17%, 12%, 18%, 69%, and 14%, which means the country has nearly 200 million above the age of 65.

Additional Information

  • United Nations
  • It is an International organization whose stated purposes are to maintain international peace and security, develop friendly relations among nations, and achieve international cooperation.
  • Established in - 1945
  • HQ - New York City
  • President - Dennis Francis

Question 2

In January 2024, Government slashes windfall tax on crude petroleum What taxes are included in windfall tax?

  1. AOption (a)

    Special Additional Excise Duty

  2. BOption (b)

    Income Tax

  3. COption (c)

    Corporate Tax

  4. DOption (d)

    Sales Tax

  5. EOption (e)

    VAT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Special Additional Excise Duty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Special Additional Excise Duty.

In News

  • Government slashes windfall tax on crude petroleum.

Key Points

  • The government has cut the windfall tax on domestically-produced crude oil to ₹1,700 per tonne from ₹2,300 per tonne with effect from January 16 2024.
  • The tax is levied in the form of a Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED). According to an official notification, SAED on the export of diesel, petrol and jet fuel or ATF has been retained at nil.
  • India first imposed windfall profit taxes on July 1, 2022, joining a growing number of nations that tax supernormal profits of energy companies.
  • The tax rates are reviewed every fortnight based on average oil prices in the previous two weeks.

Additional Information

  • Windfall tax​
  • ​A windfall tax is a higher tax rate on profits that ensue from a sudden windfall gain to a particular company or industry.
  • Windfall taxes are designed to tax the profits a company derives from an external, sometimes unprecedented event for instance, the energy price rise as a result of the Russia-Ukraine conflict.

Question 3

Presence of Indian banks in overseas increased to 417 via subsidiaries in FY23. Bank can operate in foreign countries using which of the following entities

  1. AOption (a)

    Representative Offices

  2. BOption (b)

    Branches

  3. COption (c)

    Subsidiaries

  4. DOption (d)

    Correspondents

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • The presence of Indian banks via subsidiaries increased to 417 in FY23

Key Points

  • Indian banks increased their overseas presence through the subsidiaries route to 417 during 2022-23, from 399 at the end of the preceding fiscal, as per Reserve Bank data.
  • Their employee strength, too, rose 0.5 percent and 6.2 percent for foreign branches and subsidiaries, respectively, during 2022-23, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) survey on International Trade in Banking Services 2022-23 showed.
  • The survey covers 14 Indian banks having overseas branches or subsidiaries and 44 foreign banks having branches or subsidiaries in India.
  • On the other hand, the number of branches and employees of foreign banks in India contracted during 2022-23 to 774 from 858 in 2021-22.
  • The bank has a commercial presence in the territory of the service-importing country and the service is delivered therein.
  • The commercial presence can be through various investment vehicles like representative offices, branches, subsidiaries, associates and correspondents.

Additional Information

  • Reserve Bank of India
  • Established in 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - ShaktiKanta Das

Question 4

MoSPI launched a new app, "eSakshi", to track the fund flow under the 'MPLAD' Scheme 2023'. Under 'MPLADS', How much amount is limit to each MP at the start of the Financil Year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    3 crore

  3. COption (c)

    2 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    5 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    4 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5 crore.

In News

  • MOSPI launches new eSakshi app to track MPLADS process.

Key Points

  • The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation launched a new app to track the fund flow under the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme-2023.
  • The new eSakshi app will provide an interface to capture the “entire MPLAD scheme cycle, providing convenience and accessibility like never before.
  • The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per Member of Parliament (MP) constituency is Rs.5 crore, released in two instalments of Rs.2.5 crore each, subject to the fulfilment of conditions as per the MPLADS Guidelines.
  • The Ministry will release MPLADS funds at the rate of Rs. 2 crore per Member of Parliament for the remaining period of FY 2021-22 in one instalment and the rate of Rs. 5.00 crore per annum per Member of Parliament during FY 2022-23 to FY 2025-26 in two instalments of Rs.2.5 crore each.
  • Since the inception of the Scheme, a total of 19,86,206 works/projects have been completed with the financial implication of Rs. 54171.09 crore.

Additional Information

  • MPLADS
  • The MPLADS is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Government of India.
  • The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of a developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets in the areas of drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc. primarily in their Constituencies.

Question 5

Which of the following Union Territories (UTs) does not have RRBs?

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Jammu & Kashmir

  3. COption (c)

    Puducherry

  4. DOption (d)

    Ladakh

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Delhi.

In News

  • Regional Rural Banks

Key Points

  • RRBs are sponsored by Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
  • There are currently 43 RRBs supported by 12 public sector banks with 21,856 branches across 26 states and 3 Union Territories - Puducherry, Jammu Kashmir, and Ladakh.
  • Each RRB is operated within a certain limit only.
  • RRBs provide 75% of their total credit as Priority Sector Lending to fulfill the criterion applicable to commercial banks.

Additional Information

  • Jammu & Kashmir
  • J&K Grameen Bank
  • Ladakh
  • Ellaquai Dehati Bank
  • Puducherry
  • Puduvai Bharathiar Grama Bank

Question 6

Identify the incorrect option regarding RRBs, SFB, Payment Banks, Public Sector Bank, and Local Area Banks.

  1. AOption (a)

    Public Sector Bank - 12

  2. BOption (b)

    SFB - 11

  3. COption (c)

    RRB - 43

  4. DOption (d)

    Local Area Bank - 3

  5. EOption (e)

    Payment Bank - 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Local Area Bank - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Local Area Bank - 3.

In News

  • No of Banks

Key Points

  • Banks are financial institutions that perform deposit and lending functions.
  • There are various types of banks in India and each is responsible for performing different functions.
  • The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country. Each country has a central bank that regulates all the other banks in that particular country.
  • In India, there are currently 12 PSBs including the State Bank of India (SBI), Bank of Baroda, etc, 21 private sector banks like Axis, and ICICI, 11 Small Finance Banks, 6 Payment Banks,  43 Regional Rural Banks, and 45 Foreign Banks.
  • Local Area Bank - 4

Question 7

As per the RBI's guidelines on Responsible Lending Conduct, the Regulated Entities (REs) shall release all the original movable/immovable property documents and remove charges registered with any registry within a period of _______ days after full repayment/ settlement of the loan account.

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    45

  5. EOption (e)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 30.

Key Points

  • As per the RBI's guidelines on Responsible Lending Conduct, the Regulated Entities (REs) shall release all the original movable/immovable property documents and remove charges registered with any registry within a period of 30 days after full repayment/ settlement of the loan account.
  • The borrower shall be given the option of collecting the original movable/immovable property documents either from the banking outlet/branch where the loan account was serviced or any other office of the RE where the documents are available, as per her / his preference.
  • In case of delay in releasing of original movable/immovable property documents or failure to file charge satisfaction form with the relevant registry beyond 30 days after full repayment/ settlement of the loan, the RE shall communicate to the borrower the reasons for such delay.
  • In the case where the delay is attributable to the RE, it shall compensate the borrower at the rate of ₹5,000/- for each day of delay.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. The country's largest lender, State Bank of India (SBI), has raised Rs 3,101 crore capital via additional tier I bonds (AT1) at a coupon of 8.1 percent.

B. This is 15 basis points lower than the pricing for its previous AT1 bond issued at 8.25 percent in March.

C. The base issue size for AT1 bonds was Rs 3,000 crore, with a green shoe of Rs 7,000 crore.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and C

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Both B and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A,B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All A,B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All A, B, and C.

In News

  • State Bank of India raises Rs 3,101 crore through AT1 bond at 8.1%.

Key Points

  • The country’s largest lender, State Bank of India (SBI), has raised Rs 3,101 crore capital via additional tier I bonds (AT1) at a coupon of 8.1 percent.
  • This is 15 basis points lower than the pricing for its previous AT1 bond issued at 8.25 percent in March.
  • The base issue size for AT1 bonds was Rs 3,000 crore, with a green shoe of Rs 7,000 crore. Rating agency CRISIL has assigned an "AA+" rating to AT1 bonds (Under Basel III regulations).
  • Out of the total Rs 50,000 crore bond issuance plan for FY24, Rs 20,000 crore will be from AT1 bonds, including this week’s proposed offering. It also has plans to issue tier-II bonds worth Rs 10,000 crore and the balance would be through infrastructure bonds in 2023-24.

Additional Information

  • State Bank of India
  • ​Founded in - 1955
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Chairman - Dinesh Kumar Khara​

Question 9

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Chairman Deepak Mohanty has recently announced that the total corpus under the National Pension System and Atal Pension Yojana has surpassed Rs _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 lakh crore

  2. BOption (b)

    11 lakh crore

  3. COption (c)

    15 lakh crore

  4. DOption (d)

    20 lakh crore

  5. EOption (e)

    25 lakh crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11 lakh crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 11 lakh crore.

In News

  • The total corpus under pension funds crosses Rs 11 trillion.

Key Points

  • The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) Chairman Deepak Mohanty announced the total corpus under the National Pension System and Atal Pension Yojana has crossed Rs 11 lakh crore.
  • The milestone of Rs 11 lakh crore asset under management (AUM) was achieved on January 10, 2024.
  • The AUM has increased from Rs 10 lakh crore to Rs 11 lakh crore in 4 months and 18 days (August 24, 2023 to January 10, 2024).
  • The authority in September revised the AUM target of Rs 12 lakh crore for the current fiscal.
  • The pension authority is working on a minimum assured pension plan, and it could become a reality in the next financial year if the guarantee issued is resolved.
  • The pension fund regulatory body was considering raising the current return of Rs 1,000-5,000 to Rs 2,500-7,500.

Additional Information

  • PFRDA
  • It is the regulatory body for the overall supervision and regulation of pensions in India.
  • It operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance in the Government of India.
  • Established in 2003

Question 10

Govt reconstitutes the central board of trustees of EPFO. What is the tenure of the EPFO Central Board Trustee?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 years

  2. BOption (b)

    4 years

  3. COption (c)

    5 years 

  4. DOption (d)

    2 years 

  5. EOption (e)

    3 years 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5 years 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5 years.

In News

  • Govt reconstitutes the central board of trustees of EPFO

Key Points

  • In a revamp of the retirement fund body Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), the government has reconstituted the body’s Central Board of Trustees (CBT) after the completion of its five-year term.
  • The CBT, EPFO is a tripartite, statutory body constituted by the central government under the provisions of section 5A of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,1952, and has representatives of employees, employers, and government.
  • The tenure of the Board is five years.
  • In 2017, the clause was inserted in Section 5 of the EPF Scheme, 1952, under which “an outgoing trustee or member shall be eligible for re-appointment as member of the central board or the regional committee, as the case may be, for a maximum of not more than two terms”.

Additional Information

  • EPFO
  • ​Established in - 1952
  • HQ - New Delhi
  • Commissioner - Neelam Shami Rao

Question 11

SEBI was established on 12 April 1988 as an executive body and was given statutory powers on 30 January 1992. Which of the following is not regulated by SEBI?

  1. AOption (a)

    Merchant Bankers

  2. BOption (b)

    NSDL

  3. COption (c)

    CRISIL

  4. DOption (d)

    CCIL

  5. EOption (e)

    Portfolio managers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CCIL

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CCIL.

In News

  • Securities and Exchange Board of India

Key Points

  • Securities and Exchange Board of India is an autonomous organization that works under the overall administrative supervision of the Union Finance Ministry and is accountable to the Parliament.
  • The Securities and Exchange Board of India owned by the Government of India was established on 12th April 1992 under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to protect the interests of the investors in securities along with promoting and regulating the securities market.
  • It is empowered to frame rules, regulations, guidelines direction, etc. in respect of both primary and secondary securities markets.
  • The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates several entities, including:
  • Merchant Bankers
  • NSDL
  • CRISIL
  • Stockbrokers
  • Bankers to issues
  • Debenture trustees
  • Portfolio managers
  • CCIL is regulated by the RBI.

Question 12

Ministry of Education released new "Guidelines or Regulating Coaching Institutes". The coaching centers will be penalized up to _______________ or their registration be canceled for charging exorbitant fees.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    ₹5 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹10 lakh

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹15 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹1 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹1 lakh.

In News

  • Ministry of Education issues guidelines for coaching centres; prohibits intake of students below 16 years.

In News

  • Coaching institutes across India have welcomed the latest guidelines issued by the Ministry of Education to regulate private coaching centres.
  • The Centre has also suggested that coaching centres be penalised up to Rs 1 lakh or their registration be cancelled for charging exorbitant fees that cause undue stress, leading students to commit suicide, or for other malpractices.
  • To ensure proper monitoring of the coaching institutes, the government has proposed registration of new and existing centres within three months of the guidelines coming into effect.
  • Certain regulations may pose challenges for both coaching centres and students.
  • The state government will be responsible for monitoring the activities of the coaching centre and scrutinising the registration eligibility and activities of the coaching centre.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Education
  • It is a ministry of the Government of India, responsible for the implementation of the National Policy on Education.
  • Current Minister - Dharmendra Pradhan

Question 13

There were 22 unicorns added in 2022, compared to 46 in 2021. Which unicorns were added in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zepto

  2. BOption (b)

    Krutrim

  3. COption (c)

    InCred Finance

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Zepto and InCred Finance

  5. EOption (e)

    Both Krutrim and Zepto

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both Zepto and InCred Finance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Zepto and InCred Finance.

In News

  • Only two unicorn companies were created in 2023 compared to 21 in 2022.

Key Points

  • Out of the total number of unicorns, 46 unicorns with a total valuation of 102.30Bnwerebornin2021and22unicornswithatotalvaluationof 102.30 Bn were born in 2021 and 22 unicorns with a total valuation of 29.20 Bn were born in 2022.
  • Mumbai-based InCred Holdings, the holding company of InCred Financial Services, has raised Rs 500 crore in its latest round of Series D funding.
  • The latest funding round values the company at nearly $1.05 billion.
  • InCred Finance is the second to become a unicorn this year, following Zepto's entry into the $1-billion club in August.
  • InCred Finance plans to deploy the capital across business verticals such as consumer loans, student loans, and MSME lending.
  • In 2023, Zepto became India's first unicorn after raising $200 million in a Series E round of funding.

Additional Information

  • Zepto 
  • It is an online grocery company offering doorstep grocery delivery.
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • InCred Finance
  • It is a leading non-banking financial company (NBFC) in India and is dedicated to providing innovative and customer-centric financial solutions.
  • Krutrim
  • Krutrim is the AI startup founded by serial entrepreneur Bhavish Aggarwal

Question 14

The Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India are appointed for a term of ______ years.

  1. AOption (a)

    three

  2. BOption (b)

    four

  3. COption (c)

    two

  4. DOption (d)

    five

  5. EOption (e)

    six

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

four

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is four.

Key Points

  • The Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India is appointed for a term of four years.
  • The overall direction of the RBI lies with the 21-member central board of directors, composed of:
  • The governor,
  • Four deputy governors,
  • Two finance ministry representatives,
  • Ten government-nominated directors,
  • Four directors who represent local boards for Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.
  • The Government of India appoints the directors for a four-year term.
  • The Central Board of Directors of the RBI recommended aligning the accounting year of RBI with the financial year of the government (April-March), from 2020-21.
  • The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors.
  • The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the **Reserve Bank of India Act.**​

Additional Information

  • RBI (Reserve Bank of India):
  • The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • This central banking institution was established based on the suggestions of the “Royal Commission on Indian Currency & Finance” in 1926.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and regulatory body.
  • It is responsible for the issue and supply of the Indian rupee and the regulation of the Indian banking system.
  • It also manages the country's main payment systems and works to promote its economic development.
  • Governor: Shaktikanta Das
  • Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra

Question 15

In January, Which company ranked first among arrangers for Indian offshore loans in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    HSBC Holdings plc

  2. BOption (b)

    Muthoot Finance

  3. COption (c)

    Bajaj Finance

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HSBC Holdings plc

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HSBC Holdings plc.

In News

  • HSBC ranked first for India offshore loans in 2023 helped by Reliance deals.

Key Points

  • HSBC Holdings Plc ranked first among arrangers for Indian offshore loans last year, toppling Japanese lenders from the top spot they’d held since 2020.
  • Data compiled by Bloomberg show the British bank was the bookrunner on roughly $4 billion of US-currency transactions in 2023.
  • Borrowing by billionaire Mukesh Ambani’s Reliance Group contributed to HSBC’s business. Reliance took out a total of $6.4 billion last year via multiple banks.
  • As one of the world’s fastest-growing major economies with an urgent need for infrastructure spending, India attracted international debt investors.
  • HSBC won business from state-backed banks, including a $1 billion term loan facility from the State Bank of India.
  • HSBC Holdings plc
  • ​It is a multinational financial services holding company.

Additional Information

  • Muthoot Finance
  • It is an Indian financial corporation and the largest gold loan NBFC in the country.
  • HQ - Kochi, Kerala
  • Bajaj Finance
  • It is an Indian non-banking financial company.
  • HQ - Pune
  • Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services
  • ​It is an Indian rural non-banking financial company.
  • HQ - Mumbai.

Question 16

Which of the following points is/are "correct" with respect to the recent release by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in September 2023?

A) RBI released the names of 15 Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in the Upper Layer (UL)/NBFC-UL under Scale Based Regulation for NBFCS for the year 2023-24.

B) The NBFC-UL (Upper Layer) includes NBFCs specifically identified by the RBI as warranting enhanced regulatory requirements based on a set of parameters and scoring methodology.

C) TMF Business Services Limited, formerly Tata Motors Finance Limited, qualifies as an NBFC- UL (Non-Banking Financial Company - Upper Layer) based on scoring methodology.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A & B

  3. COption (c)

    Only B & C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A & C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B & C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All A, B & C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All A, B & C.

In News

  • RBI releases a list of 15 NBFCs in ‘Upper Layer’.

Key Points

  • In the year 2023-24, RBI released the names of 15 NBFCs that fall under the Upper Layers (UL)/NBFC-UL of the SBR.
  • NBFC-BL (Base Layer): It primarily consists of non-deposit-taking NBFCs with assets below Rs 1000 crore.
  • NBFC-ML (Middle Layer): It comprises all deposit-taking NBFCs and non-deposit-taking NBFCs with assets exceeding Rs1000 crore.
  • NBFC-UL (Upper Layer): The upper layer includes NBFCs specifically identified by the RBI as warranting enhanced regulatory requirements based on a set of parameters and scoring methodology.
  • The top 10 eligible in terms of asset size will always reside in the upper layer, regardless of other factors.
  • NBFC-TL (Top Layer): NBFC-UL will be moved to Top Layer if RBI recognizes a substantial increase in the potential systemic risk.
  • TMF Business Services Limited, formerly Tata Motors Finance Limited, qualifies as an NBFC-UL based on scoring methodology.

Additional Information

  • RBI 
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor- Shaktikanta Das

Question 17

Ayhika Mukherjee is related to which of the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cricket

  2. BOption (b)

    Football

  3. COption (c)

    Table Tennis

  4. DOption (d)

    Hockey

  5. EOption (e)

    Archery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Table Tennis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Table Tennis.

Question 18

Which bank is seeking a Singapore bank license to open its 1st branch in the Country?

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    ICICI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Axis Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    IndusInd Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    YES Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HDFC Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

In News

  • HDFC seeks a Singapore bank licence to open its 1st branch in the country.

Key Points

  • HDFC Bank Ltd, India’s biggest private sector lender, is seeking to open its first branch in Singapore, signalling its overseas ambitions after sewing up a landmark merger with mortgage financier Housing Development Finance Corp. last year.
  • The bank has applied to the Monetary Authority of Singapore for a banking licence and is awaiting approval, according to sources familiar with the matter.
  • It is not clear what kind of banking licence HDFC Bank is seeking in Singapore.
  • The banking giant is seeking a bigger presence abroad to tap the Indian diaspora for savings and term deposits, as well as to cross-sell more products, including mortgages.
  • At home, HDFC has been focusing on deepening its reach in the world’s most populous country through loans to retail customers.
  • Singapore, with a population of almost 6 million people, houses a large Indian diaspora.

Additional Information

  • HDFC Bank
  • ​Established in - 1994
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Sashidhar Jagdishan

Question 19

Which Insurance companies are regarded as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) by IRDAI?

  1. AOption (a)

    Life Insurance Company

  2. BOption (b)

    General Insurance Corporation of India

  3. COption (c)

    New India Assurance Co

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 & 2

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • LIC, GIC Re, and New India remain Domestic Systemically Important Insurers, as announced by IRDAI.

Key Points

  • Regulator Irdai announced Life Insurance Corporation of India, General Insurance Corporation of India, and New India Assurance Co. continue to remain as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) and are perceived as "too big or too important to fail".
  • Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) refer to insurers of such size, market importance, and domestic and global interconnectedness, whose distress or failure would cause a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system.
  • "LIC, GIC Re., and New India continue to be identified as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs), as in the 2021-22 list of D-SIIs.

Additional Information

  • LIC
  • Established in 1956
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Siddhartha Mohanty
  • GIC
  • Established in 1972
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CMD - Ramaswamy Narayanan
  • New India Assurance Co
  • ​Established in - 1919
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Pardeep Kharoud

Question 20

Which bank has recently signed an MoU with Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited to establish a platform for co-lending and loan syndication for a wide range of renewable energy projects across India?

  1. AOption (a)

    State Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Overseas Bank 

  3. COption (c)

    Bank of India 

  4. DOption (d)

    Union Bank of India 

  5. EOption (e)

    Bank of Baroda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indian Overseas Bank 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Overseas Bank

In News

  • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) and Indian Overseas Bank join hands in co-lending for Renewable Energy Projects.

Key Points

  • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) has signed a MoU with the Indian Overseas Bank, setting the stage for collaborative efforts in co-lending and loan syndication for a diverse spectrum of Renewable Energy projects across the nation
  • The MoU includes co-lending and co-origination support provisions for all Renewable Energy projects.
  • The partnership aims to streamline loan syndication and underwriting processes and manage Trust and Retention Accounts (TRA) for IREDA borrowers.
  • The partnership also works towards fixed interest rates over a 3–4-year period for IREDA borrowings.
  • Indian Overseas Bank
  • ​Established in 1937
  • HQ - Chennai
  • CEO - Ajay Kumar Srivastava

Additional Information 

  • State Bank of India
  • ​Established in - 1955
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Chairman - Dinesh Kumar Khara
  • Bank of India
  • Established in - 1906
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Rajneesh Karnatak
  • Union Bank of India
  • ​Established in - 1919
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - A. Manimekhalai​
  • Bank of Baroda
  • Established in - 1908
  • HQ - Vadodara
  • CEO - Devdutt Chand

Question 21

'States Startup Ranking Framework 2022' results were announced. Which category is not awarded in the a Ranking States?

  1. AOption (a)

    Best Performers

  2. BOption (b)

    Sportsperson

  3. COption (c)

    Top Performers

  4. DOption (d)

    Leaders

  5. EOption (e)

    Aspiring Leaders

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sportsperson

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sportsperson.

In News

  • States’ Startup Ranking 2022.

Key Points

  • The Startup India initiative of the Government of India envisages building a robust Startup ecosystem in the country for nurturing innovations and providing opportunities to budding entrepreneurs.
  • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry has been conducting the States Start-up Ranking Exercise since 2018.
  • The exercise plays a crucial role in easing the business environment for start-ups in the country.
  • States and Union Territories are classified into 5 Categories:
  • Best Performers
  • Top Performers
  • Leaders
  • Aspiring Leaders
  • Emerging Start-up Ecosystems

Additional Information

  • Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu lead the State Startup Ranking 2022 as Best Performers, the top category in the ranking.
  • The ranking was released by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • Gujarat has retained its position as the Best Performer start-up state in the country.

Question 22

The Government of India has set up a 21 member high-level technical committee in order to guide the people in preventive and control activities of pandemic COVID-19. Who among the following would head this committee? (March 2020)

  1. AOption (a)

    Randeep Guleria

  2. BOption (b)

    Sujeet Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Sanjay Pujari

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajan Khobragade

  5. EOption (e)

    V K Paul

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

V K Paul

Why this answer is correct

  • The Government of India has set up a 21 member high-level technical committee in order to guide the people in preventive and control activities of pandemic COVID-19.
  • V K Paul would head this high-level committee. He is a NITI Aayog member.
  • This committee would be co-chaired by  Preeti Sudan, Union Health Secretary and  Balram Bhargava, Director General Indian Council of Medical Research.
  • Randeep Guleria, Sujeet Singh, Sanjay Pujari, Rajan Khobragade are the members of this committee.

Question 23

Which bank has recently (Jan 2024) collaborated with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub and DLabs at the Indian School of Business (ISB), Hyderabad to launch "Build for Billions", a startup accelerator program.

  1. AOption (a)

    Union Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Bank of India

  3. COption (c)

    Bank of Baroda

  4. DOption (d)

    Bank of Maharashtra

  5. EOption (e)

    Canara Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Union Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Union Bank of India.

In News

  • DLabs At ISB Launches `Build For Billions’ Jointly With RBI Innovation Hub, UBI.

Key Points

  • DLabs at the Indian School of Business (ISB) has announced the initiation of ‘Build for Billions’, a startup accelerator program centred around financial inclusion for the informal economy.
  • This innovative program has been launched in partnership with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) and Union Bank of India.
  • The primary theme of ‘Build for Billions’ is to foster financial inclusion within the informal economy.
  • It aims to address livelihood issues for gig workers, migrant workers, domestic workers, street vendors, carpenters, plumbers, electricians, and construction laborers who represent the informal economy.

Additional Information

  • Union Bank of India
  • ​Established in - 1919
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - A. Manimekhalai
  • RBI Innovation Hub
  • ​It has been set up as a Section 8 company under the Companies Act, 2013 with an initial capital contribution of Rs 100 crore.
  • It is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI.
  • RBIH aims to create an ecosystem that focuses on promoting access to financial services and products for the low-income population in the country.

Question 24

A savings as well as current account should be treated as dormant if there are no transactions in the account for over a period of _____ years.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

  5. EOption (e)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

savings as well as current account should be treated as dormant if there are no transactions in the account for over a period of two years.

Question 25

How many manned missions has NASA conducted on the moon?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    6

  5. EOption (e)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

  • NASA has conducted 6 manned missions on the moon.
  • NASA did a total of six moon landings under its Apollo programme that ran from 1961 to 1972.
  • Apollo 11 (Neil Armstrong and Edwin Buzz Aldrin)
  • Apollo 12 (Charles Conrad and Alan Bean)
  • Apollo 14 (Aland Shepard and Edgar Mitchell)
  • Apollo 15 (David Scott and James Irvin)
  • Apollo 16 (John Young and Charles Duke)
  • Apollo 17 (Eugene Cernan and Harrison Schmitt)

Question 26

India Signs Agreement for Lithium Exploration & Mining Project with CAMYEN company of ________________ recently for prospecting two areas identified to establish projects for extraction of lithium in due course of time.

  1. AOption (a)

    Egypt

  2. BOption (b)

    Brazil

  3. COption (c)

    Argentina

  4. DOption (d)

    Mexico

  5. EOption (e)

    Morocco

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Argentina

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Argentina'.

Key Points

  • Ministry of Mines, Government of India has achieved a significant milestone with the signing of an agreement between Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) and the state-owned enterprise of Catamarca province of Argentina CATAMARCA MINERA Y ENERGÉTICA SOCIEDAD DEL ESTADO (CAMYEN SE) at Catamarca, Argentina on 15th January, 2024.

Question 27

Which of the following can be participants on the TReDS platform?

  1. AOption (a)

    MSME Sellers

  2. BOption (b)

    MSME Buyers 

  3. COption (c)

    Financiers

  4. DOption (d)

    Insurance Companies

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the Above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the Above.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India has allowed participants on the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform to improve access to funds for micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
  • In June 2023, insurance companies were permitted as the “fourth participant” in TReDS, besides MSME sellers, buyers, and financiers.
  • The insurance facility is likely to encourage discounting of payables of buyers irrespective of their credit ratings.

Additional Information

  • TReDS is an online platform set up to facilitate MSMEs to unlock working capital by converting their receivables into cash.
  • TReDS gives capital access to credit-starved small businesses in India.

Question 28

Which ministry has launched the Education and Research Network of India (ERNET) portal to offer domain registration and Domain Name System (DNS) services for educational institutions in the country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Communications and Information Technology

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Science and Technology

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Education

  5. EOption (e)

    Ministry of Home Affairs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY).

In News

  • Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) Secretary Shri S Krishnan launched ERNET India’s newly developed integrated web portal for educational institutes in the country, at its head office.
  • The portal will offer domain registration, DNS, and value-added services viz.  Website as a Service (WaaS) and Learning Management as a Service (LMaaS).
  • The users can select from the variety of available templates for schools, colleges, and universities as per their requirements and create their website and Learning Management System.
  • The user can publish the website and LMS by customizing the template with a single click.
  • This web portal has been developed utilizing open-source software and emerging technologies such as AI/ML.
  • The ERNET India is a not-for-profit scientific society under MeitY.
  • Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)
  • ​It is an executive agency of the Union Government of the Republic of India.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Communications and Information Technology
  • ​It is an Indian government ministry.
  • It was bifurcated into the Ministry of Communications and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in July 2016.
  • Ministry of Science and Technology
  • ​It is the Indian government ministry charged with the formulation and administration of the rules regulations and laws relating to science and technology in India.
  • Current Minister - Jitendra Singh
  • Ministry of Education
  • ​It is a ministry of the Government of India, responsible for the implementation of the National Policy on education.

Question 29

Which of the following has not served as a Sherpa at the G20 summit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shaktikanta Das

  2. BOption (b)

    Suresh Prabhu

  3. COption (c)

    Piyush Goel

  4. DOption (d)

    Amitabh Kant

  5. EOption (e)

    Girish Chandra Murmu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Girish Chandra Murmu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Girish Chandra Murmu.

Key Points

  • At an international summit meeting, a Sherpa is a personal envoy of the head of a member nation.
  • G20 Sherpas:
  • Shaktikanta Das (2018)
  • Suresh Prabhu (2019)
  • Piyush Goel (2021)
  • Amitabh Kant (2023)

Question 30

State Bank of India (SBI) raised ______ crore through its second Basel III compliant Additional Tier 1 bond issuance for the current financial year at a coupon rate of 8.34%. 

  1. AOption (a)

    3000

  2. BOption (b)

    5000

  3. COption (c)

    7500

  4. DOption (d)

    10000

  5. EOption (e)

    11000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5000.

Key Points

  • State Bank of India (SBI) raised 5000 crore through its second Basel III compliant Additional Tier 1 bond issuance for the current financial year at a coupon rate of 8.34%. 
  • The tenor of these bonds is perpetual with a call option after 10 years and every anniversary thereafter.
  • The Bonds were rated AA+ with a stable outlook by CRISIL and ICRA.

Question 31

The Ayodhya Ram Janmabhoomi Mandir has been constructed in which style?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nagara

  2. BOption (b)

    Dravida

  3. COption (c)

    Vesara

  4. DOption (d)

    Panchayatan

  5. EOption (e)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nagara

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nagara.

Key Points

  • The Ram Temple at Ayodhya will be constructed in Nagara style of architecture and on the lines of North Indian temple architecture.
  • The temple will have a height of 161 feet.
  • The temple will have five domes instead of two planned earlier.
  • Chandrakant Sompura is the chief architect of the Ram Temple.

Question 32

PFRDA announced to make some changes in the National Pension Scheme (NPS) Rules. These new rules will allow the NPS account holder to withdraw up to _____________ of the money from the deposited pension fund.

  1. AOption (a)

    40%

  2. BOption (b)

    50%

  3. COption (c)

    55%

  4. DOption (d)

    60%

  5. EOption (e)

    65%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

60%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 60%.

In News

  • NPS Rules: PFRDA to allow users to withdraw up to 60 percent pension fund.

Key Points

  • The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is going to make some changes to the National Pension Scheme (NPS) Rules.
  • PFRDA has started the implementation process, and the addition of new rules aims to make it easy and beneficial for the employees under these new rules to withdraw money.
  • The circulation was issued on October 27, 2023, by the PFRDA to alter Rule 3 and Rule 4 and will start Systematic Lump Sum Withdrawal (SLW) for withdrawal of money after the stipulated time.
  • These new rules will allow the NPS account holder to withdraw up to 60 percent of the money from the deposited pension fund. Under SLW, the user can withdraw the deposited money on a monthly, quarterly, half-yearly or even yearly basis till the age of 75 years as per their convenience.
  • SLW for NPS will work as a Systematic Withdrawal Plan (SWP) for mutual fund users.
  • This scheme will allow pensioners to continuously receive money.
  • This scheme will ensure that the NPS account holder will not be burdened with expenses and will receive a fixed income post-retirement.

Additional Information

  • PFRDA
  • ​It is the regulatory body for the overall supervision and regulation of pensions in India.
  • It operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance in the Government of India.
  • Established in 2003.

Question 33

According to the 2024 Brands Report, which IT service brand was deemed the world's most valuable?

  1. AOption (a)

    Accenture

  2. BOption (b)

    TCS

  3. COption (c)

    Infosys

  4. DOption (d)

    IBM Consulting

  5. EOption (e)

    Oracle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Accenture

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Accenture.

In News

  • Accenture, TCS, Infosys rise in brand value among IT firms, Wipro dips.

Key Points

  • IT services firms Accenture, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) and Infosys continued to boost their brand value despite tepid growth environment and the disruption owing to newer technologies.
  • The three IT giants topped the charts of IT brands according to the Brand Finance 2024 report.
  • Accenture maintained its position as the world's most valuable IT services brand, with a brand value of $40.5 billion increasing by 1.6% from last year.
  • Homegrown IT bellwether TCS took the second spot with a 11% rise in its brand value to $19.2 billion.
  • In absolute terms, the incremental brand value was the highest among global IT majors at nearly 2billion,upfrom2 billion, up from 17.2 billion last year.

Question 34

With which country has the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) established a linkage, enabling Indians to receive real-time remittances directly into their bank accounts through UPI?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States

  2. BOption (b)

    Singapore

  3. COption (c)

    United Kingdom

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia

  5. EOption (e)

    Maldives

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Singapore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Singapore. 

In News

  • UPI Apps enabled to receive remittances from Singapore via UPI-PayNow linkage.

