SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 10 April 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is April 1, 2025.

In News

• The new guidelines for Priority Sector Lending (PSL) announced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will come into effect from April 1, 2025.

Key Points

• The new PSL guidelines are designed to improve credit access to priority sectors, with a focus on renewable energy, housing, and the weaker sections.
• Loan limits for housing and renewable energy projects have been increased to provide greater financial access.
• The updated rules apply to commercial banks, RRBs, SFBs, LABs, and UCBs, with the exception of Salary Earners’ Banks.

Additional Information

• Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
• PSL refers to the policy that ensures financial institutions allocate a portion of their lending to sectors that contribute significantly to economic development, such as agriculture, housing, renewable energy, and education.
• RBI's Role in PSL Guidelines
• The RBI has been actively revising PSL guidelines to ensure better financial inclusion and support to essential sectors of the economy.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• Statement 1 is correct: The EASE reforms have evolved from EASE 1.0 to EASE 7.0, focusing on digital customer experience, analytics, and technology-enabled capabilities in PSBs.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Gross NPAs have decreased from Rs. 10.36 lakh crore in March 2018 to Rs. 4.75 lakh crore in March 2024, not increased.
• Statement 3 is correct: Initiatives like PMJDY have made significant progress in ensuring financial inclusion for marginalized communities.

Key Points

• The EASE reforms, particularly from EASE 1.0 to 7.0, have focused on improving digital customer experience, using analytics, and building capabilities in Public Sector Banks.
• The reduction of NPAs has been a significant achievement due to measures like the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) and the SARFAESI Act.
• DFS's financial inclusion efforts through PMJDY and other schemes have enabled millions of citizens, especially from marginalized groups, to access essential banking and insurance services.

Additional Information

• EASE Reforms
• The EASE reforms have been instrumental in transforming Public Sector Banks and improving their customer service and digital capabilities.
• Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)
• The reduction of NPAs from Rs. 10.36 lakh crore in 2018 to Rs. 4.75 lakh crore in 2024 is a major success of DFS’s strategic interventions.

The correct answer is Assam.

In News

• The Assam State Disaster Management Authority (ASDMA) signed an MoU with the Geological Survey of India (GSI) to develop a regional landslide early warning system.

Key Points

• The MoU aims to combat the recurring issue of landslides in Assam, particularly in the districts of Dima Hasao and Cachar.
• The system will incorporate landslide susceptibility maps, rainfall forecasts, and other dynamic data for early landslide predictions.
• The warning system will be expanded to other landslide-prone areas across the state.

Additional Information

• Bhooskhalan App
• The GSI has launched the “Bhooskhalan” App for people, institutions, and agencies to report landslides, aiding in prediction and mitigation efforts.
• GSI’s Bhusanket Portal
• The portal provides all updates related to landslides across India, helping in better coordination and timely action.

The correct answer is President of India.

In News

• The President of India heads the Red Cross Society in India.

Key Points

• The Red Cross Society in India is headed by the President of India, who holds the position of the President of the Society.
• The Red Cross is a humanitarian organization focused on providing aid in emergencies, including natural disasters, health crises, and conflict situations.
• The Union Health Minister is often involved with the operations and policy-making of the Red Cross Society, but the President of India serves as the head of the organization.

Additional Information

• Red Cross Society
• Founded in 1964 in India, it is part of the global Red Cross movement.
• It provides disaster relief, health services, and educational programs across the country.
• Role of President of India
• The President of India’s role in the Red Cross Society emphasizes the importance of humanitarian efforts in the country.

The correct answer is Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi.

In News

• Indira Gandhi International Airport in Delhi is the first in the country to be connected to 150 destinations.
• The airport has also clocked its best-ever traffic in history, with a record number of passengers and cargo volume in November.

Key Points

• Delhi Airport has reached a milestone, becoming the first in India to connect to 150 destinations globally.
• The airport serves both domestic and international routes, with IndiGo and Air India leading the departure numbers.
• In November, the airport recorded 6.78 million passengers, the highest-ever traffic in a single month.
• Delhi Airport is also home to the longest domestic flight within India, from Delhi to Port Blair.

Additional Information

• Indira Gandhi International Airport
• Located in Delhi, it is the largest airport in India in terms of passenger traffic.
• The airport has consistently ranked among the top airports in Asia for quality services and operational efficiency.
• Aviation Growth in India
• India's aviation industry has seen substantial growth, with Delhi Airport playing a crucial role in connecting the country globally.

The Correct Answer is 300 mn

Explanation:

• India aims to expand its steel production capacity to 300 million tons by 2030, as announced by Steel Secretary Sandeep Poundrik.
• This target is part of the government's strategy to reduce import dependence and support domestic industry.
• In fiscal year 2024-25, India's crude steel production stood at 151.1 million tons, with a total steelmaking capacity nearing 200 million tons.
• Achieving this target will require significant investments and efforts to enhance production capabilities.

The correct answer is 16.

In News

• The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has 16 benches across India.

Key Points

• NCLT has 16 benches across India, located in various cities including New Delhi, Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Bengaluru, and others.
• There is a principal bench located in New Delhi.
• The benches are located in cities such as Chennai, Kolkata, Mumbai, and Hyderabad, among others.

Additional Information

• National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
• NCLT is a quasi-judicial body in India that adjudicates issues related to companies, insolvency, and corporate governance.
• Principal Bench
• The principal bench of NCLT is located in New Delhi, and it oversees the functioning of all the other benches across India.

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

• India has shared its Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) with Nepal, Bhutan, and Namibia.
• These countries have used EVMs manufactured in India, with technical assistance provided by the Election Commission of India.

Key Points

• India has shared its EVMs with Nepal, Bhutan, and Namibia for use in their elections.
• The Election Commission of India has also provided technical assistance to these countries for using the EVMs.
• These countries have used EVMs manufactured in India to conduct their elections with greater transparency and efficiency.

Additional Information

• Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
• EVMs are used to electronically record votes, making the election process more efficient and transparent.
• India has been a leader in developing and exporting EVM technology to various countries.
• Election Commission of India (ECI)
• The Election Commission of India is responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in India and has also assisted other nations with election technologies.

The correct answer is Both IN-SPACe and DoT.

In News

• Satellite communication services in India require approval from the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).

Key Points

• DoT handles licensing and spectrum allocation for satellite communication services.
• Other approvals may be needed from organizations like TRAI and WPC Wing for spectrum pricing and coordination.
• Companies wishing to offer satellite communication services in India must navigate the approval processes of both IN-SPACe and DoT.

Additional Information

• IN-SPACe
• IN-SPACe promotes and regulates the non-government space sector in India, assessing the technical and safety aspects of satellite systems.
• Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
• DoT handles the telecom regulatory aspects, including licensing and spectrum allocation for satellite communication services.
• Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
• TRAI regulates spectrum pricing and frameworks for telecom services, including satellite communication.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• Statement 1 is correct: The interest rate for SCSS in the first quarter of the financial year 2025-26 is 8.2%.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The maximum deposit allowed in the SCSS is Rs. 30 lakhs, not Rs. 50 lakhs.
• Statement 3 is correct: The tenure of SCSS is 5 years, and it can be extended for an additional 3 years with an application.

Key Points

• The current interest rate for SCSS is 8.2% for the first quarter of FY 2025-26.
• The maximum deposit allowed is Rs. 30 lakhs, and interest payments are credited quarterly.
• The tenure of SCSS is 5 years, with the option to extend for an additional 3 years.

Additional Information

• SCSS Scheme
• SCSS is a government-backed scheme designed to provide a steady income for senior citizens post-retirement.
• The scheme offers security, with a guaranteed return upon maturity.
• Tax Exemption
• The SCSS scheme is eligible for deductions under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, but the interest earned is fully taxable.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

In News

• Uttar Pradesh has the most centrally protected monuments or sites in India, with 743 sites, according to the Press Information Bureau.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh tops India with the most centrally protected monuments, with 743 sites managed by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
• Karnataka leads South India with 506 ASI-protected monuments, while Tamil Nadu follows with 412.
• Maharashtra has the highest number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India, distinct from ASI-protected monuments.

Additional Information

• Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
• The ASI is responsible for preserving and managing India's historic sites and monuments.
• It manages many sites, including those that are of national importance, to protect India's cultural heritage.
• UNESCO World Heritage Sites
• These sites are globally recognized for their universal value and are protected internationally.
• Maharashtra leads India in the number of such sites, which are separate from ASI-protected monuments.

The correct answer is Cambodia.

In News

• The military exercise CINBAX is conducted between India and Cambodia, focusing on planning and counter-terrorism operations.

Key Points

• CINBAX is a bilateral army exercise between India and Cambodia aimed at improving counter-terrorism operations and military cooperation.
• The first edition of CINBAX took place in December 2024 in Pune, India.
• The exercise focuses on planning and joint counter-terrorism operations between the two nations' military forces.

Additional Information

• India-Cambodia Relations
• India and Cambodia have strengthened their defense and military cooperation through joint exercises like CINBAX.
• These exercises enhance bilateral ties and focus on counter-terrorism and regional security issues.
• Military Exercises in India
• India regularly conducts military exercises with several countries to strengthen defense relations and share counter-terrorism techniques.

The correct answer is Rs. 1 lakh.

In News

• Each Women SHG under the Namo Drone Didi scheme is expected to earn an additional income of Rs. 1 lakh per year.

Key Points

• The Namo Drone Didi scheme provides drone technology to Women SHGs to offer agricultural services like pesticide and fertilizer application.
• The expected additional income for each Women SHG is Rs. 1 lakh per year through the rental services they provide to farmers.
• The scheme also offers training in drone technology, empowering women with advanced skills in modern agriculture.
• Women SHGs are provided with 80% subsidy on the cost of drones, with an easy loan facility for the remaining cost.

Additional Information

• Namo Drone Didi Scheme
• Provides subsidies and loans to Women SHGs to purchase drones for agricultural services.
• Training in drone technology is provided to enhance agricultural efficiency, reducing the use of chemicals and minimizing environmental impact.
• Empowerment of Women in Agriculture
• The scheme empowers women with essential skills in drone technology, contributing to their economic and social empowerment.

The correct answer is Commercial mining.

In News

• Commercial mining is prohibited in Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) as part of efforts to protect the environment and preserve biodiversity.

Key Points

• Commercial mining is prohibited in ESZs to prevent environmental degradation and preserve the fragile ecosystem around protected areas.
• Permitted activities include ongoing agricultural practices, organic farming, rainwater harvesting, and use of renewable energy sources.
• The aim of ESZs is to minimize the impact of human activities on national parks and wildlife sanctuaries while allowing for sustainable practices.

Additional Information

• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs)
• ESZs are designated around protected areas to reduce the impact of surrounding development and preserve the natural environment.
• Activities like commercial mining, saw mills, and industrial pollution are prohibited in ESZs.
• Significance of ESZs
• They minimize forest depletion, man-animal conflict, and negative impacts on fragile ecosystems.
• ESZs play a role in in-situ conservation and help preserve biodiversity in and around protected areas.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

In News

• Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) advanced to the 86th position in the 2024 Fortune Global 500 list, a significant climb from its previous position of 88th in 2023.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is correct: RIL secured the 86th position in the 2024 Fortune Global 500 list, advancing two places from its position last year.
• Statement 2 is correct: RIL has climbed 69 places from its 155th position in 2021 to its current 86th position in 2024.
• Statement 3 is correct: RIL's total revenue for FY24 is Rs 10,00,122 crore, with a 16.1% increase in EBITDA year-on-year.

Additional Information

• Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)
• RIL is the highest-ranked Indian corporation in the Fortune Global 500 list for the 21st consecutive year.
• The company's strategic growth across multiple sectors, including Oil to Chemicals, Oil & Gas, Retail, and Digital Services, has contributed significantly to its rise in rankings.
• Fortune Global 500 List
• The Fortune Global 500 list ranks companies based on their total revenue, with the 2023 aggregate revenue reaching a record $41 trillion.
• Reliance Industries is among the nine Indian companies featured in the 2024 list, underscoring India's growing presence in global business.

The correct answer is 4 years.

In News

• The tenure of a Local Board Director in the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is four years.

Key Points

• The term of a Local Board Director is set at four years as per the RBI Act.
• Local Board Directors are eligible for reappointment after their initial four-year term, with a maximum of two terms allowed.
• They are appointed by the Central Government and represent various territorial, economic, and banking interests.
• Local Boards advise the Central Board and perform delegated functions across four geographical areas: Western, Eastern, Northern, and Southern India.

Additional Information

• RBI Act and Local Board Directors
• Local Board Directors serve to represent specific regions and economic interests within the RBI's organizational structure.
• Their term limits and reappointment rules ensure balanced representation and governance within the RBI.
• RBI's Advisory Role
• Local Boards provide important advice on various economic and banking matters to the Central Board of the RBI.

The correct answer is Metropolitan.

In News

• The "M" in MSE stands for "Metropolitan," referring to the Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India.

Key Points

• MSE stands for Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India, a recognized stock exchange in India.
• It is recognized by SEBI and is regulated under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.
• MSE offers trading in Capital Markets, Futures & Options, Currency Derivatives, and Debt Markets.
• It also provides a platform for SME trading, with an in-principle approval from SEBI.

Additional Information

• Metropolitan Stock Exchange of India (MSE)
• Launched in 2008, the exchange provides a hi-tech platform for trading in various market segments.
• The MSE launched the SX40 index, a benchmark index representing large-cap stocks from diverse sectors.
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
• SEBI regulates the functioning of stock exchanges and other capital market participants in India.

The correct answer is December 31, 2026.

In News

• The deadline for implementing the 30% market share cap on third-party UPI apps like PhonePe and Google Pay has been extended to December 31, 2026.

Key Points

• The deadline for implementing the 30% market share cap on third-party UPI apps has been extended to December 31, 2026, as per the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• The extension provides more time for major third-party apps like PhonePe and Google Pay to comply with the cap.
• This cap was introduced by the NPCI to address concentration risks and foster healthy competition within the UPI ecosystem.
• Third-party UPI apps exceeding the cap may need to stop onboarding new customers to comply with the new guidelines.

Additional Information

• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
• NPCI is responsible for managing the UPI ecosystem in India and ensuring its efficient functioning.
• It introduced the market share cap to avoid over-dependence on major players like PhonePe and Google Pay.
• Third-Party UPI Apps
• Third-party apps like PhonePe, Google Pay, and Paytm have become integral in driving UPI adoption in India.
• These apps handle a significant share of UPI transactions and are subject to new regulations to ensure a competitive ecosystem.

The correct answer is 7.

In News

• UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is operational and accepted for payments in seven countries.

Key Points

• UPI is operational in seven countries: Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• UPI allows NRIs from various countries to make INR transactions in India.
• UPI is widely regarded as a revolutionary payment system for its ease of use and accessibility.
• The countries where UPI is accepted have started to embrace digital payments, enhancing cross-border transactions.

Additional Information

• UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
• UPI is a real-time payment system that enables instant money transfers between bank accounts on a mobile platform.
• Developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), UPI is rapidly expanding globally.
• Countries with UPI
• Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and the UAE are among the countries where UPI is accepted.
• UPI facilitates both cross-border remittances and payments in these countries.

The correct answer is Rs. 500.

In News

• The minimum deposit required to open a Post Office Savings Account is Rs. 500.

Key Points

• The minimum deposit to open a Post Office Savings Account is Rs. 500.
• The maximum amount that can be deposited in the account is unlimited, but there are limits for joint accounts (up to Rs. 2 lakh).
• There is no lock-in or maturity date for the Post Office Savings Account, making it an accessible and flexible option for depositors.
• The account offers an interest rate of 4.00% per annum, which is beneficial for individuals seeking a secure investment option.

Additional Information

• Post Office Savings Account
• Provides a guaranteed return on investment, making it suitable for senior citizens and risk-averse individuals.
• Interest earned is exempt from income tax under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.
• How to Open a Post Office Savings Account
• Visit the nearest post office or the India Post website to get the application form.
• Submit required documents and a passport-sized photograph along with the deposit.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• PMMVY provides cash incentives for pregnant women and lactating mothers to compensate for wage loss before and after childbirth.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is correct: PMMVY aims to provide partial wage compensation to pregnant women and lactating mothers before and after childbirth.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Women who have had a miscarriage or stillbirth are eligible to re-register for any future pregnancies under PMMVY.
• Statement 3 is correct: The PMMVY benefit for the first child is provided in two instalments—₹3000 after the Ante-Natal Check-up and ₹2000 after childbirth and immunization.

Additional Information

• PMMVY Scheme
• PMMVY provides ₹5000 for the first child in two instalments and ₹6000 for the second child if it is a girl.
• The scheme covers women from marginalized and disadvantaged sections of society.
• Eligibility Criteria for PMMVY
• Eligible women include those with a BPL ration card, under Ayushman Bharat (PMJAY), or with a job card under MGNREGA.
• The age of the beneficiary should be between 18 years 7 months and 55 years at the time of childbirth.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

In News

• The Tri-Junction corridor is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh, and it is a key route for elephants migrating from Karnataka and Tamil Nadu into southern Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Tri-Junction corridor is a crucial migration path for elephants moving from Karnataka and Tamil Nadu into Andhra Pradesh.
• It is the sole passage for elephants dispersing from these two states into southern Andhra Pradesh.
• The corridor is specifically mentioned as being essential for elephant movement, connecting important habitats in these states.
• Elephant migration through this corridor plays a significant role in preserving biodiversity and maintaining wildlife ecosystems.

Additional Information

• Elephant Corridors in India
• Elephant corridors are vital for maintaining genetic diversity and enabling seasonal migration of elephants.
• India has several elephant corridors, including the Tri-Junction corridor in Andhra Pradesh.
• Elephant Conservation
• Conservation efforts are crucial for protecting elephants in India due to habitat fragmentation and poaching.
• Protected areas and corridors are essential for mitigating human-elephant conflicts.

The correct answer is Kerala.

In News

• Kerala is the largest producer of rubber in India, contributing over 90% of the country's total rubber production.

Key Points

• Kerala's ideal climate and extensive rubber plantations make it the leading state in rubber cultivation in India.
• Kerala's contribution to India's rubber production exceeds 90%, far surpassing the output of all other states combined.
• The state's favorable conditions, such as a warm and humid climate with abundant rainfall, are ideal for rubber cultivation.
• Other states contributing to India's rubber production include Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Tripura, Assam, and Meghalaya.