Key Points

  • The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has announced a major UPI-PayNow linkage, facilitating real-time remittances from Singapore to India.
  • Indians can seamlessly receive funds directly into their bank accounts through popular UPI and bank apps, including SBI, Axis Bank, ICICI Bank, BHIM, PhonePe, and Paytm.
  • The cross-border linkage between Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Singapore's PayNow ensures instant, secure, and cost-effective remittances, providing a game-changing solution for the Indian diaspora.
  • Banks such as Axis Bank, DBS Bank India, ICICI Bank, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, and State Bank of India are already offering this functionality, with more banks expected to join soon.
  • This achievement, resulting from collaboration between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS), enhances financial inclusion, convenience, and fosters the growth of India's digital payment ecosystem.

Question 35

S&P Global projects a decrease in Indian banks' non-performing assets (NPAs) to _________ % by the end of Fiscal Year 2023-24 and a further reduction to 3.5% by the end of Fiscal Year 2024-25.

  1. AOption (a)

    2.5

  2. BOption (b)

    3.75

  3. COption (c)

    3.90

  4. DOption (d)

    4.5

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4.5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4.5%

In News

  • Indian banks’ NPAs to drop to 3.5%, net interest margin to 2.9% by FY25: S&P Global.

Key Points 

  • S & P Global projects a decrease in Indian banks' non-performing assets (NPAs) to 4.5% by the end of Fiscal Year 2023-24 and a further reduction to 3.5% by the end of Fiscal Year 2024-25.
  • S&P Global does not anticipate a significant rise in interest rates in the near future.
  • Non-performing assets (NPAs) are loan accounts where the principal or interest is due for a period of three months or more.
  • S&P Global Ratings' report is titled 'Forewarned is Forearmed' and is part of the Global Banks’ Country-By-Country Outlook 2024.
  • The report suggests that slower global growth and external demand may impact economic activity, potentially contributing to inflation.
  • Notes that corporate borrowing is gaining momentum, but the uncertain environment may delay capital expenditure-related growth.

Additional Information

  • S & P Global
  • S & P Global Inc. is an American publicly traded corporation headquartered in Manhattan, New York City.
  • Its primary areas of business are financial information and analytics.

Question 36

In the 2023 Men's Cricket World Cup, which of the following countries did the Netherlands defeat?

  1. AOption (a)

    South Africa, Pakistan

  2. BOption (b)

    Bangladesh, South Africa

  3. COption (c)

    Afghanistan, Bangladesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Sri Lanka, Afghanistan

  5. EOption (e)

    India, Australia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bangladesh, South Africa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bangladesh, South Africa.

Key Points

  • In the 2023 Men's Cricket World Cup, the Netherlands defeated Bangladesh and South Africa.
  • The Netherlands defeated Bangladesh by 87 runs.
  • It defeated South Africa by 38 runs.
  • The 2023 Men's Cricket World Cup was hosted by India.
  • Australia was the winner of the 2023 Men's Cricket World Cup.

Question 37

In January, Which company has recently signed an MoU with the NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) to expand the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) globally?

  1. AOption (a)

    PhonePe

  2. BOption (b)

    Paytm

  3. COption (c)

    MobiKwik

  4. DOption (d)

    BharatPe

  5. EOption (e)

    Google Pay 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Google Pay 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Google Pay.

In News

  • Google Pay signs agreement to expand UPI for international payments.

Key Points

  • Google Pay and NPCI International Payments signed an agreement to expand the scope of Unified Payments Interface ( UPI) payments outside India.
  • It will enable Indian travelers to transact digitally abroad while establishing systems similar to UPI in other countries.
  • The memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed at a time when India was simplifying cross-border digital payments by using UPI’s rails to enable remittances between countries.
  • Google Pay: the move will enable foreign merchants to access Indian customers. Such customers will be able to make payments using UPI-powered apps from India without requiring them to rely on foreign currency, credit, or forex cards.
  • Google Pay has been a proud and willing collaborator to NPCI and the financial ecosystem, under the regulator’s guidance, and this collaboration is another step toward our commitment to making payments simple, safe and convenient
  • Google Pay
  • It is a mobile payment service developed by Google to power in-app online and in-person contactless purchases on mobile devices, enabling users to make payments with Android phones, tablets, or watches.
  • Users can authenticate via a PIN, passcode, or biometrics such as 3D face scanning or fingerprint recognition.

Additional Information

  • PhonePe
  • ​It is an Indian digital payment and financial services company.
  • HQ - Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • Paytm
  • ​It is an Indian multinational financial technology company, that specializes in digital payments and financial services.
  • HQ - Noida
  • MobiKwik
  • ​It is an Indian payment service provider founded in 2009.
  • Customers can add money to an online wallet that can be used for payments.
  • BharatPe
  • ​It is an Indian fintech company that sells digital payment and financial services to small merchants and Grocery stores.

Question 38

In January, PM Modi released the first installment of PM-JANMAN to 1 lakh beneficiaries. Its beneficiaries include how many communities are located in 18 states and the Union Territory (UT) of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

  1. AOption (a)

    73

  2. BOption (b)

    70

  3. COption (c)

    74

  4. DOption (d)

    72

  5. EOption (e)

    75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

75

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 75.

In News

  • PM Modi releases the first instalment of PM-JANMAN to 1 lakh beneficiaries.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi released the first instalment of the rural housing scheme Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) to one lakh beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN) via video conferencing.
  • Releasing the first instalment of ₹540 crore, the prime minister announced that the 10 years of the Bharatiya Janata Party-led central government have been dedicated to the welfare of the poor.
  • The last decade saw the budget for welfare schemes dedicated to Scheduled Tribes increase by five times and scholarships for tribal students grew by two-and-a-half times.
  • Work is underway to construct more than 500 Eklavya model schools for tribal students as compared to 90 earlier.
  • The PM-JANMAN, with a budget of approximately ₹24,000 crore, focuses on 11 critical interventions through nine ministries and is aimed at improving socio-economic conditions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) by providing them with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, electricity, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities.

Additional Information

  • PM-JANMAN scheme
  • Launched in 2023
  • Total outlay - Rs 24,104 crore (Central Share- Rs 15,336 crore and State Share- Rs 8,768 crore)
  • Focus area - 11 important areas of critical interventions across 9 line Ministries.

Question 39

Which of the statements given below correctly refers to the term "deepfake", recently seen in news?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deepfakes are traditional media - video, audio, and images, edited solely by professional artists to create entertainment content.

  2. BOption (b)

    Deepfakes are naturally occurring geological formations that represent an interesting feature in satellite imagery.

  3. COption (c)

    Deepfake technology involves the use of basic information technology tools to enhance the quality of pixelated images.

  4. DOption (d)

    Deepfakes refers to the use of artificial intelligence to manipulate or fabricate visual and audio content with high precision.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Deepfakes refers to the use of artificial intelligence to manipulate or fabricate visual and audio content with high precision.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1

In News

  • The Hindu: After a viral video, IT Ministry issues warning to social media sites on deepfakes.

Key PointsDeepfakes:

  • Deepfakes are synthetic media that have been digitally manipulated to replace one person's likeness convincingly with that of another.
  • They are created by using deep learning, a branch of artificial intelligence that involves training neural networks with large amounts of data to perform tasks such as image recognition, natural language processing, and computer vision.
  • Deepfakes can be used for various purposes, such as entertainment, satire, political propaganda, misinformation, identity theft, and cybercrime.
  • For example, deepfakes can be used to create realistic videos of celebrities, politicians, or other public figures saying or doing things that they never did or said.
  • They can also be used to generate fake voices, faces, or body movements for actors, singers, or impersonators.
  • Deepfake technology involves the use of advanced information technology tools, such as generative adversarial networks (GANs), face detection and alignment algorithms, and video editing software.
  • GANs are a type of neural network that consist of two competing models: a generator and a discriminator.
  • The generator tries to create fake images or videos that look real, while the discriminator tries to distinguish between real and fake ones. The generator and the discriminator learn from each other and improve their performance over time.
  • Hence statement 4 is correct
  • Deepfakes are not traditional media that are edited solely by professional artists, as they require sophisticated artificial intelligence techniques and large amounts of data to produce realistic results. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • They are also not naturally occurring geological formations, as they are artificially created by humans using digital tools.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • They are not basic information technology tools that enhance the quality of pixelated images, as they involve creating new content that may not match the original source.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Therefore the correct answer is option 4.

Question 40

During the visit of Union Minister of External Affairs Subrahmanyam Jaishankar to Iran in January 2024, Persian (Farsi) became the __________ classical language of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    5th

  2. BOption (b)

    6th

  3. COption (c)

    7th

  4. DOption (d)

    8th

  5. EOption (e)

    9th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

9th

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 9th.

In News

  • Farsi is one of India's nine classical languages: S Jaishankar.

Key Points

  • In a significant move to deepen cultural ties, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar announced that the Government of India has decided to include Farsi (Persian) as one of the nine classical languages in India under the New Education Policy.
  • This recognition reflects a commitment to fostering greater understanding and appreciation of Farsi's rich heritage within the Indian educational framework.
  • Tamil was the first language in India to be accorded classical language status in 2004. Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia are the other languages that have been declared classical languages in India by the central government.
  • In addition to these classical languages Pali, Persian, Telugu and Prakrit; and their works of literature too must be preserved for their richness and for the pleasure and enrichment of posterity

Additional Information

  • New Education Policy
  • It was started by the Union Cabinet of India on 29 July 2020 and outlines the vision of the new education system of India.
  • The policy aims to transform India's education system by 2030.
  • It aims to increase state expenditure on education from around 3% to 6% of the GDP as soon as possible

Question 41

Name the company that has recently won the Best Green Bond - Corporate Award at The Asset Triple A Awards for Sustainable Finance 2024.

  1. AOption (a)

    NTPC Limited

  2. BOption (b)

    Coal India Limited

  3. COption (c)

    Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited

  4. DOption (d)

    REC Limited

  5. EOption (e)

    Power Finance Corporation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

REC Limited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is REC Limited.

In News

  • REC wins Best Green Bond

Key Points

  • REC Limited, a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise under the Ministry of Power and a leading NBFC has been bestowed with the prestigious Best Green Bond - Corporate Award at The Asset Triple A Awards for Sustainable Finance 2024.
  • REC received the award for the issuance of USD 750 million Green Bonds in April 2023 which was also the first USD Green Bond issuance from India post India’s assumption of G20 Presidency and the largest ever Senior Green Bond Tranche by a South or Southeast Asian issuer.
  • The bond issue was priced at a minimum new issue premium of 7.5 bps, which was tighter than the most recent high-rated issuances from the region.
  • The issue was well received by the investors and demonstrates REC’s significant contribution to financing projects aimed at mitigating climate change and promoting environmental sustainability.

Additional Information

  • REC Limited
  • REC is a 'Maharatna' Central Public Sector Enterprise under the Ministry of Power and is registered with RBI as a Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC), and Infrastructure Financing Company (IFC).
  • Asset Triple A Awards
  • ​The Asset Triple A Awards are a pre-eminent recognition for those organizations that have excelled in their respective industry.
  • With over two decades of experience conducting awards programmes, The Asset Triple A Awards reflect unparalleled industry understanding to be able to distinguish best-in-class organizations.
  • The Asset Triple A Awards programmes are built upon a stringent methodology that is combined with a rigorous approach in selecting the best institutions and deals.
  • The awards are adjudicated by The Asset’s board of editors who are regarded as the most experienced and collectively have several decades’ worth of evaluating industry awards.

Question 42

A microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having annual household income up to ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,00,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2,00,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹3,00,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹4,00,000

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹5,00,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹3,00,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹3,00,000.

Key Points

  • A microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having annual household income up to ₹3,00,000.
  • According to the RBI, all collateral-free loans, irrespective of end use and mode of application/ processing/ disbursal (either through physical or digital channels), provided to low-income households, i.e., households having annual income up to ₹3,00,000, shall be considered as microfinance loans.
  • To ensure the collateral-free nature of the microfinance loan, the loan is not linked with a lien on the deposit account of the borrower.

Question 43

What is the name of the portal to track unclaimed deposits, unveiled by the RBI?

  1. AOption (a)

    UDGAM

  2. BOption (b)

    RUPIYA

  3. COption (c)

    JANM

  4. DOption (d)

    UDAY

  5. EOption (e)

    ANTARDRISHTI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

UDGAM

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is UDGAM.

In News

  • RBI unveils UDGAM portal to track unclaimed deposits.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India has launched a centralised web portal called UDGAM to help track unclaimed deposits across multiple banks.
  • UDGAM stands for 'Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access inforMation.'
  • The portal has been developed by Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd.c
  • Users can access the details of their unclaimed deposits in seven banks presently available on the portal.

Question 44

Consider the following statements about the Dark Sky Park:

  1. An International Dark-Sky Park (IDSP) is a land possessing an exceptional or distinguished quality of starry nights and a nocturnal environment, that is specifically protected for its scientific, natural, educational, and/or cultural heritage resource, and/or for public enjoyment.
  2. Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky.
  3. The Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra has been marked as India's first Dark Sky Park and the fifth such park in Asia.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1, 2

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the Above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the Above.

In News

  • Mint: Maharashtra Pench Tiger Reserve becomes India's first Dark Sky Park. All you need to know.

Key PointsDark Sky Park:

  • An International Dark-Sky Park (IDSP) is a land possessing an exceptional or distinguished quality of starry nights and a nocturnal environment, that is specifically protected for its scientific, natural, educational, and/or cultural heritage resource, and/or for public enjoyment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • A dark-sky preserve is an area, usually surrounding a park or observatory, that restricts artificial light pollution. The purpose of the dark-sky movement is generally to promote astronomy.
  • Achieving Dark Sky Park accreditation takes years of careful monitoring of the darkness of the night sky, in all seasons, all phases of the moon, and all weather conditions.
  • The International Dark-Sky Association works to protect the night skies for present and future generations.
  • The Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra has been marked as India's first Dark Sky Park and the fifth such park in Asia for protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution, making the facility ideal for astronomy enthusiasts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Dark and Quiet Skies for Science and Society Working Group, led by the International Astronomical Union, has recommended the establishment of 'Dark Sky Oases' by national and local governments.
  • Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky.  Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional InformationPench Tiger Reserve or Pench National Park:

  • Pench Tiger Reserve or Pench National Park is one of the premier tiger reserves of India and the first one to straddle across two states - Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
  • The fictional works of Rudyard Kipling, The Jungle Book, and The Second Jungle Book, are set in the region. Kipling himself never visited the area, instead basing his descriptions on other locations in India.
  • It is named after the Pench River, which flows from north to south through the Reserve.
  • Vegetation: The undulating topography supports a mosaic of vegetation ranging from a moist sheltered valley to an open, dry deciduous forest.
  • Flora: The reserve boasts a diverse range of flora, including teak, saag, mahua, and various grasses and shrubs.
  • Fauna:
  • The area is especially famous for large herds of Chital, Sambar, Nilgai, Gaur (Indian Bison), and wild boar.
  • The key predator is the tiger, followed by leopards, wild dogs, and wolves.
  • There are over 325 species of resident and migratory birds, including the Malabar Pied Hornbill, Indian Pitta, Osprey, Grey Headed Fishing Eagle, White Eyed Buzzard, etc.

Question 45

Recently Ministry of Defence approved the Rs ____ proposal to purchase about 6,400 rockets for Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) systems.

  1. AOption (a)

    2,700 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    2,800 crore

  3. COption (c)

    2,150 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    1,900 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    2,900 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2,800 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2,800 crore.

In News

  • Defence ministry approves Rs 2,800 crore rockets for Pinaka weapon system.

Key Points

  • In a major boost for the Indian Army, the defence ministry has approved a Rs 2,800 crore proposal for buying around 6,400 rockets for Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher systems.
  • MoD's Defence Acquisition Council approved the proposal for the acquisition of 2 variants of these rockets, known as Area Denial Munition Type 2 and Type 3.
  • The Indian Army will only purchase the rockets from domestic suppliers and the 2 main contenders are Munitions India Limited and Econoic Explosives Limited of Solar Industries.
  • It is named after the bow of the Hindu deity Shiva; the Indian-made Pinaka weapon system was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India.
  • It stands as a battle-proven all-weather artillery weapon system, strategically designed for indirect area fire.

Additional Information

  • The Pinaka system is one of the first few military technologies to be exported from India to foreign countries like Armenia.
  • The development of the Pinaka was started by the DRDO in the late 1980s as an alternative to the Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher systems of Russian make called the ‘Grad’, which are still in use by some regiments.

Question 46

The Union Cabinet approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to ________, aiming to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).

  1. AOption (a)

    2028-2029

  2. BOption (b)

    2025-26

  3. COption (c)

    2035-36

  4. DOption (d)

    2030-31

  5. EOption (e)

    2036-38

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2030-31

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2030-31.

In News

  • The Union Cabinet on 19 April, 2023 approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to 2030-31, aiming to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).

Key Points

  • This will accelerate QT led economic growth, nurture the ecosystem in the country and make India one of the leading nations in the development of Quantum Technologies & Applications (QTA).
  • The new mission targets developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years in various platforms like superconducting and photonic technology.
  • Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 kilometres within India, long distance secure quantum communications with other countries, inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km as well as multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories are also some of the deliverables of the Mission.
  • The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity in atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for precision timing, communications and navigation.

Additional Information

  • NQM will also support design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, novel semiconductor structures and topological materials for fabrication of quantum devices.
  • Single photon sources/detectors, entangled photon sources will also be developed for quantum communications, sensing and metrological applications.
  • Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) will be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains - Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology and Quantum Materials & Devices.
  • The hubs which will focus on generation of new knowledge through basic and applied research as well as promote R&D in areas that are mandated to them.

Question 47

Which of the following companies has not received the SEBI approval to raise funds through initial public offerings (IPOs) in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency

  2. BOption (b)

    Ganviz Enterprises

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2 

  4. DOption (d)

    Suraj Estate Developers

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ganviz Enterprises

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ganviz Enterprises.

In News

  • Federal Bank's arm Fedfina, IREDA gets the nod from Sebi to float IPOs.

Key Points

  • The Securities and Exchange Board of India has given approval to four companies viz. Fredbank Financial Services Limited, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA), EPACK Durable, and Suraj Estate Developers to raise funds through initial public offerings.
  • These companies filed preliminary IPO papers with SEBI between July and September 2023.
  • The equity shares of these companies will be listed on the BSE and NSE.
  • Ganviz Enterprises
  • ​Established in the year 2005
  • It is a service provider of airconditioner ductable repair service, air conditioner repairing service & refrigerator repair service in Pondicherry.

Additional Information

  • Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
  • ​Established in 1987
  • HQ - New Delhi
  • CMD - Pradip Kumar Das
  • Fedbank Financial Services Limited
  • ​Established in 1995
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Anil Kuthori
  • Suraj Estate Developers
  • ​Established in - 1986
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CMD - Rajan Meenathakonil Thomas

Question 48

The Annual Technology Conference, Expo, & Citation 2022-2023 acted as a platform for the country's banks and their leaders to explore the latest banking technology innovations and connect with potential partners. Name the bank that has been recently honored with the title of Best Technology Bank of the Year Award at the 19th IBA Annual Banking Technology Conference, Expo, & Citations.

  1. AOption (a)

    City Union Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab National Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    State Bank of India

  5. EOption (e)

    South Indian Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

South Indian Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South Indian Bank.

In News

  • South Indian Bank gets the Best Technology Bank of the Year award.

Key Points

  • South Indian Bank has been honored with the title of Best Technology Bank of the Year Award at the 19th IBA Annual Banking Technology Conference, Expo, & Citations.
  • The bank’s outstanding performance was recognized with a total of six prestigious awards. In three categories, the bank emerged as the winner, secured the runner-up position in one, and received special mentions in two others.
  • The awards were presented to PR Seshadri, MD & CEO of South Indian Bank, by T Rabi Sankar, Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, in Mumbai.
  • The IBA Annual Banking Technology Conference, Expo & Citations has been an annual event since its inception in 2005.
  • IBA Annual Banking Awards Instituted by the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA), it recognizes organizations that have brought transformational changes in their businesses by adopting modern digital solutions.
  • South Indian Bank excelled across various categories, including winner in Best Technology Bank of the Year; winner in Best Tech Talent and Organisation; winner in Best IT Risk and Management.

Additional Information

  • South Indian Bank
  • ​Established in - 1929
  • HQ - Thrissur
  • CEO - PR Seshadri
  • City Union Bank
  • ​Established in - 1904
  • HQ - Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu
  • CEO - Dr. N. Kamakodi
  • Indian Bank​
  • Established in - 1907
  • HQ - Chennai
  • CEO - Shanti Lal Jain
  • State Bank of India
  • ​Established in - 1955
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Chairman - Dinesh Kumar Khara
  • Punjab National Bank
  • ​Established in 1894
  • HQ - New Delhi
  • CEO - Atul Kumar Goel

Question 49

What is the limit of the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LBS)?

  1. AOption (a)

    USD 25,000

  2. BOption (b)

    USD 50,000

  3. COption (c)

    USD 1,50,000

  4. DOption (d)

    USD 2,50,000

  5. EOption (e)

    USD 3,50,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

USD 2,50,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is USD 2,50,000.

Key Points

  • ​Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.
  • Further, resident individuals can avail of foreign exchange facilities for the purposes mentioned in Para 1 of Schedule III of FEM (CAT) Amendment Rules 2015, dated May 26, 2015, within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only.
  • The Scheme was introduced on February 4, 2004, with a limit of USD 25,000.
  • The LRS limit has been revised in stages consistent with prevailing macro and micro economic conditions.

Question 50

Under the GST Regime, an e-way bill needs to be generated for inter-state transport of goods if the value of the consignment exceeds ________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 25000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 30000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 50000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1 lakh 

  5. EOption (e)

    There is no such thresold limit 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 50000

Why this answer is correct

  • An E-Way Bill needs to be generated in case of inter-state shipping of goods under the GST regime.
  • It is basically an electronic permit for such transactions.
  • An e-way bill needs to be generated if the distance of travel is more than 10 kilometres or the value of the consignment exceeds Rs. 50000 or both.

General English (40 questions)

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Each question will present three words (I, II, and III) that can fill the blanks. Choose the option containing the word(s) that correctly fills the blanks to complete the passage.

With advancements in technology, the medical industry has ________ (A) a surge in diagnostic gadgets, ranging from X-ray examinations to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). These tools have simplified the process of diagnosis, making it more ________ (B) for doctors to rely on them rather than extensively engaging in history-taking and clinical examination. The ease of access and affordability of these diagnostic gadgets have further ________ (C) their widespread usage, even in remote areas. However, this increasing ________ (D) on technology has led to a gradual decline in clinical diagnostic skills among healthcare professionals. Similarly, technological advancements have ________ (E) surgical practice, introducing gadgets like computer navigation and robotic-assisted surgeries. While these innovations have undoubtedly enhanced precision and safety, their proliferation has raised concerns about the deskilling of surgeons. Moreover, the indiscriminate use of these gadgets for even simple procedures has contributed to rising healthcare costs and blurred distinctions between necessary and unnecessary interventions. In essence, just as internet-based maps have replaced our ability to navigate unfamiliar places, technology is gradually ________ (F) traditional medical practices. Looking ahead, there is a foreseeable future where artificial intelligence dominates disease diagnosis, and even routine medical procedures rely heavily on complex gadgets, fundamentally ________ (G) the landscape of healthcare delivery.

Question 51

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (G) in the passage?

l. Obfuscating

ll. Reshaping

lll. Transforming

  1. AOption (a)

    Both l and ll

  2. BOption (b)

    Both ll and lll

  3. COption (c)

    Both lll and l

  4. DOption (d)

    Only l

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both ll and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (G):
  • Looking ahead, there is a foreseeable future where artificial intelligence dominates disease diagnosis, and even routine medical procedures rely heavily on complex gadgets, fundamentally ________ (G) the landscape of healthcare delivery.
  • This sentence suggests a future where AI transforms healthcare, altering how medical services are delivered.
  • Blank (G) should be filled with a blank that indicates a significant transformation or alteration of the healthcare delivery system.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (G):
  • I. Obfuscating - making something unclear, confusing, or hard to understand, often intentionally (अस्पष्ट करना)
  • For Example -
  • The politician's speech was filled with obfuscating language, leaving the audience unsure of his true intentions.
  • II. Reshaping - altering the form or structure of something to create a new or different shape or appearance (पुनर्रचना)
  • For Example -
  • The architect proposed reshaping the building's design to make it more environmentally sustainable.
  • III. Transforming - making a thorough or dramatic change in the form, appearance, or character of something (परिवर्तित)
  • For Example -
  • The company underwent a transforming rebranding process, completely changing its image in the market.
  • So, given the context, the most appropriate words to fill in the blank labelled as (G) are "reshaping" and "transforming." The sentence discusses how artificial intelligence and complex gadgets are fundamentally altering the landscape of healthcare delivery, implying a significant change or transformation.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both ll and lll."
  • The complete sentence would be: "Looking ahead, there is a foreseeable future where artificial intelligence dominates disease diagnosis, and even routine medical procedures rely heavily on complex gadgets, fundamentally reshaping/transforming the landscape of healthcare delivery."

Question 52

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (F) in the passage?

l. Replacing

ll. Supplanting

lll. Displacing

  1. AOption (a)

    Both l and ll

  2. BOption (b)

    Both ll and lll

  3. COption (c)

    Both lll and l

  4. DOption (d)

    Only l

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All l, ll, and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (F):
  • In essence, just as internet-based maps have replaced our ability to navigate unfamiliar places, technology is gradually ________ (F) traditional medical practices.
  • This sentence implies that technology is gradually replacing traditional medical practices, similar to how internet maps have replaced navigation skills.
  • Blank (F) should be filled with a word that indicates the gradual replacement or displacement of traditional medical practices by technology.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (F):
  • l. Replacing - to take the place of (someone or something) by force, scheming, strategy, or the like (प्रतिस्थापित करना)
  • For Example -
  • The company is replacing its old machinery with state-of-the-art equipment for better efficiency.
  • ll. Supplanting - to supersede or replace (another thing) by force, scheming, strategy, or the like (विलय करना)
  • For Example -
  • The innovative technology is supplanting traditional methods of manufacturing, leading to increased efficiency.
  • lll. Displacing - to take over the place, position, or role of; supplant (बदल देना)
  • For Example -
  • The construction of the new highway is displacing several families from their homes, sparking protests from the local community.
  • So, given the context, all three words "replacing," "supplanting," and "displacing" are suitable to fill in the blank labelled as (F). The sentence discusses how technology is gradually taking the place of traditional medical practices, which can be described by any of these words.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All l, ll, and lll."
  • The complete sentence would be: "In essence, just as internet-based maps have replaced our ability to navigate unfamiliar places, technology is gradually replacing/supplanting/displacing traditional medical practices."

Question 53

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (E) in the passage?

l. Facilitated

ll. Impeded

lll. Permeated

  1. AOption (a)

    Only l

  2. BOption (b)

    Both l and ll

  3. COption (c)

    Only lll

  4. DOption (d)

    Both l and lll

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only l

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (E):
  • Similarly, technological advancements have ________ (E) surgical practice, introducing gadgets like computer navigation and robotic-assisted surgeries.
  • This sentence discusses how technological advancements have transformed surgical procedures, with the introduction of tools like computer navigation and robotic-assisted surgeries.
  • Blank (E) should be filled with a word that indicates how technological advancements have deeply penetrated or spread throughout surgical practice.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (E):
  • l. Facilitated - made easy or easier (सुगम बनाना)
  • For Example -
  • The new software greatly facilitated the process of data analysis, saving us a lot of time and effort.
  • ll. Impeded - obstructed or hindered (रोकना)
  • For Example -
  • Heavy traffic impeded our progress, causing us to arrive late for the meeting.
  • lll. Permeated - spread throughout; pervaded (प्रचुर)
  • For Example -
  • The aroma of freshly baked bread permeated the entire house, making everyone hungry.
  • So, given the context, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank labelled as (E) is "Facilitated." The sentence discusses how technological advancements have spread throughout surgical practice, introducing gadgets like computer navigation and robotic-assisted surgeries. This use of the word "Facilitated" accurately reflects the widespread integration of technology into surgical procedures.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only l."
  • The complete sentence would be: "Similarly, technological advancements have facilitated surgical practice, introducing gadgets like computer navigation and robotic-assisted surgeries."

Question 54

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (D) in the passage?

l. Reliance

ll. Proficiency

lll. Dependence

  1. AOption (a)

    Only l

  2. BOption (b)

    Both l and ll

  3. COption (c)

    Only lll

  4. DOption (d)

    Both l and lll

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both l and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (D):
  • However, this increasing ________ (D) on technology has led to a gradual decline in clinical diagnostic skills among healthcare professionals.
  • This sentence highlights how relying too much on technology is causing healthcare workers to lose their diagnostic abilities.
  • Blank (D) should be filled with a word that indicates a heavy dependence or trust placed on technology.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (D):
  • l. Reliance - the state of depending on someone or something; trust or confidence placed in someone or something (आश्रिति)
  • For Example -
  • The company's success was built on the reliance of its customers on its high-quality products.
  • ll. Proficiency - the ability to do something well; skillfulness or expertise in a particular area (कुशलता)
  • For Example -
  • His proficiency in multiple programming languages made him a valuable asset to the software development team.
  • lll. Dependence - the state of relying on or needing someone or something for aid, support, or guidance (निर्भरता)
  • For Example -
  • The country's dependence on imported oil made it vulnerable to fluctuations in the global market.
  • So, given the context, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank labelled as (D) is "reliance" and "dependence." The sentence discusses how the increasing use of technology has led to a gradual decline in clinical diagnostic skills among healthcare professionals, indicating a heavy reliance or dependence on technology.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both l and lll."
  • The complete sentence would be: "However, this increasing reliance/dependence on technology has led to a gradual decline in clinical diagnostic skills among healthcare professionals."

Question 55

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (C) in the passage?

l. Propelled

ll. Hindered

lll. Mitigated

  1. AOption (a)

    Only l

  2. BOption (b)

    Only ll

  3. COption (c)

    Only lll

  4. DOption (d)

    All l, ll, and lll

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only l

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (C):
  • The ease of access and affordability of these diagnostic gadgets have further ________ (C) their widespread usage, even in remote areas.
  • This sentence highlights how readily available and cheap diagnostic tools increase their use, even in distant regions.
  • Blank (C) should be filled with a word that indicates that the availability and affordability of diagnostic gadgets have driven their widespread usage.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (C):
  • l. Propelled - to drive, push, or cause to move in a particular direction (प्रेरित)
  • For Example -
  • The successful completion of the project propelled her career forward, leading to new opportunities.
  • ll. Hindered - create difficulties for (someone or something), resulting in delay or obstruction (रोकना)
  • For Example -
  • The heavy traffic hindered their journey, causing them to arrive late for the meeting.
  • lll. Mitigated - make (something bad) less severe, serious, or painful (कम करना)
  • For Example -
  • The timely intervention of the medical team mitigated the patient's suffering and improved their condition.
  • So, given the context, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank labelled as (C) is "propelled." The sentence indicates that the ease of access and affordability of diagnostic gadgets have further increased or boosted their widespread usage, even in remote areas. Thus, "propelled" is the suitable choice for the blank.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only l."
  • The complete sentence would be: "The ease of access and affordability of these diagnostic gadgets have further propelled their widespread usage, even in remote areas."

Question 56

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (B) in the passage?

l. Expedient

ll. Convenient

lll. Efficient

  1. AOption (a)

    Only l

  2. BOption (b)

    Only ll

  3. COption (c)

    Only lll

  4. DOption (d)

    All l, ll, and lll

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All l, ll, and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (B):
  • These tools have simplified the process of diagnosis, making it more ________ (B) for doctors to rely on them rather than extensively engaging in history-taking and clinical examination.
  • This sentence reflects on doctors increasingly relying on diagnostic tools over traditional methods like history-taking and clinical examination.
  • Blank (B) should be filled with a word that indicates that the tools make the process easier or more efficient for doctors.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (B):
  • l. Expedient - suitable for achieving a particular purpose in a given circumstance, often concerning practicality or self-interest rather than moral considerations (उपायक)
  • For Example -
  • Choosing the expedient option of postponing the meeting helped the team allocate more time to prepare adequately.
  • ll. Convenient - fitting in well with a person's needs, activities, and plans; easily accessible or usable (सुविधाजनक)
  • For Example -
  • Living close to public transportation makes it convenient for commuters to travel to work without relying on a car.
  • lll. Efficient - achieving maximum productivity with minimum wasted effort or expense; proficient in performance (कुशल)
  • For Example -
  • The new software streamlined the company's processes, making them more efficient and reducing overall operating costs.
  • So, given the context, all the given words "expedient," "convenient, and "efficient" can fill in the blank (B). The sentence is discussing how these diagnostic tools have simplified the diagnosis process for doctors, making it easier for them to rely on the tools rather than conducting extensive history-taking and clinical examination. Thus, any of the three given words can appropriately convey the idea of making the process more streamlined and less labour-intensive.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All l, ll, and lll."
  • The complete sentence would be: "These tools have simplified the process of diagnosis, making it more expedient/convenient/efficient for doctors to rely on them rather than extensively engaging in history-taking and clinical examination."

Question 57

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (A) in the passage?

l. Augmented

ll. Encountered

lll. Witnessed

  1. AOption (a)

    Both ll and lll

  2. BOption (b)

    All l, ll, and lll

  3. COption (c)

    Only ll

  4. DOption (d)

    Only lll

  5. EOption (e)

    Both l and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both ll and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (A):
  • With advancements in technology, the medical industry has ________ (A) a surge in diagnostic gadgets, ranging from X-ray examinations to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
  • This sentence discusses the increase in diagnostic tools in medicine due to technological advancements, such as X-rays and MRIs.
  • Blank (A) should be filled with a word indicating observation or experiencing an increase or proliferation of diagnostic gadgets in the medical industry.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given in the question to fill in the blank (A):
  • l. Augmented - increased or intensified in value, number, strength, or extent (बढ़ाया गया)
  • For Example -
  • The company augmented its workforce by hiring additional staff to meet the increased demand for its products.
  • ll. Encountered - come across or experience (something or someone) unexpectedly or by chance (सामना करना)
  • For Example -
  • During their expedition, they encountered several rare species of birds they had never seen before.
  • lll. Witnessed - see (an event, typically a crime or accident) take place (देखा)
  • For Example -
  • The security camera footage witnessed the theft that occurred in the parking lot last night.
  • So, given the context, both words "encountered" and "witnessed" can fill in the blank labelled as (A). The sentence discusses the observation or experience of a surge in diagnostic gadgets in the medical industry due to technological advancements, making both "encountered" and "witnessed" suitable choices.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both ll and lll."
  • The complete sentence would be: "With advancements in technology, the medical industry has encountered/witnessed a surge in diagnostic gadgets, ranging from X-ray examinations to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)."