Additional Information

• Rubber Cultivation
• Ideal climate for rubber cultivation includes warm temperatures and high humidity.
• Rubber trees require abundant rainfall throughout the year.
• Top Rubber Producing States
• Kerala leads the country in rubber production.
• Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are other major contributors to India's rubber output.

The correct answer is Bank of Maharashtra.

In News

• The Core Committee appointed by the Reserve Bank of India identified six core promoters for CCIL, which includes several banks.

Key Points

• The six core promoters for CCIL are State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd, ICICI Bank Ltd, Bank of Baroda, HDFC Bank Ltd, and Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
• LIC is a life insurance company, not a commercial bank, which makes it different from the other core promoters, who are all commercial banks.
• The company was incorporated with an authorized equity share capital of Rs. 50 Crores.
• The company has also authorized, subscribed, issued, and paid-up preference share capital of Rs 50 crores comprising 5 crore 8.5% redeemable non-convertible cumulative preference shares.

Additional Information

• State Bank of India (SBI)
• Founded in - 1955
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• MD & CEO - Dinesh Kumar Khara
• IDBI Bank Ltd
• Founded in - 1964
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• MD & CEO - Rakesh Sharma
• ICICI Bank Ltd
• Founded in - 1994
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi
• HDFC Bank Ltd
• Founded in - 1994
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• MD & CEO - Sashidhar Jagdishan
• Bank of Baroda
• Founded in - 1908
• Headquarters - Vadodara, Gujarat
• MD & CEO - Sanjiv Chadha

The correct answer is World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).

In News

• The Lisbon System, administered by WIPO, protects appellations of origin (AOs) and geographical indications (GIs).

Key Points

• The Lisbon System is an international agreement focused on protecting the origins of products linked to a specific geographical area.
• It simplifies the registration process by offering a single international registration for multiple countries, rather than requiring separate national registrations.
• The system helps protect unique product characteristics, such as "Champagne" for sparkling wine from the Champagne region of France.
• The system is governed by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) and is legally established through the Lisbon Agreement and its Geneva Act.

Additional Information

• World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
• Founded in - 1967
• Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland
• Focuses on promoting the protection of intellectual property worldwide
• Lisbon Agreement
• Signed in 1958
• It provides the legal framework for the Lisbon System.
• Geographical Indications (GIs)
• GIs protect products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation due to that origin.
• Examples: "Darjeeling tea," "Roquefort cheese."

The correct answer is Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

In News

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the primary regulator for Venture Capital Funds (VCFs) in India.

Key Points

• Venture Capital Funds (VCFs) are now categorized under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012, which replaced the earlier SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996.
• SEBI regulates the capital market in India, and venture capital funds fall under its jurisdiction as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).
• To operate in India, venture capital funds must be registered with SEBI as AIFs under the 2012 regulations.

Additional Information

• SEBI's Role
• SEBI oversees the functioning of various financial market intermediaries, including VCFs, and ensures their compliance with regulations to protect investors and promote market integrity.
• Venture Capital Funds
• Venture capital funds are an essential source of funding for startups and emerging companies, typically investing in high-risk, high-reward opportunities.

The correct answer is NMDC and Odisha Mining Corporation (OMC).

In News

• Tata Steel is partnering with state-run miners NMDC and Odisha Mining Corporation (OMC) to secure its future iron ore supply as it expands steel production capacity.

Key Points

• Tata Steel is actively engaging with NMDC and OMC to secure its long-term iron ore supply.
• The company plans to operationalize new iron ore mines, Kalamang West and Gandalpada, to meet its future iron ore needs.
• These partnerships are a key part of Tata Steel’s strategy to ensure a steady supply of iron ore as it works to increase steel production capacity from 22 MTPA to 40 MTPA by 2030.

Additional Information

• Tata Steel’s Strategy for Growth
• Tata Steel plans to produce over 60 million tonnes of iron ore annually to meet its production needs as it aims to increase its steel production capacity by 2030.
• NMDC and OMC
• NMDC and OMC are state-run enterprises in India that supply iron ore, playing a crucial role in Tata Steel’s iron ore procurement strategy.

The correct answer is 20.85%.

In News

• The Government of India holds the largest share in SIDBI, with a 20.85% stake as of March 31, 2024.

Key Points

• The Government of India is the largest shareholder in SIDBI, holding 20.85% of its shares.
• State Bank of India (SBI) holds 15.65%, and the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) owns 13.33% of SIDBI's shares.
• Other Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and institutions hold the remaining shares in SIDBI.

Additional Information

• SIDBI Overview
• The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is a key financial institution aimed at supporting the growth of micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in India.
• Government’s Role in SIDBI
• The Government of India’s large shareholding reflects its strong involvement in the development and support of MSMEs in the country through SIDBI.

The correct answer is Thiruvananthapuram.

In News

• The National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) is headquartered in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, India.

Key Points

• NCESS is an autonomous research center under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), focusing on the evolution of the Earth.
• It is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, which is the hub of earth science research in India.
• The research center plays a key role in studying the Earth’s processes and contributing to environmental conservation and sustainability.

Additional Information

• Role of NCESS
• NCESS focuses on scientific research in the field of Earth sciences, specifically in the areas of geology, oceanography, and environmental science.
• Ministry of Earth Sciences
• The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is responsible for promoting and managing research in Earth science disciplines and coordinating activities in related fields.

The correct answer is Rice.

In News

• Rice is not included under the Shree Anna scheme, which focuses on millets such as Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, and Kodo.

Key Points

• Shree Anna refers to millets, such as Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, Kodo, Sama, and others, which are rich in nutrients and have various health benefits.
• Rice is a staple grain but is not part of the Shree Anna scheme, which focuses on coarse grains, also known as millets.
• Millets, including those in the Shree Anna scheme, are promoted for their health benefits, especially for diseases like diabetes, heart problems, and bone health.

Additional Information

• Shree Anna and Its Health Benefits
• Millets, under the Shree Anna scheme, are rich in nutrients like protein, fiber, and essential vitamins and minerals.
• They are considered superfoods, especially for their benefits in preventing and managing chronic conditions like diabetes and heart disease.
• Promotion and Export of Shree Anna
• India is the largest producer and second-largest exporter of millets, aiming to make the country a global center for millet production and consumption.

The correct answer is 30 days.

In News

• The general time limit for filing an appeal against an order by the Committee or Board under the Juvenile Justice Act is 30 days from the date of the order.

Key Points

• The appeal is typically made to the Children's Court, except in cases concerning Foster Care or Sponsorship After Care, where the appeal lies with the District Magistrate.
• If the appeal is filed after the 30-day period, the court or magistrate can still entertain it if a genuine reason for the delay is provided, and the appeal must be resolved within 30 days of being filed.
• In cases involving heinous offenses, the appeal against the Board's order is directed to the Court of Sessions.

Additional Information

• Juvenile Justice Act
• The Juvenile Justice Act provides legal provisions for the care, protection, treatment, development, and rehabilitation of children in conflict with the law.
• Children's Court and District Magistrate
• The Children's Court hears appeals in regular cases, while the District Magistrate deals with appeals related to Foster Care or Sponsorship After Care.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

In News

• The 14th Asia-Oceania Meteorological Satellite Users’ Conference (AOMSUC-14) will be held in New Delhi from December 4 to 6, 2024.

Key Points

• The conference will be hosted by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), focusing on satellite data for weather and climate studies.
• The event will feature presentations, panel discussions, and workshops, with about 150 participants expected from various countries.
• Dr. Jitendra Singh, India’s Minister of State for Earth Sciences and Space, will inaugurate the conference.

Additional Information

• AOMSUC History
• The Asia-Oceania Meteorological Satellite Users’ Conference (AOMSUC) started in Beijing in 2010 and is now an annual event focusing on advancements in satellite technology for meteorology and climate science.
• IMD's Role
• The India Meteorological Department (IMD) plays a key role in weather forecasting, climate monitoring, and the use of satellite data for environmental research in India.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

In News

• The 14th meeting of the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) Experts Working Group (EWG) on Counter-Terrorism will be held in New Delhi from March 19 to 20, 2025.

Key Points

• The ADMM-Plus EWG meeting on Counter-Terrorism will take place in New Delhi, India, marking India’s first time co-chairing the meeting with Malaysia.
• The meeting will involve delegations from 10 ASEAN member countries and 8 dialogue partners, focusing on counter-terrorism strategies and cooperation.
• This marks the start of a three-year cycle of activities under the Counter-Terrorism EWG, with plans for exercises, seminars, and workshops.

Additional Information

• ADMM-Plus Framework
• The ADMM-Plus framework promotes practical defence cooperation and focuses on key areas such as counter-terrorism, maritime security, and cybersecurity among ASEAN nations and dialogue partners.
• Counter-Terrorism Cooperation
• Member nations will share their experiences and work towards developing strategies for combating terrorism and extremism in the region.

The correct answer is 1206.79 LMT.

In News

• The Kharif rice production for the year 2024-25 is 1206.79 LMT, a record achievement.

Key Points

• The Second Advance Estimates for 2024-25 have highlighted a record Kharif rice production of 1206.79 LMT.
• This record production is a result of continuous efforts and schemes introduced by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
• Kharif rice production is part of a larger effort to increase foodgrain yields and support farmers in India.

Additional Information

• Kharif and Rabi Crops in India
• India’s agricultural production is divided into two main seasons: Kharif (monsoon) and Rabi (winter), with rice and wheat being the key crops.
• Record production in Kharif crops, like rice and maize, showcases the progress made in agricultural production in the country.
• Government Initiatives for Farmers
• Various schemes and reforms by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare have contributed to the increased productivity of essential crops.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• Statement 1 is correct: The VGF scheme includes the installation of 1 GW of offshore wind energy projects with an outlay of Rs. 7453 crore, focusing on Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The VGF support covers up to 40% of the total project cost, not 50%.
• Statement 3 is correct: The scheme is overseen by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, aiming to reduce the cost of offshore wind power and make it viable for DISCOMs.

Key Points

• The VGF scheme is designed to make offshore wind energy projects financially viable by covering up to 40% of the project cost.
• The scheme is a key part of the National Offshore Wind Energy Policy, which was notified in 2015.
• This initiative aims to boost renewable energy generation in India, with a focus on Gujarat and Tamil Nadu for offshore wind energy projects.

Additional Information

• Viability Gap Funding (VGF) Scheme
• VGF is a government grant aimed at supporting infrastructure projects that are economically justified but not financially viable.
• Offshore Wind Energy in India
• Offshore wind energy is a renewable source that provides higher reliability and reduced storage needs, making it a promising option for India’s energy future.

The correct answer is Applicants seeking passport renewal with a short validity period.

In News

• Applicants seeking passport renewal with a short validity period are not eligible for the Tatkal passport scheme.

Key Points

• Tatkal passports are issued for urgent travel needs, but certain individuals, such as those with a short validity renewal requirement, are excluded.
• Individuals who have a lost or stolen passport or those who require a name change are also ineligible for Tatkal passports.
• Minors with separated parents or children born through surrogacy are allowed to apply, with proper documentation, but may face additional checks.

Additional Information

• Tatkal Passport Eligibility
• Both adults and minors can apply for a Tatkal passport if they meet the urgency criteria and provide required documents.
• The key eligibility factors include having a clean police record and the absence of any legal restrictions on the applicant.

The correct answer is 12.

In News

• All the coastal State/Union Territories have already enacted their Marine Fishing Regulation Acts (MFRAs) / Marine Fishing Regulations to govern fishing activities within 12 nautical miles of territorial waters.
  

Key Points

• All the coastal State/Union Territories have already enacted their Marine Fishing Regulation Acts (MFRAs) / Marine Fishing Regulations to govern fishing activities within 12 nautical miles of territorial waters.
• The coastal States/UTs through these MFRAs have earmarked the zones/sea areas reserved for fishing only by the traditional fishermen using non-motorized and motorized fishing boats, wherein mechanized fishing vessels are not allowed to fish, e.g., Gujarat has reserved the area up to 9 nautical miles from the shore, Goa has reserved the area up to 2.7 nautical miles from the coast-line; Karnataka has reserved the area up to 3.23 nautical miles from the shore or up to 4 fathoms (whichever is farther) for traditional crafts; Tamil Nadu and Odisha have reserved the areas up to 5 nautical miles for traditional non-mechanized boats, and Andhra Pradesh has reserved the area upto 4.3 nautical miles from the shore for traditional crafts.
• Coastal States/UTs across India have set varying limits for traditional fishing zones, with no mechanized vessels allowed in these areas.
• These restrictions help protect the livelihoods of traditional fishermen and regulate fishing activities within territorial waters.

Additional Information

• Marine Fishing Regulation Acts (MFRAs)
• Each coastal state in India has enacted its own MFRA to regulate fishing activities within territorial waters, ensuring sustainable fishing practices.
• Traditional Fishing Zones
• The reserved zones help traditional fishermen access fishing grounds without competition from mechanized vessels, promoting sustainable fisheries management.

The correct answer is USD 200 mn.

In News

• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) approved a USD 200 million loan on February 26, 2025, to expand urban services in Kolkata.
• The loan aims to improve the climate and disaster-resilient sewerage and drainage infrastructure in Kolkata, West Bengal.
• The goal is to enhance Kolkata's livability by upgrading essential urban services.

Key Points

• The ADB approved a loan of USD 200 million to improve sewerage and drainage infrastructure in Kolkata.
• The project focuses on developing climate and disaster-resilient urban services in the city.
• The project aims to enhance Kolkata’s livability, making it more sustainable and adaptable to future challenges.
• The loan is part of ADB's ongoing efforts to support infrastructure development and urban resilience in India.

Additional Information

• Asian Development Bank (ADB)
• Founded in 1966
• Headquartered in Manila, Philippines
• ADB works to promote social and economic development in Asia.
• Urban Infrastructure Projects
• Urban infrastructure projects focus on enhancing essential services like water supply, drainage, sanitation, and transportation in cities.
• These projects are critical for improving the quality of life in urban areas and ensuring sustainable growth.
• Climate and Disaster-Resilient Infrastructure
• Climate-resilient infrastructure is designed to withstand the impacts of climate change, including extreme weather events.
• Disaster-resilient infrastructure aims to ensure the continuity of services during and after disasters like floods, earthquakes, and storms.

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

In News

• HDFC Bank launched India’s first PSU Salary Account, ‘Anmol Savings Account’ with cyber fraud protection in February 2025.
• The account offers cyber fraud cover of up to Rs. 1.5 lakhs for senior citizens, and Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 50,000 for professionals.
• Additionally, the ‘Speciale Gold Women’ account offers a cancer cover of up to Rs. 5 lakhs for women.

Key Points

• HDFC Bank launched India’s first PSU Salary Account, called ‘Anmol Savings Account’.
• The account comes with cyber fraud protection for senior citizens and professionals.
• HDFC Bank offers a range of protections, including cyber fraud cover and cancer cover for women.
• This account is designed to meet the specific needs of Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) employees.

Additional Information

• HDFC Bank
• Founded in 1994
• Headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra
• MD & CEO - Sashidhar Jagdishan
• PSU Salary Accounts
• These accounts are specifically tailored for employees working in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
• They offer special benefits and features such as enhanced coverage and customized banking services.
• Cyber Fraud Protection
• Cyber fraud protection provides coverage against unauthorized transactions and financial frauds that occur online.
• This is particularly useful for customers in the digital banking ecosystem.
• Speciale Gold Women Account
• This account offers benefits tailored to women, including health coverage like cancer insurance.
• It is designed to support the financial well-being of women customers.

The correct answer is Financial Literacy – Women’s Prosperity.

In News

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched Financial Literacy Week (FLW) 2025 from February 24 to February 28, 2025.
• The theme of FLW 2025 is 'Financial Literacy – Women’s Prosperity.'
• The theme is aligned with the strategic objectives of the National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025.

Key Points

• FLW 2025 was inaugurated by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra in Mumbai.
• The event focuses on enhancing financial literacy and awareness among women in India.
• The theme is part of the National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025, which aims to improve financial literacy across the country.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• Founded in 1935
• Headquartered in Mumbai
• RBI is responsible for regulating and overseeing the banking system in India.
• National Strategy for Financial Education (NSFE) 2020-2025
• NSFE aims to promote financial literacy and awareness in India to improve financial inclusion.
• The strategy emphasizes enhancing financial education at all levels of society.
• Financial Literacy Week (FLW)
• FLW is an annual event organized by RBI to raise awareness about financial literacy.
• Each year, a specific theme is chosen to focus on a key aspect of financial education.

The correct answer is  Only 1.

In News

• South Indian Bank launched "SIB QUICKPL", a fully Digital Personal Loan platform for new customers on 24 February 2025.
• SIB QUICKPL has been integrated with the Account Aggregator (AA) framework and the Income Tax portal for instant verification.

Key Points

• SIB QUICKPL is a digital platform designed by South Indian Bank for offering personal loans to new customers.
• The platform is integrated with the Account Aggregator (AA) framework, which allows for instant data verification from multiple sources.
• SIB QUICKPL also links with the Income Tax portal for quick and seamless verification of income details.
• It aims to provide an efficient and hassle-free process for applying and receiving personal loans.

Additional Information

• South Indian Bank
• Founded in 1929
• Headquartered in Thrissur, Kerala
• MD & CEO - Murali Ramakrishnan
• Account Aggregator (AA) Framework
• AA framework allows secure sharing of financial data between different institutions, enabling faster processing of financial services.
• It facilitates access to financial data for loan approvals and other financial services.
• Income Tax Portal
• The Income Tax portal is an online service provided by the Income Tax Department of India.
• It allows individuals and businesses to file income tax returns, check refund status, and access other tax-related services.

The correct answer is Paytm Money Limited.

In News

• Paytm Money Limited launches India’s first solar-powered payment soundbox for merchants in February 2025.
• The Paytm Solar Soundbox is designed for merchants to accept UPI and RuPay Credit Card payments via a QR code.
• This device offers a cost-effective, reliable, and eco-friendly solution, requiring minimal sunlight for charging, making it ideal for rural and remote areas.