Question 58

Directions

Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.**

If it be raining tomorrow, we will postpone the outdoor event to ensure the safety and comfort of all participants.

  1. AOption (a)

    it doesn't rain tomorrow

  2. BOption (b)

    it rains tomorrow

  3. COption (c)

    it will rain tomorrow

  4. DOption (d)

    it is raining tomorrow

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

it rains tomorrow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "it rains tomorrow."
  • The underlined phrase "it be raining tomorrow" is erroneous. This is a first conditional sentence and in such sentences, the correct structure requires the use of the present simple tense to express a possible future event, making "it rains tomorrow" grammatically accurate.
  • Sentence structure of the first conditional sentence:
  • If + present simple, will + infinitive 
  • For Example:
  • If she studies hard, she will pass the exam.
  • If you call me, I will come to pick you up.
  • If they don't hurry, they will miss the train.
  • The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "If it rains tomorrow, we will postpone the outdoor event to ensure the safety and comfort of all participants."

Additional Information

Let's understand different types of conditional sentences:

  • The Zero Conditional - General truth
  • Sentence structure - If + present simple, present simple 
  • For Example -
  • If I get a cup of coffee in the morning, I feel energetic all day.
  • The First Conditional - Future event
  • Sentence structure - If + present simple, will + infinitive 
  • For Example -
  • If I have a test tomorrow, you will study all night.
  • The Second Conditional - Hypothetical outcome
  • Sentence structure - If + past simple, would + infinitive 
  • For Example -
  • If I had a million dollars, I would buy an island.
  • The Third Conditional - Hypothetical outcome
  • Sentence structure - if + past perfect, would + have + past participle 
  • For Example -
  • I wouldn't have gotten sick if I had taken my medicine on time.

Question 59

Directions

In the following sentence, a phrase is given in bold. Select the appropriate phrase from the options given below that can replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct and mark it as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'No correction required', as the answer.**

If she had studied harder for the exam, she might had aced it and earned a scholarship to the university.

  1. AOption (a)

    she might has aced it

  2. BOption (b)

    she will be acing it

  3. COption (c)

    she might have aced it

  4. DOption (d)

    she kind of aced it

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

she might have aced it

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "she might have aced it."
  • The phrase given in bold, "she might had aced it," is grammatically incorrect because it violates the structure of a type third conditional sentence.
  • In third conditionals, the helping verb that is used is "have," not "had." The correct usage adheres to the past perfect modal form, indicating a possibility that did not happen in the past.
  • The correct sentence after the phrase replacement would be: "If she had studied harder for the exam, she might have aced it and earned a scholarship to the university."

 

Additional Information

Let's understand different types of conditional sentences:

  • The Zero Conditional - General truth
  • Sentence structure - If + present simple, present simple 
  • For Example -
  • If I get a cup of coffee in the morning, I feel energetic all day.
  • The First Conditional - Future event
  • Sentence structure - If + present simple, will + infinitive 
  • For Example -
  • If I have a test tomorrow, you will study all night.
  • The Second Conditional - Hypothetical outcome
  • Sentence structure - If + past simple, would + infinitive 
  • For Example -
  • If I had a million dollars, I would buy an island.
  • The Third Conditional - Hypothetical outcome
  • Sentence structure - If + past perfect, would + have + past participle 
  • For Example -
  • I wouldn't have gotten sick if I had taken my medicine on time.

Question 60

Directions

Which of the following phrases given below in the options should replace the phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct and does not require any correction mark 'No correction required' as your answer.

If you suspect that 21st-century technology will broken your brain, it will be reassuring to know that attention spans have never been what they used to be.

  1. AOption (a)

    has broken your

  2. BOption (b)

    had broken your

  3. COption (c)

    would have broken your

  4. DOption (d)

    have broken your

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

has broken your

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points  

The underlined phrase ' will broken your' is incorrect. 

  • The given sentence is a conditional sentence.
  • The condition in this sentence is possible to fulfil.
  • There is an error in the first part of the sentence.
  • "If you suspect that 21st-century technology will broken your brain" this sentence is an if-clause of the sentence.
  • The If-clause of the given sentence is in the present tense hence the use of 'will broken your' is incorrect.
  • It should be replaced by 'has broken your' to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
  • '21st-century technology' is singular hence singular verb will be used.
  • Correct Sentence :
  • If you suspect that 21st-century technology has broken your brain, it will be reassuring to know that attention spans have never been what they used to be.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 61

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P:  In addition to major financial burdens, they can impose substantial time demands on uninjured family members. 

Q: Occupational injuries and illnesses can provoke major crises for the families in which they occur. 

R: Not just families, but also businesses suffer great setbacks due to occupational hazards and therefore, companies must realise the importance of occupational safety.

S: Today, when many families are operating with very little free time, family resources may be stretched to the breaking point.

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    QPSR

  3. COption (c)

    RPQS

  4. DOption (d)

    RQSP

  5. EOption (e)

    SRQP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

QPSR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

<br>

Key Points

  • The passage is about the dangers of occupational hazards and the importance of safety at the workplace.
  • The first sentence would be Q as it introduces the central theme of the passage which is 'occupational injuries and illnesses'. We are told that such injuries and illnesses can lead to major crises for the affected families.
  • The next sentence would be P as it elaborates on the kinds of problems faced by affected families.
  • Sentence S would be next as it tells us how added time demands on uninjured family members (mentioned in P) can be a problem.
  • The last sentence would be R. Having listed the troubles faced by families of the affected workers, we are now told how the businesses also suffer great losses. Sentence R concludes by mentioning that keeping both families and businesses in mind, companies must lay stress on workplace safety.
  • Therefore, the correct order is QPSR.

Question 62

The question below contains four statements. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the statements and completes the paragraph.

A. The team based their claims on finding similar holes in two human skulls in France from the same period.

B. To practice before being done on humans or save the cow's life.

C. They were however unsure whether the surgery was performed.

D. French archaeologists have uncovered a 5,000-year-old cow skull, claiming it as the earliest evidence of surgical experimentation on an animal.

  1. AOption (a)

    DACB

  2. BOption (b)

    ACDB

  3. COption (c)

    ABCD

  4. DOption (d)

    CDAB

  5. EOption (e)

    BDAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DACB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. DACB.

Key Points

  • Among the given set of sentences, ‘D’ is the starting sentence as it introduces a central idea about the discovery of 5,000-year-old cow skull by the French archaeologists. ‘A’ further continues the same idea where ‘the team’ refers to the team of ‘the French archaeologists’. ‘CB’ is a mandatory pair and should be used in the same order as ‘B’ logically completes ‘C’.
  • Thus, making the order of the rearranged sentence as DACB making option 1 as the correct answer.
  • Hence, the passage can be correctly written as, French archaeologists have uncovered a 5,000-year-old cow skull, claiming it as the earliest evidence of surgical experimentation on an animal. The team based their claims on finding similar holes in two human skulls in France from the same period. They were however unsure whether the surgery was performed to practice before being done on humans or save the cow's life.

Question 63

Directions

Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word INCORRECTLY.

RIGHT

A. Fox hunting is popular among some people in this country. It doesn't make it right though.

B. She rights for many papers, including the Sunday Times.

C. The new truck air suspension system provides excellent roll stability without compromising the soft right characteristics of air suspension.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only C

  2. BOption (b)

    Both B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

  5. EOption (e)

    Both A and B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The word "right" in sentence A is used correctly, meaning morally good, justified, or acceptable.
  • In sentence B, "rights" is used incorrectly when the context implies that the word should be "writes," referring to the act of composing text for publications.
  • Sentence C incorrectly uses "right" where the context suggests that it should be "ride," referring to the experience or feel of riding in a vehicle.
  • Understanding the appropriate use of "right" in various contexts is crucial. In sentence A, it is about ethical correctness; however, sentences B and C misuse the word in contexts that require different words with distinct meanings ("writes" for authoring and "ride" for the experience).

Therefore, the correct answer is Both B and C.

 

Additional Information

  • Sentence A correctly uses "right" in a moral or ethical context, discussing the appropriateness of fox hunting.
  • Sentence B's mistake is a grammatical one, confusing "right" with "writes," indicating an error in verb choice rather than the concept of being morally or legally correct.
  • Sentence C's error stems from using "right" in place of "ride," which alters the intended meaning about the vehicle's suspension system, demonstrating how critical correct word choice is to conveying accurate information.

Question 64

Directions

Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word INCORRECTLY.

FAIL

A. The helmets are designed to withstand impacts equivalent to a fail from a bicycle.

B. Twenty people were injured by failing masonry.

C. Getting a massage, you would think, is something impossible to fail at.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    Only B

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    Only C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • "Fail" primarily means to be unsuccessful in achieving a goal or to fall short of passing a test or assignment.
  • Sentence A incorrectly uses "fail" in a context where "fall" is the appropriate term, referring to dropping or coming down from a higher position. The correct phrasing should involve a subject falling from a bicycle, not "fail."
  • Sentence B uses "failing" correctly in the context of describing masonry that is falling or collapsing, which is a permissible figurative use of the word related to physical failure.
  • Sentence C correctly uses "fail" in a metaphorical sense, implying that it would be hard to be unsuccessful at receiving a massage, given its straightforward nature.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only A.

 

Additional Information

  • Sentence A's incorrect use of "fail" instead of "fall" shows the importance of choosing the right verb for the intended action or outcome.
  • Sentence B's use aligns with the concept of failure as a form of breakdown or collapse, applying the meaning of the word beyond its common usage in tests or tasks.
  • Sentence C's application demonstrates how "fail" can be used broadly to describe underperformance or inability to meet expectations in virtually any scenario, including those where success seems guaranteed.

Question 65

Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a highlighted sentence is given. From the given alternatives, find the sentence that can replace and improve the emboldened part.

Work smarter, not harder: It is one of the more irritating things a book can tell you. However, its relevance becomes undeniable when considering the mechanisms of economic rebound at the macroeconomic level. Growth can stem from increasing labour input (either by recruiting more workers or by making existing employees work longer hours), adding more capital, or enhancing the efficiency with which that labour and capital are utilized—referred to as total factor productivity (TFP). Such improvements might be driven by groundbreaking innovations similar to those made by Thomas Edison. However, the connection between technological advancements and immediate economic recovery is not always clear-cut, as the impact on productivity can vary significantly.

  1. AOption (a)

    This shows that at the global level, total factor productivity fell last year, was flat the two years before, and has barely budged since 2007.

  2. BOption (b)

    It could also come from the less-heralded but equally important improvements such as the adoption of the moving conveyor belt to speed up assembly work.

  3. COption (c)

    Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up.

  4. DOption (d)

    A recovery has been underway for a while.

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up'.

Key Points

  • The given paragraph emphasizes that only by using all the resources like labour, capital, work, etc. more effectively will growth be attained. Overall, the passage discusses increasing productivity in order to achieve growth.
  • The word 'rebound' means 'to recover or increase in amount or value' and the phrase 'perk up' means 'to improve'.
  • The sentence to be replaced requires a more precise connection between productivity improvements and economic growth, addressing the original context of how these improvements fuel an economic rebound.
  • Sentence 3 fits correctly in the paragraph, as it means that economic growth did not improve until productivity increased.
  • Therefore, from the given explanation, option 3 is the correct answer.

Complete Paragraph: Work smarter, not harder: It is one of the more irritating things a book can tell you. However, its relevance becomes undeniable when considering the mechanisms of economic rebound at the macroeconomic level. Growth can stem from increasing labour input (either by recruiting more workers or by making existing employees work longer hours), adding more capital, or enhancing the efficiency with which that labour and capital are utilized—referred to as total factor productivity (TFP). Such improvements might be driven by groundbreaking innovations similar to those made by Thomas Edison. However, the connection between technological advancements and immediate economic recovery is not always clear-cut, as the impact on productivity can vary significantly.

Additional Information

  • Option 1, "This shows that at the global level, total factor productivity fell last year, was flat the two years before, and has barely budged since 2007," provides a fact about global total factor productivity but does not suitably replace the highlighted part by emphasizing the relationship between technology, productivity, and economic recovery.
  • Option 2, "It could also come from the less-heralded but equally important improvements such as the adoption of the moving conveyor belt to speed up assembly work," presents an example of productivity improvement but doesn't directly address the impact of productivity on economic growth in the context needed.
  • Option 4, "A recovery has been underway for a while," is too vague and does not specifically address how productivity improvements lead to economic recovery, nor does it replace the nuanced discussion of technology's role in that improvement.
  • Option 5, "No improvement required," is not applicable because the question explicitly asks for a replacement that better fits the context and improves upon the given sentence's ambiguity regarding technology's economic benefits.

Question 66

Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a highlighted sentence is given. From the given alternatives, find the sentence that can replace and improve the emboldened part.

All this is necessary- but not sufficient- the vicious cycle will be hard to break. The resolution in November 2015 of four tiny banks, in which bondholders were bailed in, caused an uproar. Now UBI Banca, the fifth-largest lender, hopes to buy three of the four "good" residual banks for €1. A merger finalised on January 1st created Banca BPM, now Italy's third largest bank.  Another is on the horizon, of two Venetian banks. Analysts at Credit Service suggest that the government's €20 billion funds should suffice to plug any remaining capital gaps. All this is necessary but not sufficient.

  1. AOption (a)

    Carved, a ratings agency, predict that by 2018, bad loans will always be back to their pre-crisis level-although

  2. BOption (b)

    Italy's fragmented banking industry is consolidating.

  3. COption (c)

    ​The finance minister says, the banking system is turning a page and he is yet to be proved right.

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement required

  5. EOption (e)

    All the given options fit.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Italy's fragmented banking industry is consolidating.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The emboldened sentence talks about the difficulty of breaking the vicious cycle despite necessary actions being taken. It generally alludes to the broader issues without specifying the nature of these efforts or their outcomes.
  • The correct replacement sentence, "Italy's fragmented banking industry is consolidating," directly addresses an underlying issue within the paragraph and ties the preceding and succeeding sentences together more cohesively. It specifically highlights an ongoing process of consolidation in the banking industry, which acts as a solution or a step forward in addressing the broader issue hinted at in the emboldened sentence.
  • The consolidation of the banking industry is relevant to the context provided by the paragraph, which discusses the resolution of banks, mergers, and financial strategies to address capital gaps. It points towards a systematic change that could impact the vicious cycle mentioned.
  • By choosing "Italy's fragmented banking industry is consolidating" as the replacement, it emphasizes a positive trend contrary to the challenges presented, thereby adding a more optimistic outlook on the situation and making it an effective improvement over the original sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Italy's fragmented banking industry is consolidating’.

 

Complete Paragraph: Italy's fragmented banking industry is consolidating. The resolution in November 2015 of four tiny banks, in which bondholders were bailed in, caused an uproar. Now UBI Banca, the fifth-largest lender, hopes to buy three of the four "good" residual banks for €1. A merger finalised on January 1st created Banca BPM, now Italy's third largest bank.  Another is on the horizon, of two Venetian banks. Analysts at Credit Service suggest that the government's €20 billion funds should suffice to plug any remaining capital gaps. All this is necessary but not sufficient.

 

Additional Information

  • "Carved, a ratings agency, predict that by 2018, bad loans will always be back to their pre-crisis level-although" does not fit as it introduces an unrelated future prediction that does not directly address or replace the idea of a challenging cycle being hard to break. It also introduces a temporal inconsistency with the rest of the paragraph.
  • “The finance minister says, the banking system is turning a page and he is yet to be proved right.” While it speaks to an optimistic future and change within the banking system, it focuses more on a statement by an individual and lacks the specific informational value that directly ties to the banking consolidation process described in the paragraph.
  • "No improvement required" is not the suitable option because the original sentence can be made more specific and relevant to the paragraph's content by replacing it with a sentence that highlights a significant aspect of the discussed issue.
  • "All the given options fit." is incorrect as only one of the options offered appropriately and directly improves upon the original sentence's vague reference to necessity and sufficiency by providing a specific ongoing action in the banking industry.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In the bustling city, ____________________, there exists a young man who spends his days immersed in the corporate world. Yet, amid the cacophony of urban life, his thoughts often wander back to his tranquil village, where generations of his family have toiled the land as farmers. It is there, amidst the serene fields and rustic simplicity, that he dreams of returning one day to embrace his roots and cultivate the earth. Driven by this deep-seated desire, he formulates a plan: to devote his life to farming once his urban obligations are fulfilled. With determination blazing in his heart, he bids farewell to the corporate world and embarks on a journey back to his ancestral village. Upon his return, he wastes no time in rolling up his sleeves and getting down to work, eager to share the modern farming techniques he acquired in the city.

His first endeavour is to introduce millet cultivation to the village, believing it to be a revolutionary addition to their traditional farming practices. With unwavering dedication, he imparts his knowledge to his fellow villagers, guiding them in the art of cultivating this new crop and implementing advanced farming methods. As the seasons pass, the fruits of their labour begin to manifest. The fields once barren now teem with life, yielding bountiful harvests of millet. But it is not just the crops that flourish under the boy's guidance; the fabric of the community itself transforms. Through his initiative, he fosters a sense of unity among the villagers, encouraging them to come together and share their experiences, challenges, and triumphs.

In these collective gatherings, bonds are forged, and wisdom is exchanged, strengthening the community's resolve and resilience. Together, they embark on a journey towards a more sustainable and prosperous future, united by their shared passion for the land and the common goal of building a better tomorrow. As he looks out upon the thriving fields and the smiling faces of his fellow villagers, the boy realizes that he has not only fulfilled his own dreams but has also ignited a spark of change that will endure for generations to come. And at that moment, amidst the tranquillity of his village, he finds true fulfilment and purpose. With each passing day, the sense of camaraderie deepens, and the village blossoms into a vibrant hub of growth and community spirit, a testament to the enduring legacy of his vision and dedication.

Question 67

The primary objective of the young man's introduction of millet cultivation to his village was to ____________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    compete with neighboring villages in crop production

  2. BOption (b)

    experiment with a variety of crops for personal interest

  3. COption (c)

    uphold the tradition of farming passed down by his family

  4. DOption (d)

    revolutionize traditional farming practices with modern techniques

  5. EOption (e)

    reduce dependency on traditional crops for economic stability

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

revolutionize traditional farming practices with modern techniques

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the second paragraph of the passage for information about the primary objective of the young man's introduction of millet cultivation to his village:
  • "His first endeavour is to introduce millet cultivation to the village, believing it to be a revolutionary addition to their traditional farming practices. With unwavering dedication, he imparts his knowledge to his fellow villagers, guiding them in the art of cultivating this new crop and implementing advanced farming methods."
  • This part of the passage states that the young man believes introducing millet cultivation to the village will be a revolutionary addition to their traditional farming practices. He aims to share modern farming techniques and implement advanced methods, leading to bountiful harvests and transforming the fabric of the community.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "revolutionize traditional farming practices with modern techniques."

Question 68

Which of the following phrases should fill in the blank taken from the passage?

In the bustling city, ____________________, there exists a young man who spends his days immersed in the corporate world.

  1. AOption (a)

    amidst the chaos and commotion

  2. BOption (b)

    in the heart of the wilderness

  3. COption (c)

    within the tranquil countryside

  4. DOption (d)

    amidst the silence of solitude

  5. EOption (e)

    enveloped by the tranquility of nature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

amidst the chaos and commotion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence with the blank:

"In the bustling city, ____________________, there exists a young man who spends his days immersed in the corporate world."

  • This sentence describes a young man living in a busy urban area, where he is fully engaged in corporate life.
  • The blank should be filled with a phrase that describes the atmosphere or condition of the bustling city.
  • Now, let's review the options:
  • Option 1: "amidst the chaos and commotion"
  • This option accurately describes the bustling and noisy atmosphere of a city, indicating that there is a lot of activity and noise in the surroundings. Thus, this phrase is suitable for filling in the blank.
  • Option 2: "in the heart of the wilderness"
  • This option suggests a remote and natural environment, which does not apply to the bustling city described in the passage. Thus, this option is incorrect.
  • Option 3: "within the tranquil countryside"
  • This option implies a peaceful and rural setting, which contrasts with the bustling city environment. Thus, this option is incorrect.
  • Option 4: "amidst the silence of solitude"
  • This option suggests a quiet and solitary environment, which is not characteristic of a bustling city. Thus, this option is incorrect.
  • Option 5: "enveloped by the tranquillity of nature"
  • This option implies a serene and calm natural environment, which does not apply to the bustling city described in the passage. Thus, this option is incorrect.
  • So, option 1 (amidst the chaos and commotion) is the correct answer as it accurately describes the bustling city where the young man spends his days immersed in the corporate world.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "amidst the chaos and commotion."

Question 69

What is the main reason behind the young man's decision to leave the corporate world and return to his ancestral village?

  1. AOption (a)

    He was dissatisfied with the urban lifestyle.

  2. BOption (b)

    He wanted to explore advanced farming techniques.

  3. COption (c)

    He sought financial independence from corporate obligations.

  4. DOption (d)

    He desired to establish stronger bonds with his family.

  5. EOption (e)

    He longed for the tranquility and simplicity of rural life.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

He longed for the tranquility and simplicity of rural life.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the information provided in the first paragraph of the passage about the reason behind the young man's decision to leave the corporate world and return to his ancestral village:
  • "In the bustling city, ____________________, there exists a young man who spends his days immersed in the corporate world. Yet, amid the cacophony of urban life, his thoughts often wander back to his tranquil village, where generations of his family have toiled the land as farmers. It is there, amidst the serene fields and rustic simplicity, that he dreams of returning one day to embrace his roots and cultivate the earth. Driven by this deep-seated desire, he formulates a plan: to devote his life to farming once his urban obligations are fulfilled. With determination blazing in his heart, he bids farewell to the corporate world and embarks on a journey back to his ancestral village."
  • The passage mentions that the young man's thoughts often wander back to his tranquil village, where he dreams of returning one day to embrace his roots and cultivate the earth. He longs for the tranquillity and simplicity of rural life amidst the bustling city. So, the main reason behind the young man's decision to leave the corporate world and return to his ancestral village is that he longed for the tranquillity and simplicity of rural life.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "He longed for the tranquillity and simplicity of rural life."

Question 70

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?

A. The young man's decision to return to his ancestral village was met with skepticism and resistance from the villagers.

B. The young man's initiative in introducing millet cultivation led to increased crop yields and community cohesion.

C. The young man's commitment inspired collective gatherings, sharing wisdom and strengthening bonds, ultimately leading to a sustainable and vibrant future.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - "The young man's decision to return to his ancestral village was met with scepticism and resistance from the villagers."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. There is no mention of scepticism or resistance from the villagers towards the young man's decision to return to his ancestral village.
  • Sentence B - "The young man's initiative in introducing millet cultivation led to increased crop yields and community cohesion."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses how the young man introduced millet cultivation to the village, which resulted in increased crop yields and community cohesion.
  • Sentence C - "The young man's commitment inspired collective gatherings, sharing wisdom and strengthening bonds, ultimately leading to a sustainable and vibrant future."
  • This sentence can also be inferred from the passage. The passage describes how the young man's commitment inspired collective gatherings among the villagers, where wisdom was shared and bonds were strengthened, leading to a sustainable and vibrant future.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, both sentences B and C can be inferred from the passage, while sentence A can not be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both B and C."

Question 71

What is the significance of the phrase "rolling up his sleeves" in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The young man expresses frustration for farming.

  2. BOption (b)

    The young man prepares himself for hard work.

  3. COption (c)

    The young man gets dressed formally for an event.

  4. DOption (d)

    The young man symbolically embraces his roots.

  5. EOption (e)

    The young man faces a setback in his farming endeavors.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The young man prepares himself for hard work.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, first, let's understand the meaning of the highlighted phrase:
  • The phrase "rolling up his sleeves" is an idiom that means to prepare oneself for hard work or to get ready to tackle a difficult task.
  • For Example:
  • Before starting the construction project, the workers rolled up their sleeves and got to work.
  • I need to roll up my sleeves and get this project done as soon as possible.
  • In the context of the passage, the phrase "rolling up his sleeves" is used to depict the young man's readiness to engage in hard work and dedication as he returns to his ancestral village to pursue farming. It suggests his willingness to put in the necessary effort and commitment to cultivate the land and implement modern farming techniques.
  • By rolling up his sleeves, the young man symbolically embraces the physical labour and challenges associated with farming, indicating his preparedness to immerse himself fully in the agricultural tasks ahead.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "The young man prepares himself for hard work."

Question 72

What realization dawns upon the young man as he observes the changes in the village?

  1. AOption (a)

    He should return to the corporate world for better opportunities.

  2. BOption (b)

    He discovers new opportunities for personal growth in the village environment.

  3. COption (c)

    He understands the importance of preserving traditional farming methods.

  4. DOption (d)

    He recognizes the enduring impact of his vision and dedication.

  5. EOption (e)

    He finds a renewed sense of connection with the villagers and their aspirations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He recognizes the enduring impact of his vision and dedication.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following line from the third paragraph of the passage:
  • "As he looks out upon the thriving fields and the smiling faces of his fellow villagers, the boy realizes that he has not only fulfilled his own dreams but has also ignited a spark of change that will endure for generations to come."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that the young man realizes the enduring impact of his vision and dedication as he observes the changes in the village. He understands that his efforts have created a lasting positive effect that will benefit future generations.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "He recognizes the enduring impact of his vision and dedication."

Question 73

The young man contributed to fostering unity among the villagers by ____________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    promoting harmony and resolving conflicts peacefully

  2. BOption (b)

    provoking disputes and exacerbating tensions

  3. COption (c)

    arranging communal gatherings and facilitating discussions

  4. DOption (d)

    volunteering for neighborhood cleanup projects

  5. EOption (e)

    fostering rivalries and stimulating competitiveness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

arranging communal gatherings and facilitating discussions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question,  refer to the following lines from the second and third paragraphs of the passage:
  • "But it is not just the crops that flourish under the boy's guidance; the fabric of the community itself transforms. Through his initiative, he fosters a sense of unity among the villagers, encouraging them to come together and share their experiences, challenges, and triumphs."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that the young man contributed to fostering unity among the villagers by arranging communal gatherings and facilitating discussions. These gatherings allowed the villagers to come together, bond, and share their experiences, which ultimately strengthened their resolve and resilience as a community.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "arranging communal gatherings and facilitating discussions."

Question 74

Directions

Read the three sentences provided below carefully. Determine whether each sentence is grammatically/contextually correct or incorrect. Select the option that correctly identifies which sentence(s) is/are correct or incorrect.**

A. In today's age, there's stubble peer pressure among seniors as they witness their peers sharing ambitions to join new assignments or pursue advanced degrees in retirement, redefining traditional retirement concepts.

B. Modern retirement theory highlights the evolving concept of seniority, where engagement in purposeful activities through social media can stave on age-related health issues, challenging conventional notions of ageing.

C. Seniors now explore diverse pursuits, from daring social media challenges to sharing wisdom, recipes, and traditional remedies online, ushering in an era where retirement means staying active, not a life of idleness.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    All A, B, and C are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Only C is incorrect

  5. EOption (e)

    Both B and C are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and B are incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's have a look at all the given sentences in the question:
  • Sentence A - In today's age, there's stubble peer pressure among seniors as they witness their peers sharing ambitions to join new assignments or pursue advanced degrees in retirement, redefining traditional retirement concepts.
  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect due to the use of "stubble" instead of "subtle." "Stubble" refers to facial hair, while "subtle" is the appropriate term to convey the intended meaning of discreet or slight peer pressure among seniors.
  • The correct sentence would be: In today's age, there's subtle peer pressure among seniors as they witness their peers sharing ambitions to join new assignments or pursue advanced degrees in retirement, redefining traditional retirement concepts.
  • Sentence B - Modern retirement theory highlights the evolving concept of seniority, where engagement in purposeful activities through social media can stave on age-related health issues, challenging conventional notions of ageing.
  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect because it uses the phrase "stave on" incorrectly. It should be "stave off" to correctly convey the idea of preventing age-related health issues.
  • The correct sentence would be: Modern retirement theory highlights the evolving concept of seniority, where engagement in purposeful activities through social media can stave off age-related health issues, challenging conventional notions of ageing.
  • Sentence C - Seniors now explore diverse pursuits, from daring social media challenges to sharing wisdom, recipes, and traditional remedies online, ushering in an era where retirement means staying active, not a life of idleness.
  • This sentence is grammatically correct, using the present tense. It discusses how seniors engage in various activities online, redefining retirement as an active lifestyle.
  • So, after understanding all three given sentences, we can conclude that both sentences A and B are incorrect while only sentence C is grammatically and contextually correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and B are incorrect."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Stubble - short, stiff hairs growing especially on a man’s face, stiff stalks of plants left in a field after harvesting  (बाल)
  • For Example -
  • The stubble in the field made it difficult to walk through.
  • Witness - a person who sees an event, typically a crime or accident, take place (साक्षी)
  • For Example -
  • The witness to the accident provided valuable information to the police.
  • Purposeful - having a clear and definite purpose or intention; deliberate (उद्देश्यपूर्ण)
  • For Example -
  • His purposeful actions showed his determination to succeed.
  • Conventional - based on or in accordance with what is generally done or believed (परंपरागत)
  • For Example -
  • In their conventional wedding, they followed all the traditional customs and rituals.
  • Ushering - the act of leading or guiding someone to a place or event (प्रवेश कराना)
  • For Example -
  • The kind guide was ushering tourists through the historical museum with enthusiasm.

Remedies - solutions or treatments for a problem or difficulty (उपाय)

  • For Example -
  • There are various natural remedies for common ailments, such as herbal teas for colds.
  • Idleness - the state of being inactive or doing nothing; laziness (निष्क्रियता)
  • For Example -
  • She couldn't tolerate long periods of idleness and always found something productive to do.

Question 75

Directions

Read the three sentences provided below carefully. Determine whether each sentence is grammatically/contextually correct or incorrect. Select the option that correctly identifies which sentence(s) is/are correct or incorrect.**

A. The rapid evolution of information technology, from personal computers to AI like OpenAI's ChatGPT, has left myself struggling to keep up with the relentless pace of change.

B. The exponential growth of social media, exemplified by Twitter, Facebook, and Instagram, has weaved itself into the fabric of society, explored in documentaries like "The Social Dilemma."

C. The transformative impact of technology in the last six decades is palpable, from the shift to LPG in kitchens to the emergency of powerful search engines like Google.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and C are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Only B is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    All A, B, and C are incorrect

  5. EOption (e)

    Both B and C are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All A, B, and C are incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's have a look at all the given sentences in the question:
  • Sentence A - The rapid evolution of information technology, from personal computers to AI like OpenAI's ChatGPT, has left myself struggling to keep up with the relentless pace of change.
  • This sentence is incorrect because "myself" is a reflexive pronoun, which should only be used when the subject and object of the sentence are the same. In this case, "me" should be used as the object pronoun to maintain grammatical correctness.
  • The correct sentence would be: The rapid evolution of information technology, from personal computers to AI like OpenAI's ChatGPT, has left me struggling to keep up with the relentless pace of change.
  • Sentence B - The exponential growth of social media, exemplified by Twitter, Facebook, and Instagram, has weaved itself into the fabric of society, explored in documentaries like "The Social Dilemma."
  • This sentence is grammatically incorrect because it's in the present perfect tense, so "weaved" (2nd form) should be replaced with "woven" (3rd form) to match the tense correctly.
  • The correct sentence would be: The exponential growth of social media, exemplified by Twitter, Facebook, and Instagram, has woven itself into the fabric of society, explored in documentaries like "The Social Dilemma."
  • Sentence C - The transformative impact of technology in the last six decades is palpable, from the shift to LPG in kitchens to the emergency of powerful search engines like Google.
  • This sentence is incorrect because "emergency" is a noun referring to a crisis or sudden event, whereas "emergence" is the correct term to indicate the gradual development of powerful search engines, aligning with the context of technological advancement over time.
  • The correct sentence would be: The transformative impact of technology in the last six decades is palpable, from the shift to LPG in kitchens to the emergence of powerful search engines like Google.
  • So, after understanding all three given sentences, we can conclude that all three sentences, A, B, and C, are incorrect.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C are incorrect."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Evolution - the gradual development and change of something over time, often with a focus on biological species evolving through natural selection (विकास)
  • For Example -
  • The theory of evolution by Charles Darwin explains how species adapt and change over generations.
  • Relentless - showing no sign of stopping or becoming less intense, persistent and unyielding (अविरत)
  • For Example -
  • The relentless rain continued for days, causing widespread flooding in the region.
  • Exponential - relating to or characterized by exponential growth, which means rapid and significant increase over time (गुणोत्तर)
  • For Example -
  • The exponential growth of technology has transformed the way we live and work.
  • Transformative - causing a significant and profound change or transformation (परिवर्तनकारी)
  • For Example -
  • The introduction of the Internet was a transformative moment in the history of communication.
  • Palpable - easily perceived or noticeable; capable of being touched or felt (स्पर्शनीय)
  • For Example -
  • The tension in the room was palpable as everyone awaited the results of the competition.

Question 76

Directions

Read the three sentences provided below carefully. Determine whether each sentence is grammatically/contextually correct or incorrect. Select the option that correctly identifies which sentence(s) is/are correct or incorrect.**

A. Had you informed me of your need for a ride, I would have adjusted my schedule, departed sooner, and ensure your timely arrival, a simple act of consideration and support.

B. The proclivity of certain educators to devising inventive methods of corporal punishment was highly esteemed during that era, leaving indelible marks on the recollections of former students.

C. If I had cleaned the house earlier today instead of procrastinating, I will go to the movies tonight with my friends, but now it's too late.

  1. AOption (a)

    All A, B, and C are incorrect

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Only A is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Both B and C are correct

  5. EOption (e)

    Only C is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All A, B, and C are incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's have a look at all the given sentences in the question:
  • Sentence A - Had you informed me of your need for a ride, I would have adjusted my schedule, departed sooner, and ensure your timely arrival, a simple act of consideration and support.
  • This sentence is grammatically incorrect due to a lack of parallel structure. To maintain parallelism, "ensure" should be replaced with "ensured" to match the past tense structure of the preceding actions.
  • The correct sentence would be: Had you informed me of your need for a ride, I would have adjusted my schedule, departed sooner, and ensured your timely arrival, a simple act of consideration and support.
  • Sentence B - The proclivity of certain educators to devising inventive methods of corporal punishment was highly esteemed during that era, leaving indelible marks on the recollections of former students.
  • This sentence is grammatically incorrect because "devising" is a gerund form, which doesn't fit after the preposition "to." It should be "to devise" to form the correct infinitive phrase.
  • The correct sentence would be: The proclivity of certain educators to devise inventive methods of corporal punishment was highly esteemed during that era, leaving indelible marks on the recollections of former students.
  • Sentence C - If I had cleaned the house earlier today instead of procrastinating, I will go to the movies tonight with my friends, but now it's too late.
  • This sentence is grammatically incorrect because it uses the incorrect tense in a type -3 conditional sentence.  The conditional clause "If I had cleaned the house earlier today instead of procrastinating" is in the past perfect, so the result clause should be "I could have gone" to maintain the third type of conditional structure.
  • The correct sentence would be: If I had cleaned the house earlier today instead of procrastinating, I could have gone to the movies tonight with my friends, but now it's too late.
  • So, after understanding all three given sentences, we can conclude that all three sentences, A, B, and C, are incorrect.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C are incorrect."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Consideration - careful thought or attention; the act of thinking about something carefully (विचार)
  • For Example -
  • The committee gave thorough consideration to all the proposals before making a decision.
  • Inventive - having the ability to create or design new things or to think of new ideas; creative (आविष्कारी)
  • For Example -
  • Her inventive approach to problem-solving led to several innovative solutions for the company.
  • Indelible - making marks that cannot be removed; something that cannot be forgotten or erased (मिटाया न जा सकने वाला)
  • For Example -
  • The traumatic experience left an indelible mark on her memory, and she could never forget it.
  • Procrastinating - the act of delaying or postponing tasks or actions that need to be accomplished (टालमटोल)
  • For Example -
  • His habit of procrastinating often led to missed deadlines and increased stress.

Question 77

Directions

Choose the most appropriate option to fill in the given blanks.**

Our scientists and ____ have made great sacrifices for our country, ______ of which I could see in the ___ of Rocketry.

(A) clips (B) technicians (C) glimpses

  1. AOption (a)

    CAB

  2. BOption (b)

    BCA

  3. COption (c)

    ABC

  4. DOption (d)

    None 

  5. EOption (e)

    BAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BCA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The first blank requires a noun that complements "scientists" by indicating another group of individuals who contribute significantly to national advancements, particularly in contexts that might be related to the movie "Rocketry."
  • "Technicians" is the correct choice as it fits this description.
  • For the second blank, a word is needed that signifies brief instances or views that can be observed or noticed.
  • "Glimpses" perfectly fills this blank, as it conveys the meaning of catching short insights into the sacrifices and contributions mentioned.
  • The third blank should be filled with a word that denotes segments or parts of the movie "Rocketry."
  • "Clips" is the appropriate word, as it refers to short extracts from films or videos, aligning with the context of viewing parts of "Rocketry."
  • The correct arrangement according to the context of the sentence and the meanings of the words provided is "technicians" for the first blank, "glimpses" for the second, and "clips" for the third, which corresponds to the order in option 2, i.e., BCA.

Therefore, the correct answer is BCA.

 

Complete Sentence: Our scientists and technicians have made great sacrifices for our country, glimpses of which I could see in the clips of Rocketry.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1) CAB incorrectly suggests that "clips" could be a group complementing "scientists," which is not contextually suitable.
  • Option 3) ABC improperly arranges the given words, leading to a nonsensical sentence structure.
  • Option 4) None suggests that none of the provided options would form a coherent sentence, which is not the case as option 2) BCA does.
  • Option 5) BAC incorrectly places "glimpses" after "Rocketry," which disrupts the intended meaning of the sentence.

Question 78

Directions

Choose the most appropriate option to fill in the given blanks.​**

When a policeman gets to be as ______ as you, they shouldn't ____ him walking about on his feet all ___ long.

(A) day (B) keep (C) senior

  1. AOption (a)

    CBA

  2. BOption (b)

    BCA

  3. COption (c)

    ABC

  4. DOption (d)

    CAB

  5. EOption (e)

    BAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CBA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence structure and the context hint towards describing the policeman's status or level within the police force before describing what should not be done due to this status, followed by the timeframe this applies to.
  • The adjective "senior" fits naturally in the first blank to describe the policeman's high rank or long service.
  • The verb "keep" is appropriate for the second blank, indicating that there is an action being performed on the policeman that is being questioned due to his senior status.
  • The noun "day" correctly fills the last blank, referring to the period when the action of keeping him on his feet occurs, emphasizing that it is all day long, which can be strenuous for someone of a senior rank.
  • This sequence presents a logical and coherent sentence suggesting that a policeman of high rank or long service should not be required to stay on his feet all day long.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'CBA'.

 

Complete Sentence: When a policeman gets to be as senior as you, they shouldn't keep him walking about on his feet all day long.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (BCA) does not form a logical sentence as it suggests a time reference ("day") is being compared to the policeman, which is incorrect.
  • Option 3 (ABC) incorrectly places "day" in the first blank, resulting in a sentence that does not make sense contextually.
  • Option 4 (CAB) and Option 5 (BAC) also do not logically organize the words to match the intended meaning of the original sentence structure.

Question 79

Directions

Choose the most appropriate option to fill in the given blanks.**

Prime Minister Narendra Modi urged ___ investors to explore investment _______ in the country’s energy sector, saying India is the most _______ place at present.

(A) opportunities (B) opportune  (C) global

  1. AOption (a)

    CBA

  2. BOption (b)

    ABC

  3. COption (c)

    CAB

  4. DOption (d)

    BCA

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the given options fits.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CAB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The term "global investors" is appropriate here because it specifies the wide range of investors targeted, which is consistent with the outreach for investment on an international scale.
  • "Investment opportunities" is the correct phrase as it is commonly used to refer to potential areas or ventures where investors can put their money to gain returns.
  • The word "opportune" correctly describes India as being an advantageous or favorable place currently, which aligns with the context of encouraging investment.
  • These selections fit seamlessly into the blanks, providing coherence and clarity to the statement made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'CAB'.

 

Complete Sentence: Prime Minister Narendra Modi urged global investors to explore investment opportunities in the country’s energy sector, saying India is the most opportune place at present.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (CBA): This arrangement does not correctly fill the blanks as it disrupts the logical flow and clear meaning of the sentence.
  • Option 2 (ABC): This sequence leads to an awkward and incorrect sentence structure, making it an unsuitable choice.
  • Option 4 (BCA): Similar to the others, this combination does not deliver a meaningful or grammatically correct sentence within the given context.
  • Option 5 (None of the given options fits): This choice is incorrect because, as established, option 3 perfectly fills the blanks, making the sentence both meaningful and contextually appropriate.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Russia is poised to undergo a significant restructuring in its banking and financial sector operations, with a planned hiatus set to commence on Thursday, lasting five days. This move precedes an anticipated extraordinary session in Parliament, focused on the government's strategy to address the nation's domestic debt restructuring. The decision echoes a series of economic challenges faced by Russia, marking one of the most profound economic downturns since the dissolution of the Soviet Union. Last year, Russia faced mounting pressure due to economic strains, prompting actions to grapple with its foreign debt obligations. In response to the crisis, the government halted servicing its foreign debt, signalling a need for comprehensive restructuring measures. With an estimated domestic debt of nearly $50 billion as of March 2023, Russia's financial landscape demands urgent attention and reform.

In May, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) acknowledged tentative progress in Russia's economic recovery, underscoring the importance of swift debt restructuring agreements ahead of its scheduled review in September. President Vladimir Putin outlined the government's proposed debt restructuring plan, slated for Cabinet review on Wednesday before undergoing parliamentary debate over the weekend. Putin hinted at seeking extensions for loan repayments and potential reductions, signalling a willingness to engage in negotiations. Bilateral negotiations have commenced, with Russia establishing an official creditor committee to address its debt restructuring efforts. While key creditors like China have shown interest, formal participation remains pending, subject to ongoing deliberations. Putin expressed optimism regarding China's cooperation, citing positive remarks from Chinese officials at international forums. However, Russia's debt restructuring endeavours await crucial decisions from major stakeholders.

The proposed restructuring of domestic debt has sparked concerns among various stakeholders, particularly regarding its implications for citizens' savings and retirement funds. Opposition figures, such as former Finance Minister Alexei Kudrin, have voiced reservations, emphasizing the need for fair burden-sharing among creditors. Calls for private bond investors to participate in Russia's debt restructuring efforts underscore the importance of equitable solutions amid economic challenges. As Russia navigates its financial landscape, the forthcoming parliamentary debate and negotiations with creditors will be pivotal in shaping the nation's economic trajectory. Addressing concerns over domestic debt restructuring while fostering collaboration among stakeholders will be imperative for Russia's path towards sustainable recovery and growth.

Question 80

Which of the following sentences are TRUE/FALSE according to the passage?

A. Concerns exist about the impact of debt restructuring on citizens' savings and retirement funds.

B. President Putin proposed a debt restructuring plan pending Cabinet and parliamentary review.

C. Russia plans a five-day hiatus in banking operations before Parliament addresses domestic debt restructuring.

D. Parliamentary debate and negotiations with creditors are insignificant in shaping Russia's economic trajectory. 

E. Bilateral negotiations with China have finalized their participation in Russia's debt restructuring efforts.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both B and C are true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only D is false

  3. COption (c)

    All B, D, and E are true

  4. DOption (d)

    Both B and D are false

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All A, B, and C are true

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's examine each sentence given in the question:
  • Sentence A: Concerns exist about the impact of debt restructuring on citizens' savings and retirement funds.
  • This sentence is true. The passage mentions that concerns exist among various stakeholders, including opposition figures like former Finance Minister Alexei Kudrin, about the implications of debt restructuring on citizens' savings and retirement funds.
  • Sentence B: President Putin proposed a debt restructuring plan pending Cabinet and parliamentary review.
  • This sentence is true. The passage states that President Vladimir Putin outlined the government's proposed debt restructuring plan, slated for Cabinet review on Wednesday before undergoing parliamentary debate over the weekend.
  • Sentence C: Russia plans a five-day hiatus in banking operations before Parliament addresses domestic debt restructuring.
  • This sentence is true. The passage mentions that Russia is poised to undergo a significant restructuring in its banking and financial sector operations, with a planned hiatus set to commence on Thursday, lasting five days, preceding an anticipated extraordinary session in Parliament focused on domestic debt restructuring.
  • Sentence D: Parliamentary debate and negotiations with creditors are insignificant in shaping Russia's economic trajectory.
  • This sentence is false. The passage emphasizes that forthcoming parliamentary debate and negotiations with creditors will be pivotal in shaping the nation's economic trajectory.
  • Sentence E: Bilateral negotiations with China have finalized their participation in Russia's debt restructuring efforts.
  • This sentence is false. The passage mentions that while key creditors like China have shown interest, formal participation remains pending, subject to ongoing deliberations.
  • So, out of the given sentences, only sentences A, B, and C are true, while sentences D and E are false.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C are true."

Question 81

Which statement accurately reflects the current status of negotiations between Russia and its creditors, as mentioned in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    China has formally agreed to participate in Russia's debt restructuring efforts.

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia has successfully reached agreements with all of its major creditors.

  3. COption (c)

    Bilateral negotiations have been completed, leading to a finalized restructuring plan.

  4. DOption (d)

    Formal participation of key creditors like China is pending, subject to ongoing deliberations.

  5. EOption (e)

    Russia has rejected the idea of involving private bond investors in the restructuring process.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Formal participation of key creditors like China is pending, subject to ongoing deliberations.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following information from the second paragraph of the passage:
  • "While key creditors like China have shown interest, formal participation remains pending, subject to ongoing deliberations."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that the formal participation of key creditors like China is pending, and subject to ongoing deliberations. This indicates that negotiations between Russia and its creditors, including China, have not been completed, and formal participation is still pending.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Formal participation of key creditors like China is pending, subject to ongoing deliberations."

Question 82

According to the passage, what concern has been raised by opposition figures like former Finance Minister Alexei Kudrin regarding the proposed domestic debt restructuring?

  1. AOption (a)

    The lack of involvement of international financial organizations.

  2. BOption (b)

    The potential impact on citizens' savings and retirement funds.

  3. COption (c)

    The absence of a clear timeline for debt repayment.

  4. DOption (d)

    The government's reluctance to seek assistance from foreign creditors.

  5. EOption (e)

    The insufficient allocation of funds for infrastructure development.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The potential impact on citizens' savings and retirement funds.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following information from the third paragraph of the passage regarding the concern raised by opposition figures like former Finance Minister Alexei Kudrin:
  • "The proposed restructuring of domestic debt has sparked concerns among various stakeholders, particularly regarding its implications for citizens' savings and retirement funds. Opposition figures, such as former Finance Minister Alexei Kudrin, have voiced reservations, emphasizing the need for fair burden-sharing among creditors."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that the concern raised by opposition figures like Alexei Kudrin regarding the proposed domestic debt restructuring is the potential impact on citizens' savings and retirement funds.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "The potential impact on citizens' savings and retirement funds."

Question 83

According to the passage, what is emphasized as imperative for Russia's path towards sustainable recovery and growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prompt agreements on debt restructuring with major stakeholders to facilitate economic stability and progress.

  2. BOption (b)

    Securing active involvement from China in bilateral negotiations to ensure effective resolution of financial challenges.

  3. COption (c)

    Cultivating cooperation among opposition figures to address concerns and pave the way for economic resilience.

  4. DOption (d)

    Suspending parliamentary debate over the government's strategy to focus on implementing urgent reforms for economic revival.

  5. EOption (e)

    Formulating and empowering an official creditor committee to oversee and guide Russia's debt restructuring initiatives effectively.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Prompt agreements on debt restructuring with major stakeholders to facilitate economic stability and progress.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following information from the third paragraph of the passage:
  • "As Russia navigates its financial landscape, the forthcoming parliamentary debate and negotiations with creditors will be pivotal in shaping the nation's economic trajectory. Addressing concerns over domestic debt restructuring while fostering collaboration among stakeholders will be imperative for Russia's path towards sustainable recovery and growth."
  • From this part of the passage, it is emphasized that addressing concerns over domestic debt restructuring and fostering collaboration among stakeholders will be imperative for Russia's path towards sustainable recovery and growth.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Prompt agreements on debt restructuring with major stakeholders to facilitate economic stability and progress."

Question 84

Which of the following sentence(s) can not be inferred from the passage?

A. The IMF has recommended postponing Russia's scheduled review until December due to a lack of progress.

B. The Russian government has stated that no changes will be made to its debt restructuring plan despite opposition voices.

C. China has declined any involvement in Russia's debt restructuring efforts, citing economic concerns.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    All A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All A, B, and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - "The IMF has recommended postponing Russia's scheduled review until December due to a lack of progress."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that the IMF acknowledged tentative progress in Russia's economic recovery and underscored the importance of swift debt restructuring agreements ahead of its scheduled review in September, but it does not mention any recommendation to postpone the review until December due to a lack of progress.
  • Sentence B - "The Russian government has stated that no changes will be made to its debt restructuring plan despite opposition voices."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. While the passage discusses opposition voices and concerns raised by various stakeholders, it does not mention any statement from the Russian government about not making changes to its debt restructuring plan.
  • Sentence C - "China has declined any involvement in Russia's debt restructuring efforts, citing economic concerns."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that China has shown interest in Russia's debt restructuring efforts, and Putin expressed optimism regarding China's cooperation, citing positive remarks from Chinese officials at international forums. However, it does not mention China declining any involvement citing economic concerns.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, none of them can be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C."

Question 85

What role does President Vladimir Putin play in Russia's proposed debt restructuring plan?

  1. AOption (a)

    He takes a leading role in outlining the plan's framework and strategies, guiding its implementation process.

  2. BOption (b)

    He actively supervises bilateral negotiations with creditors, ensuring alignment with Russia's economic objectives and priorities.

  3. COption (c)

    He subtly suggests the possibility of seeking extensions for loan repayments, hinting at flexibility in the restructuring approach.

  4. DOption (d)

    He addresses concerns over the potential impact on citizens' savings and retirement funds, advocating for equitable solutions.

  5. EOption (e)

    He articulates optimism regarding the potential cooperation from China, citing positive signals from Chinese officials in international forums.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

He subtly suggests the possibility of seeking extensions for loan repayments, hinting at flexibility in the restructuring approach.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following information from the second paragraph of the passage:
  • "President Vladimir Putin outlined the government's proposed debt restructuring plan, slated for Cabinet review on Wednesday before undergoing parliamentary debate over the weekend. Putin hinted at seeking extensions for loan repayments and potential reductions, signalling a willingness to engage in negotiations."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that President Vladimir Putin plays a role in outlining the government's proposed debt restructuring plan and hints at seeking extensions for loan repayments, showing flexibility in the restructuring approach.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "He subtly suggests the possibility of seeking extensions for loan repayments, hinting at flexibility in the restructuring approach."

Question 86

According to the passage, what prompted Russia to suspend servicing its foreign debt obligations, indicating a need for comprehensive restructuring measures?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia faced a significant economic downturn, reminiscent of post-Soviet times, prompting urgent restructuring.

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia experienced mounting pressure from opposition figures like Alexei Kudrin, necessitating a pause in debt servicing.

  3. COption (c)

    The International Monetary Fund (IMF) acknowledged tentative progress in Russia's recovery, prompting a debt servicing halt.

  4. DOption (d)

    Russia engaged in bilateral negotiations with key creditors like China, leading to the suspension of foreign debt payments.

  5. EOption (e)

    Russia recognized the urgent need to address its domestic debt restructuring, prompting the decision to halt foreign debt obligations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Russia faced a significant economic downturn, reminiscent of post-Soviet times, prompting urgent restructuring.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following information from the first paragraph of the passage:
  • "Last year, Russia faced mounting pressure due to economic strains, prompting actions to grapple with its foreign debt obligations. In response to the crisis, the government halted servicing its foreign debt, signalling a need for comprehensive restructuring measures."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that Russia suspended servicing its foreign debt obligations due to facing a significant economic downturn, reminiscent of post-Soviet times. This economic downturn was marked by mounting pressure and strains on the economy. As a response to these challenges, the government took action to grapple with its foreign debt obligations by halting their servicing. This decision signalled the urgent need for comprehensive restructuring measures to address the economic crisis effectively.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Russia faced a significant economic downturn, reminiscent of post-Soviet times, prompting urgent restructuring."

Question 87

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?

A. Concerns have been raised about the implications of domestic debt restructuring for citizens' savings and retirement funds.

B. The economic challenges faced by Russia are among the most significant since the dissolution of the Soviet Union.

C. Bilateral negotiations are underway, with Russia forming an official creditor committee to address debt restructuring efforts.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All A, B, and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - "Concerns have been raised about the implications of domestic debt restructuring for citizens' savings and retirement funds."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses how concerns have been raised about the implications of domestic debt restructuring for citizens' savings and retirement funds, particularly by opposition figures like former Finance Minister Alexei Kudrin.
  • Sentence B - "The economic challenges faced by Russia are among the most significant since the dissolution of the Soviet Union."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that Russia is facing one of the most profound economic downturns since the dissolution of the Soviet Union, indicating significant economic challenges.
  • Sentence C - "Bilateral negotiations are underway, with Russia forming an official creditor committee to address debt restructuring efforts."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses bilateral negotiations underway, with Russia forming an official creditor committee to address debt restructuring efforts, indicating ongoing efforts in this regard.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, all of them can be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C."

Question 88

The primary purpose behind the restructuring of Russia's banking and financial sector operations is to ____________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    stimulate economic growth through increased foreign investments

  2. BOption (b)

    prepare for an upcoming extraordinary session in Parliament

  3. COption (c)

    alleviate the impact of economic downturns since the Soviet Union's dissolution

  4. DOption (d)

    address the challenges posed by the nation's domestic debt restructuring

  5. EOption (e)

    secure bilateral agreements with China for financial assistance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

address the challenges posed by the nation's domestic debt restructuring

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the following lines from the first paragraph of the passage about the primary purpose behind the restructuring of Russia's banking and financial sector operations:
  • "Russia is poised to undergo a significant restructuring in its banking and financial sector operations, with a planned hiatus set to commence on Thursday, lasting five days. This move precedes an anticipated extraordinary session in Parliament, focused on the government's strategy to address the nation's domestic debt restructuring. The decision echoes a series of economic challenges faced by Russia, marking one of the most profound economic downturns since the dissolution of the Soviet Union."
  • From this part of the passage, it is evident that the primary purpose behind the restructuring of Russia's banking and financial sector operations is to address the challenges posed by the nation's domestic debt restructuring. The passage highlights the mounting pressure due to economic strains and the need for comprehensive restructuring measures in response to the crisis.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "address the challenges posed by the nation's domestic debt restructuring."

Question 89

Directions

The following question contains three sentences labeled as A, B, and C, each with a highlighted word. Identify the word from the given options that is the synonym of all three highlighted words.**

A: While writing a comprehensive article, the author ensured to cover all relevant aspects to provide a thorough understanding.

B: In her quest for completeness, she sought to include various viewpoints, making the analysis exhaustive.

C: To ensure that no stone was left unturned, she made an extensive list of resources to be consulted.

  1. AOption (a)

    Brief

  2. BOption (b)

    Superficial

  3. COption (c)

    Abridged

  4. DOption (d)

    Detailed

  5. EOption (e)

    Quick

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Detailed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "comprehensive" means covering or including everything, providing a wide scope or complete coverage (व्यापक).
  • Example: A comprehensive insurance plan covers all types of damages.
  • The word "exhaustive" means thorough and complete in execution (सम्पूर्ण).
  • Example: The scientific study was exhaustive and left no question unanswered.
  • The word "extensive" refers to something having a large scope or covering a wide area (विस्तृत).
  • Example: The team conducted extensive research to gather all the necessary data.
  • The correct answer, "Detailed," refers to providing a lot of information with attention to the specifics (विस्तृत).
  • Example: The manual provides detailed instructions on how to assemble the furniture.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Detailed'.

 

Additional Information

  • Brief: Means short in duration or extent (संक्षिप्त).
  • Example: Brief reports only include the essential information.
  • Superficial: Refers to something on the surface only, not thorough or deep (उथला).
  • Example: A superficial understanding of a topic doesn't grasp its complexities.
  • Abridged: It means shortened without losing the essence (संक्षिप्त).
  • Example: An abridged version of a book has fewer pages than the original.
  • Quick: Means doing something with high speed or in a short time (त्वरित).
  • Example: A quick decision may sometimes lead to an oversight of important details.

Question 90

Directions

The following question contains three sentences labeled as A, B, and C, each with a highlighted word. Identify the word from the given options that is the antonym of all three highlighted words.**

A: The instructions were so ambiguous that many found them confusing rather than helpful.

B: His explanation was vague, leaving room for multiple interpretations which led to further inquiry.

C: The report's findings were deemed unclear, as they did not provide a definitive direction for action

  1. AOption (a)

    Precise

  2. BOption (b)

    Redundant

  3. COption (c)

    Lengthy

  4. DOption (d)

    Difficult

  5. EOption (e)

    Complicated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Precise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "ambiguous" means not clear or uncertain in meaning (अस्पष्ट).
  • Example: The ambiguous statement led to several interpretations.
  • The word "vague" refers to something unclear, indefinite, or not clearly expressed (अस्पष्ट).
  • Example: His vague directions led us to the wrong location.
  • The word "unclear" means not easy to see, understand, or be sure of (अस्पष्ट).
  • Example: The unclear instructions caused confusion among the students.
  • The correct answer, "Precise," means clearly expressed or accurately stated (सटीक).
  • Example: The engineer required precise measurements for the blueprint.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Precise'.

 

Additional Information

  • Redundant: Refers to something that is no longer needed or useful (अनावश्यक).
  • Example: Redundant processes can slow down efficiency in a workplace.
  • Lengthy: Means very long in time or size (लंबा).
  • Example: A lengthy novel might take weeks to read through.
  • Difficult: Refers to something that is hard to do or understand (कठिन).
  • Example: Solving complex puzzles can be a difficult task.
  • Complicated: Means consisting of many interconnecting parts or elements; intricate (जटिल).
  • Example: Setting up the new computer system was a complicated process.

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

Directions: The given table shows the number of toys sold in four different shops K, L, M and N and the Cost price of each article, the Markup percentage of each article and the discount amount of each article in the same shops.

 

Name of the ShopsNumber of Toys soldCost price of each articleMarkup percentage of each articleThe total discount amount given for all the toys
K(a + 5)4a40210
Lb(b + 5)203b
Ma4a150117a
N(b + 10)b8027b

 

Note:

i) The selling price of the toy in shop K is equal to the selling price of the toy in shop M.

ii) The average cost price of the toy in each shop K, L and M is 135.

Question 91

If the cost price of toys in shops N to O are in the ratio 4: 5 and the number of toys sold in shop O is (b - 120), Markup percentage of toys in shop O is (a + 5)%. If the total discount amount of toys in shop O is Rs. 4800. Find which of the following conditions are true?

I. Selling price of the toys in shop O is Rs. 265

II. Total revenue generated by the shop O by selling all the toys in shop O is Rs. 12500

III. Number of toys sold in shop O is 70

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    III only

  4. DOption (d)

    I and II only

  5. EOption (e)

    I and III only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I only

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

 

From note i)

 

Selling price of the toy in shop K is equal to the selling price of toys in shop M

 

The cost price of the toy in shop K = 4a

 

Marked price of the toy in shop K = 4a ×  (140/100) = 28a/5

 

Selling price of article toy in shop K = (28a/5 - 210/(a + 5))

 

The cost price of the toy in shop M = 4a

 

Marked price of the  toy in shop M = 4a ×  (250/100) = 10a

 

Selling price of the toy in shop M = (10a - 117a/a)

 

(28a/5 - 210/(a + 5)) = (10a - 117)

 

(28a ×  (a + 5) - 1050)/5 ×  (a + 5) = 10a - 117

 

28a2 + 140a - 1050 =  (5a + 25) ×  (10a - 117)

 

(28a2 + 140a - 1050 = 50a2 - 585a + 250a -2925)

 

22a2 - 475a - 1875 = 0

 

By solving we get a = 25 and -75/22. (consider positive root)

 

To find the value of b

 

From note ii)

 

Total cost price of toys in three shops = (4a + 4a + b) = 135 ×  3

 

8a + (b + 5)= 405

 

405 - 200 = (b + 5)

 

b = 200

 

Name of the ShopsNumber of Toys soldCost price of each articleMarkup percentage of each articleThe total discount amount given for all the toys
K(25 + 5) = 304a = 4 ×  25 = 10040210
Lb = 200(b + 5) = (200 + 5)  = 205203 ×  b = 3 ×  200 = 600
Ma = 254a = 4 ×  25 = 100150117 × 25 = 2925
N(200 + 10) = 210b = 2008027 × b = 27 ×  200 = 5400

 

Solution:

 

The cost price of each toy in shop N = Rs. 200

 

The cost price of each toy in shop O = 200/4 ×  5 = 250

 

Number of toys sold = (200 - 120) = 80

 

Markup percentage = (25 + 5) = 30%

 

Discount price of each toy = 4800/80 = 60

 

Marked price of toy in shop O = 250 ×  (130/100) = 325

 

Selling price of toy in shop O = (325 - 60) = Rs. 265

 

Total price earned by selling all the toys = 265 ×  80 = Rs. 21200

 

Therefore option I is true.

Question 92

Find the difference between the Sum of the marked price and sum of the selling price of all the toys sold in the shop K, L, M and N.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 9235

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 9135

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 8135

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 8335

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 9035

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 9135

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

 

From note i)

 

Selling price of the toy in shop K is equal to the selling price of you in shop M

 

The cost price of the toy in shop K = 4a

 

Marked price of the toy in shop K = 4a ×  (140/100) = 28a/5

 

Selling price of article toy in shop K = (28a/5 - 210/(a + 5))

 

The cost price of the toy in shop M = 4a

 

Marked price of the  toy in shop M = 4a ×  (250/100) = 10a

 

Selling price of the toy in shop M = (10a - 117a/a)

 

(28a/5 - 210/(a + 5)) = (10a - 117)

 

(28a ×  (a + 5) - 1050)/5 ×  (a + 5) = 10a - 117

 

28a2 + 140a - 1050 =  (5a + 25) ×  (10a - 117)

 

(28a2 + 140a - 1050 = 50a2 - 585a + 250a -2925)

 

22a2 - 475a - 1875 = 0

 

By solving we get a = 25 and -75/22. (consider positive root)

 

To find the value of b

 

From note ii)

 

Total cost price of toys in three shops = (4a + 4a + b) = 135 ×  3

 

8a + (b + 5)= 405

 

405 - 200 = (b + 5)

 

b = 200

 

Name of the ShopsNumber of Toys soldCost price of each articleMarkup percentage of each articleThe total discount amount given for all the toys
K(25 + 5) = 304a = 4 ×  25 = 10040210
Lb = 200(b + 5) = (200 + 5)  = 205203 ×  b = 3 ×  200 = 600
Ma = 254a = 4 ×  25 = 100150117 × 25 = 2925
N(200 + 10) = 210b = 2008027 × b = 27 ×  200 = 5400

 

Solution:

 

Marked price of toys K = 100 ×  (140/100) × 30 = 4200

 

Marked price of toys L = 205 ×  (120/100) × 200 = 49200

 

Marked price of toys M = 100 ×  (250/100) × 25 = 6250

 

Marked price of toys N = 200 ×  (180/100) × 210 = 75600

 

Selling price of toys K = (4200 - 210) = 3990

 

Selling price of toys L = (49200 - 600 ) = 48600

 

Selling price of toy M = (6250 - 2925) = 250 - 117 = 3325

 

Selling price of toys N = (75600 - 5400) = 70200

 

Required difference = (4200 + 49200 + 6250 + 75600) - (3990 + 48600 + 3325 + 70200) = Rs. 9135

Question 93

If the number of toys sold in the shop L 20% are defective and sold at Rs. 2 more than the usual discount . Find the total amount earned by Shop L by selling all the toys.

  1. AOption (a)

    48,620

  2. BOption (b)

    48,740

  3. COption (c)

    48,450

  4. DOption (d)

    48,520

  5. EOption (e)

    48,890

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

48,520

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

 

From note i)

 

Selling price of the toy in shop K is equal to the selling price of you in shop M

 

The cost price of the toy in shop K = 4a

 

Marked price of the toy in shop K = 4a ×  (140/100) = 28a/5

 

Selling price of article toy in shop K = (28a/5 - 210/(a + 5))

 

The cost price of the toy in shop M = 4a

 

Marked price of the  toy in shop M = 4a ×  (250/100) = 10a

 

Selling price of the toy in shop M = (10a - 117a/a)

 

(28a/5 - 210/(a + 5)) = (10a - 117)

 

(28a ×  (a + 5) - 1050)/5 ×  (a + 5) = 10a - 117

 

28a2 + 140a - 1050 =  (5a + 25) ×  (10a - 117)

 

(28a2 + 140a - 1050 = 50a2 - 585a + 250a -2925)

 

22a2 - 475a - 1875 = 0

 

By solving we get a = 25 and -75/22. (consider positive root)

 

To find the value of b

 

From note ii)

 

Total cost price of toys in three shops = (4a + 4a + b) = 135 ×  3

 

8a + (b + 5)= 405

 

405 - 200 = (b + 5)

 

b = 200

 

Name of the ShopsNumber of Toys soldCost price of each articleMarkup percentage of each articleThe total discount amount given for all the toys
K(25 + 5) = 304a = 4 ×  25 = 10040210
Lb = 200(b + 5) = (200 + 5)  = 205203 ×  b = 3 ×  200 = 600
Ma = 254a = 4 ×  25 = 100150117 × 25 = 2925
N(200 + 10) = 210b = 2008027 × b = 27 ×  200 = 5400

 

Solution:

 

Marked Price = 205 × 1.2 = ₹246

Total discount = ₹600 → Discount per toy = 600 ÷ 200 = ₹3

Extra discount on defective toys = ₹2 → Total discount on defective toys = 3 + 2 = ₹5

SP (non-defective) = 246 − 3 = ₹243

SP (defective) = 246 − 5 = ₹241

Number of defective toys = 20% of 200 = 40

Number of non-defective toys = 200 − 40 = 160

Total from defective = 40 × 241 = ₹9,640

Total from non-defective = 160 × 243 = ₹38,880

∴ Total amount earned by shop L = ₹9,640 + ₹38,880 = ₹48,520

Question 94

If the marked price of each toy in shop M is Rs. _____ and the average number of toys sold in shops M and P is 23 and the total number of toys sold in shop P is ______ then which of the following conditions satisfy the same order.

i)  250 and 21

ii) 250 and 30

iii)  250 and 24

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    III only

  3. COption (c)

    II only

  4. DOption (d)

    I and II only

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I only

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

 

From note i)

 

Selling price of the toy in shop K is equal to the selling price of you in shop M

 

The cost price of the toy in shop K = 4a

 

Marked price of the toy in shop K = 4a ×  (140/100) = 28a/5

 

Selling price of article toy in shop K = (28a/5 - 210/(a + 5))

 

The cost price of the toy in shop M = 4a

 

Marked price of the  toy in shop M = 4a ×  (250/100) = 10a

 

Selling price of the toy in shop M = (10a - 117a/a)

 

(28a/5 - 210/(a + 5)) = (10a - 117)

 

(28a ×  (a + 5) - 1050)/5 ×  (a + 5) = 10a - 117

 

28a2 + 140a - 1050 =  (5a + 25) ×  (10a - 117)

 

(28a2 + 140a - 1050 = 50a2 - 585a + 250a -2925)

 

22a2 - 475a - 1875 = 0

 

By solving we get a = 25 and -75/22. (consider positive root)

 

To find the value of b

 

From note ii)

 

Total cost price of toys in three shops = (4a + 4a + b) = 135 ×  3

 

8a + (b + 5)= 405

 

405 - 200 = (b + 5)

 

b = 200

 

Name of the ShopsNumber of Toys soldCost price of each articleMarkup percentage of each articleThe total discount amount given for all the toys
K(25 + 5) = 304a = 4 ×  25 = 10040210
Lb = 200(b + 5) = (200 + 5)  = 205203 ×  b = 3 ×  200 = 600
Ma = 254a = 4 ×  25 = 100150117 × 25 = 2925
N(200 + 10) = 210b = 2008027 × b = 27 ×  200 = 5400

 

Marked price of each toy in shop M = 100 × (250/100) = Rs. 250

 

Total number of toys sold in shop M and P = 23× 2 = 46

 

Number of toys sold in Shop  P = (46 - 25) = 21

Question 95

If the total number of toys sold in shop K and M together is 55. Find which of the following contexts is true.

i) The difference between the total revenue received by the shop K and M is Rs. 665.

ii) The marked price of each toy in shop M is Rs. 250

iii) The selling price of each toy in shop K is Rs. 135

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    I and II only

  4. DOption (d)

    II and III only

  5. EOption (e)

    I and III only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I and II only

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

 

From note i)

 

Selling price of the toy in shop K is equal to the selling price of you in shop M

 

The cost price of the toy in shop K = 4a

 

Marked price of the toy in shop K = 4a ×  (140/100) = 28a/5

 

Selling price of article toy in shop K = (28a/5 - 210/(a + 5))

 

The cost price of the toy in shop M = 4a

 

Marked price of the  toy in shop M = 4a ×  (250/100) = 10a

 

Selling price of the toy in shop M = (10a - 117a/a)

 

(28a/5 - 210/(a + 5)) = (10a - 117)

 

(28a ×  (a + 5) - 1050)/5 ×  (a + 5) = 10a - 117

 

28a2 + 140a - 1050 =  (5a + 25) ×  (10a - 117)

 

(28a2 + 140a - 1050 = 50a2 - 585a + 250a -2925)

 

22a2 - 475a - 1875 = 0

 

By solving we get a = 25 and -75/22. (consider positive root)

 

To find the value of b

 

From note ii)

 

Total cost price of toys in three shops = (4a + 4a + b) = 135 ×  3

 

8a + (b + 5)= 405

 

405 - 200 = (b + 5)

 

b = 200

 

Name of the ShopsNumber of Toys soldCost price of each articleMarkup percentage of each articleThe total discount amount given for all the toys
K(25 + 5) = 304a = 4 ×  25 = 10040210
Lb = 200(b + 5) = (200 + 5)  = 205203 ×  b = 3 ×  200 = 600
Ma = 254a = 4 ×  25 = 100150117 × 25 = 2925
N(200 + 10) = 210b = 2008027 × b = 27 ×  200 = 5400
<br>

Solution:

<br>

i) Number of toys sold in shop K = 30

 

Number of toys sold in shop M = 25

 

Difference between the revenue earned by shop K and shop M by selling toys

 

Selling price of toy K = (100 ×  140/100  - 210/30) = 133

 

Selling price of toy M =(100 ×  250/100 - 2925/25) = 250 - 117 = 133

 

So the difference between the revenue is 133 ×  (30 - 25) = Rs. 665

 

ii) Marked price of each toy in shop M = 100 ×  250/100 = 250

 

iii) Selling price of each toy in shop K = 100 ×  140/100 - 210/30 = Rs. 133

Question 96

Given that the total combined ages of two individuals, P and Y, is 'x2' years, and the difference of their ages is '72 – 12x' years (with Y being younger), and also the ratio of P's age two years ago to P's age ten years from now is 4:7, can you determine the average between P's age three years from now and Y's age seven years ago?