Key Points

• Paytm Solar Soundbox is the first solar-powered payment device launched in India.
• It is designed to enable merchants to accept UPI and RuPay Credit Card payments using a QR code.
• The device is eco-friendly, requiring very little sunlight to charge, making it highly suitable for rural and remote areas with limited access to electricity.
• It was launched by Paytm Money Limited, a subsidiary of One97 Communications, based in Noida, Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
• UPI is a real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• It enables customers to link multiple bank accounts to one mobile application.
• RuPay Credit Card
• RuPay is India’s domestic card payment network, launched by NPCI.
• It is accepted across major payment gateways, ATMs, and point-of-sale terminals in India.
• Paytm Money Limited
• Paytm Money is a wholly-owned subsidiary of One97 Communications.
• It offers various financial services such as investments and digital payment solutions.
• Solar-Powered Devices
• Solar-powered devices rely on renewable energy from the sun to operate, making them eco-friendly and energy-efficient.
• Such devices are ideal for use in remote areas with limited electricity access.

The correct answer is Assam.

In News

• On January 1, 2025, the Government of Assam signed an MoU with the State Bank of India (SBI) and Union Bank of India (UBI) to offer insurance benefits to state government employees.
• The agreement aims to provide zero-premium insurance coverage and additional benefits to over four lakh permanent state government employees.
• The decision was made during a cabinet meeting in North Lakhimpur, Assam.
• The Assam Finance Department has been authorized to collaborate with Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) for implementation.

Key Points

• Assam signed an MoU with SBI and UBI for insurance benefits to state employees.
• Zero-premium insurance coverage will be provided to over four lakh permanent government employees.
• The initiative was approved in a cabinet meeting held in North Lakhimpur, Assam.
• A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is being prepared for smooth implementation.

Additional Information

• Assam
• Capital - Dispur
• Chief Minister - Himanta Biswa Sarma
• Governor -  Lakshman Prasad Acharya
• Major Rivers - Brahmaputra, Barak
• State Bank of India (SBI)
• Founded - 1955
• Headquarters - Mumbai
• Chairman - C S Shetty
• Largest public sector bank in India
• Union Bank of India (UBI)
• Founded - 1919
• Headquarters - Mumbai
• MD & CEO - A. Manimekhalai
• One of India’s leading public sector banks

The correct answer is State Bank of India (SBI).

In News

• On January 3, 2025, the State Bank of India (SBI) launched two new deposit schemes: the ‘Har Ghar Lakhpati Recurring Deposit (RD) scheme’ and the ‘SBI Patrons Fixed Deposit (FD) scheme’.

Key Points

• Har Ghar Lakhpati RD Scheme: A pre-calculated recurring deposit scheme designed to help customers accumulate Rs 1 lakh or multiples thereof.
• The tenure of the RD account ranges from a minimum of 12 months (1 year) to a maximum of 120 months (10 years).
• SBI Patrons FD Scheme: A new fixed deposit option designed to offer competitive interest rates and flexible tenures.
• SBI’s Other FD Schemes for Senior Citizens: The ‘SBI We-Care’ deposit scheme offers an interest rate of 7.50% for a period ranging from 5 years to less than 10 years.
• The minimum deposit amount under this scheme is Rs 1,000, with a maximum deposit of less than Rs 3 crore.

Additional Information

• State Bank of India (SBI)
• Founded in 1955, headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• India’s largest public sector bank, offering a wide range of banking and financial services.
• Har Ghar Lakhpati RD Scheme
• Aims to promote financial inclusion by encouraging small savings among households.
• Provides a structured saving plan to accumulate a corpus of Rs 1 lakh or more over time.
• SBI Patrons Fixed Deposit (FD) Scheme
• Offers attractive interest rates with flexible tenure options for fixed deposits.
• Designed to cater to the investment needs of retail and senior citizen customers.
• SBI We-Care Deposit Scheme (for Senior Citizens)
• Offers an interest rate of 7.50% for deposits with a tenure of 5 to less than 10 years.
• Minimum deposit: Rs 1,000; Maximum deposit: Less than Rs 3 crore.

The correct answer is Cosmea Financial Holdings (CFH).

In News

• Mumbai-based Cosmea Financial Holdings (CFH), led by Sam Ghosh, received approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to sponsor a Mutual Fund (MF) business.

Key Points

• Cosmea Financial Holdings (CFH) received SEBI approval in 2024 to sponsor a Mutual Fund (MF).
• The company, led by Sam Ghosh, submitted its application in May 2024.
• CFH has a 6-month window to complete the necessary registration formalities as per the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996.
• CFH plans to invest Rs 200 crore (USD 23.3 million) in its Asset Management Company (AMC).
• The AMC will focus on Quant and Smart Beta strategies to meet the growing demands of Indian investors.

Additional Information

• Cosmea Financial Holdings (CFH)
• Headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Led by Sam Ghosh, a veteran in the financial services industry.
• SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
• The regulatory body overseeing the securities market and mutual funds in India.
• Established under the SEBI Act, 1992.
• SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996
• Regulates the operations of mutual funds in India.
• Ensures transparency, investor protection, and proper governance in mutual fund businesses.
• Quant and Smart Beta Strategies
• Quant strategies: Utilize mathematical models and data analytics to make investment decisions.
• Smart Beta strategies: Focus on alternative index construction to improve returns and reduce risks compared to traditional index investing.

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

In News

• In January 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted approval to HDFC Bank to acquire up to a 9.5% stake in AU Small Finance Bank.

Key Points

• The approval allows HDFC Bank and its group entities to collectively hold up to 9.5% of the paid-up share capital or voting rights in AU Small Finance Bank.
• This permission is valid for one year, expiring on January 2, 2026.
• HDFC Bank's group entities include HDFC Mutual Fund, HDFC Life Insurance, HDFC ERGO General Insurance, HDFC Securities, and HDFC Pension Management.
• The acquisition aims to ensure that the aggregate holdings of HDFC Bank and its group entities comply with RBI's regulatory guidelines.

Additional Information

• AU Small Finance Bank
• Headquartered in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
• Established in 1996 as a vehicle finance company and converted to a small finance bank in 2017.
• Offers a range of banking products and services, including savings accounts, loans, and insurance.
• HDFC Bank
• One of India's leading private sector banks.
• Offers a wide array of financial products and services to individuals and businesses.
• Known for its strong digital banking platform and extensive branch network.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• India's central banking institution, responsible for regulating the country's monetary policy.
• Oversees the financial stability and economic growth of India.
• Regulates and supervises financial institutions, including banks and non-banking financial companies.
• Stake Acquisition in Banking
• Refers to purchasing a percentage of ownership in a financial institution.
• Requires regulatory approvals to ensure compliance with financial and legal norms.
• Aims to strengthen strategic partnerships and expand market presence.

The correct answer is Only 1 and 3.

In News

• In January 2025, RBI tightened norms for imposing monetary penalties and compounding offences under the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007.

Key Points

• RBI is empowered under Section 30 of the PSS Act, 2007, to impose a penalty of up to ₹10 lakh or twice the amount involved in the violation, whichever is higher.
• The new norms are introduced to consolidate and rationalize enforcement actions by the RBI.
• The monetary penalty or compounding amount must be paid within 30 days from the receipt of the penalty order.
• Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007
• Regulates and supervises payment systems in India.
• Provides RBI with powers to regulate and oversee digital and financial transactions.

Additional Information

• Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
• Empowers RBI to regulate and supervise all payment systems in India.
• Ensures the safety and efficiency of electronic payment and settlement systems.
• Applies to banks, financial institutions, and other payment system operators.
• Compounding of Offences under PSS Act
• Compounding allows the offender to settle the case by paying a monetary penalty.
• Ensures quicker resolution of minor regulatory breaches.
• RBI’s Role in Payment Regulation
• Regulates digital payment firms and financial institutions.
• Ensures compliance with cybersecurity and financial laws.
• Promotes digital payments and financial inclusion.

The correct answer is SBI Patrons.

In News

• In January 2025, the State Bank of India (SBI) introduced a new Term Deposit (TD) Scheme called ‘SBI Patrons’ for Super Senior Citizens (aged 80 years or above).

Key Points

• SBI Patrons is exclusively designed for Super Senior Citizens (aged 80 years and above).
• The scheme offers Term Deposit Receipt (TDR) and Short-Term Deposit Receipt (STDR) options.
• Minimum deposit amount is ₹1,000, while the maximum deposit is up to ₹3 crore.
• Deposit tenure ranges from 7 days to 10 years.
• State Bank of India (SBI)
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• Chairman - Challa Sreenivasulu Setty
• Founded - 1 July 1955
• Largest public sector bank in India

Additional Information

• Other SBI Deposit Schemes for Senior Citizens
• SBI WeCare - FD scheme for senior citizens offering additional interest.
• SBI Annuity Deposit - Provides fixed monthly payments.
• SBI Golden Years FD - Offers higher interest rates for senior citizens.
• SBI Global Presence
• Operates in more than 30 countries.
• Has over 22,500 branches in India.
• Ranked 48th largest bank in the world by total assets.
• SBI in Financial Rankings
• Ranked 178th in the Fortune Global 500 list (2024).
• Holds the 55th position in Forbes Global 2000 (2024).
• Only Indian bank in the Fortune Global 500 list.

The correct answer is February 1, 2025.

In News

• From February 1, 2025, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has implemented new rules restricting special characters in UPI Transaction Identifications (IDs).