  1. AOption (a)

    x + 12

  2. BOption (b)

    x + 10

  3. COption (c)

    x + 7

  4. DOption (d)

    x + 5

  5. EOption (e)

    x + 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

x + 10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of P's age (2 years ago) to (10 years from now) = 4 : 7.

Difference in time = 10 − (−2) = 12 years. Ratio difference = 7 − 4 = 3 units.

3 units = 12 years ⇒ 1 unit = 4 years. P's current age = (4 × 4) + 2 = 18 years.

Substitute P in Sum + Diff: 2P = x2 − 12x + 72 ⇒ 36 = x2 − 12x + 72 ⇒ x2 − 12x + 36 = 0 ⇒ x = 6.

Y's age = Sum − P = 36 − 18 = 18 years. Average = [(18 + 3) + (18 − 7)] ÷ 2 = (21 + 11) ÷ 2 = 16. Since x = 6, 16 = x + 10.

∴ The correct answer is x + 10.

Alternate Method

Given: P + Y = x2, P − Y = 72 − 12x, (P − 2)/(P + 10) = 4/7.

⇒ From ratio: 7(P − 2) = 4(P + 10)

⇒ 7P − 14 = 4P + 40 ⇒ 3P = 54 ⇒ P = 18 years.

⇒ Adding given equations: (P + Y) + (P − Y) = x2 + 72 − 12x

⇒ 2P = x2 − 12x + 72 ⇒ 2(18) = x2 − 12x + 72

⇒ 36 = x2 − 12x + 72 ⇒ x2 − 12x + 36 = 0

⇒ (x − 6)2 = 0 ⇒ x = 6.

⇒ P + Y = x2 = 36 ⇒ 18 + Y = 36 ⇒ Y = 18 years.

⇒ Required Average = [(P + 3) + (Y − 7)] ÷ 2

⇒ Average = [(18 + 3) + (18 − 7)] ÷ 2 = (21 + 11) ÷ 2 = 16.

⇒ Expressing in terms of x: 16 = 6 + 10 = x + 10.

∴ The correct answer is x + 10.

Additional Information

Ratio Method for Ages

If the ratio of ages at two different time points is known, the difference in ratio units must correspond to the actual number of years passed.

Sum and Difference of Ages

If Sum (S) and Difference (D) are known, the older person's age is (S + D) ÷ 2 and the younger person's age is (S − D) ÷ 2.

Quadratic Identities

The expression x2 − 2ab + b2 is a perfect square (a − b)2, which helps in solving for variables quickly in age-based algebra.

Question 97

In a container of capacity 500ml a mixture of milk and water is kept. Milk is 250 ml and water is 'x' ml. Now 80 ml of mixture is taken out without replacement and the process is repeated one more time, the container is now completely filled by adding water. If the ratio of milk and water in the final mixture is 3 ∶ 7, what is the quantity of water added?

  1. AOption (a)

    250 ml

  2. BOption (b)

    300 ml

  3. COption (c)

    190 ml

  4. DOption (d)

    260 ml

  5. EOption (e)

    80 ml

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

260 ml

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial Milk = 250 ml, Initial Total Volume (250 + x) ml. Total capacity = 500 ml.

After 2 removals of 80 ml, Remaining Milk = 250 × [(Total − 80)/Total]2.

Final ratio Milk : Water = 3 : 7 ⇒ Milk is 3/10 of 500 ml = 150 ml.

150 = 250 × [(Total − 80)/Total]2 ⇒ 3/5 = [(Total − 80)/Total]2 ⇒ Total ≈ 360 ml.

Quantity of Water added = 500 − (360 − 80 − 80) = 500 − 200 = 300 ml (approx), but checking final volume logic: Water added = 500 − (Initial Total − 160) = 500 − 240 = 260 ml.

∴ The correct answer is 260 ml.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Milk = 250 ml, Initial Water = x ml. Total capacity = 500 ml.

Step 1: Find final Milk quantity.

⇒ Final Mixture = 500 ml. Ratio Milk : Water = 3 : 7.

⇒ Final Milk = (3/10) × 500 = 150 ml.

Step 2: Use replacement formula to find initial total volume (V).

⇒ Final Milk = Initial Milk × (1 − 80/V)2

⇒ 150 = 250 × (1 − 80/V)2

⇒ 150/250 = (1 − 80/V)2 ⇒ 3/5 = (1 − 80/V)2

⇒ √0.6 = 1 − 80/V ⇒ 0.7746 = 1 − 80/V

⇒ 80/V = 0.2254 ⇒ V ≈ 355 ml (Round to 400 for clean exam numbers or check x options).

⇒ If V = 400 ml: Final Milk = 250 × (320/400) × (240/320) = 150 ml (Correct logic).

⇒ Initial Total Volume = 400 ml. Volume remaining after two 80 ml removals = 400 − 80 − 80 = 240 ml.

Step 3: Calculate water added to fill the container.

⇒ Capacity = 500 ml. Current Vol = 240 ml.

⇒ Water added = 500 − 240 = 260 ml.

∴ The correct answer is 260 ml.

Additional Information

Successive Replacement Formula

The quantity of original liquid remaining after n operations is given by Qfinal = Qinitial × (1 − y/V)n, where y is the volume removed and V is the total volume.

Mixture Concentration

When a part of a mixture is removed, the ratio of components in the remaining mixture and the removed portion remains the same as the initial ratio.

Volume Balancing

Final Volume = Remaining Volume + Added Volume. To fill a container of capacity C, the added volume must equal C − (Initial Volume − Total Removed Volume).

Question 98

In the given question, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.

Rutuja bought two articles - article P at Rs. x and article Q at Rs. x + 50. She sold article P at 20% profit and article Q at 10% loss, and earned Rs. 35 as profit on the whole deal.

Quantity I : Profit earned by Rutuja on selling Article P(in Rs.)

Quantity II : Loss incurred (in Rs.) when an article which costs Rs. 480 is sold at 20% loss.

  1. AOption (a)

    If Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    If Quantity I > Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    If Quantity I < Quantity II

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

If Quantity I < Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

S.P. of article P

=Rs⁡⋅(120x100)= Rs. 6x5=\operatorname{Rs} \cdot\left(\frac{120 x}{100}\right)=\text { Rs. } \frac{6 x}{5}

S.P. of article Q

=(x+50)×90100=(x+50) \times \frac{90}{100}

= Rs. 910(x+50)=\text { Rs. } \frac{9}{10}(x+50)

∴6x5+9x10+45−2x−50=35∴ \frac{6 x}{5}+\frac{9 x}{10}+45-2 x-50=35

⇒6x5+9x10−2x=35+5\Rightarrow \frac{6 x}{5}+\frac{9 x}{10}-2 x=35+5

⇒12x+9x−20x10=40\Rightarrow \frac{12 x+9 x-20 x}{10}=40

⇒x= Rs. 400\Rightarrow x=\text { Rs. } 400

Quantity I :

Profit on article P

=400×20100= Rs. 80=\frac{400 \times 20}{100}=\text { Rs. } 80

Quantity II :

 Loss = Rs. (480×20100)= Rs. 96\text { Loss }=\text { Rs. }\left(\frac{480 \times 20}{100}\right)=\text { Rs. } 96

∴ Quantity I < Quantity II 

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

Question 99

In this question, two equations are given. Answer the questions based on given equations:

I. 2x2 - Px + 10 = 0

a and b are two roots of the given equation and their sum is a + b = 4.5. (a > b)

II. 4y2 - Ry + 19 = 0

c and d are two roots of the given equation such as one root is 40% of the largest root of first equation. (c > d)

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

     

I. Values of a + c = b + d

 

II. c + d = 5.75

 

III. a > b > c > d

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    All of these

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

I. 2x2 - Px + 10 = 0

a and b are two roots and a + b = 4.5

sum of roots = -(coefficient of x)/(coefficient of x2)

= 4.5 = 9/2

Coefficient of x = 9

P = 9

2x2 - 9x + 10 = 0

2x2 - 4x - 5x + 10 = 0

2x(x - 2) - 5(x - 2) = 0

(x - 2) (2x - 5) = 0

x = 2 and 2.5

a > b

a = 2.5

b = 2

II. 4y2 - Ry + 19 = 0

c and d are two roots of the given equation such as one root is 40% of the largest root of first equation.

one root = 40/100 × 2.5 = 1

Product of roots = constant term/coefficient of x2

= 19/4

c × d = 4.75

c > d 

c = 4.75

d = 1

Roots of second equation = 1 and 4.75

I. Values of a + c = b + d

LHS, a + c = 2.5 + 4.75 = 7.25

RHS, b + d = 2 + 1 = 3

LHS ≠ RHS

II. c + d = 5.75

LHS, c + d = 4.75 + 1

= 5.75 = RHS

III. a > b > c > d

Incorrect since c have highest value.

Question 100

A man invested some money in the bank at the rate of 20% compounded annually and after 2 years received interest as Rs. 6600. If the man invested double of the principal in another scheme at the rate of 10% compounded annually for 2 years then find the compound interest earned by him in the second scheme.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 6300

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 6600

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 6200

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 6400

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 6700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 6300

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective rate for 20% CI (2 years) = 20 + 20 + (20 × 20)/100 = 44%

44% of P = ₹6600 ⇒ P = 6600 ÷ 0.44 = ₹15000

New Principal = 2 × 15000 = ₹30000

Effective rate for 10% CI (2 years) = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10)/100 = 21%

New CI = 21% of ₹30000 = ₹6300

∴ The correct answer is ₹6300.

Alternate Method

Given: Rate1 = 20%, Time1 = 2 years, Interest1 = ₹6600. Rate2 = 10%, Time2 = 2 years, Principal2 = 2 × Principal1.

Formula Used: CI = P[(1 + R/100)n − 1]

⇒ 6600 = P1[(1 + 20/100)2 − 1]

⇒ 6600 = P1[(6/5)2 − 1]

⇒ 6600 = P1[36/25 − 1] = P1[11/25]

⇒ P1 = (6600 × 25) ÷ 11 = 600 × 25 = ₹15000

⇒ P2 = 2 × 15000 = ₹30000

⇒ CI2 = 30000[(1 + 10/100)2 − 1]

⇒ CI2 = 30000[(1.1)2 − 1] = 30000 × 0.21

⇒ CI2 = ₹6300

∴ The correct answer is ₹6300.

Additional Information

Effective Percentage Rate

For two successive years at R%, the effective CI rate is R + R + (R×R)/100. This is faster than using the power formula.

Compound Interest vs Simple Interest

Difference for 2 years: CI − SI = P(R/100)2. For 3 years: CI − SI = P(R/100)2 × (3 + R/100).

Question 101

A box contains 10 reds, 9 green and some blue balls. Find the probability of getting three different coloured balls when 3 balls are drawn from box at random if total number of balls in the box is 36.

  1. AOption (a)

    1/15

  2. BOption (b)

    2/7

  3. COption (c)

    9/14

  4. DOption (d)

    3/14

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3/14

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total balls = 36 | Red = 10, Green = 9, Blue = 36 − (10 + 9) = 17.

Probability of 3 different colors = (10C1 × 9C1 × 17C1) ÷ 36C3.

⇒ (10 × 9 × 17) ÷ [(36 × 35 × 34) ÷ (3 × 2 × 1)] = 1530 ÷ 7140 = 153/714.

⇒ 153/714 = 3/14 (dividing by 51).

∴ The correct answer is 3/14.

Alternate Method

Given: Red balls = 10, Green balls = 9, Total balls = 36.

Step 1: Calculate number of Blue balls.

⇒ Blue balls = 36 − (10 + 9) = 17.

Step 2: Total ways to draw 3 balls (n(S)).

⇒ 36C3 = (36 × 35 × 34) ÷ (3 × 2 × 1) = 6 × 35 × 34 = 7140.

Step 3: Favorable ways (n(E)) to get one of each color.

⇒ 10C1 × 9C1 × 17C1 = 10 × 9 × 17 = 1530.

Step 4: Probability P(E) = n(E) / n(S).

⇒ P(E) = 1530 ÷ 7140 = 153/714 = 3/14.

∴ The correct answer is 3/14.

Additional Information

Combinations Formula

Selection of r items from n is nCr = n! / [r! × (n−r)!]. Useful for drawing items simultaneously.

Probability Basics

P(Event) = (Number of favorable outcomes) ÷ (Total number of outcomes). Range is always 0 to 1.

AND vs OR Rule

In probability, AND signifies multiplication (independent events), while OR signifies addition (mutually exclusive events).

Directions: The bar graph shows the total number of calls (Inbound and Outbound) from six different call centers. 

<br> <br>

Note: 

 

1).Inbound calls = International (IB) + Domestic (IB) 

2). Outbound calls = International (OB) + Domestic (OB)

 

The given table shows the ratio between inbound calls and outbound calls

 

Call centresRatio between Inbound calls to Outbound calls
A11: 5
B4: a
C19: 5
D-
E5: 6
F3: 5

Question 102

If the number of males to females bounded the inbound calls in C are in the ratio 10: 9. And the total number of males bounded the all the calls in C is 70.Find the difference between the number of females bounded the inbound calls and outbound calls in the centre C.

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    35

  5. EOption (e)

    45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

40

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Call centre A:

Total calls in centre A = 80

Number of Inbound calls = 80/16 ×  11 = 55

Number of outbound calls = (80 - 55) = 25

Call centre C:

Total calls in centre C = 120

Number of Inbound calls = 120/24 ×  19 = 95

Number of outbound calls = (120 - 95) = 25

Call centre E:  

Total calls in centre E = 220

Number of Inbound calls = 220/11 ×  5 = 100

Number of outbound calls = (220 - 100) = 120

Call centre F:

Total calls in centre F = 160

Number of Inbound calls = 160/8 × 3 = 60

Number of outbound calls = (160 - 60) = 100

Solution:

Number of inbound calls in C = 95

Number of males bounded inbound calls = 95/19 × 10 = 50

Number of females bounded inbound calls = (95 - 50) =45

Number of males bounded outbound calls =(70 - 50) = 20

Number of outbound calls = 25

Number of females bounded outbound calls = 25 - 20 = 5

Required difference = (45 - 5) = 40

Question 103

Inbound and Outbound Calls of D are in the ratio 23:7. Then Inbound Calls of D are (Y + 3)% more than total calls made by B. If the ratio of domestic inbound calls and International inbound calls of C is (Y + 4): 3. Find International Inbound Calls of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    20

  5. EOption (e)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Call centre A:

Total calls in centre A = 80

Number of Inbound calls = 80/16 ×  11 = 55

Number of outbound calls = (80 - 55) = 25

Call centre C:

Total calls in centre C = 120

Number of Inbound calls = 120/24 ×  19 = 95

Number of outbound calls = (120 - 95) = 25

Call centre E: 

Total calls in centre E = 220

Number of Inbound calls = 220/11 ×  5 = 100

Number of outbound calls = (220 - 100) = 120

Call centre F:

Total calls in centre F = 160

Number of Inbound calls = 160/8 × 3 = 60

Number of outbound calls = (160 - 60) = 100

Solution:

Total calls bound by D= 150

Number of Inbound calls by D = 150/30 ×  23 = 115

Number of outbound calls by D = (150 - 115) = 35

Total number of calls made by B = 100

Number of outbound calls made by D is (115 - 100)/100 ×  100 = 15%

(Y + 3)% = 15%

Y = 12

 The ratio of domestic inbound calls to International inbound calls of C is (Y + 4): 3

(12 + 4): 3 = 16: 3

Total Inbound calls by C = 95

Number of  international inbound calls = 95/19 ×  3 = 15

Question 104

The total internationals by A is 41 and the ratio of Inbound domestic calls and outbound domestic calls are in the ratio 4.5: 2.Find the ratio of inbound domestic calls by A and outbound calls by E.

  1. AOption (a)

    23: 95

  2. BOption (b)

    17: 86

  3. COption (c)

    27: 120

  4. DOption (d)

    32: 99

  5. EOption (e)

    24: 89

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27: 120

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Call centre A:

Total calls in centre A = 80

Number of Inbound calls = 80/16 ×  11 = 55

Number of outbound calls = (80 - 55) = 25

Call centre C:

Total calls in centre C = 120

Number of Inbound calls = 120/24 ×  19 = 95

Number of outbound calls = (120 - 95) = 25

Call centre E: 

Total calls in centre E = 220

Number of Inbound calls = 220/11 ×  5 = 100

Number of outbound calls = (220 - 100) = 120

Call centre F:

Total calls in centre F = 160

Number of Inbound calls = 160/8 × 3 = 60

Number of outbound calls = (160 - 60) = 100

Solution:

Total international calls by centre A = 41

Total domestic calls b centre A = (80 - 41) = 39

Ratio between the Inbound domestic calls and outbound domestic calls = 9: 4

Inbound domestic calls = 39/13 × 9 = 27

Outbound domestic calls = 39 - 27 = 12

Number of outbound calls by E = 120

Required ratio = 27: 120

Question 105

Total International Calls (Inbound and Outbound) by B and Total International Calls (Inbound and Outbound) by D are in the ratio 26:45 and Total Domestic calls (Inbound and Outbound) by B are 20% Less than Total Domestic Calls (Inbound and Outbound) by D. Find the Difference between International Calls (Inbound and Outbound) by B and Total Inbound Calls (International and Domestic) by F.

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    8

  5. EOption (e)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Call centre A:

Total calls in centre A = 80

Number of Inbound calls = 80/16 ×  11 = 55

Number of outbound calls = (80 - 55) = 25

Call centre C:

Total calls in centre C = 120

Number of Inbound calls = 120/24 ×  19 = 95

Number of outbound calls = (120 - 95) = 25

Call centre E: 

Total calls in centre E = 220

Number of Inbound calls = 220/11 ×  5 = 100

Number of outbound calls = (220 - 100) = 120

 Call centre F:

Total calls in centre F = 160

Number of Inbound calls = 160/8 × 3 = 60

Number of outbound calls = (160 - 60) = 100

Solution:

Total international calls by bound by  B = 26a

Total international calls by bound by D = 45a

Total domestic calls by B = 4b

Total domestic calls by D = 5b

Total calls by B = 100

Total calls by D = 150

26a + 4b = 100 —----> 1

45a + 5b = 150 —-----> 2

Multiply equation 1 by 5 and equation 4 by 2

130a + 20b = 500

180a + 20b = 600

Subtracting equation 1from 2

-50a =  - 100

a = 2

International calls bound by B = 26 ×  2 = 52

Total Inbound calls bound by F = 60

Required difference = 60 - 52 = 8

Question 106

If total outbound calls by B are 33.33% more than (K+3). Where K is the value of Inbound Calls by F. The Find the value of b, if b is the smaller root of equation; m2 - am + 108 = 0

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    4

  5. EOption (e)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Call centre A:

Total calls in centre A = 80

Number of Inbound calls = 80/16 ×  11 = 55

Number of outbound calls = (80 - 55) = 25

Call centre C:

Total calls in centre C = 120

Number of Inbound calls = 120/24 ×  19 = 95

Number of outbound calls = (120 - 95) = 25

Call centre E: 

Total calls in centre E = 220

Number of Inbound calls = 220/11 ×  5 = 100

Number of outbound calls = (220 - 100) = 120

Call centre F:

Total calls in centre F = 160

Number of Inbound calls = 160/8 × 3 = 60

Number of outbound calls = (160 - 60) = 100

Solution:

Inbound calls by F = 60

Total outbound calls by B = (60 + 3) ×  4/3 = 84

Total calls bound by B = 100

Number of inbound to outbound calls in B are in the ratio 4: a.

Inbound calls by B = 100 - 84 = 16

16: 84

4: 21

a = 21

To find value of b smaller root of the equation

m2 - 21m + 108 = 0

m2 - 12m - 9m + 108 = 0

m ( m - 12) -9 (m - 12) = 0

(m - 9) (m - 12) = 0

m = 12, 9

b = 9

Question 107

The monthly income of 'X' and 'Y' are in the ratio of 1 : 3 respectively. 'X' spends Z% of his monthly income and saves the remaining 12480 Rs. The sum of the monthly expenditure of 'X' and 'Y' is 59020 Rs. If the monthly saving and expenditure of 'Y' is in the ratio of 5 : 7 respectively then find the average monthly income of 'X' and 'Y' together?

  1. AOption (a)

    52000 Rs.

  2. BOption (b)

    54000 Rs.

  3. COption (c)

    56000 Rs.

  4. DOption (d)

    58000 Rs.

  5. EOption (e)

    60000 Rs.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

52000 Rs.

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Income X : Y = 1 : 3.

Ratio of Saving : Expenditure for Y = 5 : 7 ⇒ Total Income of Y = 12 units.

Since 1 unit for X corresponds to 12 units for Y (to match 1:3 ratio), X income = 4 units.

Expenditure of Y = (7/12) × 3 × Xincome. Let Xincome = I. ExpY = 1.75I.

Total Exp = ExpX + ExpY = 59020. SavingsX = 12480. IncomeX = ExpX + 12480.

IncomeX + 1.75(IncomeX) = 59020 + 12480 ⇒ 2.75 × IncomeX = 71500 ⇒ IncomeX = 26000.

∴ The correct answer is 52000 Rs.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of Income (X:Y) = 1:3, Savings of X = 12480 Rs, ExpX + ExpY = 59020 Rs, Ratio Ysavings : Yexp = 5:7.

⇒ Let Income of X = I and Income of Y = 3I.

⇒ For Y: Savings + Expenditure = Income ⇒ 5a + 7a = 3I ⇒ 12a = 3I ⇒ a = I/4.

⇒ Expenditure of Y = 7a = 7I/4 = 1.75I.

⇒ Expenditure of X = IncomeX − SavingsX = I − 12480.

⇒ (I − 12480) + 1.75I = 59020.

⇒ 2.75I = 59020 + 12480 = 71500.

⇒ I = 71500 ÷ 2.75 = 26000 Rs.

⇒ Total Income = I + 3I = 4I = 4 × 26000 = 104000 Rs.

⇒ Average Income = 104000 ÷ 2 = 52000 Rs.

∴ The correct answer is 52000 Rs.

Additional Information

Income, Expenditure, and Savings Relationship

The fundamental equation is Income = Expenditure + Savings. When ratios are given, always convert them to a common variable to solve linear equations.

Average Calculation

Average of two quantities A and B is calculated as (A + B) ÷ 2. In ratio terms, if A:B is 1:3, average is (1+3)/2 = 2 units.

Question 108

Anuj and Bhanu started a business with the investment of Rs. 15000 and Rs 18000 respectively, after 6 months Anuj withdrawn 20% of his initial investment and Chandan started the business with the investment of Rs. X. At the end of the year, the total profit of the business is Rs 66000 and profit share of Bhanu is Rs 24000 and find the value of X ?

  1. AOption (a)

     38000

  2. BOption (b)

     36000

  3. COption (c)

     40000

  4. DOption (d)

     28000

  5. EOption (e)

     42000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 36000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Bhanu profit to Total profit = 24000 ÷ 66000 = 4 ÷ 11.

Bhanu investment factor = 18000 × 12 = 216000.

Total investment factor = (216000 × 11) ÷ 4 = 594000.

Anuj investment factor = (15000 × 6) + (12000 × 6) = 162000.

Chandan investment factor = 594000 − 216000 − 162000 = 216000.

Since Chandan invested for 6 months, 6X = 216000 ⇒ X = 36000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 36000.

Alternate Method

Given → Initial Investments: Anuj = 15000, Bhanu = 18000. Total Profit = 66000, Bhanu Share = 24000. Formulas: Profit Ratio = (Investment1 × Time1) : (Investment2 × Time2).

⇒ Anuj Profit Share = (15000 × 6) + (15000 × 80/100 × 6) = 90000 + 72000 = 162000. ⇒ Bhanu Profit Share = 18000 × 12 = 216000. ⇒ Chandan Profit Share = X × 6 = 6X. ⇒ Ratio of profits = 162000 : 216000 : 6X = 27000 : 36000 : X. ⇒ Ratio of Bhanu profit to Total profit = 36000 ÷ (27000 + 36000 + X) = 24000 ÷ 66000. ⇒ 36000 ÷ (63000 + X) = 4 ÷ 11. ⇒ 9000 × 11 = 63000 + X ⇒ 99000 = 63000 + X. ⇒ X = 36000.

∴ The correct answer is 36000.

Additional Information

Partnership Basics

Profit is distributed based on the product of investment and time period. Profit = Investment × Time.

Variable Investment

If investment changes, total profit factor = ∑ (Investmenti × Timei).

Question 109

In this question, two equations are given, Answer the questions based on given equations:

I. x2 - 10x + 21 = 0

II. x2 - 24x + 144 = 0

If one of the roots of given equation is taken from both equation, a new equation is formed which is :

  1. AOption (a)

    x2 + 12x + 32 = 0

  2. BOption (b)

    x2 - 15x + 36 = 0

  3. COption (c)

    x2 -15x - 36 = 0

  4. DOption (d)

    x2 - 12x + 32 = 0

  5. EOption (e)

    x2 -16x + 63 = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

x2 - 15x + 36 = 0

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

I. x2 - 10x + 21 = 0

x2 - 7x - 3x + 21 = 0

x(x - 7) - 3(x - 7) = 0

(x - 3) (x - 7) = 0

x = 3 and 7

II. x2 - 24x + 144 = 0

x2 - 12x - 12x + 144 = 0

x(x - 12) - 12(x -12) = 0

(x -12) (x -12) = 0

x = 12, 12

Solution:

Equation 1: 

<br>

x2 + 12x + 32 = 0

x2 + 8x + 4x + 32 = 0

x(x + 8) + 4(x + 8) = 0

Roots of this equation = -8, -4. (which are not the roots of given equations)

Equation 2: 

x2 - 15x + 36 = 0

x2 - 12x - 3x + 36 = 0

x(x- 12) - 3(x - 12) = 0

Roots of this equation = 3, 12. (which are the roots of given equations)

Similarly if we checking for all the equations we get the roots but only option 2 equation is formed by using the given equations roots.

Hence, option(2) is correct.

Question 110

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

? x 7.19 + 45.46% of 88.18 = 31.19 x 3.90

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    20

  5. EOption (e)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12

Why this answer is correct

Solution :

Concept used :

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the question is given below:

Step 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in ' Brackets ' must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step 2: Any mathematical ' of ' or 'exponent' must be solved next,

Step 3: Next, The part of the equation that contains 'Division' and 'multiplication' are calculated,

Step 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contains 'Addition ' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

⇒ ? x 7.19 + 45.46% of 88.18 = 31.19 x 3.90

⇒ ? x 7 + 45/100 x 88 = 31 x 4

⇒ ? x 7 + 40 = 124   (39.6 ≈ 40)

⇒ ? = (124 - 40)/7

⇒ ? = 84/7 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 111

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(24.98 × 3.97) ÷ 4.99 + 12.95 + (8.02)2 = ?2

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10

Why this answer is correct

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

(24.98 × 3.97) ÷ 4.99 + 12.95 + (8.02)2 = ?2

⇒ (25 × 4) ÷ 5 + 13 + (8)2 = ?2

⇒ 100 ÷ 5 + 13 + (8)2 = ?2

⇒ 20 + 13 + 64 = ?2

⇒ 97 = ?2

⇒ 10

Hence, 10 will come in the place of (?).

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

The marked price of an article B and D is 50% above its cost price and the selling price of article A is half of the marked price of article B. The ratio of the marked price of article C and the selling price of article A is 7:3. The sum of the marked price of the article C and D is Rs.810. The profit of article B is Rs.194 less than the cost price of D. The discount offered on article B is 15%.

Question 112

If the Cost price of the article D is increased by 25% and the discount percentage of the article D is 20% then find which of the following is true in the given following statements?

I. New cost price of the article D is Rs. 325

II. Loss of Rs. 13 occurred

III. Selling price is Rs. 332

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II only

  2. BOption (b)

    I only

  3. COption (c)

    II only

  4. DOption (d)

    III only

  5. EOption (e)

    I and III only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I and II only

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x)

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194)

Marked price of article D is 50% more than the cost price of the article D

(810 - 70x)/(11x + 194) = 3/2

(1620 - 140x) = (33x + 582)

(173x = 1038)

x = 6

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x =  40 ×  6 = 240

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x = 60 ×  6 = 360

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x = 51 ×  6 = 306

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x = 9 ×  6 = 54

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x = 11 ×  6 = 66

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x = 30 ×  6 = 180

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x = 70 ×  6 = 420

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x) = (810 - 70 ×  6) = 390

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194) = (66 + 194) = 260

Solution:

Cost price of the article D = Rs. 260

New cost price of the article D = 260 ×  (125/100) = 325

 

Marked price of the article D = Rs. 390

 

Selling price of the article D = 390 ×  (80/100) = Rs. 312

 

I) New Cost price is Rs. 325 

 

II) Loss occurred = (325 - 312) = Rs. 13

 

III) New selling price = Rs. 312

Question 113

The profit obtained on article C is Rs.36 and the discount offered on article C is 20%. Find the difference between the selling price of article A and the cost price of article C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 110

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 120

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 135

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 125

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs.140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 120

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x)

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194)

Marked price of article D is 50% more than the cost price of the article D

(810 - 70x)/(11x + 194) = 3/2

(1620 - 140x) = (33x + 582)

(173x = 1038)

x = 6

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x =  40 ×  6 = 240

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x = 60 ×  6 = 360

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x = 51 ×  6 = 306

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x = 9 ×  6 = 54

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x = 11 ×  6 = 66

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x = 30 ×  6 = 180

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x = 70 ×  6 = 420

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x) = (810 - 70 ×  6) = 390

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194) = (66 + 194) = 260

Solution:

Marked price of the article C = 420

 

Selling price of the article C =420 ×  (80/100) = Rs. 336

 

Cost price of article C = (336 - 36) = Rs. 300

 

Selling price of article A = 180

 

Required difference = (300 - 180) = Rs. 120

Question 114

Selling price of article A to the selling price of article E are in the ratio 3: 5. The Marked price of article E is Rs. 50 more than its selling price. If the cost price of the article E is 10 less than the cost price of the article D. If A is sold at 20% profit. Find sum of the cost price of article E, Marked price of article E and Cost price of article A.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 750

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 850

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 900

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 650

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 550

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 750

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x)

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194)

Marked price of article D is 50% more than the cost price of the article D

(810 - 70x)/(11x + 194) = 3/2

(1620 - 140x) = (33x + 582)

(173x = 1038)

x = 6

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x =  40 ×  6 = 240

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x = 60 ×  6 = 360

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x = 51 ×  6 = 306

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x = 9 ×  6 = 54

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x = 11 ×  6 = 66

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x = 30 ×  6 = 180

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x = 70 ×  6 = 420

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x) = (810 - 70 ×  6) = 390

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194) = (66 + 194) = 260

Solution:

Selling price of the article A = 180

Selling price of the article E = 180/3 × 5 = 300

Marked price of the article E = (300 + 50) = Rs. 350

Cost price of article E = (260 - 10) = Rs. 250

Cost price of the article A = 180/120 * 100 = Rs.150

Required sum = (250 + 350 + 150) = Rs. 750

Question 115

 If the profit obtained on article D is Rs.25 less than the profit obtained on article B, then the discount offered on article D is 

  1. AOption (a)

    14.67%

  2. BOption (b)

    26.89%

  3. COption (c)

    22.82%

  4. DOption (d)

    11.25%

  5. EOption (e)

    13.24%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

22.82%

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x)

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194)

Marked price of article D is 50% more than the cost price of the article D

(810 - 70x)/(11x + 194) = 3/2

(1620 - 140x) = (33x + 582)

(173x = 1038)

x = 6

Let the cost price of the article B = 40x =  40 ×  6 = 240

Marked price of the article B = 40x ×  150/100 = 60x = 60 ×  6 = 360

Selling price of the article B = 60x × ( 85/100) = 51x = 51 ×  6 = 306

Discount of the article = (60x - 51x) = 9x = 9 ×  6 = 54

Profit of the article = (51x - 40x) = 11x = 11 ×  6 = 66

Selling price of the article A = 60x/2 = 30x = 30 ×  6 = 180

Marked price of the article C = 30x/3 ×  7 = 70x = 70 ×  6 = 420

Marked price of the article D = (810 - 70x) = (810 - 70 ×  6) = 390

Cost price of the article D = (11x + 194) = (66 + 194) = 260

Solution:

 

Selling price of article B = 306

 

Cost price of article B = 240

 

Profit of article B = (306 - 240) = Rs.66

 

Profit of article D = (66 - 25) = Rs.41

 

Selling price of article D = (260 + 41) = 301

 

Discount percentage = (89)/390 ×  100 = 22.82%

Question 116

The ratio of the cost price of two tables is 5 : 9 one table, in which cost price is less, is sold at profit of 24% and the other one is sold for Rs 2196 more than that of the first one, if the overall profit earned after selling both the tables at 6 %. What is the difference of the CP of the two table ?

  1. AOption (a)

     3150

  2. BOption (b)

     3600

  3. COption (c)

     1800

  4. DOption (d)

     2700

  5. EOption (e)

     4500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 3600

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of CP1 : CP2 = 5 : 9. Let CP1 = 500 units and CP2 = 900 units. Total CP = 1400 units.

SP1 = 500 × 124% = 620 units. Total SP = 1400 × 106% = 1484 units.

SP2 = Total SP − SP1 = 1484 − 620 = 864 units.

Difference in SPs (SP2 − SP1) = 864 − 620 = 244 units.

Given 244 units = Rs 2196 ⇒ 1 unit = 2196 ÷ 244 = 9.

Difference in CP = (9 − 5) × 100 units = 400 units = 400 × 9 = Rs 3600.

∴ The correct answer is Rs 3600.

Alternate Method

Given → CP Ratio = 5 : 9, Profit1 = 24%, Total Profit = 6%, SP2 − SP1 = Rs 2196. Formulas: Profit = SP − CP | SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100.

⇒ Let Cost Price of the two tables be 5x and 9x respectively. ⇒ Total Cost Price = 5x + 9x = 14x. ⇒ Selling Price of first table (SP1) = 5x × 1.24 = 6.2x. ⇒ Total Selling Price = 14x × 1.06 = 14.84x. ⇒ Selling Price of second table (SP2) = 14.84x − 6.2x = 8.64x. ⇒ Difference in Selling Prices = SP2 − SP1 = 8.64x − 6.2x = 2.44x. ⇒ 2.44x = 2196 ⇒ x = 2196 ÷ 2.44 = 900. ⇒ Difference in CP = 9x − 5x = 4x. ⇒ Difference in CP = 4 × 900 = 3600.

∴ The correct answer is 3600.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Profit

Total Profit% = (n1p1 + n2p2) ÷ (n1 + n2), where n represents the ratio of quantities/costs and p represents profit percentages.

Profit and Selling Price

When profit percentage is given, SP = CP × (1 + P/100). The difference in SP depends on both the difference in CP and the respective profit margins.

Question 117

The ratio between the radius of the circle and the length of the rectangle is 7: 22 and the breadth of the rectangle is equal to the base of the triangle. The area and height of the triangle is 2800 cm2 and 80 cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is 580 cm, then, find the perimeter of the circle?

  1. AOption (a)

    320 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    440 cm

  3. COption (c)

    550 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    650 cm

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

440 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Find Triangle Base (Rectangle Breadth) using Area = 1/2 × b × h ⇒ 2800 = 0.5 × b × 80 ⇒ Breadth = 70 cm.

Use Perimeter to find Length ⇒ 2(L + 70) = 580 ⇒ L + 70 = 290 ⇒ Length = 220 cm.

Apply Ratio for Radius ⇒ 22 units = 220 cm ⇒ 7 units = 70 cm (Radius).

Perimeter of Circle = 2 × (22/7) × 70 = 440 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 440 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Radius : Length = 7 : 22; Breadth = Triangle Base; Area (Triangle) = 2800 cm2; Height (Triangle) = 80 cm; Perimeter (Rectangle) = 580 cm.

Formula: Area (Triangle) = 1/2 × Base × Height; Perimeter (Rectangle) = 2(L + B); Perimeter (Circle) = 2πr.

⇒ Area of Triangle = 1/2 × Base × 80 = 2800

⇒ 40 × Base = 2800 ⇒ Base = 70 cm

⇒ Breadth of Rectangle (B) = 70 cm

⇒ 2 × (Length + 70) = 580

⇒ Length + 70 = 290 ⇒ Length (L) = 220 cm

⇒ Radius of circle (r) = (Length / 22) × 7 = (220 / 22) × 7 = 70 cm

⇒ Perimeter of Circle = 2 × (22/7) × 70 = 440 cm

∴ The correct answer is 440 cm.

Additional Information

Circle Properties

Area of circle = πr2 and Perimeter (Circumference) = 2πr.

Rectangle Formulas

Area = Length × Breadth and Diagonal = √(L2 + B2).

Triangle Area

General Area = 1/2 × Base × Height. For equilateral triangle, Area = (√3/4) × side2.

Question 118

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(17.98 × 3.99) + (25.05 ÷ 4.98) - 32.96 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    51

  3. COption (c)

    44

  4. DOption (d)

    40

  5. EOption (e)

    39

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

44

Why this answer is correct

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

(17.98 × 3.99) + (25.05 ÷ 4.98) - 32.96 = ?

⇒ (18 × 4) + (25 ÷ 5) - 33 = ?

⇒ 72 + 5 - 33 = ?

⇒ 77 - 33 = ?

⇒ ? = 44

Hence, 44 will come in the place of (?).

Question 119

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

69.99 - 19.97 × 2.02 + 35.96 × 0.99 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    66

  3. COption (c)

    76

  4. DOption (d)

    80

  5. EOption (e)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

66

Why this answer is correct

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

Given expression is

69.99 - 19.97 × 2.02 + 35.96 × 0.99 = ?

⇒ 70 - 20 × 2 + 36 × 1 = ?

⇒ 70 - 40 + 36 = ?

⇒ 106 - 40= ?

⇒ ? = 66

Hence, 66 will come in the place of (?).

Question 120

A boat travels 1.5S km downstream in 15 hours, while a person can run S km in 24 hours. The speed of the boat in still water exceeds the running speed of the person by 4 km/h, and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. What is the speed of the boat in still water?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    6

  5. EOption (e)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Person speed be P and Boat speed be B.

Given: B = P + 4 and Current (v) = 3 km/h.

Downstream speed = B + 3 ⇒ (P + 4) + 3 = P + 7.

From ratios: 1.5S / 15 = P + 7 and S / 24 = P.

Substitute S = 24P: 1.5(24P) / 15 = P + 7 ⇒ 2.4P = P + 7 ⇒ 1.4P = 7 ⇒ P = 5 km/h.

B = 5 + 4 = 9 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 9 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of current (v) = 3 km/h

Running speed of person (P) = S/24 km/h

Speed of boat in still water (u) = P + 4 km/h

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time; Downstream speed = u + v

Calculations:

⇒ Downstream speed = 1.5S / 15 = 0.1S km/h

⇒ u + v = 0.1S ⇒ (P + 4) + 3 = 0.1S

⇒ P + 7 = 0.1S

⇒ From person's speed, S = 24P

⇒ P + 7 = 0.1 × (24P)

⇒ P + 7 = 2.4P

⇒ 1.4P = 7 ⇒ P = 7 / 1.4 = 5 km/h

⇒ Boat speed in still water (u) = 5 + 4 = 9 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 9 km/h.

Additional Information

Upstream Speed

Upstream speed is the net speed of a boat against the current, calculated as u − v.

Still Water Speed Calculation

Speed of boat in still water (u) = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Current Speed Calculation

Speed of current (v) = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Question 121

A train takes t seconds to pass a pole and t + 12 seconds to pass a platform. The combined length of the train and the platform is 540 meters and the train's length is L meters. If the train's length is reduced by 30 meters, it then takes 17 seconds to cross a pole. Determine the value of t.

  1. AOption (a)

    23.5

  2. BOption (b)

    18.7

  3. COption (c)

    16.8

  4. DOption (d)

    20.5

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18.7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Speed of the train be S.

From Pole crossing: L = S × t.

From reduced length: L − 30 = S × 17.

Difference in distance = 30 m; Difference in time = t − 17 seconds.

Using Platform crossing: L + Platform = 540, which takes t + 12 seconds.

Speed (S) = 540 / (t + 12). Equating with speed from L and L − 30 gives t = 18.7.

∴ The correct answer is 18.7 seconds.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Length = 540 m, Train Length = L, Time to cross pole = t, Time to cross platform = t + 12.

Formula: Speed = Distance / Time

⇒ Speed S = L / t

⇒ Also, Speed S = 540 / (t + 12)

⇒ L / t = 540 / (t + 12) → L = 540t / (t + 12) ... (i)

⇒ New length = L − 30, New time to cross pole = 17 s

⇒ Speed S = (L − 30) / 17 ... (ii)

⇒ From (i) and (ii): L / t = (L − 30) / 17

⇒ 17L = Lt − 30t ⇒ L(t − 17) = 30t ⇒ L = 30t / (t − 17)

⇒ Equating L: 540t / (t + 12) = 30t / (t − 17)

⇒ 18 / (t + 12) = 1 / (t − 17)

⇒ 18t − 306 = t + 12

⇒ 17t = 318 ⇒ t = 18.705...

∴ The correct answer is 18.7 seconds.

Additional Information

Train Crossing a Pole

When a train crosses a stationary point object like a pole or a man, the distance covered is equal to the Length of the train.

Train Crossing a Platform

The distance covered to cross a platform or bridge is (Length of Train + Length of Platform).

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the same direction, relative speed is S1 − S2; for opposite directions, it is S1 + S2.

The Series contains one wrong and one missing number.  

0.5, 5, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, x

Question 122

What is the value of 'x -11809'?

  1. AOption (a)

    11000

  2. BOption (b)

    13245

  3. COption (c)

    11231

  4. DOption (d)

    12231

  5. EOption (e)

    14325

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11231

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the multiplication pattern with decreasing even factors: ×12, ×10, ×8, ×6, ×4, ×2.

First term 0.5 × 12 = 6 (making 5 the wrong number).

Missing number x = 11520 × 2 = 23040.

Required value = 23040 − 11809 = 11231.

∴ The correct answer is 11231.

Alternate Method

Given: Series 0.5, 5, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, x

0.5 ×12 → 5 ×10 → 60 ×8 → 480 ×6 → 2880 ×4 → 11520 ×2 → 23040

Calculations:

⇒ Term 1: 0.5

⇒ Term 2: 0.5 × 12 = 6 (Wrong number given as 5)

⇒ Term 3: 6 × 10 = 60

⇒ Term 4: 60 × 8 = 480

⇒ Term 5: 480 × 6 = 2880

⇒ Term 6: 2880 × 4 = 11520

⇒ Term 7 (x): 11520 × 2 = 23040

⇒ Required value = x − 11809

⇒ Value = 23040 − 11809 = 11231

∴ The correct answer is 11231.

Additional Information

Multiplication Series

In a multiplication series, each term is derived by multiplying the previous term by a specific number, often following a pattern like consecutive even numbers or arithmetic progression.

Wrong Number Series

To find a wrong number, establish the logic using the majority of correct terms. Once the pattern (like ×12, ×10, ×8) is confirmed, the term that violates it is identified.

Question 123

Find the wrong number of the given series.

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    2880

  4. DOption (d)

    480

  5. EOption (e)

    11520

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The pattern is a multiplication series with decreasing even multipliers: ×12, ×10, ×8, ×6, ×4, ×2.

Starting with 0.5: 0.5 × 12 = 6 (instead of 5).

Verifying next: 6 × 10 = 60, which matches the series.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given Series: 0.5, 5, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, x

0.5 ×12 → 5 ×10 → 60 ×8 → 480 ×6 → 2880 ×4 → 11520

The pattern follows a descending even number multiplication logic:

⇒ 1st term = 0.5

⇒ 2nd term = 0.5 × 12 = 6

⇒ 3rd term = 6 × 10 = 60

⇒ 4th term = 60 × 8 = 480

⇒ 5th term = 480 × 6 = 2880

⇒ 6th term = 2880 × 4 = 11520

⇒ Missing term (x) = 11520 × 2 = 23040

Observing the given series, the number 5 is provided instead of 6.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Wrong Number Series Identification

To find the wrong number, always verify the pattern with the subsequent numbers in the series. If the pattern breaks and then resumes correctly with a substituted value, that substituted value is the wrong term.

Geometric/Multiplication Series

In these series, each term is multiplied by a constant or a systematic sequence (like consecutive even numbers, prime numbers, or squares) to obtain the next term.

In this question, two equations are given. Answer the questions based on given equations:

             

I. l, m, n, 607, 463, 527, 511

Il. k, k+18, 333, 351, 369, z

Question 124

Which of the following are true?  

(a) Z = m + l

(b) z = 270+(⅓)n

(c) k + m = (½)z

  1. AOption (a)

    Only b

  2. BOption (b)

    Only c

  3. COption (c)

    Only a and c

  4. DOption (d)

    Only b and c

  5. EOption (e)

    All of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only b

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Solve series I: 511 + 42 = 527; 527 − 82 = 463; 463 + 122 = 607; 607 − 162 = 351 (n); 351 + 202 = 751 (m); 751 − 242 = 175 (l).

Solve series II: Common difference is 18. 369 + 18 = 387 (z); 333 − 18 − 18 = 297 (k).

Check (b): 270 + (351 ÷ 3) = 270 + 117 = 387. Since z = 387, (b) is True.

∴ The correct answer is Only b.

Alternate Method

Given: Series I follows a pattern of ± squares of multiples of 4. Series II is an Arithmetic Progression with common difference 18.

Calculations for Series I:

⇒ 527 − 511 = 16 = 42

⇒ 527 − 463 = 64 = 82

⇒ 607 − 463 = 144 = 122

⇒ n = 607 − 162 = 607 − 256 = 351

⇒ m = 351 + 202 = 351 + 400 = 751

⇒ l = 751 − 242 = 751 − 576 = 175

Calculations for Series II:

⇒ Common difference (d) = 351 − 333 = 18

⇒ z = 369 + 18 = 387

⇒ k + 18 = 333 − 18 ⇒ k = 315 − 18 = 297

Verifying Statements:

⇒ (a) z = m + l → 387 = 751 + 175 (926). False.

⇒ (b) z = 270 + (1/3)n → 387 = 270 + (351 ÷ 3) = 270 + 117 = 387. True.

⇒ (c) k + m = (1/2)z → 297 + 751 (1048) = 387 ÷ 2 (193.5). False.

∴ The correct answer is Only b.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence where the difference between consecutive terms is constant. General term an = a + (n−1)d.

Square Series Pattern

Logical series often involve addition or subtraction of squares (n2) or cubes (n3) of consecutive numbers or multiples.

Verification Method

Always solve for variables first before checking algebraic conditions to avoid calculation errors.

Question 125

If the sum of o + z = 476, then find the average of 'n' and 'o'.

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    270

  3. COption (c)

    220

  4. DOption (d)

    200

  5. EOption (e)

    250

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

220

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Pattern I: Alternate square addition and subtraction of 242, 202, 162, 122, 82, 42.

Pattern II: Arithmetic progression with a common difference of +18.

From Series II: z = 369 + 18 = 387. Given o + 387 = 476 ⇒ o = 89.

From Series I: n = 607 − 162 = 607 − 256 = 351.

Average = (351 + 89) ÷ 2 = 220.

∴ The correct answer is 220.

Alternate Method

Given:

Series I: l, m, n, 607, 463, 527, 511

Series II: k, k+18, 333, 351, 369, z

Condition: o + z = 476

l +242 → m −202 → n +162 → 607 −122 → 463 +82 → 527 −42 → 511

⇒ n + 162 = 607

⇒ n + 256 = 607

⇒ n = 351

k +18 → k+18 +18 → 333 +18 → 351 +18 → 369 +18 → 387

⇒ z = 369 + 18 = 387

⇒ o + z = 476 ⇒ o + 387 = 476

⇒ o = 476 − 387 = 89

⇒ Average of n and o = (351 + 89) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 440 ÷ 2 = 220

∴ The correct answer is 220.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression

A sequence where the difference between consecutive terms is constant (d). Term Tn = a + (n−1)d.

Mixed Series Patterns

Series can involve alternate operations like addition and subtraction of squares, cubes, or prime numbers.

Average Calculation

The average of two numbers x and y is calculated as (x + y) ÷ 2.

Question 126

Had 'l' been divided by the largest single digit prime number, then resultant would be....

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    28

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    10

  5. EOption (e)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

From Series I: l = 175 (based on the square pattern −16, +64, −144, +256, −400, +576).

The largest single digit prime number is 7.

Resultant = 175 ÷ 7 = 25.

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Series I: l, m, n, 607, 463, 527, 511

l +242 → m -202 → n +162 → 607 -122 → 463 +82 → 527 -42 → 511

Pattern Explanation: The series follows a pattern of alternating addition and subtraction of squares of multiples of 4 (4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24).

⇒ 527 − 42 = 511 (Checked)

⇒ 463 + 82 = 463 + 64 = 527 (Checked)

⇒ 607 − 122 = 607 − 144 = 463 (Checked)

⇒ n + 162 = 607 ⇒ n = 607 − 256 = 351

⇒ m − 202 = 351 ⇒ m = 351 + 400 = 751

⇒ l + 242 = 751 ⇒ l = 751 − 576 = 175

Final Calculation:

⇒ Largest single digit prime number = 7

⇒ Required Resultant = l ÷ 7

⇒ Resultant = 175 ÷ 7 = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself. Single digit primes are 2, 3, 5, and 7.

Number Series Patterns

Common patterns include Arithmetic (constant difference), Geometric (constant ratio), and Square/Cube based patterns where n2 or n3 is added or subtracted.

Alternating Series

In an alternating series, the operation changes (e.g., +, −, +, −) or two different logic sequences are interleaved.

Question 127

3x2 - 26x + C = 0

Roots of the given equation are A and B, where, A > B and B = 8/3.

Which of the following/s is /are true?

  1. HCF of C and A is equal to 50% more than B

  2. Value of C is a perfect cube

  3. C is multiple of A

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and Il

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III

  3. COption (c)

    Only ll

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and III

  5. EOption (e)

    All of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only III

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

3x2 - 26x + C = 0

A and B are the roots of the equation.

B = 8/3

Put x = 8/3 in equation

3(8/3)2 - 26(8/3) + C = 0

3 × 64/9 - 26 × 8/3 + C = 0

C = 48

Products of roots = constant term/ coefficient of x

AB = 48/3

A × 8/3 = 48/3

A = 6

  1. HCF of C and A is equal to 50% more than B

HCF of C and A = HCF(48, 6) = 6

50% more than B = 8/3 × 1.5 = 4

This is incorrect.

  1. Value of C is a perfect cube

C = 48 which is not a perfect cube

This is incorrect.

  1. C is multiple of A

48 is a multiple of 6. This is correct.

Question 128

In the question, two quantities (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity (I) and Quantity (II) and choose the correct option.

x and y are integers

Quantity I: ∛216x3 - 2x4 + 51x such that 8 ≤ x ≤ 12

Quantity II: 50y+32×6y450y + 3^2\times \sqrt[y]64   such that 2 ≤ y ≤ 4

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity (I) > Quantity (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity (I) < Quantity (II)

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity (I) ≥ Quantity (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity (I) ≤ Quantity (II)

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity (I) = Quantity (II) or No relation can be established

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quantity (I) < Quantity (II)

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Quantity I: ∛216x3 - 2x4 + 51x such that 8 ≤ x ≤ 12

6x - 2x4 + 51x

57x - 2x4

Put x = 8, 9, 10, 11, 12

If x = 8, we get

57 × 8 - 2 × 84

= - 7736

If we put x = 9, 10, 11 and 12 we get bigger negative value.

Quantity II: 50y+32×6y450y + 3^2× \sqrt[y]64 such that 2 ≤ y ≤ 4

Put y = 2

50 × 2 + 9 × 8

= 100 + 72 = 172

Put y = 3

50 × 3 + 9 × 4

= 150 + 36 = 186

Put y = 4

50 × 4 + 9 × 2.82

= 200 + 25.2 = 225.2

All the values of y is positive. 

Quantity I < Quantity II

Question 129

Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as Quantity I and Quantity II. On solving these statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: Pipe A can fill a tank in 3 hours. Pipe B can fill the same in 4 hours while Pipe C can fill the same tank in 5 hours. What is the time taken when all of them works together?

Quantity II: Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 hours. While Pipe B and Pipe C can fill the same in 10 hours. Pipe C and Pipe D fill the tank in 15 hours. Pipe A and Pipe D can fill the same tank in 30 hours. Find the time taken by them to fill the tank together.

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I = Quantity II

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quantity I < Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solving for Quantity-I:

Given:

Time taken by A = 3 hours

Time taken by B = 4 hours

Time taken by C = 5 hours

Calculations:

Let the total capacity of tank = 60 units

Part of the tank filled by A in 1 hour = 60/3 units

⇒ 20 units/hour

Part of the tank filled by B in 1 hour = 60/4 units

⇒ 15 units/hour

Part of the tank filled by C in 1 hour = 60/5 units

⇒ 12 units/hour

Time taken by A, B and C when all of them working together = 60/(20 + 15 + 12)

⇒ 1.28 hours

Solving for Quantity II:

Given:

Time taken by A and B = 8 hours

Time taken by B and C = 10 hours

Time taken by C and D = 15 hours

Time taken by D and A = 30 hours

Calculations:

Let the total capacity of tank = 120 units

Part of the tank filled by A and B in 1 hour = 120/8 units

⇒ 15 units/hour

Part of the tank filled by B and C in 1 hour = 120/10 units

⇒ 12 units/hour

Part of the tank filled by C and D in 1 hour = 120/15 units

⇒ 8 units/hour

Part of the tank filled by A and D in 1 hour = 120/30 units

⇒ 4 units/hour

Time taken by A, B and C when all of them working together = 120 × 2/(15 + 12 + 8 + 4)

⇒ 6.15 hours

∴ Quantity I < Quantity II

Question 130

Directions

Two quantities A and B are given in the following questions. You have to find the value to both A and B by using your knowledge of mathematics and choose the most suitable relation between the magnitude of A and B from the given options.

Quantity A - Perimeter of triangle cut. Of a square of side 20 cm, four isosceles triangles are cut from its four corners. Area of remaining part is 200 sq.cm. Take ✓2 = 1.4

Quantity B - Percentage increase in area of rectangle. Increase in length and breadth are 18% and 12% respectively.

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity A = Quantity B or no relationship can be established

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity A > Quantity B

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity A < Quantity B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quantity A > Quantity B

Why this answer is correct

Quantity A -

Area of square = 20 × 20 = 400 sq.cm.

Area of triangles cut = 400 - 200 (remaining area) = 200 sq.cm.

Area of 1 triangle = 200 / 4 = 50 sq.cm.

For right angled isosceles triangle,

1 / 2 × side × side = 50

Side = 10

Perimeter = 10 + 10 + 10 × 1.4 (hypotenuse) = 34 cm

Quantity B -

Percentage increase in length = 18%

Percentage increase in breadth = 12%

Percentage increase in area = 18 + 12 + (18 × 12) / 100 = 32.16

Hence, Quantity A > Quantity B

Question 131

Directions

Two quantities A and B are given in the following questions. You have to find the value to both A and B by using your knowledge of mathematics and choose the most suitable relation between the magnitude of A and B from the given options.

Average of A and B is 12, while the sum of B and C is 12. 14 ≥ (A, B) ≥ 8 and 10 ≥ B and C ≥ 2; Given A, B, C are integers

Quantity I: Value of AB - 45.

Quantity II: Value of (A + B) × C

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or no relationship can be established

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity  > Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quantity  > Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Average of A and B is 12. 14 ≥ (A, B) ≥ 8

A + B = 24        ........... (i)

If we put A = 14 and B = 10 then the statement is satisfied.

Sum of B and C is 12.

B + C = 12

If we put B = 10, then C = 2.

Quantity I: Value of AB - 45

= 14 × 10 - 45 

= 140 - 45

= 95

Quantity II: Value of (A + B) × C

= (14 + 10) × 2

= 24 × 2 = 48

Hence, Quantity  > Quantity II

Directions: The  following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the number of goods sold in a shop in five different days Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday.

Total number of goods sold = 400

 

<br>

Note: Difference between number of goods sold on Sunday and Tuesday is 12

Question 132

Number of goods sold on Sunday and Monday is what percentage of the  number of goods sold on all the remaining days.

  1. AOption (a)

    56.87%

  2. BOption (b)

    50.78%

  3. COption (c)

    42.89%

  4. DOption (d)

    53.84%

  5. EOption (e)

    48.86%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

53.84%

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

(1.25x% - x%) = 12

0.25x% = 12

x% = 48

To find the percentage value of x

48/400 ×  100 = 12% = x

x% = 12

1.25x% = 12 ×  1.25 = 15

To find the value of y

(12 + 23 + 15 + 20 + y = 100)

y =(100 - 70)%

y = 30%

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 12/100 ×  400 = 48

Number of goods sold on Monday = 23/100 ×  400 = 92

Number of goods sold on Tuesday = 15/100 ×  400 = 60

Number of goods sold on Wednesday = 20/100 ×  400 = 80

Number of goods sold on Thursday = 30/100 ×  400 = 120

 

Solution:

Number of goods sold on Sunday and Monday = (48 + 92) = 140

Number of goods sold on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday = (60 + 80 + 120) = 260

Required percentage = 140/260 ×  100 = 53.84%

Question 133

If the cost of each goods on Thursday is Rs. a and cost of each goods on Wednesday is Rs. (a - 10) if the total cost earned by the shop by selling goods on the both the day is Rs. 9200. If the cost of each goods on Sunday's Rs. (a - 20). Find the total amount earned by the shop on selling goods on Sunday.

  1. AOption (a)

    1280

  2. BOption (b)

    1360

  3. COption (c)

    1440

  4. DOption (d)

    1560

  5. EOption (e)

    1270

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1440

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

(1.25x% - x%) = 12

0.25x% = 12

x% = 48

To find the percentage value of x

48/400 ×  100 = 12% = x

x% = 12

1.25x% = 12 ×  1.25 = 15

To find the value of y

(12 + 23 + 15 + 20 + y = 100)

y =(100 - 70)%

y = 30%

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 12/100 ×  400 = 48

Number of goods sold on Monday = 23/100 ×  400 = 92

Number of goods sold on Tuesday = 15/100 ×  400 = 60

Number of goods sold on Wednesday = 20/100 ×  400 = 80

Number of goods sold on Thursday = 30/100 ×  400 = 120

 

Solution:

Number of  goods sold on Thursday = 120

Number of goods sold on Wednesday = 80

To find the value of a

120 ×  a + 80 ×  (a - 10) = 9200

120a + 80a - 800 = 9200

200a = 10000

a = 50

Total amount earned by the shop on Sunday = (50 - 20) ×  48 = 1440

Question 134

Number of goods sold on Tuesday is 66.667% of the number of goods present in the shop on Tuesday initially and the Number of goods sold on Wednesday is 33.33% of the number of goods present in the shop initially. Find the ratio between the number of unsold goods on Tuesday and the number of unsold goods in the shop on wednesday.

  1. AOption (a)

    2: 9

  2. BOption (b)

    2: 13

  3. COption (c)

    3: 16

  4. DOption (d)

    3: 17

  5. EOption (e)

    5: 13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3: 16

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

(1.25x% - x%) = 12

0.25x% = 12

x% = 48

To find the percentage value of x

48/400 ×  100 = 12% = x

x% = 12

1.25x% = 12 ×  1.25 = 15

To find the value of y

(12 + 23 + 15 + 20 + y = 100)

y =(100 - 70)%

y = 30%

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 12/100 ×  400 = 48

Number of goods sold on Monday = 23/100 ×  400 = 92

Number of goods sold on Tuesday = 15/100 ×  400 = 60

Number of goods sold on Wednesday = 20/100 ×  400 = 80

Number of goods sold on Thursday = 30/100 ×  400 = 120

 

Solution:

Number of goods sold in the shop on Tuesday = 60

Number of goods present in the shop initially on Tuesday  = 60 /(66.667) ×  100 = 90

Number of goods sold in the shop on Wednesday = 80

Number of goods present in the shop initially on Wednesday = 80 /(33.33) ×  100 = 240

Number of goods unsold on Tuesday = (90 - 60) = 30

Number of goods unsold on Wednesday = (240 - 80) = 160

Required ratio = 30: 160 = 3: 16

Question 135

Average number of goods sold on Sunday and Saturday is 8 less than the number of goods sold on Sunday and number of goods sold to unsold on Saturday are in the ratio 8: 5. Find the total number of goods unsold on Saturday.

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    40

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

(1.25x% - x%) = 12

0.25x% = 12

x% = 48

To find the percentage value of x

48/400 ×  100 = 12% = x

x% = 12

1.25x% = 12 ×  1.25 = 15

To find the value of y

(12 + 23 + 15 + 20 + y = 100)

y =(100 - 70)%

y = 30%

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 12/100 ×  400 = 48

Number of goods sold on Monday = 23/100 ×  400 = 92

Number of goods sold on Tuesday = 15/100 ×  400 = 60

Number of goods sold on Wednesday = 20/100 ×  400 = 80

Number of goods sold on Thursday = 30/100 ×  400 = 120

 

Solution:

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 48

Average number of goods sold on Sunday and Saturday = (48 - 8) = 40

Number of goods sold on Saturday = (40× 2 - 48) = 32

Number of items unsold on Saturday = 32/8 × 5 = 20

Question 136

Difference between the goods sold on Sunday and Monday is twice the difference between the number of goods sold on Tuesday and Friday.If the ratio of number of goods sold to unsold on Friday is 19: 15. Then find the number of goods sold on Friday. (Note: Number of goods sold on Tuesday is more than the number of goods sold on Friday).

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    32

  4. DOption (d)

    44

  5. EOption (e)

    42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

38

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

(1.25x% - x%) = 12

0.25x% = 12

x% = 48

To find the percentage value of x

48/400 ×  100 = 12% = x

x% = 12

1.25x% = 12 ×  1.25 = 15

To find the value of y

(12 + 23 + 15 + 20 + y = 100)

y =(100 - 70)%

y = 30%

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 12/100 ×  400 = 48

Number of goods sold on Monday = 23/100 ×  400 = 92

Number of goods sold on Tuesday = 15/100 ×  400 = 60

Number of goods sold on Wednesday = 20/100 ×  400 = 80

Number of goods sold on Thursday = 30/100 ×  400 = 120

Solution:

Number of goods sold on Sunday = 48

Number of goods sold on Monday = 92

(92 - 48) = 44

Difference between number of goods sold on Tuesday and Friday = 44/2 = 22

T - F = 22

Number of goods sold on Tuesday = 60

Number of goods sold on Friday = 60 - F = 22 = 38

F = 38

Question 137

Average weight of four friends A', 'B', 'C' and 'D' is x kg. When 'D' is replaced by 'E' then the average increases by 14.25 kg. When 'C' is replaced by 'E', average increases by 6.75kg. If the average weight of 'C', 'D' and 'E' is 74 kg then the weight of 'E' is how much percent more than that of 'C'?

  1. AOption (a)

    30%

  2. BOption (b)

    36%

  3. COption (c)

    42%

  4. DOption (d)

    45%

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Change in sum = Number of items × Change in average.

When D is replaced by E: E − D = 4 × 14.25 = 57 kg.

When C is replaced by E: E − C = 4 × 6.75 = 27 kg.

Total weight (C + D + E) = 3 × 74 = 222 kg.

Substitute D = E − 57 and C = E − 27: (E − 27) + (E − 57) + E = 222 ⇒ 3E − 84 = 222 ⇒ 3E = 306 ⇒ E = 102 kg.

Weight of C = 102 − 27 = 75 kg. Required % = (27 ÷ 75) × 100 = 36%.

∴ The correct answer is 36%.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of (A, B, C, D) = x. Average of (A, B, E, D) [C replaced] = x + 6.75. Average of (A, B, C, E) [D replaced] = x + 14.25. Average of (C, D, E) = 74 kg.

Step 1: Find weight differences

⇒ (A + B + C + E) − (A + B + C + D) = 4 × (x + 14.25) − 4x

⇒ E − D = 57 kg

⇒ (A + B + E + D) − (A + B + C + D) = 4 × (x + 6.75) − 4x

⇒ E − C = 27 kg

Step 2: Use average of C, D, and E

⇒ C + D + E = 3 × 74 = 222 kg

⇒ (E − 27) + (E − 57) + E = 222

⇒ 3E − 84 = 222 ⇒ 3E = 306 ⇒ E = 102 kg

⇒ C = E − 27 = 102 − 27 = 75 kg

Step 3: Calculate percentage

⇒ Difference = E − C = 27 kg

⇒ Percentage = (27 ÷ 75) × 100 = 0.36 × 100 = 36%

∴ The correct answer is 36%.

Additional Information

Replacement Rule in Average

When one person is replaced by another, New Weight − Old Weight = Total Number × Change in Average.

Percentage Comparison

Percentage more = (Difference ÷ Base Value) × 100, where the base value is the quantity being compared against (after than).

Question 138

The following questions are accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

What is the present age of mother?

I. The difference between the ages of mother and daughter is 45 years.

II. The present age of daughter is 1/4th of the present age of the mother.

III. The sum of the ages of mother and daughter is 75 years.

  1. AOption (a)

    Any two of them

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    All I, II and III

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Any two of them

Why this answer is correct

From (II),

Let the mother’s age be x and daughter’s age be x/4

From (I) &(II),

x – x/4 = 45

3x/4 = 45

∴ x = 60 years.

From (II) & (III),

x + x/4 = 75

5x/4 = 75

∴ x = 60 years.

From (I) & (III),

x – y = 45 and x + y = 75

By solving will get the value of x i.e. the answer.

Hence Any two of I, II and III will give the answer

Question 139

Directions

Each of the questions given below consists of a question and 2 statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data is sufficient to answer the question. Read both Statements carefully and then answer the questions.**

If a wire is cut into three pieces of unequal lengths, what is the length of the longest of these pieces of wire?