Key Points

• Effective from February 1, 2025, all UPI Transaction IDs containing special characters (@, #, $, %, etc.) will be declined.
• UPI IDs must now use only alphanumeric characters (letters and numbers).
• This regulation aims to enhance security and ensure uniformity in UPI transactions.
• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
• Founded - December 19, 2008
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• MD & CEO - Dilip Asbe

Additional Information

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
• Developed by NPCI as a real-time payment system.
• Facilitates inter-bank transactions via mobile apps.
• Supports peer-to-peer and merchant payments.
• NPCI’s Key Products
• RuPay - Domestic card payment network.
• BHIM - UPI-based mobile payment app.
• Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) - Bill payment service.
• National Financial Switch (NFS) - ATM transaction processing.
• Security Measures in UPI
• UPI transactions require two-factor authentication.
• RBI and NPCI continuously update security protocols.
• New guidelines aim to reduce fraud and data breaches.

The correct answer is USD 5.1 billion.

In News

• In January 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted a dollar-rupee buy/sell foreign exchange (FX) swap auction for USD 5.1 billion.
• The auction was significantly oversubscribed, with total bids amounting to USD 25.59 billion from 253 participants.

Key Points

• RBI injected USD 5.1 billion liquidity into the banking system through an FX swap auction.
• Total bids received in the auction were USD 25.59 billion, five times the offered amount.
• The FX swap auction was conducted to manage liquidity and stabilize the rupee.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• Founded - April 1, 1935
• Headquarters - Mumbai, Maharashtra
• Governor - Sanjay Malhotra

Additional Information

• What is an FX Swap Auction?
• A monetary policy tool used by central banks to manage liquidity.
• Involves buying/selling foreign currency in exchange for domestic currency.
• Helps in controlling inflation, interest rates, and forex reserves.
• Why did RBI conduct this auction?
• To enhance USD liquidity in the banking system.
• To stabilize the Indian rupee against currency fluctuations.
• To absorb excess dollar inflows and maintain forex reserves.
• Key Officials at RBI
• Governor - Sanjay Malhotra
• Deputy Governors - M. Rajeshwar Rao, Swaminathan Janakiraman, T. Rabi Sankar

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• Part B of the sentence, i.e., 'with limited awareness even among medical professions' is erroneous.
• Here, the word "professions" in Part B should be replaced with "professionals" to make the sentence error-free because "medical professionals" is the correct term to refer to healthcare practitioners, which fits the context of the sentence better.
• "Medical professions" would suggest different healthcare fields or specialities, while "medical professionals" specifically refers to doctors, nurses, and other healthcare workers.
• Hence, the correct answer is B.
• The correct sentence would be: "Osteoporosis in India remains under-recognized and poorly understood, with limited awareness even among medical professionals, as a study in South India showed an average doctor knowledge score of just 22.5%."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Part A of the sentence, i.e., 'Across vast enormous regions of Amazonas state' is erroneous.
• Here, the word "enormous" is superfluous with "vast" because both words convey a similar meaning of great size or extent.
• Using both words together can be redundant, and it's more concise to say "vast regions" or "enormous regions," but using both is not necessary.
• Hence, the correct answer is A.
• The correct sentence would be: "Across vast regions of Amazonas state in Brazil, prolonged drought and low river levels are straining communities, forcing them to rely on improvised means to deliver essential supplies like food and water."

Additional Information

• Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
• Prolonged - continuing for a long time or extending beyond the usual or expected duration (दीर्घकालिक)
• For Example:
• The prolonged drought had a devastating impact on the region, leading to severe water shortages.
• Straining - putting excessive pressure or effort on something, often to the point of causing stress or damage (दबाव)
• For Example:
• Her constant straining to meet unrealistic work deadlines took a toll on her health.
• Improvise - to create or perform something on the spot without prior planning or preparation (आवश्यकतानुसार तैयारी करना)
• For Example:
• When the power went out, they had to improvise by using candles and flashlights to finish their work.
• Essential - absolutely necessary; extremely important or vital (आवश्यक)
• For Example:
• Clean drinking water is essential for human survival, and access to it should be a fundamental right.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Part D of the sentence, i.e., 'while the middle 74% group's income proportion grown' is erroneous.
• Here, the word "grown" should be replaced with "grew" to make this sentence error-free. "Grew" is the second form of the verb "grow," and it is the appropriate verb form to describe the change in the middle 74% group's income proportion in the past.
• Hence, the correct answer is D.
• The correct sentence would be: "The data shows a significant increase in individual taxpayers moving into higher income ranges, with the top 1% contributing a slightly smaller share of total income, while the middle 74% group's income proportion grew."

Additional Information

• Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
• Significant - important or having a great impact; noteworthy (महत्वपूर्ण)
• For Example -
• The discovery of a new cure for a deadly disease is a significant breakthrough in medical science.
• Individual - relating to one person as opposed to a group; a single person or thing (व्यक्ति)
• For Example -
• Each individual has a unique perspective on the matter.
• Taxpayers - individuals or entities who are obligated to pay taxes to the government (करदाता)
• For Example -
• The government relies on taxpayers to fund public services and infrastructure.
• Proportion - a part, share, or quantity considered about a whole; the size or number about the whole (अनुपात)
• For Example -
• The proportion of students who passed the exam compared to those who failed was quite high, indicating a successful educational program.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Part A of the sentence, i.e., 'MSMEs must adopt to green practices' is erroneous.

• In this context of the sentence, the word "adopt" is incorrect.
• The correct term is "adapt," as it conveys the idea that MSMEs need to adjust or modify their practices to align with green practices. "
• Adopt" means to take up or start using something, while "adapt" means to make changes to fit a particular situation or environment.
• Therefore, "adapt" is the appropriate word choice here.
• Let's understand the difference between "adopt" and "adapt"
• "Adopt" means to take up or accept something, often a new practice, idea, or way of doing things. It can also refer to legally taking someone else's child as one's own.
• For Example:
• She decided to adopt a vegan lifestyle and stop eating animal products.
• The couple decided to adopt a child from an orphanage.
• "Adapt" means to make changes or adjustments to fit a particular situation, environment, or set of circumstances. It involves modifying or altering something to better suit new conditions.
• For Example:
• The plant adapted to the arid climate by developing deep roots to find water.
• To succeed in the global market, the company needed to adapt its marketing strategies to local preferences.
• Hence, the correct answer is A.

The correct sentence would be: "MSMEs must adapt to green practices as automotive companies, including Indian brands, impose emissions reporting requirements on their suppliers, fostering environmental awareness and cost-saving opportunities."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Part C of the sentence, i.e., 'but its impact may be limited without changes' is erroneous.

• The pronoun "its" in part C should be replaced with "their" because the subject "investments" is plural, so it should be matched with a plural pronoun to maintain the subject-verb agreement.
• Use of "its" and "their"
• "Its" is a singular possessive pronoun used to indicate that something belongs to a singular noun.
• For Example:
• The ancient artefact displayed its intricate carvings, each telling a unique story of its own.
• (Here, the pronoun "its" is used to refer to the singular noun "artefact.")
• "Their" is a plural possessive pronoun used to indicate that something belongs to more than one person or thing.
• For Example:
• The team celebrated their hard-fought victory by raising their championship trophy.
• (Here,  the pronoun "their" is used for the plural noun "team.")
• Hence, the correct answer is C.

The correct sentence would be: "Investments in clean energy and electric mobility in India offer a unique opportunity to combat air pollution and improve health, but their impact may be limited without changes in other systems like food and mobility."

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The phrase "barking up the wrong tree" means to pursue a mistaken or misguided course of action or to direct efforts toward the wrong goal. (गलत दिशा में प्रयास करना)
• Example: The detective was barking up the wrong tree when he suspected the wrong person for the crime.
• The correct explanation for the highlighted phrase is Option 2, which states that "He was investigating the wrong person." (वह गलत व्यक्ति की जांच कर रहा था।)
• Example: Despite spending hours interrogating the witness, the officer realized he was barking up the wrong tree as the real culprit was someone else.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "He was confused and didn't know where to start." (वह भ्रमित था और उसे नहीं पता था कि कहां से शुरू करें।)
• Example: The beginner was confused about how to solve the puzzle.
• Option 3: "He was working together with the wrong team." (वह गलत टीम के साथ काम कर रहा था।)
• Example: The project failed because he was working with the wrong team.
• Option 4: "He was making loud noises to scare the suspect." (वह संदिग्ध को डराने के लिए जोर से आवाजें कर रहा था।)
• Example: The guard was shouting loudly to scare off intruders.

The correct answer is: Option 3, i.e., "Jake was awkward and clumsy."