Statement I. The combined length of the longer two pieces of wire is 25 meters.

Statement II. The combined length of the shorter two pieces of wire is 20 meters.

  1. AOption (a)

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

From statement I:

Let the length of the longer piece, middle piece and, shorter piece be x, y, and z respectively.

From the information

⇒ x + y = 25

No other information is given

∴ Statement I alone is not sufficient.

From Statement II:

Let the length of the longer piece, middle piece and, shorter piece be x, y, and z respectively.

⇒ y + z = 20

No other information is given

∴ Statement II alone is not sufficient.

Both statements:

⇒ x + y = 25

⇒ y + z = 20

⇒ x - z = 5

No other information is given

∴ Statement I and II both are not sufficient.

Question 140

Directions

Each of the questions given below consists of a question and 2 statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data is sufficient to answer the question. Read both Statements carefully and then answer the questions.**

Two friends Anil and Mukesh together can complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days can Anil alone complete the piece of work?

Statement I. Mukesh alone completes half of the work in 25 days.

Statement II. The efficiency of Anil is 50% more than that of Mukesh.

  1. AOption (a)

    The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Anil and Mukesh together can complete a piece of work in = 20 days

Calculation:

For Statement I:

We can conclude the number of days Anil alone will take to complete the work.

∴ Statement I alone is sufficient.

For Statement II:

Efficiency is given so it is easy to find the number of days A alone or B alone can do the work.

∴ Statement II alone is sufficient.

∴ Statement I alone or II alone is sufficient.

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude (50 questions)

Question 141

Six friends Ashish, Bikram, Chandu, Dravya, Ekta, Farooq are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre. Bikram is sitting at an alternate place with respect to Ashish. Chandu is to the immediate right of Bikram. Dravya can't sit adjacent to Ashish and Ekta. Ekta is to the immediate right of Ashish. Farooq is at the alternate place to the left of Ekta. Who is sitting opposite of Ashish?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandu

  2. BOption (b)

    Bikram 

  3. COption (c)

    Dravya 

  4. DOption (d)

    Farooq

  5. EOption (e)

    Ekta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chandu

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information:

Six friends Ashish, Bikram, Chandu, Dravya, Ekta, Farooq are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre.

  • Bikram is sitting at an alternate place with respect to Ashish.

  • Chandu is to the immediate right of Bikram.

  • Ekta is to the immediate right of Ashish.

  • Farooq is at the alternate place to the left of Ekta.

  • Dravya can't sit adjacent to Ashish and Ekta.

Case I will be eliminated as it contradicts the given condition.

Thus, the final arrangement will be:

Clearly, Chandu is sitting opposite of Ashish.

Hence, the correct answer is "Chandu".

Question 142

Directions

In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: 

M ≥ P < G; N > O ≤ S; R ≥ Q ≥ G; N = T ≥ R; A = U ≥ S

Conclusions: 

I. T > O

II. U > O

III. U = O

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I is True

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and Either II or III are True 

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and Either I or III are True 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III and Either II or I are True 

  5. EOption (e)

    None is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I and Either II or III are True 

Why this answer is correct

Statements: M ≥ P < G; N > O ≤ S; R ≥ Q ≥ G; N = T ≥ R; A = U ≥ S 

On Combining: M ≥ P < G ≤ Q ≤ R ≤ T = N > O ≤  S ≤  U = A

Conclusions: 

I. T > O → True (T = N > O)

II. U > O → False (O ≤ S ≤ U → O ≤ U)

III. U = O → False (O ≤ S ≤ U → O ≤ U)

For either - or condition,

U ≥ O means U > O or U = O

So, conclusion 2 and conclusion 3 form complementary pairs.

Hence, Only I and Either II or III are True is the correct answer.

Question 143

Directions

In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: Q > R ≤ T; G ≥ O ≥ P; Z = N ≥ T; Q = M > G; P > F ≤ S

Conclusions: 

I. N > R

II. O < S

III. R = N

  1. AOption (a)

    Either II or III is True

  2. BOption (b)

    Either I or III is True

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II is True 

  4. DOption (d)

    All are True

  5. EOption (e)

    None is True

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Either I or III is True

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements: Q > R ≤ T; G ≥ O ≥ P; Z = N ≥ T; Q = M > G; P > F ≤ S

On Combining: S ≥ F < P ≤ O ≤  G < M = Q > R ≤  T ≤ N = Z

Conclusions: 

I. N > R → False (R ≤ T ≤ N → R ≤ N)

II. O < S → False (S ≥ F < P ≤ O → signs are opposite between O and S so there is no definite relation between them)

III. R = N → False (R ≤  T ≤ N → R ≤ N)

For either - or condition, 

N ≥ R means N > R or N = R

So, conclusion 1 and conclusion 3 forms complementary pair.

Hence, Either I or III is True is the correct answer.

Question 144

Directions

In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P ≤ M < I; F = U ≤ G; S = R ≤ F; I = G; C = Y > S

Conclusions:  

I. G > S

II. I ≥ F

III. S = G

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I is True

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and III are True

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and Either I or III are True

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III and Either I or II is True

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II is True

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II and Either I or III are True

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements: P ≤ M < I; F = U ≤ G; S = R ≤ F; I = G; C = Y > S

On Combining: P ≤ M < I = G ≥ U = F ≥ R = S < Y = C

Conclusions:  

I. G > S → False (G ≥ U = F ≥ R = S → G ≥ S)

II. I ≥ F → True ( I = G ≥ U = F )

III. S = G → False (G ≥ U = F ≥ R = S → G ≥ S)

For either - or condition,

G ≥ S means G > S or G = S

So conclusion 1 and conclusion 3 forms complementary pair.

Hence, Only II and Either I or III are True is the correct answer.

Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are few cars travelling to some points. There are two junctions, 1 and 2 where 1 is west of 2. Point P is north, Q is west and R is south of Junction 1. Point X is north, Z is east and Y is south of Junction 2.

Note: To reach one point to another, one must pass through at least one junction. In an expression movement is from left to right. Also distance between each point is unknown.

G$H: Car G is at a certain point and moves left from the junction to reach point H.

G@H: Car H is at a certain point and moves right from the junction to reach point G.

G%H: Car G is at point H and moves left from the junction to reach a certain point.

G#H: Car H is at point G and moves right from the junction to reach a certain point.

G&H: Car G is at point H and moves straight through all the junctions to reach a certain point.

G+H: Car H is at a certain point and moves straight through all the junctions to reach point G.

G!H: Car G is at a point H and moves through the 1st junction then takes left turn at the 2nd junction to reach a certain point.

G*H: Car H is at a certain point and moves through the 1st junction then takes left turn at the 2nd junction to reach point G.

Question 145

In the given below expression, what is the final position of D with respect to its initial position?

Z+D$Y, D&Y

  1. AOption (a)

    North-East

  2. BOption (b)

    North-West

  3. COption (c)

    South-East

  4. DOption (d)

    West

  5. EOption (e)

    South

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

North-East

Why this answer is correct

From the above given information We know that Junction 1 is to the west of junction 2. 

And point P is to the north, Q is to the west and R is to the South of Junction 1 whereas point X is to the north, Z is to the east and Y is to the south of junction 2.

From the above information we can draw the following diagram-

Now coming to the question,

Z+D$Y, D&Y 

After decoding the codes we know that Car D is at certain point and moves straight through all the junction to reach point Z 

D$Y means Car D is at certain point and moves left from the junction to reach point Y.

Now D&Y means car D is at point Y and moves straight through all the junction to reach a certain point.

Where Q is the initial position of the car D and X is the final position of car D (Which denotes from D''')

So the answer is North-East

Question 146

In the given below expression what is the initial position of car J with respect to initial position of car T?

J%Y+T

  1. AOption (a)

    West

  2. BOption (b)

    South

  3. COption (c)

    North

  4. DOption (d)

    East

  5. EOption (e)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

South

Why this answer is correct

From the above given information We know that Junction 1 is to the west of junction 2. 

And point P is to the north, Q is to the west and R is to the South of Junction 1 whereas point X is to the north, Z is to the east and Y is to the south of junction 2.

From the above information we can draw the following diagram-

Now coming to the question,

J%Y+T

where J%Y means car J is at point Y and moves left from the junction to reach a certain point.

and Y+T means car T is at a certain point and moves straight through all the junctions to reach point Y.

So it is clear that the initial position of J is in the south to the initial position of T.

Question 147

In the given below expression, what is the final position of M with respect to initial position of K?

M!Z#K&X

  1. AOption (a)

    North-West

  2. BOption (b)

    North

  3. COption (c)

    South-West

  4. DOption (d)

    South-East

  5. EOption (e)

    North-East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South-West

Why this answer is correct

From the above given information We know that Junction 1 is to the west of junction 2. 

And point P is to the north, Q is to the west and R is to the South of Junction 1 whereas point X is to the north, Z is to the east and Y is to the south of junction 2.

From the above information we can draw the following diagram-

Now coming to the question,

M!Z#K&X

where M!Z means Car M is at point Z and moves through the 1st junction then takes the left turn at the 2nd junction to reach a certain point.

and Z#K means car K is at point Z and moves right from the junction to reach a certain point.

K&X means car K is at point X and moves straight through all the junctions to reach a certain point.

so we know that the final position of car M from initial position of car K is in South-West.

Question 148

In the given below expression what is the initial position of car F with respect to final position of car B?

F%R#B%Z

  1. AOption (a)

    West

  2. BOption (b)

    South

  3. COption (c)

    North

  4. DOption (d)

    South-West

  5. EOption (e)

    Can't be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Can't be determined

Why this answer is correct

From the above given information We know that Junction 1 is to the west of junction 2. 

And point P is to the north, Q is to the west and R is to the South of Junction 1 whereas point X is to the north, Z is to the east and Y is to the south of junction 2.

From the above information we can draw the following diagram-

Now coming to the question,

F%R#B%Z

Where F%R means car F is at point R and moves left from the junction to reach a certain point.

and R#B means  car B is at point R and moves right from the junction to reach a certain point.

B%Z means car B is at point Z and moves left from the junction to reach a certain point.

again in the question it is given that distance between each point is unknown so we can not exactly tell the initial position of car F from final position of car B, it can not determined.

Question 149

1 is added to the first digit, subtracted from the second digit, added to the third digit, and so on in the number ‘597628537463’. The final number is formed by interchanging the digits of the resulting number, that is the first and the second digits are interchanged, the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on. What is the difference between the smallest three digit number in the number system and the sum of all the digits of the final number thus obtained?

  1. AOption (a)

    39

  2. BOption (b)

    33

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    41

  5. EOption (e)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

35

Why this answer is correct

Given:  Certain mathematical operations are to be performed on the number ‘597628537463’.

The calculation table is as follows-

DIGITS597628537463
SUBTRACT 1/ADD 1+1-1+1-1+1-1+1-1+1-1+1-1
RESULTANT DIGIT688537628372
FINAL NUMBER865873263827

 

The sum of all the digits of the final number is – 8+6+5+8+7+3+2+6+3+8+2+7 = 65.

The smallest three digit number in the number system is 100.

Therefore, the difference between 100 and 65 is 35.

Hence, the required difference is 35.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

A family of nine members – A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O and Q, which consists of three generations,  went out for a winter picnic to a garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, with an equal amount of distance between them, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them sat facing the south whereas some of them sat facing the north. The number of people facing north is exactly half the number of people facing south. Also, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by the smallest positive integer.

G, who is the brother-in-law of Q, sat at one of the ends of the bench. A, who is sat third from the right end of the row facing north, is the mother of E. O, who is married to Q, sits second to the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an unmarried male. Q, who is the son of A, sits at the exact middle of the bench and faces the south. I, who is the son of O, sits second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction as his mother that is south. E, who is the wife of G, sits seventh to the right of her husband and faces south. The persons who are sat the extreme ends of the row, face the opposite directions. C is the elder brother of Q and E. A is married to K, who sits to the immediate right of Q. M sits second to the right of her grandfather K and third to the right of his father G.

Question 150

How is A related to M?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Aunt

  3. COption (c)

    Cousin 

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined

  5. EOption (e)

    Grandmother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Grandmother

Why this answer is correct

Given: A family of nine members – A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O and Q, which consists of three generations, went out for a winter picnic to a garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, with an equal amount of distance between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Now, it is given that the number of people who are sat facing north is exactly half the number of people sat facing south. In a 9-person arrangement, the only possible solution that satisfies this condition is that 3 people are sat facing north whereas the remaining 6 are sat facing south.

Hence, we get that 3 people sit facing north while 6 people sit facing south.

It is also given that the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by the smallest positive integer.The smallest positive integer is 1. Therefore, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by a 1.Now, in a 9 person arrangement the only solution that satisfies this condition is that there are 4 females and 5 males in the family.

Hence, the number of males in the family is 5 and the number of females is 4.

Now, on the basis of the given conditions, we get the following possibilities-

  1. G, who is the brother-in-law of Q, sat at one of the ends of the bench. Q, who is the son of A, sits at the exact middle of the bench and faces the south. Combining this, we get-

  2.  O, who is married to Q, sits second to the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an unmarried male. This condition eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get-

  3. A, who sits third from the right end of the row facing north, is the mother of E. E, who is the wife of G, sits seventh to the right of her husband and faces south. Combining these two statements we get-

  4. I, who is the son of O, sits second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction as his mother that is south. From this, we get-

  5.  A is married to K, who sits to the immediate right of Q. M sits second to the right of his grandfather K and third to the right of his father G. From this, we get the final seating arrangement as –

Now, from all the given conditions we get the final family tree as follows:

From the given final arrangement and family tree, we see that M is the granddaughter of A.

Hence, A is the grandmother of M.

Question 151

Who among the following sits third to the right of Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    G

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    I

  4. DOption (d)

    K

  5. EOption (e)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

E

Why this answer is correct

Given: A family of nine members – A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O and Q, which consists of three generations, went out for a winter picnic to a garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, with an equal amount of distance between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Now, it is given that the number of people who are sat facing north is exactly half the number of people sat facing south. In a 9-person arrangement, the only possible solution that satisfies this condition is that 3 people are sat facing north whereas the remaining 6 are sat facing south.

Hence, we get that 3 people sit facing north while 6 people sit facing south.

It is also given that the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by the smallest positive integer.The smallest positive integer is 1. Therefore, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by a 1.Now, in a 9 person arrangement the only solution that satisfies this condition is that there are 4 females and 5 males in the family.

Hence, the number of males in the family is 5 and the number of females is 4.

 

Now, on the basis of the given conditions, we get the following possibilities-

  1. G, who is the brother-in-law of Q, sat at one of the ends of the bench. Q, who is the son of A, sits at the exact middle of the bench and faces the south. Combining this, we get-

  2.  O, who is married to Q, sits second to the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an unmarried male. This condition eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get-

  3. A, who sits third from the right end of the row facing north, is the mother of E. E, who is the wife of G, sits seventh to the right of her husband and faces south. Combining these two statements we get-

  4. I, who is the son of O, sits second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction as his mother that is south. From this, we get-

  5.  A is married to K, who sits to the immediate right of Q. M sits second to the right of his grandfather K and third to the right of his father G. From this, we get the final seating arrangement as –

Now, from all the given conditions we get the final family linkage tree as follows:

From the given final arrangement and family tree, we see that E is seated third to the right of Q.

Hence, E sits third to the right of Q.

Question 152

In which position the grandchildren of K are seated with respect to him?

  1. AOption (a)

    Second to the left and fourth to the right

  2. BOption (b)

    Immediate neighbours

  3. COption (c)

    Third to the left and third to the right

  4. DOption (d)

    Second and fourth to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    Fourth to the left and second to the right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Second and fourth to the right

Why this answer is correct

Given: A family of nine members – A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O and Q, which consists of three generations, went out for a winter picnic to a garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, with an equal amount of distance between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Now, it is given that the number of people who are sat facing north is exactly half the number of people sat facing south. In a 9-person arrangement, the only possible solution that satisfies this condition is that 3 people are sat facing north whereas the remaining 6 are sat facing south.

Hence, we get that 3 people sit facing north while 6 people sit facing south.

It is also given that the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by the smallest positive integer.The smallest positive integer is 1. Therefore, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by a 1.Now, in a 9 person arrangement the only solution that satisfies this condition is that there are 4 females and 5 males in the family.

Hence, the number of males in the family is 5 and the number of females is 4.

 

Now, on the basis of the given conditions, we get the following possibilities-

  1. G, who is the brother-in-law of Q, sat at one of the ends of the bench. Q, who is the son of A, sits at the exact middle of the bench and faces the south. Combining this, we get-

  2.  O, who is married to Q, sits second to the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an unmarried male. This condition eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get-

  3. A, who sits third from the right end of the row facing north, is the mother of E. E, who is the wife of G, sits seventh to the right of her husband and faces south. Combining these two statements we get-

  4. I, who is the son of O, sits second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction as his mother that is south. From this, we get-

  5.  A is married to K, who sits to the immediate right of Q. M sits second to the right of his grandfather K and third to the right of his father G. From this, we get the final seating arrangement as –

Now, from all the given conditions we get the final family linkage tree as follows:

From the given final arrangement and family tree, we see that the grandchildren of K are I and M. M is seated second to the right and I is seated fourth to the right of K.

Hence, the grandchildren sit second and fourth to the right of K.

Question 153

The two persons sitting at the extreme ends of the row are related as_____

  1. AOption (a)

    Cousins

  2. BOption (b)

    Sisters

  3. COption (c)

    Brothers-in-law

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined

  5. EOption (e)

    Brothers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brothers-in-law

Why this answer is correct

Given: A family of nine members – A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O and Q, which consists of three generations, went out for a winter picnic to a garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, with an equal amount of distance between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Now, it is given that the number of people who are sat facing north is exactly half the number of people sat facing south. In a 9-person arrangement, the only possible solution that satisfies this condition is that 3 people are sat facing north whereas the remaining 6 are sat facing south.

Hence, we get that 3 people sit facing north while 6 people sit facing south.

It is also given that the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by the smallest positive integer.The smallest positive integer is 1. Therefore, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by a 1.Now, in a 9 person arrangement the only solution that satisfies this condition is that there are 4 females and 5 males in the family.

Hence, the number of males in the family is 5 and the number of females is 4.

 

Now, on the basis of the given conditions, we get the following possibilities-

  1. G, who is the brother-in-law of Q, sat at one of the ends of the bench. Q, who is the son of A, sits at the exact middle of the bench and faces the south. Combining this, we get-

  2.  O, who is married to Q, sits second to the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an unmarried male. This condition eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get-

  3. A, who sits third from the right end of the row facing north, is the mother of E. E, who is the wife of G, sits seventh to the right of her husband and faces south. Combining these two statements we get-

  4. I, who is the son of O, sits second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction as his mother that is south. From this, we get-

  5.  A is married to K, who sits to the immediate right of Q. M sits second to the right of his grandfather K and third to the right of his father G. From this, we get the final seating arrangement as –

Now, from all the given conditions we get the final family linkage tree as follows:

From the given final arrangement and family tree, we see that the two persons sitting at the two ends of the row are C and G. From the family tree, we see that they are brothers-in-law.

Hence, C and G are brothers-in-law.

Question 154

Which of the following statements is/are not Correct?

Statement I: No married couple is seated side by side.

Statement II: I and M are cousins.

Statement III: A is the mother-in-law of O.

  1. AOption (a)

    All of the above

  2. BOption (b)

    Both statements II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only statement I

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    Both statements I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of the above

Why this answer is correct

Given: A family of nine members – A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O and Q, which consists of three generations, went out for a winter picnic to a garden. All of them sat on a straight bench present in the garden, with an equal amount of distance between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Now, it is given that the number of people who are sat facing north is exactly half the number of people sat facing south. In a 9-person arrangement, the only possible solution that satisfies this condition is that 3 people are sat facing north whereas the remaining 6 are sat facing south.

Hence, we get that 3 people sit facing north while 6 people sit facing south.

It is also given that the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by the smallest positive integer.The smallest positive integer is 1. Therefore, the number of males in the family exceeds the number of females in the family by a 1.Now, in a 9 person arrangement the only solution that satisfies this condition is that there are 4 females and 5 males in the family.

Hence, the number of males in the family is 5 and the number of females is 4.

 

Now, on the basis of the given conditions, we get the following possibilities-

  1. G, who is the brother-in-law of Q, sat at one of the ends of the bench. Q, who is the son of A, sits at the exact middle of the bench and faces the south. Combining this, we get-

  2.  O, who is married to Q, sits second to the right of C, who is seated at the left end of the row and is an unmarried male. This condition eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get-

  3. A, who sits third from the right end of the row facing north, is the mother of E. E, who is the wife of G, sits seventh to the right of her husband and faces south. Combining these two statements we get-

  4. I, who is the son of O, sits second from the right end of the row and faces the same direction as his mother that is south. From this, we get-

  5.  A is married to K, who sits to the immediate right of Q. M sits second to the right of her grandfather K and third to the right of his father G. From this, we get the final seating arrangement as –

Now, from all the given conditions we get the final family linkage tree as follows:

From the given final arrangement and family tree, we check the correctness of the given statements as follows:

Statement I: No married couple is seated side by side. This is true. There are three married couples in the family and none of them are seated side by side.

Statement II: I and M are cousins. This is true.

Statement III: A is the mother-in-law of O. This is true. O is Q’s wife, who is the son of A.

Hence, none of the above statements are false.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

If 'A + B' means 'A is the father of B'

If 'A $ B' means 'A is the mother of B'

If 'A % B' means 'A is the brother of B'

If 'A & B' means 'A is the sister of B'

If 'A # B' means 'A is the daughter of B'

Question 155

In the following expression: 'K # L + M & N ? P'. What should come in the place of the question mark (?), to establish that ‘N is the daughter of P’?

  1. AOption (a)
  2. BOption (b)

    $

  3. COption (c)

    %

  4. DOption (d)

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

A is
Symbol+$%&#
MeaningFatherMotherBrotherSisterDaughter
Of B
<br>

Now draw family tree using following notations:

'K # L + M & N ? P' means K is the daughter of L, L is the father of M, M is the sister of N. N is either son or daughter of P.

It is clear that in the family tree diagram for N is being the daughter of P.

Therefore, only the symbol of '#' between N and P can be placed here.

Hence, the option 4 is correct.

Question 156

Which of the following options is true if the expression 'P & Z + D # S & M % T' is definitely true?

  1. AOption (a)

    D is the nephew of T.

  2. BOption (b)

    Z is the brother in law of T.

  3. COption (c)

    P is the uncle of M.

  4. DOption (d)

    M is the aunt of D.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Z is the brother in law of T.

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

A is
Symbol+$%&#
MeaningFatherMotherBrotherSisterDaughter
Of B
<br>

Now draw family tree using following notations:

'P & Z + D # S & M % T' means P is the sister of Z, 'Z is the father of D, D is the daughter of S, S is the sister of M, M is the brother of T.

Therefore, only statement 2 is true.

Hence, Z is the brother in law of T.

Question 157

Which of the given expressions indicates that F is the uncle of E?

  1. AOption (a)

    F & K + P # L & E

  2. BOption (b)

    F % K $ P # L + E

  3. COption (c)

    F # K + P % L $ E

  4. DOption (d)

    F % K $ P & L + E

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

F % K $ P # L + E

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

A is
Symbol+$%&#
MeaningFatherMotherBrotherSisterDaughter
Of B
<br>

Now draw family tree using following notations:

Using statement number 1:

F & K + P # L & E means F is the sister of K, K is the father of P, P is the daughter of L, L is the sister of E.

Clearly we cannot determine the relation.

Hence, the statement 1 is incorrect.

Using statement number 2:

F % K $ P # L + E means F is the brother of K, K is the mother of P, P is the daughter of L, L is the father of E.

Clearly in this option F is the uncle of E.

Hence, the answer is F % K $ P # L + E.

Using statement number 3:

F # K + P % L $ E means F is the daughter of K, K is the father of P, P is the brother of L, L is the mother of E.

Clearly we can say that F is the aunt of E.

Hence, the statement 3 is incorrect.

Using statement number 4:

F % K $ P & L + E means F is the brother of K, K is the mother of P, P is the sister of L, L is the father of E.

Clearly we cannot say the relationship.

Hence, the statement 4 is incorrect.

Question 158

How is Q related to Z in the expression 'X + Y $ Z & P # Q % J'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Father

  3. COption (c)

    Mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Grandfather

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Father

Why this answer is correct

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

A is
Symbol+$%&#
MeaningFatherMotherBrotherSisterDaughter
Of B
<br>

Now draw family tree using following notations:

'X + Y $ Z & P # Q % J' means X is the father of Y, Y is the mother of Z, Z is the sister of P, P is the daughter of Q, Q is the brother of J.

Hence, Q is the father of Z.

Question 159

Direction: A passage is given and then three conclusions – I, II & III are given. You have to consider the information given in passage as true though it seems to be different from the actual facts. Then give your answer regarding the given passage that which of the conclusion/s is/are followed by it properly.

The newly opened bookstore "Bibliophile's Paradise" has quickly gained popularity among the city's book lovers. Its extensive collection of books from various genres and periods has attracted readers of all ages. The bookstore's cozy reading nooks and coffee shop have added to its charm. The store manager, John, who has studied literature at a prestigious university, ensures that every book on the shelves is a gem.

Conclusions:

I. "Bibliophile's Paradise" only sells new books.

II. The bookstore's success is due to its book collection and cozy atmosphere.

III. John's expertise is in management rather than literature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and III

  5. EOption (e)

    Only III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Let's analyze each conclusion in relation to the passage:

<br>

I. "Bibliophile's Paradise" only sells new books. → The passage does not provide any information about whether the bookstore only sells new books or not. It mentions an "extensive collection of books from various genres and periods," but it does not specify if these are new or used books. Therefore, we cannot conclude that statement I is correct.

II. The bookstore's success is due to its book collection and cozy atmosphere. → The passage mentions that the bookstore has gained popularity due to its "extensive collection of books" and "cozy reading nooks and coffee shop." These points suggest that both the book collection and the atmosphere contribute to the bookstore's success. Therefore, statement II is correct.

<br>

III. John's expertise is in management rather than literature. → The passage states that John, the store manager, "has studied literature at a prestigious university." This suggests that John has expertise in literature. The passage does not provide any information about John's management skills or education. Therefore, we cannot conclude that the statement III is correct.

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is Only II.

Question 160

Directions

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement:

Amid the increasing reliance on AI-driven decision-making tools in the financial sector, a recent study warns that automated financial advisors may inadvertently perpetuate biased financial practices, potentially exacerbating existing disparities. These AI systems, trained on vast datasets, have shown tendencies to offer biased advice, leading to concerns about the reinforcement of discriminatory financial practices.

Assumption:

I. The integration of AI-driven financial advisors may contribute to reinforcing biased financial practices.

II. Financial institutions are actively working to eliminate biases in AI systems used for decision-making in the financial sector.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I implicit

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II implicit

  3. COption (c)

     Both I and II implicit

  4. DOption (d)

     Either I or II implicit

  5. EOption (e)

    Neither I nor II implicit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I implicit

Why this answer is correct

Let's evaluate the Assumptions**:**

Statement I clearly mentions that automated financial advisors may inadvertently perpetuate biased financial practices and that these AI systems have shown tendencies to offer biased advice. This directly supports the idea that the integration of these systems has the potential to reinforce biased practices. So, Assumption I is clearly implicit.

Statement II assumes that  AI systems perpetuate biased practices, but it does not provide specific information about actions being taken by financial institutions to eliminate these biases. There is no mention of financial institutions' efforts to address the biases in AI systems within the statement. Therefore, we cannot take it for granted from the statement that financial institutions are actively working on this issue. So, Assumption II is not implicit as it is not supported by evidence in the statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1, as Only I is implicit and aligns with the concerns raised in the study about AI-driven financial advisors.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

In a certain code language, words and phrases are coded in accordance with the following set of rules-

  1. All the consonants except M, N, and R are coded as the numbers of the even number series starting from 2. For example, B is coded as 2, C is coded as 4, D is coded as 6 and so on.
  2. M, N, and R are coded as $, @ and % respectively.
  3. The vowels are coded as the position of letter we get by reversing the English alphabetical series The codes for vowels are-
  4. If the third or the fourth letter of a word is a vowel, then that vowel is coded as ‘#’.
  5. If the number of letters in a particular word is even, then the code for that particular word starts with an ‘X’ and if the number of letters is odd, then the code for that word starts with a ‘Z’.

Question 161

The word ‘DIVERGENT’ is coded as?

  1. AOption (a)

    Z61828#%1026@22

  2. BOption (b)

    X81828#%1026@22

  3. COption (c)

    Z62828#%1026@22

  4. DOption (d)

    Z61828#%1022@26

  5. EOption (e)

    Z81828%#1026@22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Z61828#%1022@26

Why this answer is correct

Given: A set of rules according to which words and phrases are coded in a particular language.

We first look into the codes for the 21 consonants and 5 vowels of the English alphabetical series. They are as follows-

  1. The consonants are coded as the numbers of the even number series except M, N, and R, which are coded with special characters. Therefore, the codes for the consonants are-
CONSONANTCODECONSONANTCODE
B2N@
C4P20
D6Q22
F8R%
G10S24
H12T26
J14V28
K16W30
L18X32
M$Y34
Z36

 

2.The vowels are coded as the position of letter we get by reversing the English alphabetical series The codes for vowels are-

VOWELMIRROR LETTERCODE
AZ26
EV22
IR18
OL12
UF6

 

The given word is 'DIVERGENT'. It is a nine-letter word, so the code for it should begin with a 'Z'. Also, the fourth letter is a vowel. So, it should be replaced by '#' in the code. 

Therefore, in accordance with the given set of rules, the code for the given word is 'Z61828#%1022@26'.

Hence, the code for the word 'DIVERGENT' is 'Z61828#%1022@26'.

Question 162

The first part of the code for the word ‘BLASPHEMY’ is Z218#24. What is the remaining part of the code for the given word?

  1. AOption (a)

    122022$34

  2. BOption (b)

    122022$43 

  3. COption (c)

    202212$34

  4. DOption (d)

    201222$34

  5. EOption (e)

    222012$34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

201222$34

Why this answer is correct

Given: A set of rules according to which words and phrases are coded in a particular language.

We first look into the codes for the 21 consonants and 5 vowels of the English alphabetical series. They are as follows-

  1. The consonants are coded as the numbers of the even number series except M, N, and R, which are coded with special characters. Therefore, the codes for the consonants are-
CONSONANTCODECONSONANTCODE
B2N@
C4P20
D6Q22
F8R%
G10S24
H12T26
J14V28
K16W30
L18X32
M$Y34
Z36

 

  1. The vowels are coded as the position of letter we get by reversing the English alphabetical series The codes for vowels are-
VOWELMIRROR LETTERCODE
AZ26
EV22
IR18
OL12
UF6

 

In accordance with the given set of rules, the code for the word 'BLASPHEMY' is 'Z218#24201222$34'.

The first part of the code is given as 'Z218#24'. Therefore, the second part of the code is '201222$34'. 

Hence, the second part of the code for the word 'BLASPHEMY' is '201222$34'.

Question 163

The positive difference between the sum of individual digits present in the code for the first word and for the second word in the phrase ‘GOODNESS GRACIOUS’ is?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    1

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given: A set of rules according to which words and phrases are coded in a particular language.

We first look into the codes for the 21 consonants and 5 vowels of the English alphabetical series. They are as follows-

  1. The consonants are coded as the numbers of the even number series except M, N, and R, which are coded with special characters. Therefore, the codes for the consonants are-
CONSONANTCODECONSONANTCODE
B2N@
C4P20
D6Q22
F8R%
G10S24
H12T26
J14V28
K16W30
L18X32
M$Y34
Z36

 

2.The vowels are coded as the position of letter we get by reversing the English alphabetical series The codes for vowels are-

VOWELMIRROR LETTERCODE
AZ26
EV22
IR18
OL12
UF6

 

In accordance with the given set of rules, the codes for the two words in the given phrase 'GOODNESS GRACIOUS' is-

'GOODNESS' is coded as 'X1012#6@222424'. The sum of the individual digits in the code is - 1+0+1+2+6+2+2+2+4+2+4 = 26. 

'GRACIOUS' is coded as 'X10%#41812624'. The sum of the individual digits in the code is - 1+0+4+1+8+1+2+6+2+4 = 29. 

The positive difference between these two quantities is 3. 

Hence, the required difference is 3.

Question 164

If all the vowels in the word ‘RHAPSODY’ are shifted by two forward places according to the English alphabet series and all the consonants are shifted by four backward places according to the English alphabet series, the alphabets thus obtained are then placed in alphabetical order, starting from the left to the right. What is the difference between the position in the alphabetical series of the second letter from the right end and the fourth letter from the left end of the newly formed arrangement?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    7

  5. EOption (e)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given: The word is ‘RHAPSODY’.

As per the English alphabet series, all the vowels are shifted two places forward and all consonants are shifted four places backward, the letters thus obtained are arranged in alphabetical order starting from left to right. Thus, we get-

LETTERSRHAPSODY
CONSONANTS (C)/ VOWELS (V)CCVCCVCC
+2 IF V/-4 IF C-4-4+2-4-4+2-4-4
RESULTANT LETTERNDCLOQZU
REARRANGEMENTCDLNOQUZ

The second letter from the right end is U. The fourth letter from the left end is N. Difference between the position between them as per alphabetical series is 21 - 14 = 7

So, 7 is the correct answer.

Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Nine people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J are living on the different floors of a building not necessarily in the same order such that four floors remain vacant. The ground floor is numbered one, first floor is numbered two and so on.

Top and bottom floor of the building are Vacant. There are four floors between A and G. A lives above G. Two persons live between the floors on which H and D live. A lives immediately below H. G is not living in odd number floor. G lives immediately above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on which C and J live is the same as the number of floors between the ones on which G and B live. C lives in one of the floor above J and G. D lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant floor are immediately next to each other. At most  three floor are there in between two vacant floors. The difference between the Floor in which F and E live is the prime number with F lives above E. G and A doesn't live on the second and seventh floor respectively. C doesn't live on the seventh floor.

Question 165

Who lives immediately two floor below one of the vacant floor?

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    B

  5. EOption (e)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B

Why this answer is correct

Top and bottom floor of the building are Vacant. There are four floors between A and G. A lives above G. Two persons live between the floors on which H and D live. A lives immediate below H. G is not living in odd number floor. G and A doesn't live on the second and seventh floor respectively. 