Key Points

• The word "all thumbs" is an idiom that means being clumsy or awkward, especially with one's hands. (असुविधाजनक या बेढंगा)
• Example: When it comes to fixing gadgets, I'm all thumbs!
• Option 3, "Jake was awkward and clumsy," correctly describes the meaning of the idiom "all thumbs." (जेक बेढंगा और असुविधाजनक था)
• Example: Jake dropped the tools repeatedly, proving he was all thumbs during the team-building exercise.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "Jake was excellent at multitasking." (जेक मल्टीटास्किंग में उत्कृष्ट था)
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because "all thumbs" refers to clumsiness, not multitasking ability.
• ​Option 2: "Jake was very good with his hands." (जेक अपने हाथों से बहुत अच्छा था)
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because "all thumbs" implies the opposite—lack of skill with one's hands.
• ​Option 4: "Jake was tired and not paying attention." (जेक थका हुआ था और ध्यान नहीं दे रहा था)
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because "all thumbs" describes physical clumsiness rather than tiredness or lack of attention.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The phrase "tip of the iceberg" refers to a small, visible part of a much larger problem or issue that is hidden beneath the surface. (हिमशैल का ऊपरी हिस्सा)
• Example: The minor issues in the project were just the tip of the iceberg; there were deeper problems that needed urgent attention.
• Explanation of Correct Answer: Option 3 states that the fraud was a small part of much larger problems within the company. This is the correct interpretation of the phrase "tip of the iceberg." (हिमशैल का केवल ऊपरी हिस्सा, बड़ी समस्या का एक छोटा हिस्सा)
• Example: The delays in delivery were just the tip of the iceberg; the entire supply chain was disrupted.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: It was the largest fraud ever discovered in the company. (कंपनी में खोजा गया सबसे बड़ा धोखा)
• ​Option 2: It was a minor issue that would be resolved quickly. (यह एक मामूली समस्या थी जिसे जल्दी हल किया जा सकता था)
• ​Option 4: It was an isolated incident with no further implications. (यह एक अलग घटना थी जिसका कोई अन्य प्रभाव नहीं था)

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'orinate'.

• The correct spelling would be 'ornate'.
• The word 'ornate' is an adjective which means 'made in an intricate shape or decorated with complex patterns'. (सजावटी)
• For Example -
• The ornate carvings on the ancient temple were breathtaking.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'orinate'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Brimmed - filled or be full to the point of overflowing (भर जाना)
• Logorrhea - (अत्यधिक बकवास)
• Overwhelmed - give too much of something to someone; inundated (अभिभूत)

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'stubornly'.

• The correct spelling would be 'stubbornly'.
• The word 'stubbornly' is an adverb which means 'in a way that shows determination not to change one's attitude or position' (हठपूर्वक)
• For Example - She stubbornly refused to admit she was wrong.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'stubornly'.

Additional Information

Let’s understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Mumpsimus - a stubborn person who insists on making an error in spite of being shown it is wrong (हठी व्यक्ति)
• Frustrated - feeling annoyed or less confident because one cannot achieve something (हताश)
• Adaptability - the quality of being able to adjust to new conditions (अनुकूलन क्षमता)

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

All the highlighted words in the sentence are correctly spelt.

• Neologism means 'a newly coined word or expression'.
• Quantum refers to 'a discrete quantity of energy proportional in magnitude to the frequency of the radiation it represents'.
• Mainstream implies 'the ideas, attitudes, or activities that are shared by most people and regarded as normal or conventional'.
• Linguistic pertains to 'language or linguistics'.

Since all words are correctly spelt, the correct answer is option 5.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'hormony'.

• The correct spelling would be 'harmony'.
• The word 'harmony' is a noun which means 'the quality of forming a pleasing and consistent whole'. (सामंजस्य)
• For Example -
• The choir sang in perfect harmony.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'hormony'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Anfractuous - winding or circuitous (घुमावदार)
• Impractical - not adapted for use or action; not sensible (अव्यावहारिक)
• Geometry - the branch of mathematics concerned with the properties and relations of points, lines, surfaces, and solids (ज्यामिति)

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. BDEA

• The coherent paragraph is about The Flu in full flight. The avian flu must be stopped before sustained transmission among humans.
• Sentence C is about economic insecurity, which is an odd one out of the main theme.
• Now try to rearrange the sentences.
• Sentence E can't be the first statement contextually.
• Sentence A  can't be the first statement contextually because it is starting with the word 'too'.
• Sentence C is the odd one out and options 1,3 and 4 have 'C' in them, it will be eliminated.
• Now we try to rearrange by option 2 i.e. BDEA which will form the correct sequence of the paragraph.

Correct option: BDEA 

Correct sequence:  *'*Just three months after India declared itself to be free of the avian influenza outbreak, the highly pathogenic avian influenza subtypes, H5N1 and H5N8, have been reported from a dozen epicenters in four States Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, and Kerala. Also, thousands of poultry birds have died in Haryana, while Jharkhand and Gujarat,  too, have sounded an alarm; the cause in these three States is still unknown.'

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• The phrase which we should choose to connect the sentences is Only 1.
• 'Due to' means 'because of' or 'caused by'. So, the phrase 'Due to the effects' would join the sentences appropriately.
• 'However' means 'in whatever way'. Hence, we should not choose the phrase 'However the effects' to join the given sentences.
• The word 'which' is used at the beginning of an interrogative sentence. Clearly, the phrase 'Which soil erosion' is inappropriate' for the given sentences.

The sentence after using the phrase is: Soil erosion is considered to be the leading global cause of diffuse water pollution, due to the effects of the excess sediments flowing into the world's waterways.

Additional Information

Erosion: decay

Considered: took into account or regarded as

Diffuse: spread out

Sediments: matter that settles to the bottom of a liquid or remains

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

• The phrase which we should choose to connect the sentences is Only 2.
• The word 'which' is used to refer to something which is previously mentioned in the sentence. So, the phrase 'Which helps' would join the sentences appropriately.
• 'For' is used to express the purpose of something. Hence, the phrase 'For it helps' is not appropriate for the given sentences.
• 'As' means 'because'. Therefore, we should not choose the phrase 'As the most' to join the sentences.

The sentence after using the phrase is: The most effective known method for erosion prevention is to increase vegetative cover on the land, which helps prevent both wind and water erosion.

Additional Information

Effective: successful

Erosion: decay 

Prevention: the act of stopping something from happening

Increase: to grow

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points 

• The phrase which we should choose to connect the sentences is Only 2.
• The word 'Whose' is used when we try to say 'of whom or which'. So, the phrase 'Whose member countries' would join the sentences appropriately.
• 'Hence' means 'for this reason'. Therefore, the phrase 'Hence its member' is not appropriate for the given sentences.
• The sentence after using the phrase is: A free-trade area is the region encompassing a trade bloc whose member countries have signed a free-trade agreement.

Additional Information

Region: area

Bloc: association

Agreement: harmony in opinion

The correct answer is C-R.

Key Points

Let us look at the sentence combinations:

• Phrase C of column 1 should be matched with the phrase R of column 2 to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• "A five-star hotel's chef is more professional than the home cook".
• ​Phrase C cannot be used with either phrase P and phrase Q because it would not make a meaningful sentence.
• A five-star hotel's chef is more like a chef improving a recipe.
• A five-star hotel's chef is more we often improve our habits.

The correct answer is A-R.

Key Points

Let us look at the sentence combinations:

• Phrase A of column 1 should be matched with the phrase R of column 2 to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• It often takes time for the desired results to appear.
• ​Phrase A cannot be used with either phrase P and phrase Q because it would not make a meaningful sentence.​
• It often takes time for and this is where a habit tracker helps.
• It often takes time for perhaps I was running form a month.

The correct answer is B-Q and C-P.

Key Points

Let us look at the sentence combinations:

• Phrase B of column 1 should be matched with the phrase Q of column 2 to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• "There are many meetings held that don’t need to be held".
• ​​Phrase B cannot be used with either phrase P and phrase R because it would not make a meaningful sentence.
• There are many meetings held than not having a meeting at all.
• There are many meetings held this statement reminds me.
• ​Phrase C of column 1 should be matched with the phrase P of column 2 to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• There is no meeting that goes faster than not having a meeting at all.
• ​​​Phrase C cannot be used with either phrase Q and phrase R because it would not make a meaningful sentence.
• There is no meeting that goes faster that don’t need to be held.
• There is no meeting that goes faster this statement reminds me.

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. refined, behavioural.

• From the context of the sentence, the adjectives should be used in the given blanks.
• Let us explore the options:
• The first option is incorrect as 'refines' is used as a noun. 'Behavioural' is still okay for the second blank but 'refines' is not fit for the first blank.
• The second option is correct as 'refined' is used as an adjective describing the noun 'customer' and 'behavioural' is also used as an adjective describing the noun 'science'.
• The third option is incorrect as 'refine' is used as the base form of the verb. 'Behaviour' is used as a noun.
• The fourth option is incorrect as 'refining' is used as a noun. 'Behavioural' is still okay for the second blank but 'refining' is not fit for the first blank.
• The fifth option is incorrect as 'behaviours' is used as a noun. 'Refined' is still okay for the first blank but 'behaviours' is not fit for the second blank.
• Hence, the correct option is "refined, behavioural".

​​Complete Sentence: Demand aggregators engage in refined customer segmentation, based on the use of behavioural science and extensive customer research.

• Important Tips and Tricks to solve double fillers: 
• Do not read options: Read the sentence and think of a word that 'fits' the sentence. Now go to the options and choose the word that best replaces the word that you had thought of initially.
• Elimination method: In certain questions, our knowledge and understanding of vocabulary and common idioms-phrases may be tested. Hence, be sure to have a good skill set of such phrases.
• Use grammar clues: Keep a close watch at the tense of the sentence, forms of the verb, subject-verb agreement, whether the blank in the sentence is after the article 'an' etc.
• Use Connotation: Each word expresses two things: a definition and a connotation. A connotation is a positive, negative, or neutral feeling that is implied by or associated with a word.
• Identify the Indicators: Indicators tell us what is coming up. They indicate if the question is moving to draw a contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.

The correct answer is 'anticipated, reviving'.

Key Points

• What happened ahead of the Union Budget is mentioned in the given sentence.
• The meaning of the word 'inspired' is 'to motivate' and it is not making the sentence contextually meaningful. So, we cannot choose the word 'inspired' for the first blank. Hence, option 1) is not the answer.
• The meaning of the word 'erect' is 'to build'. It is not appropriate for the first blank because the word is not making the sentence grammatically or contextually correct. Hence, option 3) is not the correct answer.
• The meaning of the word 'erased' is 'wiped out' and it is not appropriate for the first blank. Hence, option 5) is not the answer.
• Option 4) is the best fit.
• The meaning of the word 'anticipated' is 'expected or predicted' and we can say that something was predicted ahead of the budget.
• The meaning of the word 'reviving' is 'to restore to life' and it is appropriate for the second blank.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words: 

• Revisit: to visit again
• Relate: connect with
• Expect: to hope for

Correct sentence: The boost to the Infrastructure sector was anticipated ahead of the Union Budget and does play a key role in reviving demand in the economy.

The correct answer is 'looking, control'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is about cryptocurrency and its effects on startups.
• The word 'learning' is not appropriate because it is not making the sentence both grammatically or contextually correct. Hence, option 1) is not the answer.
• The word 'keeping' is not suitable for the first blank because it is grammatically incorrect. Hence, option 2) is not the answer.
• The word 'looking' is appropriate for the first blank because the phrase 'looking for' means 'to find someone or something'.
• The word 'control' which means 'power or authority' is appropriate for the second blank. Hence, option 3) is the best fit.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

• Confusion: lack of certainty
• Promise: to give one's words

Correct sentence: The startups are now looking for clarity on the term ‘private’ as cryptocurrencies are based on a distributed and decentralized network that allows them to function beyond the control of the government or any regulatory authorities similar to the internet.

The correct answer is 'enabling, generate'.

Key Points

• The given sentence mentions what the upcoming budget should be focussed on.
• The article 'an' is used before the first blank. Therefore, we cannot choose the words which begin with consonants.
• Hence, option 2) and option 3) should be eliminated.
• Option 1) is the best fit.
• The meaning of the word 'enabling' is 'making something easier'.
• The word 'enabling' is suitable for the first blank because a proper environment is required for 'entrepreneurship and small businesses'.
• The meaning of the word 'generate' is 'to give rise to'.
• The word 'generate' is appropriate for the second blank because productive firms would increase employment.
• The meaning of the word 'imprecise' is 'unspecific or lacking exactness'. Clearly, it is not relevant to the context. Hence, option 4) should be eliminated.
• The word 'enjoin', which means 'to encourage' is a verb. Hence, option 5) should be eliminated.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

• Restore: to put back
• Terminate: bring to an end
• Managing: controlling

Correct sentence: The upcoming budget should be focussed on creating an enabling environment for entrepreneurship and small businesses to thrive, creating productive firms that will in turn generate more formal employment in times to come.

The correct answer is 'extend, encouraging'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is about the recent move of the Central government.
• Option 1) is the best fit.
• The meaning of the word 'extend' is 'to expand or make greater'.
• The word 'extend' is appropriate for the first blank as it is expressing the purpose of the move.
• The meaning of the word 'encouraging' is 'giving support'.
• The word 'encouraging' is suitable for the second blank. We can say that the move is encouraging because its purpose is to expand something.
• Option 2) is the correct option.
• The meaning of the word 'disrupt' is 'to throw into confusion or disorder'.
• The word 'disrupt' is not suitable for the first blank because it cannot be the purpose of the action taken by the government.
• Option 3) should not be the answer.
• The meaning of the word 'exploit' is 'to take advantage of' or 'to treat unfairly'.
• Clearly, the word 'exploit' not the appropriate word for the first blank.
• Option 4) is not the correct option.
• The meaning of the word 'extensive' is 'large in amount'.
• The word 'extensive' is an adjective and we need a verb for the first blank. Therefore, the word 'extensive' is not appropriate.
• Option 5) is not the correct option.
• The meaning of the word 'expect' is 'to hope for'.
• The word 'expect' is not suitable for the first blank because it is not making any meaningful sentence.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

• Preventive: designed to prevent disease or ill health
• Intensifying: become more intense
• Appropriate: suitable or proper
• Glorified: gave praise to

Correct sentence: The central government’s recent move to extend the production linked incentives scheme to the automobile sector including for manufacturing of Advanced Chemistry Cells is an encouraging move.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The passage clearly highlights that the most compelling property of Anipus Manila is its powerful antibacterial and antifungal capabilities.
• These properties make it a potential alternative to conventional antibiotics, which are becoming less effective due to antibiotic resistance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Supporting Sentence: “The most compelling property of Anipus Manila is its powerful antibacterial and antifungal capabilities.”

Additional Information

• Option 1) Its extraordinary ability to produce oxygen at a faster rate – The passage mentions its CO2 absorption capabilities, not specifically oxygen production rate.
• Option 3) Its role in preventing soil erosion – Mentioned as a beneficial characteristic, but not the most compelling property.
• Option 4) Its contribution to maintaining biodiversity – Mentioned as an ecological benefit, but not the most compelling property.
• Option 5) Its unusual growth rate compared to other ferns – Not mentioned in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage describes Anipus Manila's ability to reduce global warming by absorbing and sequestering carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.
• This process helps mitigate the greenhouse effect and contributes to climate change reduction.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Supporting Sentence: “The plant has an extraordinary ability to absorb and sequester carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere at a rate significantly higher than most other plants. By absorbing large amounts of CO2, Anipus Manila helps mitigate the greenhouse effect, subsequently reducing the average global temperature and combating climate change."

Additional Information

• Option 1) Reflecting sunlight back into space – Not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 2) Releasing sulfur compounds that seed clouds – Not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4) Stabilizing methane levels in the soil – Not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 5) Improving nitrogen fixation in the environment – Not mentioned in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Statement A: Anipus Manila was discovered in the dry regions of Southeast Asia.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage states that Anipus Manila was discovered in the dense tropical forests of Southeast Asia, not the dry regions.
• Statement B: The plant plays a role in reducing reliance on synthetic antibiotics.
• This statement is correct as the passage mentions that the biocompounds in Anipus Manila offer promising alternatives to conventional antibiotics, potentially reducing reliance on synthetic antibiotics.
• Statement C: Its root systems help in promoting soil acidity.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage states that the robust root systems help in preventing soil erosion and maintaining soil health, but does not mention anything about promoting soil acidity.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Only B.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Statement A: Anipus Manila has biocompounds exhibiting strong inhibitory effects on bacteria and fungi.
• This statement is correct as per the passage, which mentions that the biocompounds in Anipus Manila exhibit strong antibacterial and antifungal effects.
• Statement B: It has no significance in combating antibiotic resistance.
• This statement is incorrect as the passage states that Anipus Manila holds potential for developing new medications to treat resistant infections and reduce reliance on synthetic antibiotics, indicating its significance in combating antibiotic resistance.
• Statement C: Large scale cultivation of Anipus Manila could increase levels of breathable oxygen in the atmosphere.
• This statement is correct as the passage mentions that large-scale cultivation could increase the levels of breathable oxygen in the atmosphere.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Only B.

The correct answer is 'inhibitory'.

Key Points

• The word "inhibitory" means causing or tending to slow down or prevent a process, reacting to the context of antibacterial and antifungal effects.
• In the context of the passage, the biocompounds identified in Anipus Manila are described as having effects that prevent or inhibit the growth of bacteria and fungi.
• The other options: "stimulatory", "promotional", "beneficial", and "supportive" do not fit the context of the described effects.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Scientists studying this plant have identified several biocompounds that exhibit strong inhibitory effects on a range of bacteria and fungi.

Additional Information

• Stimulatory (उत्तेजक): causing or encouraging a process or activity to begin or develop more vigorously.
• Promotional (प्रचारक): of, relating to, or used for promotion.
• Beneficial (लाभकारी): resulting in good; advantageous.
• Supportive (समर्थनकारी): providing assistance or support.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage explicitly states that a significant factor contributing to startup failures is a lack of market demand.
• Many entrepreneurs fail to thoroughly research whether there is a genuine need for their products or services, leading to this issue.
• This misstep can be attributed to an excessive zeal to innovate without validating the concept with potential customers.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Supporting Sentence: “A significant factor contributing to startup failures is a lack of market demand. Many entrepreneurs build products or services without thoroughly researching whether there is a genuine need for them.”

Additional Information

• Option 1) Inadequate office space – Not mentioned in this context.
• Option 2) Poor marketing techniques – Not mentioned in this context.
• Option 4) Overqualification of employees – Not mentioned in this context.
• Option 5) Insufficient use of technology – Not mentioned in this context.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes that many entrepreneurs fail to conduct comprehensive market research before launching a product.
• This lack of research leads to a critical misstep, as the product might not meet a genuine market need.
• Adequate market research can provide valuable insights into customer needs and preferences, essential for informed decision-making.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Supporting Sentence: “A significant factor contributing to startup failures is a lack of market demand. Many entrepreneurs build products or services without thoroughly researching whether there is a genuine need for them.”

Additional Information