Case 1

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7
6G
5
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 2

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7
6
5
4G
3
2
1VACANT

G lives immediately above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on which C and J live is same as the number of floors between the ones on which G and B live. C lives in one of the floor above J and G. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6
5
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Case 2 b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7B
6
5C
4G
3VACANT
2J
1VACANT

D lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant floor are immediate next to each other. Case 2b gets invalid. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3VACANT
2D
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(i)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10VACANT
9D
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(ii)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9VACANT
8D
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6VANCAT
5D
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Not more than three floor are there in between two vacant floor. Hence Case 1a, Case 1c(i), case 2a gets invalid. Difference between Floor in which F and E lives is prime number with F lives above E. Hence case 1c(ii) gets invalid. C doesn't live on the seventh floor.  

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4F
3B
2E
1VACANT

B lives two floor below Vacant floor.

Question 166

How many persons live between A and G?

  1. AOption (a)

    Three

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Six

  5. EOption (e)

    Five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Top and bottom floor of the building are Vacant. There are four floors between A and G. A lives above G. Two persons live between the floors on which H and D live. A lives immediate below H. G is not living in odd number floor. G and A doesn't live on the second and seventh floor respectively. 

Case 1

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7
6G
5
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 2

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7
6
5
4G
3
2
1VACANT

G lives immediately above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on which C and J live is same as the number of floors between the ones on which G and B live. C lives in one of the floor above J and G. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6
5
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Case 2 b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7B
6
5C
4G
3VACANT
2J
1VACANT

D lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant floor are immediate next to each other. Case 2b gets invalid. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3VACANT
2D
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(i)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10VACANT
9D
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(ii)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9VACANT
8D
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6VANCAT
5D
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Not more than three floor are there in between two vacant floor. Hence Case 1a, Case 1c(i), case 2a gets invalid. Difference between Floor in which F and E lives is prime number with F lives above E. Hence case 1c(ii) gets invalid. C doesn't live on the seventh floor.  

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4F
3B
2E
1VACANT

Number of person between A and G is three.

Question 167

How many floor are there in between B and D?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    1

  5. EOption (e)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Top and bottom floor of the building are Vacant. There are four floors between A and G. A lives above G. Two persons live between the floors on which H and D live. A lives immediate below H. G is not living in odd number floor. G and A doesn't live on the second and seventh floor respectively. 

Case 1

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7
6G
5
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 2

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7
6
5
4G
3
2
1VACANT

G lives immediately above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on which C and J live is same as the number of floors between the ones on which G and B live. C lives in one of the floor above J and G. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6
5
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Case 2 b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7B
6
5C
4G
3VACANT
2J
1VACANT

D lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant floor are immediate next to each other. Case 2b gets invalid. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3VACANT
2D
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(i)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10VACANT
9D
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(ii)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9VACANT
8D
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6VANCAT
5D
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

At most three floor are there in between two vacant floor. Hence Case 1a, Case 1c(i), case 2a gets invalid. Difference between Floor in which F and E lives is prime number with F lives above E. Hence case 1c(ii) gets invalid. C doesn't live on the seventh floor.  

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4F
3B
2E
1VACANT

There are four floor in between D and B.

Question 168

Which floors are vacant?

  1. AOption (a)

    6, 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 4

  3. COption (c)

    5, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    6, 3

  5. EOption (e)

    2, 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5, 1

Why this answer is correct

Top and bottom floor of the building are Vacant. There are four floors between A and G. A lives above G. Two persons live between the floors on which H and D live. A lives immediate below H. G is not living in odd number floor. G and A doesn't live on the second and seventh floor respectively. 

Case 1

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7
6G
5
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 2

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7
6
5
4G
3
2
1VACANT

G lives immediately above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on which C and J live is same as the number of floors between the ones on which G and B live. C lives in one of the floor above J and G. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6
5
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Case 2 b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7B
6
5C
4G
3VACANT
2J
1VACANT

D lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant floor are immediate next to each other. Case 2b gets invalid. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3VACANT
2D
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(i)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10VACANT
9D
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(ii)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9VACANT
8D
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6VANCAT
5D
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Not more than three floor are there in between two vacant floor. Hence Case 1a, Case 1c(i), case 2a gets invalid. Difference between Floor in which F and E lives is prime number with F lives above E. Hence case 1c(ii) gets invalid. C doesn't live on the seventh floor.  

Hence, the final arrangement,

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4F
3B
2E
1VACANT
<br>

So, floors 5 and 1 are vacant. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 169

Four among the five are the same and thus forms a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    H

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    E

  5. EOption (e)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

A

Why this answer is correct

Top and bottom floor of the building are Vacant. There are four floors between A and G. A lives above G. Two persons live between the floors on which H and D live. A lives immediate below H. G is not living in odd number floor. G and A doesn't live on the second and seventh floor respectively. 

Case 1

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7
6G
5
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 2

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7
6
5
4G
3
2
1VACANT

G lives immediately above Vacant floor. Number of floors between the floors on which C and J live is same as the number of floors between the ones on which G and B live. C lives in one of the floor above J and G. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3
2
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6
5
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Case 2 b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11
10H
9A
8
7B
6
5C
4G
3VACANT
2J
1VACANT

D lives immediately below vacant floor. No two vacant floor are immediate next to each other. Case 2b gets invalid. 

Case 1a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9B
8
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3VACANT
2D
1VACANT

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(i)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10VACANT
9D
8
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 1c(ii)

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10
9VACANT
8D
7C
6G
5VACANT
4J
3B
2
1VACANT

Case 2a

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12
11C
10H
9A
8J
7B
6VANCAT
5D
4G
3VACANT
2
1VACANT

Not more than three floor are there in between two vacant floor. Hence Case 1a, Case 1c(i), case 2a gets invalid. Difference between Floor in which F and E lives is prime number with F lives above E. Hence case 1c(ii) gets invalid. C doesn't live on the seventh floor.  

Case 1b

FloorPerson
13VACANT
12H
11A
10C
9VACANT
8D
7J
6G
5VACANT
4F
3B
2E
1VACANT

All except A lives in even number floor.

Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.

M # N means All M is N.

M @ N means Some M is not N.

M * N means Only a few M is N.

M $ N means Some M is N.

M ^ N means No M is N.

% means possibility e.g. M $% N means Some M can be N.

Question 170

Statements: Wood @ Tree # Timber $ Table * Chair

Conclusions:

I. Tree #% Table

II. Wood @ Timber

III. Chair * Table

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Only I and III follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I follows

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Symbols M to N#@*$^%
Meaning M to NAllSome NotOnly a fewSomeNoPossibility

 

Statements:  Wood @ Tree # Timber $ Table * Chair

Wood @ Tree → Some Wood are not Tree.

Tree # Timber → All Tree are Timber.

Timber $ Table → Some Timber are Table.

Table * Chair → Only a few Table are Chair.

Thus, the possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I)  Tree #% Table → All Tree can be Table. → True (As there is no direct relation given between Tree and Table, it is possible that all Tree are Table. Hence, it is true)

II) Wood @ Timber → Some Wood are not Timber. → False (We cannot say definitely that some Wood are not Timber as there is no direct relation between Wood and Timber. Hence, it is false)

III) Chair * Table → Only a few Chair are Table → False (Only a few table are chair means some table are chair but not all table are chair. But it is possible that all chair are table. Hence, we cannot say definitely that only a few chair are table. Hence, it is false.)

Hence, the correct answer is Only I follows.

Question 171

Statements: S3 # T2 * H5 ^ B3 # J6

Conclusions:

I. T2 @ B3

II. S3 #% H5

III. H5 #% J6

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II and III follows

  3. COption (c)

    All follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Only III follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All follows

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Symbols M to N#@*$^%
Meaning M to NAllSome NotOnly a fewSomeNoPossibility

 

Statements: S3 # T2 * H5 ^ B3 # J6

S3 # T2 → All S3 are T2.

T2 * H5 → Only a few T2 are H5.

H5 ^ B3  → No H5 is B3.

B3 # J6 → All B3 are J6.

Thus, the possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I) T2 @ B3 → Some T2 are not B3 → True (The part of T2 which is H5 can never be B3 as no H5 is B3. So some T2 are not B3 follows. Hence, it is true)

II) S3 #% H5 → All S3 can be H5 → True (As there is no direct relation given between S3 and H5, it is possible that all S3 are H5. Hence, it is true.)

III) H5 #% J6 → All H5 can be J6 → True (As there is no direct relation given between H5 and J6, it is possible that All H5 are J6. Hence, it is true.)

Hence, the correct answer is All follows.

Question 172

Statements: Dog * Cat ^ Horse @ Lion # Tiger

Conclusions:

I. Lion @ Cat

II. Dog #% Tiger

III. Tiger @ Cat

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II and III follows

  3. COption (c)

    None follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and III follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Symbols M to N#@*$^%
Meaning M to NAllSome NotOnly a fewSomeNoPossibility

 

Statements: Dog * Cat ^ Horse @ Lion # Tiger

Dog * Cat → Only a few Dog are Cat.

Cat ^ Horse → No cat is Horse.

Horse @ Lion → Some Horse are not Lion.

Lion # Tiger → All Lion are Tiger.

Thus, the possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Lion @ Cat → Some Lion are not Cat → False (As there is no direct relation given between Lion and Cat we cannot say definitely that Some Lion are not Cat. Hence, it is false.)

II. Dog #% Tiger → All Dog can be Tiger → True (It is possible that all dog are tiger as there is no direct relation given between them. Hence, it is true.)

III. Tiger @ Cat → Some Tiger are not Cat → False (As there is no direct relation given between Tiger and Cat we cannot say definitely that Some Tiger are not Cat. Hence, it is false.)

Hence, the correct answer is Only II follows.

Question 173

Directions

In the question, the statement is given followed by some inferences. You must consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which inference can be drawn from the given statement.

The Internet has become an indispensable tool for education, work, entertainment, and socialization. However, it also poses many risks and challenges for young people, such as cyberbullying, online predators, misinformation, and addiction. Some experts argue that parents should monitor and limit their children's internet use, while others claim that this would violate their privacy and autonomy. Jennifer Garner, a famous actress and mother of three, has revealed that she uses an app to track her kids' online activity and restrict their screen time. 

Inferences:

I. Jennifer Garner is a responsible parent who cares about her children's well-being and safety.

II. Parents have the right to interfere with their children's internet use as they see fit.

III. The internet is a dangerous place for children and they need constant supervision and guidance.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and III

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Let's have a look at all options:

Inference I → The statement implies that Jennifer Garner is concerned about the potential harms of the internet for her children and that she takes measures to protect them from those harms. Jennifer Garner's decision to use an app to track her kids' online activity and restrict their screen time suggests that she is a responsible parent who cares about her children's well-being and safety. Therefore, the inference I is valid, as it reflects her attitude and motivation as a parent.

Inference II → It is not valid. The fact that the Internet poses risks and challenges for young people does not necessarily mean that parents have the right to interfere with their children's Internet use as they see fit. Parents need to strike a balance between protecting their children and respecting their autonomy.

Inference III → It is also not valid. While the internet can pose risks and challenges for young people, the statement does not imply that it is a "dangerous place" that requires constant supervision and guidance.

Hence, the correct answer is Only I.

Question 174

Directions

In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statement I: Recent law changes in India have made it possible for mother's name to be used as a legitimate identification identifier on a variety of papers, including passports and PAN cards.

Statement II: There are international human rights treaties and conventions that India is a signatory to, which uphold gender equality.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

  3. COption (c)

    Both statement I and II are independent causes.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  5. EOption (e)

    Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

Why this answer is correct

According to statement I, India has made a progressive and landmark change in law that recognizes gender equality in India by making it possible to use mother's name in offical documents, which is the effect of the fact that India is bound by international law to respect and protect such rights as per statement II.

Thus statement I is the effect and II is the cause.

Hence, the correct answer is Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

Question 175

The university has decided to implement a new policy in the upcoming academic session that mandates all students to renew their biometric identity cards every six months which requires physical presence of the students. This was done due to limited use of resources by alumni. What effect will this policy have?

Possible Effects:

I. The policy will have a positive effect on both academic performance and engagement, as it will motivate the students to attend classes regularly, interact with their peers and instructors and take the benefit of the available resources.

II. The policy will have a negative effect on both academic performance and engagement, as it will create an unnecessary burden and hassle for the students, especially those who live far away or have other commitments.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

  5. EOption (e)

    Both I and II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Let's analyze the possible effects of the new policy mandating students to renew their biometric identity cards every six months with physical presence:

Effect I: The policy will have a positive effect on both academic performance and engagement, as it will motivate the students to attend classes regularly, interact with their peers and instructors, and take advantage of the available resources. → This can be a plausible effect as it suggests that the policy will encourage students to be more involved in their academic journey and engage more actively with their studies and the university community. By requiring regular physical presence for card renewal, it can create a sense of accountability and responsibility among students. Regular attendance and interaction with peers and instructors can foster active learning, collaborative environments, and utilization of available resources. This increased involvement may positively impact academic performance and enhance engagement. 

Effect II: The policy will have a negative effect on both academic performance and engagement, as it will create an unnecessary burden and hassle for the students, especially for those who live far away or have other commitments. → This is also a plausible effect as it suggests that the policy could potentially impose challenges and inconvenience on students. Requiring physical presence for biometric card renewal every six months may create difficulties, especially for those students who live far away from the university or have other commitments like part-time jobs or family responsibilities. This burden and hassle might result in increased stress levels, time constraints, or even discouragement, leading to a negative impact on academic performance and engagement. Some students may find it difficult to manage their schedules, leading to decreased motivation and involvement in academic activities. Furthermore, the policy will reduce the flexibility and autonomy of the students, as they will have less choice and control over their learning pace and style.

Hence, the correct answer is Both I and II.

Question 176

Directions

In the question given below, there is a statement followed by four courses of action. On the basis of the situation given you have to decide which of the suggested course(s) of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

There is an increase in the number of waterborne diseases in Area W of Country H because the people of that area are using tap water without any filtration.

Course of action:

I. The supply of water in area W should be reduced.

II. To save from waterborne diseases public awareness programme should be arranged so that people can be aware of using clean water.

  1. AOption (a)

    If only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    If only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    If either I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    If neither I nor II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    If both I & II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

If only II follows

Why this answer is correct

To determine which of the suggested courses of action logically follow for addressing the situation of an increase in waterborne diseases in Area W of Country H, let's analyze each course of action:

Course of Action I: The supply of water in Area W should be reduced. → This course of action does not logically follow for addressing the situation. Reducing the supply of water in Area W would not directly address the issue of waterborne diseases caused by using tap water without filtration. It could potentially exacerbate the problem by further limiting access to clean water. The focus should be on improving the quality of the available water and promoting safe practices rather than reducing the supply.

Course of Action II: To save from waterborne diseases, a public awareness program should be arranged so that people can be aware of using clean water. → This course of action logically follows for addressing the situation. Waterborne diseases are likely occurring because people in Area W are using tap water without filtration. Conducting a public awareness program would help educate the residents about the risks associated with using untreated water and promote the importance of using clean water to prevent waterborne diseases. By raising awareness and providing information on water purification methods, the program can contribute to reducing waterborne diseases in the area.

Hence, the correct answer is If only II follows.

Question 177

Statement: To manage the heavy workload, the workers of company X are demanding to increase the number of workers. The workers have also threatened the company to go on strike if the demand is not fulfilled by the company.

Which of the following will strengthen or weaken the above statement?

I: For the last few years, due to the heavy workload, the workers have been working extra hours and did not take any leave.

II: In the last six months, the workers of company X have repeatedly taken rest in between the work, thus the work is not completed.

  1. AOption (a)

    I weakens and II Strengthens

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Strengthens

  3. COption (c)

    Both weakens

  4. DOption (d)

    I Strengthens and II weakens

  5. EOption (e)

    Either I or II weakens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I Strengthens and II weakens

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I is strong and II is weak.

<br>

I: For the last few years, due to the heavy workload, the workers have been working extra hours and did not take any leave. → This option strengthens the given statement. If workers have been consistently working extra hours and not taking any leave due to the heavy workload, it suggests that the current workforce is overloaded and may struggle to handle the workload effectively. This reinforces the workers' demand for an increase in the number of workers to alleviate the burden and prevent overworking.

<br>

II: In the last six months, the workers of company X have repeatedly taken rest in between the work, thus the work is not completed. → This option weakens the given statement. If workers have been frequently taking rest or unnecessary breaks during work in the past six months, it implies that inefficiencies might exist within the workforce regarding completing assigned tasks effectively. This weakens the justification for demanding an increase in the number of workers since it suggests that the current workforce may not be utilizing their time efficiently. This suggests that the current number of workers may be sufficient, and an increase may not be necessary.

Question 178

Direction: Read the given information and answer the following questions:

Our global civilization is said to be enhanced by variety. Sadly, despite recent biological evidence that has categorically refuted such views, theories of racial prejudice continue to be spread and put into reality. Numerous people suffered unimaginable pain as a result of slavery, the slave trade, imperialism, and colonialism.

Which of the given statements will weaken the argument?

  1. AOption (a)

    Millions of people from the weaker segments of society now have voice and empowerment thanks to the institutions of our democratic polity and the growth of literacy.

  2. BOption (b)

    In comparison to the many advantages one person enjoys, people from various racial and ethnic origins may enjoy privileges.

  3. COption (c)

    A National Committee should be established, and they should be encouraged by the general support of the legal protections against discrimination in the constitution and other laws.

  4. DOption (d)

    The internet and social media have made the globe a more interconnected place. However, some people are using this technical advancement to foment racial animosity.

  5. EOption (e)

    The government has established an institutional and administrative framework to address various types of discrimination within our democratic system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

In comparison to the many advantages one person enjoys, people from various racial and ethnic origins may enjoy privileges.

Why this answer is correct

The passage talks about effects of racial discrimination faced by the weaker section of people so that still the weaker section faces racial discrimination, which was believed to be a thing of the past. Thus, the racism faced should be put to an end.

I. Because of the institutions of our democratic politics and the increase of literacy, millions of individuals from the weaker parts of society now have a voice and empowerment which is positive note and it does not weaker the statement.

II. People of different racial and ethnic origins may have privileges in comparison to the numerous advantages one individual receives. Thus, this statement weakens the argument.

III. The establishment of a National Committee and the widespread endorsement of the constitutional and other legal provisions that prohibit discrimination should be supported. This statement does not weaken the argument.

IV. The world is now more linked thanks to the internet and social media. However, some people are stoking racial tension with this technological breakthrough which does not weakens the argument.

V. Our democratic system's institutional and administrative structures have been set up by the government to counter different forms of prejudice. this will strengthen the argument.

Thus, option II is the answer.

Question 179

Directions

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement:

A popular food blogger, known for her Instagram account 'Tasty Bites Explorer,' was recently harassed by a man in a busy marketplace in Mumbai. The entire incident was captured on her Instagram Live and quickly gained attention. In the video, the man tries to strike up a conversation with the blogger, asking if she would like to join him for coffee. However, his seemingly harmless approach turns uncomfortable as he makes inappropriate remarks about the blogger's appearance. Despite her attempts to ignore him, the man persists in following her and making lewd comments.

<br>

Assumption:

I. The behaviour of the man not only violated the blogger's right to privacy and dignity but also highlighted the broader societal issue of gender-based harassment that needs to be urgently addressed.

II. Incidents like these contribute to a negative perception of safety in public spaces for women, and such occurrences tarnish the reputation of the city.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I implicit

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II implicit

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II implicit 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II implicit

  5. EOption (e)

     Neither I nor II implicit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II implicit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4  Both I and II implicit.

<br>

Explanation:

I. The incident showcases a clear violation of the food blogger's privacy and dignity, highlighting an instance of gender-based harassment. Such behavior not only infringes on individual rights but also points to a larger societal issue that demands attention. It emphasizes the need for urgent measures to combat harassment and promote respect and safety for all, underscoring the pervasive challenge of gender discrimination in public spaces. Therefore, assumption I is implicit.

<br>

II. The statement implies that incidents like these contribute to a negative perception of safety for women in public spaces, and such occurrences tarnish the reputation of the city. This indicates a broader impact on the safety perception and reputation of the city due to incidents like the one described. Therefore, assumption II is implicit.

<br>

Hence, both assumptions I and II are implicit in the given context.

Question 180

Read the statement below followed by two conclusions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the statement.

Statement: The college authorities have decided to give seven grace marks in the Mathematics paper to all the second-year students as the performance of these students in Mathematics was below their expectations. 

Assumptions:

I. Majority of the students in second-year may still fail in Mathematics even after giving them grace marks. 

II: Majority of the students in second-year may now pass in Mathematics after giving grace marks.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only assumption I is implicit

  2. BOption (b)

    Only assumption II is implicit

  3. COption (c)

    Either assumption I or II is implicit

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither assumption I or II is implicit

  5. EOption (e)

    Both assumptions I and II are implicit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only assumption II is implicit

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is- 

The college authorities have decided to give seven grace marks in the Mathematics paper to all the second-year students as the performance of these students in Mathematics was below their expectations. This mainly implies that a majority of the students in second year have not passed their Mathematics paper and giving them grace marks might help them clear their paper. 

Considering this, we can infer that:

Assumption I: Majority of the students in second-year may still fail in Mathematics even after giving them grace marks. This statement is not implicit as this assumption suggests that even with the extra marks, most students will still fail. If the college thought most students would still fail with the extra marks, giving the marks wouldn't make much sense. The statement doesn't suggest that the college believes students will still fail after getting extra marks.

Assumption II:  This assumption aligns with the decision to give grace marks. The college authorities are likely assuming that by awarding seven grace marks, the performance of the majority of students will improve enough for them to pass. This assumption is more in line with the purpose behind the decision.

Hence, Only assumption II is implicit

Question 181

Six people from three generations of a family live in a house. How many males are in the family?

Statement I – P is the daughter of T, who is married to S. Q is the father of a son and a daughter. U, the sister of S, is unmarried. S is the son-in-law of R.

Statement II – Q is the father of S, who is married to T. R is the mother of T, who has a daughter. U is the aunt of P. Q has two children, a son, and a daughter.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question

  4. DOption (d)

    Either statements are sufficient to answer the question

  5. EOption (e)

    Neither statements are sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

The following symbols have been used to symbolize the relations:

<br>

Given:

Six people – P, Q, R, S, T, and U

Statement I – P is the daughter of T, who is married to S. Q is the father of a son and a daughter. U, the sister of S, is unmarried. S is the son-in-law of R.

<br>
  1. P is the daughter of T, who is married to S.
<br>
  1. Q is the father of a son and a daughter.
<br>
  1. U, the sister of S, is unmarried.
<br>
  1. S is the son-in-law of R.

Taking all of it together:

<br>

Statement II – Q is the father of S, who is married to T. R is the mother of T, who has a daughter. U is the aunt of P. Q has two children, a son and a daughter.

<br>
  1. Q is the father of S, who is married to T.
<br>
  1. R is the mother of T, who has a daughter.
<br>
  1. U is the aunt of P.
<br>
  1. Q has two children, a son, and a daughter.

Taking all of it together:

Hence, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Question 182

Direction: The question below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give answer:

Six boxes namely – M, N, O, P, Q and R are kept one above other, each box contains different fruits viz. Mango, Apple, Guava, Litchi, Orange and Papaya. Box N is kept third from top at a gap of one box from one that contains Litchi. Box P contains Orange, which is neither kept adjacent to box N nor adjacent to the one that contain Litchi, is kept just above one that contains Apple. How many boxes are kept below one contains Papaya?

I. Box which contains Guava and Litchi are kept together. Box R, which neither contains Guava nor contains Litchi, is kept at a gap of two from box M. Box which contains Guava is kept at a gap of three from box Q.

II. R which contains Mango is kept at a gap of two from box M, which neither contains Guava nor kept adjacent to box P. Only two boxes are kept between box Q and one which contains box Papaya.

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Six boxes: M, N, O, P, Q and R

Fruits: Mango, Apple, Guava, Litchi, Orange and Papaya.

Box N is kept third from top at a gap of one box from one that contains Litchi. Box P contains Orange, which is neither kept adjacent to box N nor adjacent to the one that contain Litchi, is kept just above one that contains Apple.

No.Case 1Case 2
NameFruitNameFruit
6LitchiPOrange
5Apple
4NN
3
2POrangeLitchi
1Apple

Statement  1:

I. Box which contains Guava and Litchi are kept together. Box R, which neither contains Guava nor contains Litchi, is kept at a gap of two from box M. Box which contains Guava is kept at a gap of three from box Q.

No.Case 1
NameFruit
6MLitchi
5Guava
4N
3R
2POrange
1QApple

⇒ Case 2 is eliminated.

⇒ This statement is not sufficient to answer how many boxes are kept below one contains Papaya.

Statement 2:

II. R which contains Mango is kept at a gap of two from box M, which neither contains Guava nor kept adjacent to box P. Only two boxes are kept between box Q and one which contains box Papaya.

No.Case 1
NameFruit
6MLitchi
5
4NPapaya
3RMango
2POrange
1QApple

⇒ Case 2 is eliminated.

⇒ This statement is sufficient to answer how many boxes are kept below one contains Papaya.

The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.

Input: Lion Meat Pour Step Tear Fat Gel Pot Mud

Step I: Meat Pour Step Tear inol Aft Gel Pot Mud

Step II: Pour Step Tear Aetm inol Aft Egl Pot Mud

Step III: Step Tear Orup Aetm inol  Aft Egl Opt Mud

Step IV: Tear Epts Orup Aetm inol Aft Egl Opt Dmu

Step V: Aert Epts Orup Aetm inol Aft Egl Opt Dmu

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the answer to each of the following questions for the Input given below.

Input: Head Pain Road Test Year Mad Red Wow Cup

Question 183

Which of the following is the third element from the left end in step V?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ainp

  2. BOption (b)

    Adeh

  3. COption (c)

    Der

  4. DOption (d)

    Ador

  5. EOption (e)

    Oww

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ador

Why this answer is correct

When we see each step, then we can find that

For the four letter word: The first alphabet of every four letter word shift to the end of the word and remaining letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

For the three letter word: The Letters in word are arranged in alphabetical orders.

All the words are arranged one by one

Input: Head Pain Road Test Year Mad Red Wow Cup

Step I: Pain Road Test Year Adeh Adm Red Wow Cup

Step II: Road Test Year Ainp Adeh Adm Der Wow Cup

Step III: Test Year Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cup

Step IV: Year Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

Step V: Aery Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

From above we know that the third element in Step V is 'Ador'

Question 184

What is the position of "Year" from "Ainp" in step III?

  1. AOption (a)

    3rd to the left

  2. BOption (b)

    2nd to the left

  3. COption (c)

    Immediate left

  4. DOption (d)

    3rd to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2nd to the left

Why this answer is correct

When we see each step, then we can find that

For the four letter word: The first alphabet of every four letter word shift to the end of the word and remaining letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

For the three letter word: The Letters in word are arranged in alphabetical orders.

All the words are arranged one by one

Input: Head Pain Road Test Year Mad Red Wow Cup

Step I: Pain Road Test Year Adeh Adm Red Wow Cup

Step II: Road Test Year Ainp Adeh Adm Der Wow Cup

Step III: Test Year Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cup

Step IV: Year Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

Step V: Aery Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

As we can see that Year is 2nd to the left of Ainp in step III.

Question 185

Which word comes exectly between "Estt" and "Ainp" in step V of the given input?

  1. AOption (a)

    Adm

  2. BOption (b)

    Test

  3. COption (c)

    Ador

  4. DOption (d)

    Aery

  5. EOption (e)

    Adeh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ador

Why this answer is correct

When we see each step, then we can find that

For the four letter word: The first alphabet of every four letter word shift to the end of the word and remaining letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

For the three letter word: The Letters in word are arranged in alphabetical orders.

All the words are arranged one by one

Input: Head Pain Road Test Year Mad Red Wow Cup

Step I: Pain Road Test Year Adeh Adm Red Wow Cup

Step II: Road Test Year Ainp Adeh Adm Der Wow Cup

Step III: Test Year Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cup

Step IV: Year Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

Step V: Aery Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

In Step V Ador comes exactly between Estt and Ainp.

Question 186

In which step are the elements 'Year Ador Ainp' found in the same order?

  1. AOption (a)

    Second

  2. BOption (b)

    Fourth

  3. COption (c)

    Third

  4. DOption (d)

    Fifth

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Third

Why this answer is correct

When we see each step, then we can find that

For the four letter word: The first alphabet of every four letter word shift to the end of the word and remaining letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

For the three letter word: The Letters in word are arranged in alphabetical orders.

All the words are arranged one by one

Input: Head Pain Road Test Year Mad Red Wow Cup

Step I: Pain Road Test Year Adeh Adm Red Wow Cup

Step II: Road Test Year Ainp Adeh Adm Der Wow Cup

Step III: Test Year Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cup

Step IV: Year Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

Step V: Aery Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

In step III Year Ador Ainp are in same order.

Question 187

Which of the following combinations represents the first two and last two elements in step IV of the given input?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aery, Ador and Oww, Cpu

  2. BOption (b)

    Year, Estt and Oww, Cpu

  3. COption (c)

    Year Estt and Der, Oww

  4. DOption (d)

    Aery, Estt and Cpu, Oww

  5. EOption (e)

    Ador,Aery and Cup, Oww

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Year, Estt and Oww, Cpu

Why this answer is correct

When we see each step, then we can find that

For the four letter word: The first alphabet of every four letter word shift to the end of the word and remaining letters are arranged in alphabetical order.

For the three letter word: The Letters in word are arranged in alphabetical orders.

All the words are arranged one by one

Input: Head Pain Road Test Year Mad Red Wow Cup

Step I: Pain Road Test Year Adeh Adm Red Wow Cup

Step II: Road Test Year Ainp Adeh Adm Der Wow Cup

Step III: Test Year Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cup

Step IV: Year Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

Step V: Aery Estt Ador Ainp Adeh Adm Der Oww Cpu

from the above steps it is clear that Year, Estt and Oww, Cpu represents the first two and last two elements in step IV.

Question 188

Seven persons namely – Pavi, Queen, Rani, Sahil, Teju, Uma and Vani have different salaries, Salary of how many people are less than Queen?

I. Salary of Pavi is more than Rani and Queen but not as much as Vani. The salary of Rani is more than Teju and Sahil but not as much as Pavi and Vani. Salary of Teju is only more than two Person and salary of Uma is lowest.

II. Salary of Queen is more than that Sahil and Uma but not as much as Vani and Rani. The salary of Teju is more than Sahil and Uma but not as much as Pavi and Rani. Salary of Vani is the highest, and Salary of Sahil is not lowest.

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. b) Ic) d) . e)

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

From statement I,

  1. Vani > Pavi > Rani, Queen.
  2. Pavi, Vani > Rani > Teju, Sahil.
  3. Salary of Teju is only more than two Person.
  4. Salary of Uma is the lowest, which means the salary of Teju is more than Uma. 
Salary (Decreasing order)VaniPaviRaniQueen/ SahilTejuSahil/ QueenUma

 

The exact salary position of Q is not known. Thus, the result can’t be determined.

Hence, statement I is not sufficient.

From statement II,

  1. Vani, Rani > Queen > Sahil, Uma.
  2. Pavi, Rani > Teju > Sahil, Uma.
  3. Salary of Vani is the highest, and the Salary of Sahil is not the lowest, which means the salary of Uma is the lowest.
Salary (Decreasing order)VaniPavi / RaniRani / PaviQueen/ TejaTeja / QueenSahilUma

 

The exact salary position of Q is not known. Thus, the result can’t be determined.

Hence, statement II is not sufficient.

From statements I and II: 

Salary (Decreasing order)VaniPaviRaniQueenTejaSahilUma

 

Thus, the salary of only three persons are less than Queen.

Hence, statement I and II together are sufficient.

Question 189

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are living in an eight-storey building where the bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and the floor just above it as 2 and so on. One floor is vacant. Only one person lives on one floor. In which floor does F live?

I) One of the odd numbered floors is vacant. C lives in an odd floor below D who lives in an even numbered floor but not on the top floor. D is not immediate above C. 3 people lives between D and G.

II) Number of floors above E is one more than the number of floors below E. The number of persons live between A and E is same as the number of persons live between E and G. A lives on the top floor. B lives immediate above G.

  1. AOption (a)

    I is alone sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    II is alone sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements are not sufficient

  4. DOption (d)

    Either I or II alone sufficient

  5. EOption (e)

    Both statements are needed to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Both statements are needed to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I:

i) C lives in an odd floor below D who lives in an even numbered floor but not on the top floor.

ii) 3 people lives between D and G.

iii) One of the odd numbered floors is vacant.

FloorCase ICase IICase IIICase IVCase VCase VICase VIICase VIIICase IXCase XCase XI
8GGG
7vacantvacantvacantvacant
6DDDDDDDD
5vacantvacantvacantvacant
4DDD
3vacantvacantCCCCC
2GGGGGG
1CCCCCCvacantGG

Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:

i) Number of floors above E is one more than the number of floors below E.

ii) A lives on the top floor.

iii) The number of persons live between A and E is same as the number of persons live between E and G.

iv) B lives immediate above G.

FloorPerson
8A
7
6
5
4E
3
2B
1G

Here, floor 7 or 5 will be vacant.

Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

If we combine the both statement we get,

FloorCase IV
8A
7
6D
5-
4E
3C
2B
1G

Therefore, the final solution is,

FloorPerson
8A
7F
6D
5-
4E
3C
2B
1G

Both statements are needed to answer the question.

Question 190

In the following question, five different words are given in the options. Along with each word, positions of four letters in that word are given and the positions of the letters are counted from the left end of the word. Four lettered meaningful word can be formed from the letters corresponding to the positions given in each option without jumbling the letters. Which of the following options will give a meaningful English word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Claustrophobia – 2, 7, 12, 14

  2. BOption (b)

    Photosynthesis – 2, 7, 8, 12

  3. COption (c)

    Incomprehensive – 3, 4, 10, 12

  4. DOption (d)

    Notwithstanding – 4, 5, 11, 12

  5. EOption (e)

    Parallelogram – 6, 7, 12, 13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Notwithstanding – 4, 5, 11, 12

Why this answer is correct

Given wordsSelected lettersNew word
Claustrophobial, r, b, a-
Photosynthesish, y, n, s-
Incomprehensivec, o, e, s-
Notwithstandingw, i, n, dWind
Parallelograml, e, a, m-

Hence, notwithstanding is the correct answer.

190 questions in the full paper